Biochem 11-18

Front 1

Biosynthesis of RN Which of following statements describes a difference between replication of DNAand transcription of RNA?

Back 1

Both strands of DNA are copied in replication, but usuallyonly one is copied in transcription.

Front 2

Biosynthesis of 2 Which of following statements concerning RNA transcription is false?

Back 2

Synthesis of RNA is as accurate as synthesis of DNA

Front 3

Biosynthesis of 3 Which of following statements concerning RNA transcription is false?

Back 3

Transcription requires the use of a primer.

Front 4

Biosynthesis of 4 The enzyme principally responsible for RNA synthesis in Escherichia coli

Back 4

is a multisubunit enzyme

Front 5

Biosynthesis of 5 The end of the new mRNA molecule in E.coli. usually terminates in a string of A's

Back 5

False

Front 6

Biosynthesis of 6 Which of the following correctly describes a difference between RNA & DNApolymerases?

Back 6

DNA polymerases usually require a primer (i.e., they can onlycontinue a strand, not start one), while most RNA polymerases do not.

Front 7

How do the core enzyme and the holoenzyme of RNA polymerase differ in E. coli?

Back 7

The holoenzyme includes the sigma (s) subunit, the coreenzyme does not.

Front 8

Which of these terms does not describe the DNA strand used to direct RNA synthesis?

Back 8

Coding strand

Front 9

At what point does the sigma (s) subunit of RNA polymerasereleased from the core enzyme?

Back 9

After transcription begins and about 10 nucleotides have been added to the RNA chain.

Front 10

RNA synthesis begins at the base in the DNA sequence designated by the following number:

Back 10

+1 (plus one)

Front 11

What is the function of the sigma (s) subunit of RNA polymerase in E. coli?

Back 11

It recognizes promoters where transcription should begin.

Front 12

Which of the following is not a property of the sigma (s) subunit?

Back 12

It stays with the RNA Pol throughout synthesis.

Front 13

Which of the following is not part of the core promoter?

Back 13

the UP element

Front 14

The promoter site is

Back 14

the site on DNA at which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription

Front 15

Which of the following offers the best description of aPribnow box?

Back 15

A promoter consensus sequence located at approximately -10.

Front 16

Initiation of RNA biosynthesis involves

Back 16

conversion of the closed-promoter complex to the open-promoter complex

Front 17

Consensus sequences are

Back 17

sequences that have many bases in common

Front 18

What provides the energy for rho-dependent chain termination?

Back 18

ATP hydrolysis distinct from any incorporation into thechain.

Front 19

Minor differences in the consensus sequence for RNA Polymerase

Back 19

can be exploited to vary the amount of mRNA which is synthesized from that gene.

Front 20

Which of the following best describes the order of events at the promoter?

Back 20

closed complex ® open complex ® transcription initiation

Front 21

What provides the energy for the conversion from the open complex to chain elongation?

Back 21

Torsional stress built into the separating DNA strands.

Front 22

Chain termination occurs, invivo, when:

Back 22

Either a hairpin loop forms or rho (r) is involved.

Front 23

In prokaryotic RNA synthesis

Back 23

inverted-repeat sequences in the DNA being transcribed canlead to termination

Front 24

What is the need for a primer strand in transcription?

Back 24

There is none.

Front 25

Which is not associated with bacterial promoters?

Back 25

3' antiterminator

Front 26

Which of the following is true concerning the firstnucleotide incorporated into an RNA chain?

Back 26

The first nucleotide incorporated into the RNA chain retainsits 5'-triphosphate

Front 27

The weakness of A-U base pairs at the end of the RNA moleculemay help in dissociation of the new RNA product.

Back 27

True

Front 28

There is only one sigma subunit, since the same RNA Polymerase must bind to all genes in E.coli.

Back 28

False

Front 29

How do enhancers differ from promoters?

Back 29

Enhancers do not bind RNA polymerase.

Front 30

Which of the following is the best description of an operon?

Back 30

A group of genes under the control of a common promoter.

Front 31

Operons

Back 31

are subject to positive or to negative control.

Front 32

Which of the following influence the amount of expression of an operon?

Back 32

Availability of the specific sigma factor for that operon.b. Howwell the Pribnow box conforms to the consensus sequence.c.Attenuation mechanisms.d.Presence of 3' 5' cyclic AMP.*e. All ofthese.

Front 33

Which of the following doesnot influence the timingof expression of an operon?

Back 33

Repressors

Front 34

A mutation in the lac A gene would result in

Back 34

normal operation of the lac operon, but with an alteration inthe proteins encoded by the lac A gene

Front 35

Cyclic AMP affects transcription by

Back 35

triggering the action of several protein factors

Front 36

A single operon

Back 36

usually contains all the enzymes which are specific for thesynthesis of a special biomolecule.

Front 37

All of the following apply to attenuation mechanisms, except:

Back 37

The rate of RNA synthesis is regulated by the conformation ofthe protein being synthesized.

Front 38

Which of the conditions would result in the greatest amount of transcription of thelac operon?

Back 38

IV

low high

Front 39

Attenuation mechanisms rely on alternative secondarystructures forming in the mRNA.

Back 39

True

Front 40

Which of the following is not a characteristic of catabolite activator protein (CAP)?

Back 40

the binding of CAP to DNA requires ATP hydrolysis

Front 41

Which of the conditions would result in the least amount of transcription of the lac operon?

Back 41

high low

Front 42

Control of transcription in prokaryotes does not involve

Back 42

leucine zipper proteins

Front 43

Inducers for operons are often structurally related to theenzyme substrates of that operon.

Back 43

True

Front 44

Inducers allow for a system in which an enzyme is not madeunless it is needed.

Back 44

True

Front 45

The catabolite activator protein can overcome the effect of arepressor binding to the operon.

Back 45

True

Front 46

Which of the following is true about riboswitches:

Back 46

They have a molecule sensing domain called an aptamerb. Thereare known pathogens that use riboswitches as part of their mechanismc. Theyrespond to specific molecules and control translation in a way that is oftensimilar to transcription attenuationd. Theycontain a sensing domain and a decision making domain*e. All ofthese

Front 47

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic andprokaryotic RNA polymerases, is false?

Back 47

Eukaryotic polymerases have the same number of subunits asprokaryotic ones.

Front 48

Which enzyme transcribes genes encoding tRNA in eukaryotes?

Back 48

RNA polymerase III

Front 49

Which of the following isnot a key step in the activation of mRNA synthesis in eukaryotes?

Back 49

Binding of RNA Pol I.

Front 50

Which of the following statements about the various RNAPolymerases in eukaryotes is false?

Back 50

Eukaryotic RNA polymerases are generally monomeric.

Front 51

How do eukaryotic and prokaryotic RNA polymerases compare?

Back 51

Despite their added complexity, eukaryotic and prokaryoticRNA polymerases are generally homologous.

Front 52

Where is the TATA box located?

Back 52

-25 region.

Front 53

TATA-binding protein (TBP) is required for transcription by

Back 53

Pol I.b. Pol II.c. PolIII.*d. all ofthese polymerases

Front 54

Phosphorylation of the CTD of RNA polymerase II occurs duringwhich phase of transcription?

Back 54

conversion from the closed complex to the open complex

Front 55

Transcription in eukaryotes differs from RNA synthesis inprokaryotes

Back 55

by having multiple RNA polymerases rather than one.

Front 56

RNA polymerases from prokaryotes and eukaryotes

Back 56

have sequence homology in catalytic subunits

Front 57

A transcription factor is

Back 57

a protein other than RNA polymerase that is involved intranscription.

Front 58

Initiation of transcription in eukaryotes is primarilycontrolled

Back 58

in the formation of the preinitiation complex

Front 59

The eukaryotic TATA-binding protein (TBP) functions in amanner similar to

Back 59

sigma (s) factor in E.coli.

Front 60

Which of the following transcription factors is involved inthe elongation phase of eukaryotic transcription?

Back 60

TFIIF

Front 61

The elongation and termination phases of eukaryotictranscription

Back 61

require several protein factors

Front 62

Which of the following is not true?

Back 62

RNA Pol IV is the primary RNA synthesizer in plants

Front 63

The major difference between RNA initiation in eukaryotes andprokaryotes is the number of factors involved in the process.

Back 63

True

Front 64

One rather unusual transcription factor in eukaryotes haltsRNA synthesis to allow for repair of damaged DNA.

Back 64

True

Front 65

Response elements

Back 65

are enhancers of transcription activated by metabolic factors

Front 66

As in prokaryotes, the regulatory regions for eukaryoticgenes:

Back 66

may be close to the genes they controlb. may beupstream of the genes they controlc. may bedownstream of the genes they control*d. All ofthese are true

Front 67

Intracellular levels of cyclic AMP can affect thephosphorylation of proteins and enzymes as a secondary messenger.

Back 67

True

Front 68

RNA transcribed from the coding strand instead of thetemplate strand

Back 68

is called antisense RNA.

Front 69

Proteins that recognize DNA with specific base sequences are

Back 69

more likely to bind to the major groove.

Front 70

The leucine zipper is different from other DNA bindingdomains, since it requires the DNA-binding protein to form a dimer.

Back 70

False

Front 71

DNA binding domains are distinct from transcription-activationdomains.

Back 71

True

Front 72

Which of the following is not a structural motif encounteredin DNA-binding proteins?

