Aviation Resource Management 1C052N Vol 2

Front 1

List the two types of career aviators.

Back 1

Rated officers and CEAs.

Front 2

What date do you use to establish the ASD for a licensed physician?

Back 2

The date of the AMP course certificate.

Front 3

What date do you use to establish the ASD for a medical student?

Back 3

The date of the medical license.

Front 4

Which Congressional Act gave CEAs entitlement of CEFIP?

Back 4

FY 00 NDAA.

Front 5

List the two types of non-career aviators.

Back 5

Non-rated officers and non-CEAs.

Front 6

Which AFI would you check to see if your MAJCOM has an authorized position for a non-career
aviator?

Back 6

AFI 65–503

Front 7

What does a duty AFSC prefix of “Q” signify?

Back 7

Evaluator qualified

Front 8

What are some of the duties of an operational support flier?

Back 8

Performing in-flight diagnostics of aircraft or equipment malfunctions that cannot be duplicated on the ground, providing in-flight medical assistance on actual emergency medical evacuations, giving instructions on High Altitude Airborne Mission Support (HAAMS), providing security support on air-toground surveillance of missile convoys, or an in-flight test of specific hardware items when such testing
cannot be duplicated on the ground.

Front 9

Briefly describe how funds are allocated in the “Man-Year” program.

Back 9

The “Man-Year” program is a specific budgetary obligation of funds set aside to pay for operational support flying duties. Each fiscal year, the Air Force obligates funds to this program to meet actual operational mission needs. These funds are used to authorize payment of Hazardous Duty Incentive Pay (HDIP) to members in operational flying status.

Front 10

One man-year equates to how many man-months?

Back 10

12

Front 11

What publication outlines the different classes of medical examinations required to qualify an
individual for flying duty?

Back 11

AFI 48–123

Front 12

Qualifies undergraduate flight training students, rated officers, and
physicians

Back 12

Flying Class II

Front 13

Qualifies an aircrew member for selection into MFS and entry to
UPT

Back 13

Flying Class I.

Front 14

Qualifies an aircrew member for selection and entry to UNT.

Back 14

Flying Class IA.

Front 15

Qualifies rated officers for duty in low-G aircraft such as tanker,
transport, and bomber

Back 15

Categorical Flying
Class IIA.

Front 16

Qualifies individuals for non-rated and CEA flying duties

Back 16

Flying Class III

Front 17

Qualifies rated officers for non-ejection seat aircraft

Back 17

Categorical Flying
Class IIB.

Front 18

Qualifies rated officers for aviation duty specified in the Remarks
section of the AF IMT 1042

Back 18

Categorical Flying
Class IIC

Front 19

List the three most common occurrences when a flight physical is required

Back 19

When a member is initially placed in aviation service. When a member’s periodic flight physical becomes due and when a member applies for requalification.

Front 20

When is a periodic flight PHA due?

Back 20

Every 15 months

Front 21

What form is used to document flight PHAs?

Back 21

AF IMT 1042

Front 22

How long can career aviator remain in DNIF status without being medically disqualified?

Back 22

365 days

Front 23

How do you process the AF IMT 1042 that places a member in DNIF status?

Back 23

Update ARMS and place the DNIF in a temporary suspense file. If PCSing, place it in the member’s FRF

Front 24

Which ARMS window would you use to update the member’s physical information?

Back 24

Flyer Availability window

Front 25

What date would you enter in the Flight Physical Date field when updating a member’s flight
physical date in ARMS?

Back 25

The date the flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042.

Front 26

What date would you enter in the Physical Availability Date field if the AF IMT 1042 is used to
place a member in DNIF status?

Back 26

The actual date found DNIF from the AF IMT 1042.

Front 27

Where can you find the different availability codes?

Back 27

AFI 11–421 or use the LOV function in ARMS.

Front 28

Briefly describe a categorical flying waiver.

Back 28

It restricts an aircrew member with certain medical condition or physical limitation to fly a specific type of aircraft. For instance, an aircrew member who has low tolerance to high-G or suffers from vestibular disorder may obtain a categorical flying waiver to fly only low-G, non-ejection seat weapon systems such as tanker, transport, and bomber aircraft.

Front 29

Where can you find the different category flying waiver codes?

Back 29

AFI 11–421 or use the LOV function in ARMS.

Front 30

What is the purpose of centrifuge training?

Back 30

To enhance combat capability and safety by optimizing aircrew defense against GLOC.

Front 31

What form is used to document centrifuge training?

Back 31

AF IMT 702.

Front 32

List some examples of personnel who are required to complete altitude chamber.

Back 32

Individuals who are or will be placed on active flying status; HAPs who participate in parachute operations above 10,000 feet MSL; passengers in aircraft flying above 18,000 feet MSL; officer cadets to meet specific needs of the USAFA/ROTC flying programs; civilian employees when required for military orientation flights and approved by the local wing commander.

Front 33

How long is the original altitude chamber training valid?

Back 33

Five years and expires on the last day of the month the training was completed.

