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52 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is an elution?
A) a technique used to dissociate IgM antibodies from sensitized red blood cells B) a technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized red blood cells C) a technique used to reduce the zeta potential enhancing antigen binding D) none of the above |
B) a technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized red blood cells
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Why are Lewis antibodies not generally implicated in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
A) Lewis antigens are well developed at birth. B) Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta. C) Lewis antigens can readily dissociate from the red cell upon transfusion of Lewis-positive cells. D) Lewis antibodies do not bind complement. |
B) Lewis antibodies are IgM and cannot cross the placenta.
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What is the purpose of Coombs control cells?
A) to ensure that AHG tests with negative results are not false negatives B) to ensure that washing removed all unbound antibody C) to ensure that AHG was not omitted or inactivated D) all of the above |
D) all of the above
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A blood bank technologist needed to confirm the presence of anti-P1 in a patient specimen. Fresh cells were not available for use, so an old panel that contained cells positive for P1 was used. No cells positive for the antigen reacted at any phase of the antiglobulin test, whereas cells from the screening cells showed specificity for the presence of anti-P1. What is a possible explanation for this?
A) Technician omitted LISS. B) Patient expresses the p phenotype. C) P1 antigen deteriorates rapidly upon storage. D) Technician forgot to add AHG. |
C) P1 antigen deteriorates rapidly upon storage.
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How does LISS enhance antibody detection in the antibody screen?
A) increases the incubation times, which increases the sensitivity of the test B) increases the zeta potential promoting agglutination of sensitized red blood cells C) increases the rate at which antibody binds to red blood cell antigens D) two of the above |
C) increases the rate at which antibody binds to red blood cell antigens
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6.
Where are the Duffy antigens found? A) red cells B) platelets C) lymphocytes D) all of the above |
a) red blood cells
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The mating of an Xg+ man with an Xg- woman would produce a son with what phenotype?
A) Xg(a+) B) Xg(a-) C) All of the above D) None of the above |
b) Xg (a-)
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What is the ISBT designation for the Lutheran blood group system?
A) LN B) LU C) LT D) LR |
b) LU
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In interpreting an antibody screen, which of the following questions might be asked to decipher the class of antibody?
A) Is the autologous control positive or negative? B) Is hemolysis present? C) In what phase did the reaction occur? D) Is rouleaux present? |
C) In what phase did the reaction occur?
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Anti-Lua reacts at what temperature?
A) room temperature B) 37°C C) AHG D) all of the above |
a) room temperature
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Individuals who are Le(a-b-) and can develop Lewis antibodies without exposure to Lewis antigens are called:
A) immune mediated B) biphasic C) naturally occurring D) autoantibodies |
c) naturally occuring
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What does the "U" in U antigen stand for?
A) unusual B) universal C) uniform D) unique |
b) universal
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Why are screening cells group O?
A) to prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum B) to prevent interference with A and B antigens on patient cells C) because group O cells are easier to acquire in random populations D) because group O cells contain antigens to clinically significant antibodies |
A) to prevent interference with anti-A and anti-B in patient serum
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A) in vitro sensitization of red blood cell (RBC) with antigen
B) in vitro sensitization of RBC with antibody C) in vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody D) in vivo sensitization of RBC with antigen |
C) in vivo sensitization of RBC with antibody
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The Kell gene is located on the long arm of which chromosome?
A) 5 B) 7 C) 9 D) 11 |
b) 7
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Where are Lewis antigens found?
A) plasma B) saliva C) milk D) all of the above |
d) all of the above
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The homozygous phenotype Fy(a+b-) has _______ antigenic Fy“ sites than heterozygous cells, Fy(a+b+).
A) more B) less C) weaker D) none of the above |
a) more
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At what age does I antigen become detectable on infant cells?
A) 1 year B) 18 months C) 4 years D) 1 month |
b) 18 months
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Where are the Kell blood group antigens found?
A) red cells B) platelets C) lymphocytes D) all of the above |
a) red cells
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What effect do enzyme treated cells have on anti-I detection?
A) enhances reactivity B) destroys reactivity C) no effect D) none of the above |
a) enhances reactivity
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Serologic tests determine a person's:
A) genotype B) haplotype C) phenotype D) all of the above |
c) phenotype
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What is Kell's antithetical partner?
A) Penney B) Cellano C) Sutter D) Rautenberg |
b) cellano
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What antibody is associated with a mixed-field reaction?
A) Lea B) K C) Sda D) E |
c) Sda
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What is the definition of a blood group system?
A) a group of antibodies produced by alleles at a single gene locus B) a group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus C) a group of antibodies produced by alleles at multiple genetic loci D) a group of antigens produced by alleles at multiple genetic loci |
B) a group of antigens produced by alleles at a single gene locus
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What might a positive antibody screen and a negative autocontrol indicate?
A) An alloantibody is coating donor cells after a transfusion. B) An autoantibody has been detected. C) An alloantibody has been detected. D) Drug-induced antibody reacting with patient cells. |
C) An alloantibody has been detected.
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Which population has the greatest frequency of the Fy(a-b-) phenotype?