Back 72

b-barrel

Front 73

CREB contains the following structural motif:

Back 73

Leucine zipper

Front 74

Which of the following best describes leucine zipper motifs?

Back 74

They allow protein-protein interactions via hydrophobicbonds.

Front 75

Which of the following isnot a common modification occurring after polymerization of RNA?

Back 75

Addition of phosphate to the bases.

Front 76

Alternative removal of exons from mRNA is important in whichof the following?

Back 76

Troponins and other contractile proteins.b.Different types of collagen.c. Thedisease lupus.d.Alzheimer's disease.*e. All ofthese.

Front 77

Capping of eukaryotic mRNA

Back 77

occurs at the 5' end.

Front 78

Polyadenylation of eukaryotic mRNA

Back 78

occurs at the 3' end.

Front 79

Which of the following RNAs is noted for having a"cloverleaf" structure?

Back 79

tRNA

Front 80

In eukaryotes, which of the following types of RNA undergosome base modification after polymerization of the monomers?

Back 80

mRNAb. tRNAc. rRNAd. mRNAand tRNAe. mRNAand rRNA*f. all ofthese

Front 81

The sequences in eukaryotic DNA known as introns are

Back 81

the intervening sequences not expressed in the final sequenceof messenger RNA

Front 82

A commonly encountered feature of transfer RNA synthesis is

Back 82

the precursor of several tRNA molecules is transcribed in onelong polynucleotide sequence

Front 83

Post-transcription processing of mRNA in prokaryotes isrequired.

Back 83

False

Front 84

The lariat mechanism has been demonstrated by observing thelariat structure using electron microscopy.

Back 84

True

Front 85

Alternative splicing of exons is a mechanism to get more than1 protein from the same gene.

Back 85

True

Front 86

Which ends of eukaryotic mRNA are protected from degradation?

Back 86

Both ends

Front 87

Which ends of prokaryotic mRNA are protected fromdegradation?

Back 87

Neither end

Front 88

Splicing reactions for exons involve the followingmechanisms, except:

Back 88

Small nuclear RNAsb.Ribozymesc. Lariatmechanismsd.Participation of special G residues*e. All ofthese are involved in splicing reactions

Front 89

Ribozymes, the catalytic activity of RNA, were firstdiscovered as part of the snRNA group.

Back 89

True

Front 90

Which category of ribozymes requires an external guanosinefrothier action?

Back 90

Group I

Front 91

Ribozymes

Back 91

are involved in protein synthesis

Front 92

Which of the following is true about micro RNAs?

Back 92

They are a type of non-coding RNA

Front 93

Non-coding RNAs are known to:

Back 93

. bind to mRNA targeting them for destructionb. bind tomRNA preventing their translationc. promoteRNA silencing*d. all ofthese

Front 94

Chpt 12

Back 94

Chpt 12

Front 95

Which category of RNA carries amino acids for the process oftranslation?

Back 95

tRNA

Front 96

The majority of protein synthesis occurs in the

Back 96

cytoplasm

Front 97

As in RNA and DNA synthesis, the synthesis of proteinsfollows the following steps, except:

Back 97

Activation of monomersb.Initiationc.Elongationd.Termination*e. All ofthese are involved in all polymer synthesis

Front 98

The template for protein synthesis is:

Back 98

a mRNA strand

Front 99

Which of the following statements concerning the genetic codeis false?

Back 99

. Commas are used.

Front 100

Wobble allows each codon to interact with more than one tRNA.

Back 100

True

Front 101

Which of the following isnot an advantage of degeneracy in the genetic code?

Back 101

More than one amino acid can bind to a tRNA.

Front 102

Inosine or hypoxanthine can wobble with all the followingbases, except:

Back 102

. Ab. Cc. Td. U*e.Inosine can wobble with all of these bases.

Front 103

Which of the following codons does not code for an amino acid?

Back 103

UAA

Front 104

Wobble allows a single codon to code for more than one aminoacid.

Back 104

False

Front 105

At which position on tRNA is the wobble base of the tripletanticodon?

Back 105

1st position (5' letter)

Front 106

Whattype of assay using tRNAs and ribosomes enabled complete determination of thegenetic code?

Back 106

filter binding assays

Front 107

Which of the following isnot a key advantage of wobble in the codon-anticodon reaction?

Back 107

It allows for making more than one protein from the samecoding sequence.

Front 108

Transfer RNAs contain an anti-codon loop meant to match (basepair) with a codon on an mRNA.

Back 108

True

Front 109

In the wobble phenomenon, the base that wobbles is found in

Back 109

the tRNA.

Front 110

How many codons are known for each amino acid?

Back 110

1 to 6 depending on the nature of the amino acid

Front 111

Exceptions to the universality of the genetic code have beenobserved in

Back 111

mitochondria and 16 other organisms, including some algae andfungae

Front 112

What is the maximum number of amino acids that can bespecified by a codon consisting of a sequence of two bases?

Back 112

16

Front 113

Which amino acids have unique codons?

Back 113

trp, met

Front 114

How many codons are possible in a system in which a sequenceof three bases specifies a single amino acid?

Back 114

64

Front 115

A tRNA was determined to have the following anticodonsequence:3'-GAI-5' (I represents the base hypoxanthine)Which of the following codons can form base pairs with this anticodon?

Back 115

5'-CUA-3'b.5'-CUC-3'c.5'-CUU-3'*d. all ofthese

Front 116

Using the genetic code, indicate which polypeptides would besynthesized if poly (UGG) were used as a synthetic mRNA?

Back 116

poly(trp), poly(val), poly(gly)

Front 117

The genetic code is said to be degenerate. This means that

Back 117

many of the amino acids are coded for by different codons.

Front 118

The process of amino acid activation

Back 118

involves the formation of an ester bond between the aminoacid and tRNA

Front 119

The initial step in the formation of an aminoacyl-tRNA is

Back 119

activation of the amino acid by reaction with ATP

Front 120

An aminoacyl-adenylate contains

Back 120

an acid anhydride bond

Front 121

Which of the following statements concerning tRNAs is false?

Back 121

They are unique in that they are transcribed by DNApolymerases

Front 122

Which of the following is not true?

Back 122

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases link amino acids to tRNAmolecules without the need for an energy source

Front 123

Which of following best describes the two-step process foradding amino acids to tRNAs?

Back 123

AA + ATP ® AA-AMP + PPi; AA-AMP + tRNA ® AA-tRNA + AMP

Front 124

Activation of amino acids always takes place

Back 124

in the cytoplasm

Front 125

Which linkage best describes the covalent bond between anamino acid (AA) and its tRNA?

Back 125

Carboxyl group of AA linked to 3' -OH of tRNA.

Front 126

Amino acids linked to the 2'-end of a tRNA

Back 126

are transferred to the 3' position prior to their use inprotein synthesis

Front 127

Thestandard free energy change for the following reaction is about zero.amino acid + ATP + tRNA ® aminoacyl-tRNA + AMP + PPiThe driving force for this reaction in the cell is

Back 127

the subsequent hydrolysis of pyrophosphate releases energy

Front 128

Activation of amino acids

Back 128

produces a pyrophosphate byproduct.

Front 129

The amino acids are initially attached to either the 2' or 3'hydroxyl group of the tRNA.

Back 129

True

Front 130

Specificity of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases is always based onthe anticodon.

Back 130

False

Front 131

The activating enzymes can actually remove wrong amino acidsattached to a tRNA.

Back 131

True

Front 132

Each tRNA molecule has a separate activating enzyme.

Back 132

False

Front 133

Which of the following isnot a function of elongation factors in E.coli?

Back 133

Keep the ribosomal subunits bound together.

Front 134

The tRNAs may bind to the standard stop codons

Back 134

in cellular organelles which use a modified genetic code.b. toaccommodate the tRNA for the unusual amino acid selenocysteine.c. whenthe anticodon in a tRNA mutates to a sequence which can bind.*d. All ofthese

Front 135

Which antibiotic confirmed that the growing peptide chain istransferred to the amino group of the incoming tRNA?

Back 135

Puromycin

Front 136

In bacteria, each mRNA will bind to only one ribosome at atime.

Back 136

False

Front 137

The mRNA must contain the following to allow for initiationof protein synthesis in E. coli.

Back 137

A Shine-Delgarno sequence.

Front 138

Which of the following is not required for the elongationphase of protein synthesis?

Back 138

fmet-tRNAfmet

Front 139

Which of the following isnot a function of termination factors in E. coli?

Back 139

Cause the ribosomal subunits to dissociate.

Front 140

Which of the following isnot a function of initiation factors in E.coli?

Back 140

Lead the initial tRNA to its correct position on the largesubunit of the ribosome.

Front 141

An aminoacyl-tRNA is initially bound to the ribosome

Back 141

at the A site on the 50S subunit

Front 142

After peptide bond formation takes place, what step isnecessary for continuation of protein synthesis?

Back 142

translocation of the ribosome

Front 143

In protein synthesis formation of new peptide bonds iscatalyzed by

Back 143

peptidyl transferase

Front 144

What is the mode of action of puromycin in the inhibition ofprotein synthesis?

Back 144

termination of the growing polypeptide chain

Front 145

The match between codon and anticodon is one of the manyproofreading aspects of protein synthesis.

Back 145

True

Front 146

At what point does the formylation reaction take place toproduce N-formylmethionine?

Back 146

After methionine has been added to a specific tRNA.

Front 147

N-formyl methionine

Back 147

can be found attached to some proteins in E. coli.