Front 34

List all the post-chamber flight restrictions.

Back 34

No physical exercise, strenuous, or extended duty for a period of 12 hours; no flying duties for at least 12 hours after completion of any chamber flight above 25,000 feet; No passenger flights if cabin altitude is above 10,000 feet; No flying duties or flying as a passenger after a chamber flight to 25,000 feet or below if cabin altitude is above 15,000 feet.

Front 35

List the documents that an aircrew member must hand carry when attending physiological
training?

Back 35

AF IMT 1042 and AF IMT 702

Front 36

How many days does a member have to return the AF IMT 702 upon arrival at home station?

Back 36

Within five duty days after arrival at the home station.

Front 37

Which ARMS window would you use to update the member’s physiological training
information?

Back 37

Flyer Availability window

Front 38

How can you manually adjust a member’s physiological training due date in ARMS?

Back 38

By selecting “Yes” in the Waiver field

Front 39

(201) A professional accreditation in aviation that is similar to a physician who is accredited to
practice a trade is a

Back 39

rating

Front 40

(201) Which date is used to compute the officer service date (OSD)?

Back 40

Commissioning date in the USAF

Front 41

(201) Licensed physicians are placed in aviation service as flight surgeons effective the date

Back 41

they completed the Aerospace Medicine Primary Course.

Front 42

(201) Establish the aviation service date (ASD) for a medical student using the date

Back 42

of the medical license

Front 43

(202) What qualification does the aircrew prefix “Q” signify?

Back 43

Evaluator

Front 44

(202) Before placing a non-career aviator on flying status, make sure the member

Back 44

has a duty prefix of “X,” “K,” or “Q”

Front 45

(203) Operational support fliers

Back 45

are fully qualified in non-aircrew specialties and authorized to fly occasionally

Front 46

(203) Operational support members are placed in flying status

Back 46

on a monthly basis

Front 47

(203) The MAJCOM must receive the unit’s man-month request by what date?

Back 47

15 June

Front 48

(204) What Flying class of medical examination is required to qualify a member for career
enlisted aviation (CEA) duties?

Back 48

III

Front 49

(204) A flight physical is not required when a

Back 49

member is placed on medical waiver

Front 50

(204) A periodic flight preventative health assessments (PHA) is required every

Back 50

15

Front 51

(205) The AF IMT 1042 is not used to

Back 51

document completion of physiological training

Front 52

(205) When a member completes a flight physical health assessment (PHA), the flight surgeon
must send a copy of the AF IMT 1042, Medical Recommendation for Flying or Special
Operational Duty to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) office within

Back 52

one duty day

Front 53

(205) How many days can a non-rated officer remain in Duty Not Involving Flying (DNIF) status
without being medically disqualified from aviation service?

Back 53

180

Front 54

(206) When updating the flight physical in Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) use
the date the

Back 54

flight surgeon signed the AF IMT 1042

Front 55

(206) What code must you enter in the Physical Status Code field in the Aviation Resource
Management System (ARMS) to manually change a member’s flight physical due date?

Back 55

F

Front 56

(207) One way of knowing if a member is currently available to perform in-flight duties is to
check the member’s

Back 56

availability code

Front 57

(207) Which Air Force Instruction (AFI) can you find the list of availability codes?

Back 57

11–421, Aviation Resource Management

Front 58

(208) A categorical flying waiver

Back 58

restricts a member with certain medical conditions to fly a specific type of aircraft

Front 59

(208) In which Air Force Instruction can you find the list of categorical flying waiver codes?

Back 59

11–421, Aviation Resource Management

Front 60

(209) Following any centrifuge training, an aircrew member is placed in automatic Duty Not
Involving Flying (DNIF) status for how many hours?

Back 60

12

Front 61

(209) Completion of centrifuge training is documented using the

Back 61

AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record

Front 62

(209) Who certifies completion of centrifuge training on the AF IMT 702, Individual
Physiological Training Record?

Back 62

Aerospace physiologist

Front 63

(210) Who is not required to have altitude chamber training?

Back 63

civilians who participate in spouse orientation flights

Front 64

(210) Altitude chamber refresher training is not required when removal of a member from active
flying status will occur within how many months of the training due date?

Back 64

4

Front 65

(211) When, if ever, can you schedule a member with an expired flight physical health assessment
(PHA) to attend any physiological training?

Back 65

Never

Front 66

(211) After completing physiological training, within how many duty days of arrival on station
must the member return the AF IMT 702 to the Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM)
office?

Back 66

5

Front 67

(212) To update a member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management System
(ARMS), use the

Back 67

Flyer Availability window

Front 68

(212) After updating the member’s physiological information in Aviation Resource Management
System (ARMS), the AF IMT 702 is

Back 68

filed in the flight record folder

Front 69

List the different types of aeronautical ratings.

Back 69

Pilot, Senior Pilot, Command Pilot; Navigator, Senior Navigator, Master Navigator (soon to be obsolete); Air Battle Manager, Senior Air Battle Manager, Master Air Battle Manager; Flight Surgeon, Senior Flight Surgeon, Chief Flight Surgeon; Observer, Senior Observer, Master Observer; Combat Systems Officer, Senior Combat Systems Officer, Master Combat Systems Officer.