A) white B) black C) Asian D) Native American |
b) black
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At birth, infant cells are rich in ______, and ______ is nearly undetectable.
A) I/i B) I/H C) i/I D) none of the above |
c) i/I
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Persons who phenotype as Fy(a-b-) are resistant to infection by which organism?
A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Plasmodium vivax C) Plasmodium ovale D) Plasmodium malariae |
b) plasmodium vivax
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What is the ISBT designation for the Kidd blood group system?
A) 101 B) 009 C) 002 D) 107 |
b) 009
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All of the following is true regarding the Kell antigen except:
A) well developed at birth B) exhibits dosage C) destroyed by ficin treatment D) strongly immunogenic |
a) well developed at birth
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One drop of Coombs control cells was added to a negative antibody screen. No agglutination was observed after centrifugation. What course of action is taken?
A) report negative result B) report inconclusive result C) repeat the test D) add one more drop of check cells and recentrifuge |
C) repeat the test
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What is the purpose of saline washing in the antibody screen procedure?
A) removal of bound IgG that would otherwise neutralize the AHG reagent B) removal of unbound IgG that would neutralize the AHG reagent C) stripping of the red blood cell membrane for alloantibody binding D) removal of unbound IgM that would neutralize AHG reagent |
B) removal of unbound IgG that would neutralize the AHG reagent
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Where are the Kidd antigens found?
A) red cells B) platelets C) lymphocytes D) monocytes |
a) red cells
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All of the following antigens are interacted by proteolytic enzymes except:
A) C B) Fya C) M D) S |
a) C
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What percentage of the female population is Xg(a+)?
A) 50% B) 66% C) 89% D) 40% |
c) 89%
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A positive autocontrol in antibody detection procedures is usually indicative of:
A) inadequate washing B) positive DAT C) positive IAT D) two of the above |
B) positive DAT
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What makes up an autologous control?
A) patient serum and patient cells B) patient serum and screening cells C) patient cells and Rh control D) none of the above |
A) patient serum and patient cells
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Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating red blood cells?
A) monospecific B) polyspecific C) standardized D) irradiated |
A) monospecific
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Which antigen is useful as a genetic marker for Mongolian derivation and anthropologic studies?
A) Yta B) Dia C) Xga D) Doa |
b) Dia
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At which phase are Lewis antibodies usually detected?
A) immediate spin B) 37°C C) Coombs D) all of the above |
a) immediate spin
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What is the etiology of chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
A) muscular degeneration caused by a mutated X gene B) phagocytes unable to generate hydrogen peroxide, which kills invading bacteria C) alteration in red cell membrane allowing passage by bacteria D) inability to generate leukocytes from the bone marrow |
B) phagocytes unable to generate hydrogen peroxide, which kills invading bacteria
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42.
Anti-M will react strongest with which cells? A) M+N- B) M+N+ C) M-N- D) M-N+ |
A) M+N-
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Employee training takes place:
A) before procedures are validated B) after competence assessments C) before flowcharting the process D) after hiring and after implementing new procedures |
D) after hiring and after implementing new procedures
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What department evaluates and certifies employee credentials and determines the literacy of the employee?
A) human resources B) laboratory C) administration D) education |
A) human resources
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When a new assay is implemented what measure is taken to determine equivalency?
A) lot to lot testing of new and old lot numbers of reagent B) work-flow reorientation C) daily quality control D) calibration |
A) lot to lot testing of new and old lot numbers of reagent
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Which of the following is not regarded as an instrument?
A) automated analyzer B) pipettor C) washer D) cuvette |
D) cuvette
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Which of the following might lead to unacceptable quality control results?
A) a technician who has not worked in the area for several months B) a deteriorated "Anti-A" C) an uncalibrated serofuge D) all of the above |
D) all of the above
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Blood collected in a red-top tube and a lavender tube was sent through a tube system to the stat lab. The blood specimens were not labeled with any type of identification of the patient. The medical technologist called the emergency room (ER) to notify them of the problem. The ER nurse stated she wanted the tubes sent back to the ER and that she would label them. The stat lab technologist stated the lab's policy on unlabeled specimens and that they would be discarded. At that point a disgruntled nurse stated she would write up a(n) _______________ for the lab's refusal to analyze blood on an emergency patient.
A) employee evaluation B) incident report C) patient report D) flow chart |
B) incident report
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A standard operating procedure (SOP) is:
A) a statement of intent, or course of action B) a description of resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs C) a set of directions for how to perform a particular task D) a form on which to record results |
C) a set of directions for how to perform a particular task
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Which of the following is used to determine if reagents and equipment are functioning prior to testing?
A) critical control points B) control charts C) quality assurance D) quality control |
D) quality control
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All of the following are transfusion service quality assurance indicators used to monitor patient care except:
A) labeling errors on specimens sent to the blood bank B) reason for return of blood products C) number of therapeutic units drawn D) turnaround time on antibody identification |
C) number of therapeutic units drawn
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Which of the following is an example of an external customer?
A) a night-shift medical technologist B) a blood donor C) an intravenous nurse D) housekeeping employee |
B) a blood donor
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