Front 148

What is the start codon on the mRNA for prokaryotictranslation?

Back 148

AUG

Front 149

The formylation of methionine in prokaryotes

Back 149

depends on two different tRNAs, where methionine can beformylated when bound to one form and not the other.

Front 150

Which of the following is not a prokaryotic elongationfactor?

Back 150

EF-Ts

Front 151

What happens when a stop codon is reached by a ribosome (inthe A site)?

Back 151

A termination protein binds to the codon and is used torelease the growing peptide from the P site tRNA. The ribosome then is likelyto dissociate.

Front 152

Which of the following best describes the assembly process toinitiate translation in prokaryotes?

Back 152

. small subunit associates with mRNA; IF w/ bound NTP bringsin first f-Met-tRNA; IF then hydrolyses bound NTP; large subunit associates

Front 153

Which of the following is necessary for chain termination inprotein synthesis?

Back 153

termination codons of mRNAb. releasefactorsc. GTP*d. all ofthese

Front 154

A polysome is

Back 154

a complex consisting of one mRNA to which several ribosomesare attached

Front 155

The ribosome is actually a ribozyme.

Back 155

True

Front 156

In bacteria, translation of the mRNA begins

Back 156

during the synthesis of the mRNA.

Front 157

A Shine-Dalgarno Sequence is a

Back 157

sequence of nucleotides in an mRNA that interacts with thesmall subunit of a ribosome to begin translation.

Front 158

Protein synthesis in prokaryotes always starts with

Back 158

a formylmethionine residue

Front 159

During elongation, tRNA binds initially to the

Back 159

"A" site on the ribosome.

Front 160

The first tRNA (bearing fmet) binds to the

Back 160

"P" site on the ribosome.

Front 161

Under certain conditions, tRNAs can bind to the standard stopcodons.

Back 161

True

Front 162

How do eukaryotic and prokaryotic translation compare?

Back 162

Eukaryotes utilize very different protein factors during theprocess but the ribosomes are homologous.

Front 163

The actual functions of the factors in eukaryotes are similarto the functions of these factors in bacteria.

Back 163

True

Front 164

The final form of mRNA in eukaryotes has all these features, except:

Back 164

The mature, active mRNA contains introns.

Front 165

How do eukaryotic ribosomes prevent false starts atinappropriate parts of the mRNA?

Back 165

There is a consensus sequence, called the Kozak sequence,surrounding the start codon in eukaryotes.

Front 166

Which of the following is true concerning protein synthesisand memory?

Back 166

Inhibition of protein synthesis in eukaryotes leads to lackof long term memory

Front 167

Which of the following is associated with post-translationalprocessing of proteins?

Back 167

Folding into the 3-dimensional shapeb.Breaking large proteins into several components with differing functionsc. Formingdisulfide bondsd.Modification of specific amino acids*e. All ofthese

Front 168

Leader sequences for protein transport to specific organellesare removed by proteases associated with the:

Back 168

endoplasmic reticulum

Front 169

Chaperones assist in protein folding by preventingaggregation of proteins before folding is completed.

Back 169

True

Front 170

There is no codon for the amino acid hydroxyproline, but thisamino acid is a prominent feature of collagen structure. Which of the followingis a likely explanation?

Back 170

Proline is covalently modified to give hydroxyproline aftertranslation.

Front 171

Degradation of proteins

Back 171

frequently makes use of proteasomes

Front 172

The protein which marks proteins for degradation is called:

Back 172

Ubiquitin

Front 173

Which of the following is not true concerning silent mutations?

Back 173

Only changes in base sequence that lead to a different aminoacid can have an effect on the organism

Front 174

HIF-1 is related to which process?

Back 174

How we adapt to high altitude

Front 175

Chpt 13

Back 175

Chpt 13

Front 176

Which of the following best describes electrophoretic gelsused for DNA?

Back 176

Most separations are done horizontally, while sequencing gelsare typically run vertically.

Front 177

Migration of DNA during electrophoresis is based.

Back 177

mostly on the size of the molecule, since the ratio of chargeto mass is approximately the same, no matter how large the DNA is.

Front 178

The application of gel electrophoresis (PAGE) in DNAsequencing

Back 178

depends on separation of similar charge/mass ratio on thebasis of size.

Front 179

Which of the following parameters affects the distance DNAmolecules migrate during electrophoresis, at pH = 8?

Back 179

The mass of the DNAb. Thetotal ionic charge on the DNA moleculec. Thefact that each nucleotide contributes one negative charge at this pH.d. Theconcentration of agarose or polyacrylamide in the gel.*e. All ofthese features control the distance the DNA migrates.

Front 180

Ethidium bromide slips between the bases of DNA giving itfluorescent properties that differ from those observed when it is free insolution.

Back 180

True

Front 181

Fluorescence works because the fluorescent molecule

Back 181

absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a longerwavelength.

Front 182

When fluorescence detection methods are used in biotechnologythey

Back 182

do not present the hazards associated with radioactivity

Front 183

A highly useful method for determining the presence ofhydrolyzed fragments of DNA separated by electrophoresis is

Back 183

autoradiography

Front 184

Fluorescent techniques can detect concentrations as low as

Back 184

picomolar (10-12 M).

Front 185

Which of the following are methods used to determine wherethe DNA bands are located on an electrophoresis gel?

Back 185

a. Radioactivityb.Fluorescencec. Dyeswhich bind to DNAd.Luminescence*e. All ofthese can visualize the DNA

Front 186

Fluorescence and other luminescent methods of visualizing bandsoffer these advantages over methods dependent on radioactivity.

Back 186

These methods are both more sensitive and require no speciallicense.

Front 187

SyBr green and SyBr gold were developed because

Back 187

ethidium bromide is carcinogenic

Front 188

Restrictionenzymes are especially useful for genetic recombination work for all of thefollowing reasons, except:

Back 188

They cut DNA in the middle of specific sequences.b. Theycut DNA independent of the source of the DNA.c. Theyoften generate single stranded tails or "sticky ends".d. Thereare a large variety of them commercially available.*e. All ofthese traits make restriction enzymes useful.

Front 189

The "natural" function of restriction endonucleasesis to

Back 189

protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses(bacteriophages).

Front 190

Which of the following statements concerning restrictionendonucleases is true?

Back 190

They can produce "sticky ends".

Front 191

A palindrome is

Back 191

a sequence that reads the same from left to right or fromright to left

Front 192

An isoschizomer is a(n)

Back 192

a restriction enzyme that has the same sequence specificityas another restriction enzyme from a different organism

Front 193

A single clone of interest can be distinguished from othersin a mixture of clones by

Back 193

a specific probe, usually a labeled complementary DNA.

Front 194

Enzymes that seal nicks in DNA are called

Back 194

ligases.

Front 195

A plasmid is

Back 195

a small circular DNA that is not part of a bacterialchromosome.

Front 196

Recombinant DNA molecules contain covalently linked segmentsderived from two or more sources.

Back 196

True

Front 197

The following steps are all involved in geneticrecombination:

Back 197

4 ® 2 ® 3 ® 5 ® 1

Front 198

Which of the following are methods by which bacteria can beinduced to take up recombinant DNA molecules?

Back 198

a. Heat shock.b. DNA"guns" which spray the DNA at very high speeds.c.Electroporationd. Phageor virus infection.*e. All ofthese are used to transform bacteria.

Front 199

Multi-cloning sites ("poly-linkers") in mostcommercially available plasmids offer all the following advantages over theearlier plasmids used in genetic recombination except:

Back 199

They assure that only the desired DNA will be inserted intothe plasmid.

Front 200

In recombinant DNA technology

Back 200

a. vectors are used as carriers for recombinant genes.b. it ispossible to insert eukaryotic genes into prokaryotic DNA.c. foreignDNA is frequently inserted into a bacterial plasmid.*d. all ofthese

Front 201

The presence of bacterial or viral clones is detectedexperimentally by

Back 201

the presence of colonies or plaques on a suitably preparedPetri dish.

Front 202

Suitable vectors for cloning of recombinant DNA can be

Back 202

both of these

Front 203

Which of the following isnot required in order for a plasmid to be used in genetic recombination?

Back 203

A poly-cloning site or multi-cloning site for gene insertion.

Front 204

Cells that contain a "blue/white screening" plasmidthat has an added gene are recognized by the method:

Back 204

The colonies lack a blue color.

Front 205

During the simplest type of genetic recombination, there is a____ chance that the gene will be inserted in the correct direction.

Back 205

50%

Front 206

Recombined bacteriophage particles are easy to isolate, sincehigh concentration of phage will be found in each of the bacterial coloniesthat grow on the medium used for screening.

Back 206

False

Front 207

DNA into the BamHIsite, the recombinant plasmid would lackwhich of the following properties?

Back 207

It would be resistant to the antibiotic tetracycline.

Front 208

If a recombinant plasmid were obtained by inserting DNA intothe EcoRV site, and the proteincorresponding to the recombinant gene were expressed, which of the followingstatements would be false?

Back 208

The plasmid will not be able to replicate autonomously.

Front 209

DNA into the AflIIIsite, the recombinant plasmid would lackwhich of the following properties?

Back 209

It can replicate autonomously.

Front 210

DNA into the BamHIsite, screening for the recombinant plasmid can be done by the followingtechnique.

Back 210

Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain ampicillin,followed by replica plating on tetracycline.