Front 70

Who has the authority to award the basic ABM rating?

Back 70

The ACC commander unless the authority is delegated to the commanders of air control wings.

Front 71

A navigator formerly qualified as a pilot may qualify for what type of advanced rating?

Back 71

Advanced navigator rating.

Front 72

List two ways to satisfy the military flying time requirement for advanced rating.

Back 72

Either by the sum of all the flight time logged under the current rating or the combination of the different flight time categories such as primary, instructor, and/or evaluator.

Front 73

What is an ARB?

Back 73

An ARB is a board of rated officers who are tasked to evaluate the professional flying credentials of officers who completed an undergraduate flying training conducted by another branch of the armed forces for a possible award of a USAF rating.

Front 74

Who is the approving authority for an ARB?

Back 74

MAJCOM/A3.

Front 75

List the three types of non-rated aircrew member badges.

Back 75

Officer aircrew member badge; Airman Aircrew Member badge; Flight Nurse badge.

Front 76

When may an OSF member wear an aviation badge?

Back 76

When permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew member duty.

Front 77

List two instances when the continued wear of an aviation badge is considered inappropriate.

Back 77

When the member fails to maintain professional standards and when there is substantiated drug abuse by a member.

Front 78

Who has final authority for prohibiting the wear of an aviation badge?

Back 78

The MAJCOM commander

Front 79

(213) Which position does not have an aeronautical rating?

Back 79

Master Flight Surgeon

Front 80

(213) A pilot-physician who is formerly qualified as a combat systems officer (CSO) is eligible
for the advanced rating of

Back 80

pilot and flight surgeon

Front 81

(213) Advanced ratings are awarded based on

Back 81

years of rated service and either military flying time or OFDA

Front 82

(213) The years of rated service are computed from the date the officer

Back 82

received the basic United States Air Force rating

Front 83

(214) An Aeronautical Rating Board (ARB) is a board of rated officers who are tasked to

Back 83

evaluate the flying credentials of officers applying for an inter-service transfer

Front 84

(214) The effective date of the Department of the Air Force (DAF) aeronautical order (AO)

Back 84

officer is assigned to rated duties

Front 85

(215) Non-rated officers (except flight nurses) may start wearing the officer aircrew member
badge

Back 85

after completing an aircrew qualification as documented on AF Form 8, Certificate of Aircrew Qualification

Front 86

(215) A member is authorized to wear the basic flight nurse badge after completing the basic
flight nurse course, three years of aviation service, and

Back 86

12 paid months of operational flying duty

Front 87

(215) Operational support fliers are not authorized to wear an aviation badge unless

Back 87

it is permanently awarded as a result of previous aircrew duty

Front 88

(216) A commander may recommend to prohibit the wear of the aviation badge when a member

Back 88

is disqualified due to fear of flying.

Front 89

(216) Who makes final approval for prohibiting the wear of aviation badges?

Back 89

MAJCOM commander

Front 90

Which data element in the UMD should you be concerned with?

Back 90

API element

Front 91

What does an API “6” indicate?

Back 91

A rated officer position at wing level and below with duties and responsibilities that require the officer to
actively fly.

Front 92

What must commanders do when staff or supervisory positions are double billeted?

Back 92

On or before the 30th day, commanders must direct the HARM office to terminate the AO of one of the
members and assign FSC “H” effective the 31st day.

Front 93

What is the difference between APIs and FACs?

Back 93

API codes are attached to manpower positions while FACs are assigned to individuals.

Front 94

A rated officer in an API 0 position performing aircrew duties in
direct support of certain Secretary of the Air Force approved flying
missions.

Back 94

FAC 5

Front 95

An instructor pilot in API 6, 7, or 8 coded positions not associated
with formal training units.

Back 95

FAC 3

Front 96

An officer in API 1, 2, 6, 8, and 9 assigned to fly “TF” coded
aircraft.

Back 96

FAC 2

Front 97

A loadmaster assigned to an AETC non-flying formal school
position.

Back 97

FAC D

Front 98

A pilot-physician.

Back 98

FAC 9

Front 99

A CEA in API A coded position not associated with formal
training.

Back 99

FAC A

Front 100

What happens to a member’s entitlement to Continuous ACIP when the member fails to meet the OFDA requirement at each gate?

Back 100

The member forfeits his or her entitlement to Continuous ACIP for the less attractive Conditional ACIP.

Front 101

What did the FY 2000 NDAA establish?

Back 101

It established the CEFIP for all CEAs.

Front 102

Define operational flying.

Back 102

Operational flying is flying performed under competent orders by rated or designated members while serving in assignments in which basic flying skills are normally maintained in the performance of assigned duties as determined by the Secretary concerned, and flying performed by members in training that leads to the award of an aeronautical rating or designation.

Front 103

How many months of OFDA are accumulated when a pilot flies on 15 Feb and does not fly again until 22 Jun?