Front 211

If the region between the 2 sites for HgiEII were deleted, the resulting plasmid

Back 211

would be useless as it would lack an origin of replication.

Front 212

If the plasmid were completely digested with the tworestriction enzymes BamHI and HgiEII, the resulting fragments would bethis large:

Back 212

1920, 1682 and 761 base pairs long.

Front 213

Antibiotic-resistance genes in vectors are often used asselectable markers.

Back 213

True

Front 214

A multiple clonic site is also known as:

Back 214

a polylinker

Front 215

DNA fragment for analysis?

Back 215

HindIII

Front 216

Neglecting any discussion of whether it's a good or badchoice, I attempt to insert a gene fragment into the HindIII site and transform bacteria with the plasmid. How can Itell which transformants have the insert?

Back 216

The bacteria will be able to grow in the presence ofampicillin, and they will be white.

Front 217

When viruses are used as vectors in gene therapy

Back 217

they can cause unexpected difficulties

Front 218

Genetic engineering which recombines DNA from differentspecies is

Back 218

. a molecular extension of traditional cross-breedingmethods.

Front 219

How is human insulin produced by genetically engineeredbacteria?

Back 219

DNA that codes for each of the two polypeptide chains isintroduced into two different populations of bacteria

Front 220

Genetic recombination occurs in nature.

Back 220

True

Front 221

How does an expression vector differ from a regular cloningvector?

Back 221

An expression vector has the ability to have the inserted DNAbe transcribed.

Front 222

Which of the following plants have been genetically modified?

Back 222

a. Soybeansb. Corn.c. Cottond.Tomatoes*e. All ofthese plants have been genetically modified.

Front 223

In gene therapy

Back 223

cells of specific tissues are altered in a way thatalleviates the effects of a disease.

Front 224

While a large majority of people are opposed to somatic genetherapy, a large number support the use of germ-cell gene therapy.

Back 224

False

Front 225

One major obstacle to using bacteria to produce humanproteins is because addition of sugar residues to the proteins, glycosylation,never occurs properly.

Back 225

True

Front 226

One major obstacle to using bacteria to produce humanproteins is bacteria do not have the cellular apparatus to splice introns outof mRNA.

Back 226

True

Front 227

Which of the following proteins has been successfullyproduced through genetic recombination?

Back 227

a. insulinb. humangrowth hormonec. tissueplasminogen activatord.erythropoietin*e. All ofthe above proteins have been produced successfully.

Front 228

Which of the following isnot a potential benefit of creating a fusion protein in geneticengineering?

Back 228

. The protein is less likely to be antigenic.

Front 229

Genetic engineering

Back 229

a. is being used to produce improved crop plants.b. mayprovide therapy for diseases of genetic origin.

Front 230

Which of the following statements about plants which containthe recombinant form of the gene from Bacillusthuringiensis (Bt gene), is true?

Back 230

a. These plants have a natural resistance to caterpillars.b. Thegene is expressed in all the plant tissues.c. Sincethe gene is expressed in the pollen of the plant, there is concern about thegene harming beneficial insects.d. It islikely that some insects will mutate to become resistant to the Bt geneproduct.*e. All ofthese statements are true.

Front 231

Which of the following conditions is an example of howgenetic engineering is currently used to increase food production?

Back 231

a. Genetically modified plants have been developed that areresistant to herbicides.b.Genetically modified plants have been developed which contain a gene thatconfers a natural resistance to certain insects.c.Hormones are given to cows to increase milk production.d.Genetically modified plants have been developed which are resistant to frost.*e. All ofthese are examples of genetic engineering in agriculture.

Front 232

Modern genetic engineering allows the following manipulation,which was not available using traditional breeding methods:

Back 232

It is now possible to include genes from different species,or even different kingdoms in the same organism.

Front 233

Which of the following conditions is not a requirement to assure production of a protein when aplasmid is being designed to express a eukaryotic protein in a bacterium?

Back 233

Differences in the genetic code between eukaryotes andprokaryotes must be accommodated.

Front 234

Which of the following proteins are produced by recombinantDNA technology but have had their purposes subverted for improving athleticperforrmance?

Back 234

. Erythropoietin and Human Growth Hormone

Front 235

A gene from Bacillusthuringiensis (Bt) is used to make plants resistant against all insectswhich might feed on the plant.

Back 235

False

Front 236

The use of the Bt gene is prohibited in corn plants.

Back 236

False

Front 237

Sometimes DNA probes are used to prove that a gene has beenincorporated into a eukaryotic genome. The following are all steps used in sucha procedure, except:

Back 237

Elution of the hybridized DNA from the gel for analysis.

Front 238

The "c" in cDNA stands for this word:

Back 238

Complementary

Front 239

An expression library contains genes corresponding to all ofthe following, except:

Back 239

An expression library could be any of these choices.

Front 240

A DNA library consists of

Back 240

cDNA library

Front 241

Expression libraries are most often made from

Back 241

. the mRNA found with a given cell or tissue.

Front 242

In the polymerase chain reaction

Back 242

it is possible to amplify small amounts of DNA withoutcloning.

Front 243

The polymerase chain reaction requires

Back 243

a. primers complementary to the ends of the sequence to beamplifiedb. carefultemperature control

Front 244

The following item was the most important one for thedevelopment of PCR as a commercially successful and widely-used procedure:

Back 244

Taq DNA Polymerase.

Front 245

Advantages of the Polymerase Chain Reaction include all ofthese, except:

Back 245

a. The reaction is specific for certain sequences in the DNA.b. Onlysmall amounts of template are needed.c. Resultscan be obtained with DNA that is old or partially degraded.d. All theproducts from a specific part of the DNA will be the same size.*e. All ofthese are advantages of PCRÒ.

Front 246

The best primers for the PCR reaction have the followingfeature:

Back 246

. They should anneal rapidly, before the larger DNA strandsreanneal.

Front 247

Which of the following is a unique feature of qPCR comparedto the original PCR?

Back 247

In qPCR, the speed with which the DNA is produced is used toestimate how much of the original template was in the reaction vessel

Front 248

The RFLP technique

Back 248

is used on the DNA of organisms that have two sets ofchromosomes

Front 249

The usefulness of blotting techniques in molecular biology isthat

Back 249

transferred material is in the same relative position on thedisk as on the original sample

Front 250

The following blotting procedure is named for the scientistwho invented it:

Back 250

Southern

Front 251

Which of the following is true?

Back 251

DNA evidence is easier to use to exclude a putative matchthan to include it

Front 252

Slight differences in a given gene between the two homologouschromosomes are called

Back 252

alleles

Front 253

Forensic uses of DNA to identify victims or criminals exploitthe following trait in DNA:

Back 253

Differences in sizes of DNA fragments (RFLPs).

Front 254

When fluorescent markers are used for DNA sequencing:

Back 254

computer analysis can help in the detection of sequencinganalysis at a faster rate

Front 255

A feature of the Sanger-Coulson method for DNA sequencing is

Back 255

direct "reading" of the sequence of bases

Front 256

In DNA sequencing, fragments to be analyzed are produced by

Back 256

selective interruption of DNA synthesis

Front 257

RNA is sequenced by

Back 257

sequencing the complementary DNA produced by the reversetranscriptase reaction

Front 258

A proteome is

Back 258

a collection of all the proteins produced in a given cell ortissue.

Front 259

Microarrays allow the analysis of thousands of samples of DNAor protein to be performed simultaneously.

Back 259

True

Front 260

A transcriptome is

Back 260

a collection of all the genes being transcribed in a givencell or tissue at a given time.

Front 261

In a metabolic study using microarrays, a yellow dotrepresents the location of DNA on the microarray:

Back 261

for which mRNA was produced in both the control and the testcase

Front 262

Chpt 14

Back 262

Chpt 14

Front 263

Which of the following classes of organisms can virusesinfect?

Back 263

a. bacteriab. plantsc. animals*d. All ofthese

Front 264

The capsid of a virus is composed of

Back 264

protein

Front 265

Colds are commonly caused by

Back 265

rhinoviruses

Front 266

What is the function of protein spikes on a virus?

Back 266

They help the virus attach to the host

Front 267

The large-T protein of SV40 is an example of a(n)

Back 267

oncogene

Front 268

A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of theviral DNA into the host chromosome is

Back 268

lysogeny

Front 269

A viral genome is

Back 269

may be double or single stranded.

Front 270

With the influenza virus, there are 16 types of ______

Back 270

hemaglutinin (HA) subtypes

Front 271

What happens to the DNA copy of the retroviral RNA genomeafter it is produced?

Back 271

It is incorporated into the host's DNA.

Front 272

Which of the following best describes the function of reversetranscriptase?

Back 272

It uses an RNA template to make a double-stranded DNA

Front 273

Which of the following is not a feature common to all retroviruses?

Back 273

Sarcoma Oncogenes

Front 274

Clonal selection is the ability of the immune system to control the proliferation of antigen-specific cells, since it has a mechanism to recognize which cells interact with that antigen.

Back 274

True

Front 275

The term antibody is essentially interchangeable with

Back 275

immunoglobulin

Front 276

Antibodies have two binding sites to react with antigens.

Back 276

True

Front 277

Which of the following doesnot arise from a defect in the immune system?

Back 277

Sugar intolerance

Front 278

The first vaccine was made against

Back 278

smallpox

Front 279

Which of the following cell types engulf invaders and display portions of their proteins to other cells?

Back 279

dendritic cells

Front 280

Dendritic cells

Back 280

display antigens associated with MHC proteins

Front 281

Which of the following cell types kills cells that have been infected by viruses or that are cancerous?

Back 281

NK cells

Front 282

The designation of white blood cells as T cells and B cells refers to whether the cells develop primarily in the Thymus gland or the Bone marrow.

Back 282

True

Front 283

Which of the following descriptions of T cells is true?

Back 283

They produce interleukins

Front 284

Which of the following cells actually makes antibodies?

Back 284

B cells

Front 285

An epitope is

Back 285

a binding site for an antigen on an antibody

Front 286

Antibodies are the most variable protein sequences in the human body.

Back 286

True

Front 287

More than one type of antigen can bind to an antibody, butthere is only one type of antibody for each antigen.

Back 287

False

Front 288

Monoclonal antibodies arise from proliferation of a single Bcell.

Back 288

True

Front 289

Hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies, are made by fusing cells of the immune system with

Back 289

cancerous cells

Front 290

Which of the following contributes to the variability of the immunoglobulins?

Back 290

a. A variety of different DNA sequences are physicallyattached together to generate a huge number of different antibody genes.b. Thelinking regions between these DNA sequences are also highly variable.c. Thesynthesis of mRNA in the antibody cells is very variable, producing manydifferent proteins from one gene.d. Thereare several hundred to one thousand different genes for the variable part ofthe antibody sequence.*e. All ofthese mechanisms contribute to the variety of antibodies in the immune system.

Front 291

Which of the following is an example of an autoimmunedisease?

Back 291

a.rheumatoid arthritisb. lupusc. someforms of diabetes*d. all ofthese

Front 292

Viruses can be genetically engineered to specifically targetcancer cells.

Back 292

True

Front 293

The ability of cancer cells to travel to other parts of thebody and produce new tumors is called

Back 293

metastasis

Front 294

Which of the following genes in normal cells can be relatedto oncogenes?

Back 294

Oncogenes include examples of all of these.

Front 295

Proteins which inhibit transcription of genes that would cause increased replication are called

Back 295

tumor suppressors

Front 296

The protein called p53 is especially important in cancerbecause:

Back 296

Protein p53 can prevent cells from dividing and cause toenter programmed cell death.

Front 297

Herceptin is a

Back 297

drug designed to fight a specific type of breast cancer

Front 298

Chpt 15

Back 298

Chpt 15

Front 299

Which of the following statements concerning the free energychange (DG) is false?

Back 299

The rate of a reaction can be determined from the energychange.

Front 300

The standard state of a solution is taken as

Back 300

1 molar concentration

Front 301

Consider this rxn which has a DG° = +0.4 kJ/mol.A + B « C + D1 M A, 1 M B, 0.1 M C and 0.1 M D are added to a container at room temperature.Which of the following statements is true?

Back 301

The reaction will proceed in the forward direction to reach equilibrium.

Front 302

Consider this rxn which has a DG° = +0.4 kJ/mol.succinate + FAD « fumarate + FADH21 mM of each compound are mixed & the reaction is allowed to come toequilibrium. Which statement is correct about the resulting concentration ofFAD at equilibrium?

Back 302

[FAD] > [FADH2]

Front 303

Consider this rxn which has a DG° = +0.4 kJ/mol.A + B « C + D1 M A, 1 M B, 0.1 M C and 0.1 M D are added to a container at room temperature.Which of the following statements is true?

Back 303

DG < 0 (i.e., it's negative)

Front 304

Which of the following isnot true concerning standard states?

Back 304

For pure liquids, the standard state is 1M

Front 305

I am performing a reaction, A ® B, with DG°' = -0.3 kJ/mol. Istart the reaction with 10 mM A and no B. After allowing the reaction toproceed for 24 hrs at room temperature and atmospheric pressure, I analyze asample of the reaction mix to find I now have 1 mM A and 9 mM B. Which of thefollowing conclusions should I make?

Back 305

I must've screwed up; there's no way I could get that resultwith that DG°'

Front 306

I am performing a reaction, A ® B, with DG°' = -5000 kJ/mol.I start the reaction with 10 mM A and no B. After allowing the reaction toproceed for 24 hrs at room temperature and atmospheric pressure, I analyze asample of the reaction mix to find I now have 8 mM A and 2 mM B. Which of thefollowing conclusions should I make?

Back 306

I should come back again later; equilibrium has not yet beenreached.

Front 307

Biochemists use a modified value for standard DG valuesbecause

Back 307

the pH in living systems is seldom, if ever, near 0.

Front 308

Which best describes the DG for hydrolysis of creatine phosphate under cellularconditions in which the concentration of creatine phosphate, creatine, andphosphate all equal 1 mM at 25°C. The DG° for the hydrolysis of creatinephosphate at 25°C is -43 kJ/mol.

Back 308

DG < -43 kJ/mol

Front 309

By definition, a spontaneous reaction is one in which

Back 309

energy is released.

Front 310

The standard state usually used in biochemistry (DG°')includes

Back 310

all concentrations at 1 M, except for [H+], which is10-7 M.

Front 311

"Metabolism" refers to

Back 311

a. the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones.b. theproduction of larger molecules from smaller ones.

Front 312

The production of larger molecules from smaller ones iscalled

Back 312

anabolism

Front 313

In general, catabolism

Back 313

releases energy

Front 314

In general, catabolism

Back 314

is an oxidative process that releases energy

Front 315

Which of the following statements apply to anabolism?

Back 315

a. proceeds in stagesb.requires energyc.requires reducing agents*d. all ofthese

Front 316

"Oxidation" refers to

Back 316

the loss of electrons

Front 317

An oxidizing agent

Back 317

gains electrons

Front 318

During reduction

Back 318

electrons are lost.

Front 319

In general, the anabolic pathways tend to involve oxidationreactions.

Back 319

False

Front 320

Which of the following is not true?

Back 320

Molecular oxygen is always a substrate in oxidationreactions.

Front 321

Which of the following coenzymes is not a carrier of electrons in biological redox reactions?

Back 321

Coenzyme A

Front 322

In biological redox reactions, hydrogen ions are usuallytransferred along with electrons.

Back 322

True

Front 323

Which of the following coenzymes is derived from riboflavin?

Back 323

FAD

Front 324

Which of the following is not a part of FAD?

Back 324

nicotinamide

Front 325

The conversion of NAD+ to NADH is an example of reduction because

Back 325

the pyridine ring gains electrons (and a hydrogen)

Front 326

In the coenzyme FAD the site to which electrons aretransferred is

Back 326

a nitrogen-containing ring system

Front 327

What happens to the entropy when ATP is hydrolysed to ADP?

Back 327

Entropy increases

Front 328

The oxidation of nutrients supplies the energy to produceATP.

Back 328

True

Front 329

In order to drive the synthesis of ATP, the hydrolysis of anorganic phosphate

Back 329

must have a higher free energy change.

Front 330

Considerthese reactions: ATP ® ADP + Pi DG°' = -31 kJ/mol glucose-6-phosphate ® glucose + Pi DG°' = -13 kJ/mol glucose + ATP ® glucose-6-phosphate + ADP DG°' = ? What is the DG°' of the last reaction?

Back 330

-18 kJ/m

Front 331

ATP is a good source of energy to run metabolic reactions forall the following reasons, except:

Back 331

The sugar group is very reactive.

Front 332

The body allows energy consuming reactions to occur bycoupling them with reactions which have a negative DG.

Back 332

True

Front 333

The number of degrees of freedom a molecule has is related tothe numbers of resonant structures it has.

Back 333

True

Front 334

What happens to the entropy of a molecule as the number ofresonance structures increases?

Back 334

Entropy also increases

Front 335

Many cells oxidize fatty acids to produce ATP. If no ATP wereproduced, the DG°' of this process would be

Back 335

a larger negative number

Front 336

When we say that the efficiency of glycolysis is about 33% wemean that

Back 336

the energy used to phosphorylate 2 ATP is 33% of the energyreleased in the process

Front 337

The energy released during metabolism of nutrients can beused to synthesize ATP from ADP and phosphate.

Back 337

True

Front 338

In order to initiate many metabolic pathways it is necessaryto activate the starting materials.

Back 338

True

Front 339

If the reaction A ® B has DG = +25 Joule/mol and the reactionB ® C has DG = -15 Joule/mol, the overall energy change A ® C will be

Back 339

+10 Joule/mol

Front 340

Which of the following are examples of endergonic processes?

Back 340

protein synthesis and active transport

Front 341

Which of the following are examples of exergonic processes?

Back 341

oxidation of fats and of carbohydrates

Front 342

The phosphorylation of ADP to produce ATP is endergonic because

Back 342

a negatively charged ion is bonded to a molecule that alreadycarries a negative charge

Front 343

Spontaneous reaction always occurs at a relatively fast rate.

Back 343

False

Front 344

The efficiency of aerobic metabolism is greater than that ofanaerobic metabolism even though much more energy is released in aerobic thanin anaerobic metabolism because

Back 344

aerobic metabolism traps much more energy in the form of ATPthan does anaerobic metabolism

Front 345

The hydrolysis of ATP can be used to drive reactions thathave a DG°' that is

Back 345

less than +5 kJ/mol

Front 346

The linking of an exergonic reaction to drive an endergonicreaction is called:

Back 346

coupling

Front 347

What happens to the entropy when ATP is hydrolysed to ADP?