Back 103

Four months (Feb, March, April, and May).

Front 104

Briefly describe what an ASC is.

Back 104

Every member who is placed in aviation service is assigned an ASC. ASCs are two-character codes that indicate incentive pay entitlement and flying status.

Front 105

What does a numeric FSC indicate?

Back 105

The member is disqualified or suspended.

Front 106

Active – Parachutist. A qualified non-rated/non-CEA assigned to a
valid jump DAFSC position.

Back 106

FSC E

Front 107

Inactive – Non-Performance. A rated officer or CEA assigned to operational flying duties who did not complete OFDA requirements.

Back 107

FSC S

Front 108

Active – Operational Flying. A rated officer or CEA assigned to operational flying duties (excluding undergraduate flying training students).

Back 108

FSC A

Front 109

Suspended – Permanent disqualification action pending.

Back 109

FSC 4

Front 110

Disqualified – Fear of flying

Back 110

FSC 1

Front 111

Disqualified – Administrative reasons.

Back 111

FSC 0

Front 112

Disqualified – Medical disqualification.

Back 112

FSC 3

Front 113

Within how many days would you confirm a verbal order?

Back 113

Within three duty days.

Front 114

When may you publish a single AO that affect several members?

Back 114

When the action is exactly the same for all members.

Front 115

What must the HARM office do when the CHARM is not available to authenticate AOs?

Back 115

Submit a waiver letter to the MFM requesting the assistant CHARM or another qualified 1C0X2 individual on the base assume this authority.

Front 116

Aeronautical orders can be classified into how many types?

Back 116

Three types – New (Original), Amendment, and Revocation.

Front 117

What is the purpose of an amendment AO?

Back 117

To correct minor typographical errors found in the original AO such as misspelled name, incorrect SSN, grade, or termination date as long as the intent of the original AO is not affected.

Front 118

What happens when an AO is revoked?

Back 118

It is deleted from the member’s chronological history and no longer considered an official document. It must be removed from the member’s FRF.

Front 119

List the five steps of the AO publication process.

Back 119

(1) Initiate Action.
(2) Request orders.
(3) Authenticate orders.
(4) Reproduce and distribute orders.
(5) Use and file orders.

Front 120

Describe how AOs are numbered.

Back 120

AOs are numbered sequentially starting with “0001” for each fiscal year (1 October – 30 September).

Front 121

Describe how background materials used to support the publication of AOs are maintained.

Back 121

Background materials confirming the publication of AOs for the entire fiscal year are maintained in a separate file. Each document is annotated in the lower right-hand corner (bottom margin of the page) with the order number and date to which it pertains. For example, “Supporting document for AO#0469, dated 15 Dec 2008.”

Front 122

List four basic reasons for publishing an AO.

Back 122

(1) To initiate or terminate aviation service.
(2) Award or prohibit the wear of aeronautical ratings and aviation badges.
(3) Change an ASC.
(4) Suspend, disqualify, or requalify a member.

Front 123

Which ARMS report shows a list of all career aviators who are approaching an aviation service gate and their projected ASC?

Back 123

Aviation Service Suspense List

Front 124

What effective date would you use when placing an OSF member on flying status?

Back 124

The date the member’s qualifications are certified and the availability of man-months are confirmed.

Front 125

What effective date would you use when awarding the basic pilot rating?

Back 125

The member’s graduation date from UPT.

Front 126

What is the effective date of the AO changing the member’s ASC from “1U” to “1X” if the
member graduates UPT on 27 Apr, departs on 28 Apr, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 29 Apr?

Back 126

27 Apr.

Front 127

What is the effective date of the AO changing the member’s ASC from “AX” to “AA” if the
CEA graduates formal flying training school on 25 Feb, departs on 26 Feb, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 27 Feb?

Back 127

27 Feb.

Front 128

What is the effective date of the AO changing the member’s ASC from “1A” to “2A” if the
member’s ASD is 28 Sep 1999 assuming the member meets the requirement at the 12th year gate?

Back 128

28 Sep 2011.

Front 129

Briefly explain the validity of AOs for career aviators.

Back 129

The validity of AOs for career aviators (except flight surgeons) extends to their next aviation service milestone (i.e., 12, 18, 22, or 25 years of aviation service for rated officers and 10, 15, 20, or 25 years of aviation service for CEAs). This means each time a career aviator reaches a milestone an AO is required to be published that will take the member to the next.

Front 130

What termination date would you use when placing a flight surgeon on flying status?

Back 130

The date the flight surgeon will complete 25 years of aviation service.

Front 131

What termination date would you use when a non-CEA with a DOS of 28 Sep 2011, has to PCS to a flying position overseas with a DEROS of 12 May 2011?

Back 131

12 May 2011

Front 132

What must you specify in the Authority section of the AO when you are using an AFI as
authority?

Back 132

Cite the AFI number, paragraph number, and the date of the AFI such as AFI 11–401, para 2.4.1, dated 7 March 2007.

Front 133

Explain the purpose of using remarks on AOs.