Back 347

Entropy increases

Front 348

In metabolism the term "activation" refers to

Back 348

conversion of a component of a metabolic pathway into are active compound.

Front 349

An example of an activation step in metabolism is

Back 349

the formation of an acyl derivative of coenzyme A.

Front 350

Which of the followingis not a mechanism used to activate substrates for furthermetabolism?

Back 350

Hydrolyzing a polymer into its component monomers.

Front 351

Metabolism takes place in stages

Back 351

and allows for efficient production and use of energy

Front 352

Chpt 16

Back 352

Chpt 16

Front 353

Which of the following monosaccharides is a ketose?

Back 353

fructose

Front 354

Haworth projection formulas

Back 354

a. arerepresentations of the cyclic form of sugarsb. canshow the distinction between the a and b anomers

Front 355

Which of the following isnot a function of carbohydrates?

Back 355

They are catalytic components of enzymes.

Front 356

How many carbon atoms are in the simplest carbohydrates?

Back 356

3

Front 357

The simplest ketotriose is

Back 357

dihydroxyacetone

Front 358

Mirror image stereoisomers are called

Back 358

enantiomers

Front 359

The simplest aldotriose is:

Back 359

glyceraldehyde

Front 360

In a Fischer projection, which chiral carbon determines whether the sugar is the D- or the L-isomer?

Back 360

highest numbered asymmetric carbon atom

Front 361

For the a anomer of a D-sugar, the anomeric hydroxyl in aHaworth projection

Back 361

has a downward projection (on the opposite side from theterminal CH2OHgroup).

Front 362

Diastereomers are

Back 362

non-mirror-image, nonsuperimposable stereoisomers.

Front 363

Epimers are

Back 363

stereoisomers that differ from each other in their configuration at a single carbon atom.

Front 364

D-erythrose is to D-ribose as D-ribose is to:

Back 364

D-allose

Front 365

How many enantiomeric pairs are possible for a aldohexose?

Back 365

8

Front 366

Sugars which differ in chirality only around one carbon aremost specifically called

Back 366

epimers

Front 367

Aldoses can form which type of cyclic structure?

Back 367

Hemiacetal

Front 368

The cyclic form of sugars

Back 368

has one more chiral center (the anomeric carbon) than theopen-chain form.

Front 369

Epimers of D-Glucose include:

Back 369

L-Idose and D-Galactose

Front 370

Diastereoisomers of D-Glucose include all of these, except:

Back 370

D-Fructose

Front 371

Isomers of sugars in which the position of ketone andaldehyde groups have been changed are called

Back 371

a. anomers.b.diastereoisomers.c.enantiomers.d.epimers.*e. noneof these

Front 372

Which carbon of the open-chain form of a sugar becomes theanomeric carbon in the cyclic form?

Back 372

the carbonyl carbon

Front 373

The a and b forms of the same sugar are called

Back 373

anomers

Front 374

A pyranose is a sugar that

Back 374

contains a six-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure.

Front 375

A furanose is a sugar that

Back 375

contains a five-membered ring as part of its cyclicstructure.

Front 376

For a D-sugar, any group that is written to the right of thecarbon in a Fischer projection

Back 376

has a downward projection in a Haworth projection.

Front 377

Which of the following groups is produced when an aldehyde isoxidized?

Back 377

carboxyl

Front 378

A lactone is a cyclic

Back 378

ester

Front 379

Which of the following compounds is produced by oxidation ofan aldose in the cyclic form?

Back 379

a lactone

Front 380

Two samples containing identical mixtures of sugars areanalyzed, one using Tollen's reagent, the other with glucose oxidase. Whichwill give a stronger reaction?

Back 380

Tollen's reagent

Front 381

The conversion of a sugar's carbonyl to an alcohol is

Back 381

a reduction reaction

Front 382

Deoxyribose is best described as a(n):

Back 382

glycoside

Front 383

When monosaccharides are bonded together

Back 383

a. one H2O molecule is lost for each new link formed.b.oligosaccharides are formed by combining a few monosaccharides.c.polysaccharides are formed by combining many monosaccharides.*d. all ofthese

Front 384

Which of the following best describes the glycosidic bond inthe disaccharide shown?

Back 384

a(2-4)

Front 385

Glycosidic bonds from sugars

Back 385

may link to the other molecule through either an oxygen or anitrogen atom

Front 386

Which of the following statements concerning sugar polymersis false?

Back 386

Linear polymers are more water-soluble than branched ones

Front 387

Glycosidic linkages between monosaccharide units may varybased on

Back 387

a. theanomeric form of the cyclic structure, i.e.,a or b.b. which-OH group is involved.

Front 388

Which of the following is true concerning the moleculepictured?

Back 388

It is not a reducing sugar because the anomeric hydroxyl ismethlyated

Front 389

Common table sugar is

Back 389

sucrose

Front 390

Sucrose is composed of the following simple sugars:

Back 390

glucose and fructose

Front 391

Maltose is composed of the following simple sugars:

Back 391

glucose only

Front 392

The difference between cellobiose and maltose is:

Back 392

one has an á linkage and the other a â linkage

Front 393

Which of the following isnot a reducing sugar?

Back 393

sucrose

Front 394

Which of the following artificial sweeteners is a chemicalderivative of sucrose?

Back 394

sucralose

Front 395

Lactose is composed of the following simple sugars:

Back 395

glucose only

Front 396

The following sugar is also called milk sugar:

Back 396

Lactose

Front 397

The following sugar is also called fruit sugar:

Back 397

Fructose

Front 398

The following sugar is also called blood sugar:

Back 398

Glucose

Front 399

Which of the following molecules is a disaccharide?

Back 399

lactose

Front 400

Lactose intolerance

Back 400

arises from inability to metabolize the disaccharide lactose

Front 401

Which of the following disaccharides cannot be digested by mammals?

Back 401

cellobiose

Front 402

Which of the following statements associated with celluloseis false?

Back 402

Most animals can easily digest this compound.

Front 403

Cellulose is indigestible to most animals because

Back 403

animals do not have the enzymes needed to hydrolyze theb-glycosidic linkages between the monomer units

Front 404

Humans are not able to digest cellulose as a food sourcebecause:

Back 404

Cellulose is insoluble and we lack the enzyme to break the blinkage in the cellulose.

Front 405

In bacterial cell walls

Back 405

peptides form crosslinks between polysaccharides

Front 406

Which of the following molecules have the highest degree ofa[1-6] branching linkages

Back 406

Glycogen

Front 407

A polysaccharide. Whichlettered subunit is the nonreducing end?

Back 407

There is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrate.

Front 408

A major difference between amylose and amylopectin is that

Back 408

amylopectin is branched and amylose is not

Front 409

The linkage between the glucose residues in amylopectin andglycogen is:

Back 409

For the main chain a (1 ® 4) and a (1 ® 6) for the branches

Front 410

Glycogen is

Back 410

a highly branched polysaccharide found in animals

Front 411

Which of the following has only a[1-4] linkages and no a[1-6]linkages

Back 411

Amylose

Front 412

Glycogen has a similar structure to amylopectin, but is lesshighly branched.

Back 412

False

Front 413

Glycogen breakdown proceeds from the nonreducing ends.

Back 413

True

Front 414

Glycogen is sometimes called animal starch

Back 414

True

Front 415

Plant starch includes amylopectin and cellulose

Back 415

False

Front 416

A bacterial cell wall is composed of:

Back 416

A polysaccharide consisting of 2 types of monosaccharideunits and cross-linking oligopeptides.

Front 417

There are two forms of starch:

Back 417

amylose, which is a linear polysaccharide, and amylopectin,which is highly branched

Front 418

The blue color in a well-known test for the presence ofstarches is due to

Back 418

the formation of a complex between iodine and amylose

Front 419

Amino or acid derivatives of sugars are very important inwhich of the following biological functions?

Back 419

a. Structural rolesb.Lubricating fluidsc. Cellsurface sugars used in cell identityd. Bothstructural roles and lubricating fluids.*e. All ofthe above are functions of amino and acid sugar derivatives.

Front 420

Cell walls

Back 420

are found in plants and bacteria, but have different chemicalcompositions

Front 421

One major difference between bacterial and plant cell wallsis that bacterial cell walls have polysaccharides that are crosslinked bypeptides.

Back 421

True

Front 422

Insoluble fiber in the diet is better at binding toxicsubstances than soluble fiber.

Back 422

False

Front 423

The most common biopolymer on earth is this carbohydrate:

Back 423

Cellulose

Front 424

Insoluble fiber in the diet is better at better at providingbulk and stimulating peristaltic action than soluble fiber.

Back 424

True

Front 425

Polysaccharides used in cell wall structure contributerigidity to the wall due to covalent cross-linking between the fibers.

Back 425

False

Front 426

Chitin, which forms the exoskeletons of insects, is composedof

Back 426

b(1-4) linked N-acetylglucosamine residues

Front 427

One advantage of branched sugar polymers is the availabilityof more ends for chemical reaction.

Back 427

True

Front 428

Which of the following statements concerning plant cell wallsis false?

Back 428

They contain large amounts of protein.

Front 429

Blood typing depends on

Back 429

the nature of the oligosaccharide portion of glycoproteins onthe surface of red blood cells

Front 430

Cartilage and mucous are both slippery because:

Back 430

Both charge repulsion of acidic groups and the sticky natureof sugars.