Back 133

Remarks are used to clear ambiguity, provide explanation, and emphasize important information. When used correctly, remarks add strength and validity to the AO.

Front 134

When publishing an AO in ARMS, what do light-blue colored fields signify?

Back 134

Mandatory fields.

Front 135

When publishing an AO in ARMS, once the member’s name appears in the Personnel List, what
must you do to activate the record?

Back 135

Double click on the member’s name to activate the record.

Front 136

(217) The manpower standard is an Air Force document used to

Back 136

quantify manpower requirements

Front 137

(217) Funding for manpower resources are derived from the

Back 137

The Department of Defense (DOD) Future Years Defense Program

Front 138

(217) Which primary document reflects the manpower required to perform the unit’s mission?

Back 138

Unit Manpower Document

Front 139

(218) How can you determine if members are double-billeted?

Back 139

They share the same position number.

Front 140

(219) A flying activity code (FAC) is a one-digit code used to provide detailed information about

Back 140

activity

Front 141

(219) Which AFI can you find the list of flying activity codes (FAC)?

Back 141

11–401, Aviation Management

Front 142

(220) Which Congressional Act was the first to set minimum numbers of operational flying duty
accumulator (OFDA) months for rated officers to receive continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

Back 142

Aviation Career Incentive Act of 1974

Front 143

(220) Aviation service gates for career enlisted aviators (CEA) are set at the

Back 143

10th, 15th and 20th year of aviation service

Front 144

(221) Which rated officer may accumulate operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit toward entitlement to Continuous Aviation Career Incentive Pay (ACIP)?

Back 144

A combat systems officer (CSO) with less than 18 years of aviation service.

Front 145

(221) How many days in a calendar month must a member be in an active flying status code (FSC) to receive one month of operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit?

Back 145

15

Front 146

(221) What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) “S” to a member who is actively flying and flew on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly again until 12 Sep 09?

Back 146

1 Jul 09.

Front 147

(221) What is the effective date for assigning flying status code (FSC) “S” to a member who was initially assigned to flying duty on 15 Mar 09, but did not fly until 12 Sep 09?

Back 147

16 Mar 09

Front 148

(221) A member was initially assigned to flying duty on 19 Dec 08 and first flew on 17 Apr 09.
What action, if any must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office take on 20 Mar 09.

Back 148

Change the member’s flying status code (FSC) from “A” to “S”.

Front 149

(221) For which months is the member who is actively flying authorized to receive operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA) credit if the member flew on 14 May, but did not fly again until 18 Nov?

Back 149

May, Jun, Jul, and Aug

Front 150

(222) The fist character of the aviation service code (ASC) is the

Back 150

entitlement status code (ESC)

Front 151

(222) Which flying status code (FSC) is assigned when a member is not flying due to lack of support capability?

Back 151

K

Front 152

(222) A member’s entitlement status code (ESC) is not changed when he/she

Back 152

fails to perform an operational flight for the month.

Front 153

(222) What is the maximum number of days a member can stay in Aviation Status Code 04 (suspended status) without MAJCOM approval?

Back 153

180

Front 154

(223) You must confirm verbal orders in writing by

Back 154

publishing the corresponding aeronautical order (AO) within 3 duty days

Front 155

(223) You may publish a single aeronautical order (AO) that affects several members provided

Back 155

the action is exactly the same for all members

Front 156

(224) When amending an aeronautical order (AO), you must locate the original AO in the master record set and document in ink in the lower left-hand margin

Back 156

the order number and request date of the amendment AO

Front 157

(224) You cannot publish an amendment aeronautical order (AO) to correct the

Back 157

effective date

Front 158

(224) When an aeronautical order (AO) is revoked, it is no longer an official document; therefore

Back 158

remove it from the FRF and AO master record set

Front 159

(225) The aeronautical order (AO) number of the last AO published in the previous year must be
annotated

Back 159

above the heading of the first AO of the current year

Front 160

(225) Supporting documents used in publishing aeronautical order (AO) are annotated in ink

Back 160

in the lower right-hand corner with the AO number to which it pertains

Front 161

(226) You do not publish an aeronautical order (AO) when

Back 161

awarding an advanced aeronautical rating

Front 162

(227) What effective date would you use when changing a pilot’s flying status code (FSC) from “U” to “X” if the member graduates undergraduate pilot training (UPT) or undergraduate flying training (UFT) on 25 May, departs for initial qualification training (IQT) on 26 May, completes IQT on 15 Aug, and signs in to the first operational flying unit on 17 Aug?

Back 162

25 May

Front 163

(227) A pilot completed undergraduate pilot training (UPT) on 27 Sep 08 and left the next day to a temporary duty (TDY) location to complete initial qualification training (IQT). The member completed IQT on 15 Jan 09; left the TDY location on 16 Jan 09; and signed in to the first operational flying unit on 20 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) changing the member’s Aviation Service Code (ASC) from “1X” to “1A?”

Back 163

17 Jan 09

Front 164

(227) On 12 Oct 08, the commander certified a member’s eligibility for non-career aviator flying duties. The member was assigned to an aircrew prefix duty Air Force specialty code (DAFSC) on 13 Oct 08, started formal flying training on 5 Nov 08, and completed training on 15 Jan 09. What is the effective date of the aeronautical order (AO) assigning Aviation Service Code (ASC) “9D?”

Back 164

15 Jan 09

Front 165

(228) What date is not used when terminating an aeronautical order (AO) for non-career enlisted aviators (CEA)?

Back 165

Aviation service milestone

Front 166

(228) When a non-rated officer’s date of separation (DOS) is unknown, the effective period of the
member’s aeronautical order (AO) must not exceed

Back 166

3 years

Front 167

(229) Which is the correct way of citing an Air Force instruction (AFI) as authority when publishing an aeronautical order (AO)?

Back 167

AFI 11–401, Para 2.3.4, 7 Mar 09

Front 168

(229) In which AFI can you find the list of all the mandatory remarks used for publishing aeronautical orders (AO)?

Back 168

11–401, Aviation Management

Front 169

(229) Remarks are not used on aeronautical order (AO) to

Back 169

emphasize important information

Front 170

(230) When publishing an aeronautical order (AO) to change a rated officer’s Aviation Service
Code (ASC), the termination date is automatically populated and will coincide with the member’s

Back 170

promotion date

Front 171

(230) What must be included in the Authority section of the aeronautical order (AO), when the authority for publishing the AO is a letter?

Back 171

Commander’s name, organization, and date of the letter

Front 172

Briefly describe a FEB.

Back 172

A FEB is an administrative, fact-finding hearing designed to ensure the quality control of career and noncareer aviators. The board members review and discuss in a fair and impartial manner all information relevant to a member’s aviation and professional qualifications. It is similar to a court trial but not as adversarial.

Front 173

Who is the final decision authority for a FEB action?

Back 173

The respondent’s MAJCOM commander.

Front 174

List the different reasons for convening a FEB.

Back 174

(1) Extended suspension or disqualification from aviation service.
(2) Lack of proficiency; failure to meet standards; lack of judgment.
(3) Failure to meet ground or flying requirements.
(4) Violation of flying regulations and procedures.
(5) Undesirable habits; traits; and characteristics.

Front 175

How long can you suspend a member without a MAJCOM/A3T approval?

Back 175

180 calendar days.

Front 176

List some of the reasons for initiating a suspension action.

Back 176

(1) Is a respondent in a FEB/waiver of FEB action.
(2) Professes fear of flying.
(3) Is under investigation for drug abuse or self-identifies as an illegal drug user.
(4) Is being processed for involuntary discharge.
(5) Is under investigation or the subject of a criminal charge under the UCMJ.
(6) Is under investigation or the subject of a criminal charge under a civilian penal code if the charge alleges an offense for which the maximum authorized punishment in a court-martial under the UCMJ would exceed six months confinement at hard labor.
(7) Is being processed for PRP decertification.
(8) Attempts to DOR from a formal flying training course.
(9) Fails to maintain medical certification or aircrew ground or flight requirements due to factors within his or her control.
(10) Is administratively found by his or her immediate or higher-level commander to have committed an offense(s) for which the maximum authorized punishment in a court-martial would exceed six months confinement at hard labor.
(11) Loses his or her security clearance.

Front 177

Give three examples of permanent disqualifications.

Back 177

Any three of the following:
(1) FEB action.
(2) Request for voluntary disqualification.
(3) Fear of flying; transfer of a rated officer to other than the line-of-the Air Force (except pilotphysicians).
(4) Substantiated drug abuse.
(5) Failure to maintain professional standards.

Front 178

What steps are taken when a member refused to withdraw the fear of flying statement?

Back 178

The HARM office is notified and the member is referred to the flight surgeon for medical examination. Upon receipt of the notification, publish an AO assigning ASC “04” (Suspended – Permanent Disqualification Action Pending) effective the date the member declined to withdraw the fear of flying
statement. Terminate the member’s flying incentive pay effective one calendar day prior to the effective date of the suspension.

Front 179

Define the term “other-than-line”.

Back 179

The term “other-than-line” is used to indicate other professional fields (i.e., medical, legal, or chaplain).

Front 180

What ASC and effective date would you use to suspend a member for failure to maintain
professional standards?

Back 180

ASC “04” (Suspended – Disqualification Action Pending) effective the date the member was notified of the
suspension action.

Front 181

Give three examples of non-permanent disqualifications.

Back 181

Any three of the following:
(1) Failure to maintain medical fitness.
(2) Failure to maintain medical certification.
(3) Disenrollment from USAF Survival School.
(4) Conscientious objector or non-combatant status.
(5) PRP decertification.
(6) AFELOA.
(7) Humanitarian disqualification in lieu of voluntary request (non-career aviators).

Front 182

Members who wish to reenter aviation service must submit an application according to what Air Force instruction?

Back 182

AFI 11–402.

Front 183

Describe how medical certification is obtained when medical disqualification is less than one year.