Front 431

Glycoproteins

Back 431

are proteins to which sugars are covalently bonded

Front 432

The main difference, on the surface of a red blood cell,between the A-B-O major blood groups depends on

Back 432

the presence or absence of a certain sugar.

Front 433

Which of the following is true about the ABO blood groups?

Back 433

all three of the blood groups have an á-L-fucose groupattached

Front 434

Chpt 17

Back 434

Chpt 17

Front 435

Glycolysis

Back 435

does not require O2 togenerate energy.

Front 436

The fate of pyruvate produced during glycolysis dependsprimarily on the availability of

Back 436

molecular oxygen.

Front 437

In aerobic metabolism, what is the fate of pyruvate producedby glycolysis?

Back 437

Pyruvate loses carbon dioxide, and the remaining two carbonatoms become linked to coenzyme A.

Front 438

In humans, pyruvate can be converted to

Back 438

acetyl-CoA and lactate.

Front 439

Which of the following is not an end product of glucosemetabolism via either aerobic or anaerobic means?

Back 439

fructose

Front 440

What is the net ATP yield per glucose during glycolysis?

Back 440

2

Front 441

In the conversion of glucose to pyruvate, how many of theactual steps involve electron transfer?

Back 441

1

Front 442

The order of compounds in the conversion of glucose topyruvic acid is as follows: (PEP = phosphoenolpyruvate)

Back 442

Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-bisphosphate, 1,3-phosphoglyceric acid, 3-phosphoglyceric acid,PEP.

Front 443

Which of the following is not true?

Back 443

Corn is the only source of biofuels

Front 444

Which of the following terms describes an enzyme thattransfers a phosphate group from ATP to a substrate?

Back 444

kinase

Front 445

The DG values for glycolytic reactions at physiologicalconditions may be exergonic, even though the DG°' at "standard"conditions, may be endergonic.

Back 445

True

Front 446

The reactions where glucose is converted to glucose6-phosphate and fructose 6-phosphate is converted to fructose 1,5-bisphosphateare examples of:

Back 446

a. exergonic reactionsb. primingreactionsc. phosphorylationreactionsd. kinasereactions*e. all ofthese

Front 447

The phosphorylation of glucose to glucose 6-phosphate

Back 447

is an endergonic reaction that takes place because it iscoupled to the exergonic hydrolysis of ATP.

Front 448

The enzyme glucokinase

Back 448

specifically phosphorylates glucose rather than other sugars.

Front 449

Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction shown?

Back 449

an isomerase

Front 450

The binding of glucose to hexokinase

Back 450

is an example of induced-fit binding of a substrate to theactive site of an enzyme.

Front 451

The phosphorylation of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is the committed step inglycolysis because

Back 451

fructose 1,6-bisphosphatecan undergo no other reactions than those of glycolysis.

Front 452

Which of the following sugars can be a substrate forhexokinase?

Back 452

a. glucoseb.fructosec. mannose*d. all ofthese

Front 453

Which of the following enzymes interconverts an aldose and aketose?

Back 453

isomerase

Front 454

Which enzyme is the key regulatory enzyme in glycolysis?

Back 454

Phosphofructokinase

Front 455

Which of the following exercise(s) allosteric control in thereaction of phosphofructokinase?

Back 455

a. ATPb.fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

Front 456

The reaction of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to give glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate anddihydroxyacetone phosphate is an example of

Back 456

a reverse aldol condensation.

Front 457

The equilibrium for isomerization of dihydroxyacetonephosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is favored because

Back 457

glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate is being continuously drained offfor the subsequent reaction in the glycolytic pathway

Front 458

The isomerization of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to giveglyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

Back 458

is catalyzed by the enzyme triose phosphate isomerase.

Front 459

The step that commits the cell to metabolize glucose iscatalyzed by

Back 459

phosphofructokinase

Front 460

Theequilibrium for the formation of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate fromdihydroxyacetone phosphate is driven by

Back 460

having the product of the reaction continuously consumed.

Front 461

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the cleavage offructose bisphosphate into two3-carbon units?

Back 461

Aldolase

Front 462

Which of the following is not true?

Back 462

. Every reaction in a metabolic pathway must have a negativeDG, or the pathway cannot run.

Front 463

Which of the following terms describes an enzyme thatcatalyzes electron transfer reactions?

Back 463

dehydrogenase

Front 464

Which of the following enzymes forms a thioester using acysteine residue as a key intermediate?

Back 464

glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

Front 465

In glycolysis, ATP is synthesized by

Back 465

substrate-level phosphorylation

Front 466

Enolase catalyzes

Back 466

the dehydration of 2-phosphoglycerate.

Front 467

The nicotinamide-binding region in glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatedehydrogenase is similar to all other NAD binding domains.

Back 467

True

Front 468

During glycolysis, ATP is synthesized from ADP and aphosphate group transferred from an acid anhydride.

Back 468

True

Front 469

What is the name of the pictured glycolytic intermediate?

Back 469

3-phosphoglycerate

Front 470

Which of the following is required for substrate-level phosphorylation?

Back 470

The standard free energy of the hydrolysis reaction is morenegative than that for hydrolysis of the new phosphate compound being formed.

Front 471

The amino acid cysteine is important in adding a secondphosphate to glyceraldehyde phosphate in the glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatedehydrogenase reaction.

Back 471

True

Front 472

Which of the following enzymes of glycolysis is not involved in regulation of thepathway?

Back 472

Aldolase

Front 473

Which of the following glycolytic enzymes forms a mixedanhydride from phosphoric acid?

Back 473

glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

Front 474

How many enzymes of glycolysis are control points for thepathway?

Back 474

3

Front 475

Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a dehydrationreaction?

Back 475

Enolase

Front 476

In the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

Back 476

an aldehyde is oxidized to a carboxylic acid.

Front 477

An enzyme notinvolved in the control of glycolysis is

Back 477

triose phosphate isomerase.

Front 478

How many different reactions involve substrate-levelphosphorylation during glycolysis?

Back 478

2

Front 479

The reduction of pyruvate to lactate

Back 479

allows for recycling of NAD+.

Front 480

Anaerobic metabolism can occur in all these organisms orcells, except:

Back 480

Anaerobic metabolism can occur in all of these.

Front 481

Which of the following enzymes of anaerobic metabolism is not tetrameric?

Back 481

Hexokinase

Front 482

Which of the following is not true?

Back 482

The M4 version of lactatedehydrogenase predominates in heart tissue

Front 483

During anaerobic metabolism in yeast, the carbons of glucoseend up in

Back 483

both CO2 and ethanol.

Front 484

Which of the following enzymes relies on thiaminepyrophosphate as a cofactor?

Back 484

pyruvate decarboxylase

Front 485

Fetal alcohol syndrome

Back 485

can be detected by measuring the level of acetaldehyde in thebloodstream of a pregnant woman

Front 486

During anaerobic metabolism in red blood cells, the carbonsof glucose end up in

Back 486

lactic acid.

Front 487

Alcohol dehydrogenase resembles lactate dehydrogenase in thatit

Back 487

uses NAD+ as a coenzyme.

Front 488

Thiamine pyrophosphate is a coenzyme

Back 488

involved in transfers of two-carbon groups.

Front 489

The fate of NADH from glycolysis depends on whetherconditions are anaerobic or aerobic.

Back 489

True

Front 490

Methanol is extremely toxic, but not directly. In the body,it is converted into formaldehyde; that's what's actually the poison. What kindof enzyme catalyses this conversion?

Back 490

dehydrogenase

Front 491

The percentage of energy captured as ATP during theconversion of glucose to lactate is closest to

Back 491

30%

Front 492

If glycolysis did not lead to the production of ATP, theoverall process would

Back 492

release more energy

Front 493

When humans consume ethanol, the first step in its metabolismis:

Back 493

conversion to acetaldehyde

Front 494

Chpt 18

Back 494

Chpt 18

Front 495

Which of the following statements concerning branchedpolymers like glycogen is false?

Back 495

All of the reducing ends of the branched polymer areavailable to release glucose.

Front 496

What is the average chain length of the branches in glycogen?

Back 496

13 glucose residues

Front 497

Glycogen is mainly found in

Back 497

liver and muscle.

Front 498

Which of the following best describes how liver suppliesother tissues with the glucose it releases from its stored glycogen?

Back 498

It releases glucose into the blood.

Front 499

The enzyme that catalyzes the interconversion ofglucose-1-phosphate and glucose-6-phosphate is

Back 499

a mutase.

Front 500

Glycolysis that starts with glycogen instead of glucose canbe considered to have a higher energy yield because:

Back 500

Phosphorylase produces a glucose phosphate without spendingan ATP to do it

Front 501

Which enzyme cleaves the a(1 ® 6) bonds in glycogen?

Back 501

debranching enzyme

Front 502

What kind of reaction is used to release glucose units fromglycogen?

Back 502

phosphorolysis

Front 503

The enzyme glycogen phosphorylase catalyzes a reaction in

Back 503

glycogen breakdown.

Front 504

If an individual lacked the debranching enzyme, the effectwould be:

Back 504

the individual would not be able to completely break down aglycogen molecule

Front 505

Which of the following best describes the function ofdebranching enzyme?

Back 505

It transfers a set of three glucose residues from a limitbranch and then cleaves the a(1 ® 6) bond via hydrolysis.