Back 183

The member may obtain medical certification through the local flight surgeon’s office. An application is not required and requalification is immediate once the flight surgeon certifies the member is medically fit for flying duties.

Front 184

Who must certify a member’s medical qualification when medical disqualification is five years or longer?

Back 184

HQ AFMOA/SG3PF.

Front 185

Describe an ASD adjustment and its benefits to a member.

Back 185

A new policy to stop including breaks in military service (separation or retirement) and periods of nonpermanent
disqualification in years of aviation service computation. Adjusting a member’s ASD buys the member time to meet his or her OFDA gate requirements and extends the member’s entitlement to flying incentive pay by discounting the time spent while separated, retired, or in disqualified (non-permanent) status.

Front 186

ASD adjustment is mandatory for members returning to aviation service on or after what date?

Back 186

1 Aug 02.

Front 187

(231) What is not a reason to convene a flying evaluation board (FEB)?

Back 187

Lack of judgment

Front 188

(231) A flying evaluation board (FEB) may not recommend

Back 188

disciplinary actions

Front 189

(232) While under suspension, the member’s flying incentive pay

Back 189

is terminated until the member’s status is resolved

Front 190

(232) Suspension action is at the discretion of the commander when a member

Back 190

is offered Article 15 punishment

Front 191

(233) Non-permanent disqualification reasons include

Back 191

Conscientious objector

Front 192

(233) After a member has been suspended for failure to accomplish a flight preventative health
assessment (PHA), the member has how many days to accomplish a flight PHA before facing disqualification?

Back 192

60 days from the date the flight PHA expires.

Front 193

(234) If the medical disqualification is less than one year, a member may obtain medical certification for requalification by

Back 193

obtaining certification from the local flight surgeon’s office

Front 194

(234) A rated officer who has been disqualified for at least one year but less than five years due to failure to maintain medical fitness may be requalified for aviation service when

Back 194

certified by HQ AFMOA/SG3PF

Front 195

(235) Aviation service date (ASD) adjustment is mandatory for members

Back 195

returning to aviation service on or after 1 Aug 02.

Front 196

What automated system is used as a central repository for all military personnel data?

Back 196

MilPDS.

Front 197

In ARMS, what must be enabled to schedule an ARMS-MilPDS interface?

Back 197

The Process Incoming PDS Files checkbox.

Front 198

Briefly describe how the deferred processing of the CHARMS is performed.

Back 198

Deferred processing is an automatic transfer of data according to the conditions set within the system. During a deferred processing, a transfer file is created and a transport program sends the file via the Internet to HQ USAF/A3O-AT.

Front 199

Which ARMS report would you use to validate a member’s OFDA totals during in and outprocessing and annual FRF review?

Back 199

The Aviation Service Audit Worksheet.

Front 200

Which ARMS report would you use to reconcile errors found in your database before the deferred
processing takes place?

Back 200

The CHARMS Report Audit List.

Front 201

What must you enter in the Organization field if you want to print an IDS report for members who are due an annual flight records review?

Back 201

EOM.

Front 202

What is the policy for maintaining an FRF for a member who has been disqualified for over eight
years?

Back 202

Give the FRF to the member.

Front 203

How are AOs filed in the FRF?

Back 203

In chronological order by effective date.

Front 204

Rearrange the following documents so they appear in order (from top to bottom) as they would be filed on the left side of the FRF: AOs, AF IMT 1042, AF IMT 702, MPOs.

Back 204

AF IMT 1042, AF IMT 702, AOs, MPOs.

Front 205

When must you conduct a cover-to-cover audit of a member’s FRF?

Back 205

Upon arrival and prior to PCS at each HARM office.

Front 206

When conducting a FRF audit, you must compare the flight PHA date on the AF IMT 1042 against what ARMS document?

Back 206

IDS.

Front 207

When conducting a FRF audit, you must compare all AOs against what ARMS document to make sure all ASC changes are documented correctly?

Back 207

Aviation Service Audit Worksheet.

Front 208

What is the purpose of a FRF review?

Back 208

To verify the accuracy of information kept in the member’s FRF.

Front 209

List the different times when a member must complete a FRF review.

Back 209

Annually; when initially placed in flying status; during a PCS, TDY, separation, or retirement; and during a suspension or disqualification action.

Front 210

What must you do if a member who requires a FRF review is stationed at a remote location?

Back 210

Mail or e-mail a copy of the member’s annual products.

Front 211

What ARMS window is used to update a member’s FRF review?

Back 211

The Flyer’s Availability window.

Front 212

What does ARMS use to calculate the Records Review Due Date field?

Back 212

The member’s birth month.

Front 213

List some of the information that you must obtain when notified of an aircraft mishap.

Back 213

Name and SSAN of each member involved; aircraft MDS; mishap date; and aircraft tail number.

Front 214

What must you do when a family member calls to inquire of the aircraft mishap?

Back 214

Refer the family member to the Public Affairs office, squadron commander, or operations officer.