Front 506

The compound uridine diphosphate glucose (UDPG) plays a rolein

Back 506

glycogen synthesis

Front 507

The activity of glycogen phosphorylase depends on

Back 507

a. allosteric controlb.covalent modification

Front 508

Glucose-6-phosphatase activity is found associated with theendoplasmic reticulum.

Back 508

True

Front 509

How are the branches in glycogen produced?

Back 509

A branching enzyme moves a short chain of several glucoseunits from a linear a(1,4) section of glycogen to make a new a(1,6) branchpoint.

Front 510

UDP-glucose pyrophosphorylase works by this mechanism:

Back 510

It adds a UMP molecule to glucose-1-phosphate by splittingout pyrophosphate.

Front 511

Which of the following reactions occur when a single glucoseresidue is transferred from UDP-glucose to a growing glycogen molecule?

Back 511

a. UDP is released.b. Theglucose can be attached to a #4 carbon atom in the glycogen molecule.c. UDP isreleased and the glucose is attached to a #4 carbon.*d. All ofthese events can occur when a single glucose residue is added.

Front 512

Glycogen phosphorylase

Back 512

a. exists in two forms, phosphorylase a and phosphorylase bb.responds differently to allosteric effectors in its phosphorylated anddephosphorylated forms

Front 513

Starting from glucose and UTP and ATP, how many high-energybonds are broken/consumed to add that glucose to a glycogen molecule?

Back 513

2

Front 514

When glycogen synthase is phosphorylated

Back 514

its activity decreases.

Front 515

When glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated

Back 515

its activity increases.

Front 516

Where is the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase located?

Back 516

endoplasmic reticulum

Front 517

Glycogen phosphorylase and glycogen synthase

Back 517

are not activated simultaneously

Front 518

Glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase

Back 518

are modified by the same enzymes

Front 519

Hydrolysis of pyrophosphate is an important energy drivingforce in the synthesis of glycogen.

Back 519

True

Front 520

Which of the following isnot a control mechanism for glycogen phosphorylase?

Back 520

Subunit association and dissociation.

Front 521

Of the various forms of glycogen phosphorylase, the mostactive would be:

Back 521

the phosphorylated R form

Front 522

Branching and debranching enzymes use the exact samemechanism to add and remove the branches of the glycogen polymer.

Back 522

False

Front 523

The same enzymes are responsible for covalentmodifications of both glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase inregulating their activity.

Back 523

True

Front 524

Generally speaking, the same mechanisms that activateglycogen phosphorylase will turn off glycogen synthase.

Back 524

True

Front 525

Which of the following isnot an advantage that glycogen provides to muscle cells in which it isstored?

Back 525

It draws more water into the cells than glucose would.

Front 526

Glycogen loading is particularly advantageous for providingenergy for long distance athletic events, such as running the marathon.

Back 526

False

Front 527

Properly used, glycogen loading by athletes is a safeprocess.

Back 527

True

Front 528

Which of the following molecules does not directly regulate the activity of glycogen synthase?

Back 528

Glucose

Front 529

There is as much energy used to add a phosphate group bymeans of phosphorolysis, as the energy required adding a phosphate using ATP.

Back 529

False

Front 530

Gluconeogenesis is the synthesis of

Back 530

glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors

Front 531

Gluconeogenesis differs from glycolysis because

Back 531

a. the irreversible steps of glycolysis are bypassedb.different enzymes are involvedc. biotinis required for gluconeogenesis and not for glycolysis*d. all ofthese

Front 532

Which enzyme is used in gluconeogenesis, but NOT in glycolysis?

Back 532

PEP carboxykinase

Front 533

The enzyme pyruvate carboxylase

Back 533

requires biotin for activity

Front 534

In which cellular compartment is pyruvate carboxylase found?

Back 534

mitochondria

Front 535

Which of the following statements concerning biotin andgluconeogenesis is false?

Back 535

CO2 is incorporated into theglucose product.

Front 536

The regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis are

Back 536

glucose-6-phosphatase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, and phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase

Front 537

In gluconeogenesis, the initial reaction converts pyruvate to

Back 537

oxaloacetate

Front 538

The first reaction of gluconeogenesis is

Back 538

a carboxylation

Front 539

Which nucleotide triphosphate is hydrolysed in the conversionof oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate?

Back 539

GTP

Front 540

The NADH used for the reduction reactions duringgluconeogenesis usually come from this reaction:

Back 540

Malate dehydrogenase activity in the cytoplasm.

Front 541

Which of the following is true?

Back 541

In gluconeogenesis, the effective reversal of the glycolyticreactions of hexokinase and phosphofructokinase involve the same sugarmolecules but not the exact set of substrates and products

Front 542

How many ATP equivalents are expended to convert 2 pyruvatesto 1 glucose?

Back 542

6

Front 543

It is impossible to reverse any kinase reaction underphysiological conditions.

Back 543

True

Front 544

In general, opposing pathways, such as glycolysis andgluconeogenesis are not exactreversals of each other.

Back 544

True

Front 545

The formation and breakdown of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate

Back 545

is catalyzed by the same protein dependant upon whether it isphosphorylated or not.

Front 546

High concentrations of fructose-2,6-bisphopshate

Back 546

stimulate glycolysis and inhibit gluconeogenesis.

Front 547

The activity of the enzyme fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase is

Back 547

inhibited by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate.

Front 548

In the process of substrate cycling

Back 548

different enzymes, subject to independent control, areresponsible for the synthesis and breakdown of the same substance.

Front 549

The molecule fructose 2,6-bisphosphate:

Back 549

is an important regulatory molecule in the control ofcarbohydrate metabolism

Front 550

Which of the following is not true concerning control ofpyruvate kinase?

Back 550

a. The phosphorylated form is less activeb. It isinhibited by ATPc. It isactivated by fructose 1,6-bisphosphated. It isinhibited by low blood glucose levels*e. All ofthese

Front 551

The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase is only found in cells whichhave this function or ability:

Back 551

Ability to replenish the levels of glucose in the blood.

Front 552

If you're running away from a bear,

Back 552

your liver cells will be running gluconeogenesis and your legmuscle cells will be running glycolysis.

Front 553

In the Cori cycle

Back 553

glycolysis takes place in muscle and gluconeogenesis in theliver.

Front 554

The process called substrate cycling is used to describe thisprocess:

Back 554

Situations where there are two different enzymes used toreverse a specific step in a metabolic pathway.

Front 555

The Cori cycle involves the following:

Back 555

Conversion of lactate produced in the muscle by regenerationof glucose in the liver.

Front 556

Which of the following mechanisms can be used to regulatemetabolic pathways?

Back 556

a. Allosteric activators and inhibitors.b.Covalent modifications of enzymes.c. Use ofseparate enzymes at a given point in the forward and backward pathways.d.Regulation of the genes for the enzymes used in the pathway.*e. All ofthese are used to regulate metabolism.

Front 557

The liver contains a special enzyme, hexokinase, to act as abackup for glucokinase when the glucose levels in the body get very high.

Back 557

False

Front 558

The primary function of the pentose phosphate pathway is

Back 558

to synthesize NADPH and pentose phosphates.

Front 559

During the pentose phosphate pathway (glucose-6-P ®ribose-5-P), is there a net oxidation of the substrate carbon atoms?

Back 559

It depends on whether the glucose goes through the oxidativepart of the pathway or not.

Front 560

What kind of enzyme catalyzes the following reaction?ribose-5-P « ribulose-5-P

Back 560

isomerase

Front 561

What kind of enzyme catalyzes the reaction ribulose-5-P «xylulose-5-P?

Back 561

epimerase

Front 562

Which of the following statements concerning the initialphase of the pentose phosphate pathway is false?

Back 562

The process reduces glucose-6-phosphate.

Front 563

In one normal cycle of the pentose phosphate pathway, theenzyme transaldolase is used twice and the enzyme transketolase is used once.

Back 563

False

Front 564

The oxidative reactions of the pentose phosphate pathway

Back 564

produce NADPH rather than NADH.

Front 565

The conversion of ribulose 5-phosphate to xylulose5-phosphate is

Back 565

an epimerization

Front 566

A characteristic of the reaction catalyzed by transaldolaseis

Back 566

transfer of a three-carbon unit

Front 567

Which of the following molecules is not a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?

Back 567

glycerate-3-phosphate

Front 568

Control of the entry of glucose or fructose into theoxidative portions of the pentose phosphate pathway is mostly dependent on acell's need for NADPH, rather than on the cell's need for pentoses.

Back 568

True

Front 569

The enzyme phosphopentose isomerase is characterized by allthe following except

Back 569

it catalyzes an inversion of configuration at carbon-3

Front 570

In addition to pentoses, the pentose phosphate pathwayinvolves sugars of all these sizes except:

Back 570

a. 3 carbonsb. 4carbonsc. 6carbonsd. 7carbons*e. All ofthese sizes are used in this pathway.

Front 571

The vitamin thiamine is important in transferring all ofthese types of groups, except:

Back 571

Thiamine can transfer all of these types of groups.

Front 572

All of the following sugar rearrangements are part of thepentose phosphate pathway, except.

Back 572

C5 + C5 ® C6 + C4

Front 573

Hemolytic anemia is associated with the pentose phosphatepathway because:

Back 573

a. a deficiency of this pathway leads to a lack of NADPH inred blood cellsb. NADPHis required to reduce glutathionec. Redblood cells have minimal resources for maintaining an oxidative balance*d. all ofthese