Front 215

What must you do to the member’s FRF to prevent unauthorized access during an aircraft
mishap?

Back 215

Immediately impound the FRF.

Front 216

List the different ARMS reports needed by the AIB.

Back 216

IDS; FHR; IFR; JHR and IJR (as applicable); and the Aircraft Mishap Report.

Front 217

If assigned to the SARM office, what must you do when notified of an aircraft mishap?

Back 217

Log into ARMS and immediately process all outstanding documents, training accomplishments, and flying hours for the members involved. Do not process the mishap leg of the sortie. Print an ITS for each member involved and obtain a copy of the signed flight authorization for the HARM office.

Front 218

Aircrew members must notify the HARM office of a pending PCS action within how many days prior to departure?

Back 218

At least five duty days prior to departure.

Front 219

What must you do prior to releasing the FRP to a member?

Back 219

A FRF review.

Front 220

What must you do when you need to make changes to a member’s ARMS record after it has been outprocessed in ARMS?

Back 220

Normalize the record and contact the gaining HARM office.

Front 221

If you must send a member’s FRF via the US Postal Office, what mail option must you choose?

Back 221

First Class mail.

Front 222

Within how many days upon receipt of all documentation must you inprocess a member’s FRF into ARMS?

Back 222

No later than 10 calendar days after receipt of the record.

Front 223

Briefly describe how to reconstruct a lost FRF.

Back 223

Contact the member to see if duplicate documents are available. If the member is unable to provide the documents, attempt to determine when, where, and by whom the missing document was prepared, and the names of any individuals on the same document. If a document pertained to another member in the same organization, check the member’s record for a copy that may be duplicated. Contact the member’s previous unit for any documentation that may be on file.

Front 224

(236) Which Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) report must be audited after each
ARMS- Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) interface?

Back 224

Permanent duty station (PDS) Interface Summary Report

Front 225

(236) When the consolidated host aviation resource management system (CHARMS) transfer file
is not received during a system interface, HQ USAF/A3O-AT will

Back 225

notify the appropriate host aviation resource management (HARM) office

Front 226

(237) The 120-day notification policy before involuntarily terminating the aviation service
applies to

Back 226

non-career enlisted aviator (CEA) enlisted members.

Front 227

(237) Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) lists all members who are in duty not involving flying (DNIF) status?

Back 227

2

Front 228

(237) Which part of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) displays aircrew members
who have gone three months without performing an operational flying duty accumulator
(OFDA)-creditable flight?

Back 228

8

Front 229

(237) Part 9 of the aviation management suspense list (AMSL) is used to

Back 229

determine if aircrew members in flying status code (FSC) “S” recently performed an operational flying duty accumulator (OFDA)-creditable flight

Front 230

(238) Which office is responsible for establishing flight record folders (FRF)?

Back 230

host aviation resource management (HARM)

Front 231

(238) Flight record folders (FRF) for members who have been disqualified for eight years or more are

Back 231

given to the member

Front 232

(238) Which document is filed on the right side of the flight record folder (FRF)?

Back 232

Flying history report (FHR)

Front 233

(239) When conducting a flight record folder (FRF) audit, verify that the date of the AF IMT 702, Individual Physiological Training Record, matches the date on the member’s

Back 233

Individual Data Summary (IDS)

Front 234

(239) When auditing a flight record folder (FRF), ensure all aeronautical orders (AO) are filed in chronological order by

Back 234

effective date

Front 235

(240) Members who are in active flying status must complete a records review every year by the end of the

Back 235

member’s birth month

Front 236

(240) Members who are in inactive status are

Back 236

not required to complete an annual records review

Front 237

(241) You must handle all information pertaining to the aircraft mishap as

Back 237

Privileged information

Front 238

(241) During an aircraft mishap, what action must be taken before the host aviation resource
management (HARM) office prints out all the required reports for the Aircraft Investigation Board?

Back 238

Ensure all flying time and training accomplishments have been entered into the Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS)

Front 239

(242) Within how many days prior to departure must a member notify the host aviation resource
management (HARM) office of a pending assignment?

Back 239

At least five duty days

Front 240

(242) For how many months should you maintain a copy of the member’s outprocessing
products?

Back 240

24

Front 241

(242) The member must acknowledge receipt of the flight record package by signing

Back 241

the outprocessing logbook

Front 242

(242) If you must normalize and make changes to a member’s record after it has been
outprocessed to the gaining host aviation resource management (HARM) office, you must advise the gaining HARM office to

Back 242

delete the record before you resend the updated record

Front 243

(242) What mail option must you choose if you were to mail a flight record folder (FRF) to a
member?

Back 243

First Class

Front 244

(243) No later than how many days after receipt of a member’s record must the host aviation
resource management (HARM) office inprocess the flight record folder (FRF) into the Aviation
Resource Management System (ARMS)?

Back 244

10 calendar days

Front 245

(243) Once the member’s Aviation Resource Management System (ARMS) record has been
inprocessed,

Back 245

complete the ARMS Record Transfer Letter and mail it to the losing host aviation resource management (HARM) office