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140 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1 The LEAST preferable and reliable method of selecting people to participate in a research study is:

A. alternative time sampling.

B. convenience sampling.

C. systematic sampling.

D. random sampling.
B. convenience sampling.
A paramedic is considered a health care professional, and as such should:

A. meet societal expectations whether he or she is on or off duty.

B. maintain higher standards than other health care professionals.

C. demand respect from others who are in the EMS profession.

D. obtain more than the required amount of continuing education.
A. meet societal expectations whether he or she is on or off duty.
Specific functions that the paramedic should perform prior to contacting medical control are called:
Choose one answer.

A. physician directives.

B. standing orders.

C. online protocols.

D. predefined standards.
B. standing orders.
Which of the following is NOT a critical point addressed by the “White Paper” written in 1966 that was entitled “Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society”?
Choose one answer.

A. Participating in community-based prevention efforts

B. Ensuring that paramedics responded to every call

C. Developing and pursuing a national EMS research agenda

D. Allocating adequate resources for medical direction
B. Ensuring that paramedics responded to every call
You are moving from one state to another and plan to continue your career in EMS. The state to which you are moving will MOST likely require that you:


A. become a registered paramedic with the National Registry of EMTs.

B. obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.

C. repeat an entire paramedic training program and take a state examination.

D. show proof that you have worked as a paramedic for at least 10 years.
B. obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.
An unblinded research study is one in which:

A. all research participants are advised of all aspects of the project.

B. some of the participants are aware of all aspects of the project.

C. only the principal researcher is aware of all aspects of the project.

D. nobody is aware of any of the aspects of the research project.
A. all research participants are advised of all aspects of the project
If an emergency medical responder is appropriately trained and competent, he or she should be able to:

A. recognize the seriousness of a patient's condition, provide basic life support care, and relay information to the paramedic.

B. detect signs of patient deterioration, obtain baseline vital signs, and give IV fluids to maintain adequate perfusion.

C. develop a field diagnosis of the patient's problem, perform limited advanced airway techniques, and update responding paramedics.

D. perform lifesaving interventions and transport the patient after paramedics have performed a detailed physical exam.
A. recognize the seriousness of a patient's condition, provide basic life support care, and relay information to the paramedic
What instructions or guidance would an emergency medical dispatcher MOST likely provide to a caller?

A. How to obtain a blood pressure by palpation

B. How to control bleeding and perform CPR

C. How to properly use a bag-mask device

D. How to administer prescribed antihypertensives
B. How to control bleeding and perform CPR
In order to link research and evidence to patient care, one must:

A. recognize that evidence is less reliable than scientific data that produce sound statistics.

B. ensure that the quality of the evidence is sufficient to justify changing patient care protocols.

C. conduct research at least every 10 years and then perform a retrospective analysis of the data.

D. understand that only level 1 evidence can be used to justify changing patient care protocols.
B. ensure that the quality of the evidence is sufficient to justify changing patient care protocols.
When educating the public regarding your EMS system, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. research the needs of your community.

B. liken your job to EMS-related TV shows.

C. ensure that citizens know how to access EMS.

D. advocate the importance of injury prevention.
B. liken your job to EMS-related TV shows
While you and your partner are en route to the scene of a patient in cardiac arrest, you should expect the emergency medical dispatcher to:

A. tell the caller to place the patient in the recovery position and then reassess.

B. advise you of the patient's medical history so you can be better prepared.

C. obtain your permission to give simple medical directions to the caller.

D. instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene.
D. instruct the caller on how to perform CPR until you arrive at the scene.
When educating citizens who live in an area where EMS response times will be lengthy, the MOST important skill to teach them is:
.

A. maintenance of a patient's body temperature.

B. manually stabilizing an injured person's neck.

C. initial management of a patient with a seizure.

D. rescue breathing and chest compressions.
D. rescue breathing and chest compressions.
A scientific approach to research in which a researcher controls, manipulates, and then measures one or more variables to ascertain how manipulating the variables affects the subjects is called ______________ research.

A. qualitative

B. nonexperimental

C. experimental

D. prospective
C. experimental
A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic:

A. is held to a higher professional standard.

B. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.

C. is more likely to be sued for negligence.

D. can function independently of a physician.
B. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.
When you transfer care of your patient to the hospital staff, it is MOST important to:


A. give a brief report and quickly return to service.

B. always obtain a signature from the receiving nurse.

C. only give your hand-off report to a staff physician.

D. use discretion and protect the patient's privacy.
D. use discretion and protect the patient's privacy
If a paramedic is self-motivated, he or she should NOT:

A. continuously educate himself or herself.

B. be able to accept constructive feedback.

C. possess an internal drive for excellence.

D. require maximum supervision at work.
D. require maximum supervision at work
A CQI program should primarily focus on:

A. reviewing all patient care reports.

B. identifying incompetent medics.

C. improving patient care delivery.

D. modifying protocols as needed.
C. improving patient care delivery.
In order to provide the best possible patient care, the paramedic must:

A. establish and maintain credibility and instill confidence.

B. appear competent, even if he or she feels incompetent.

C. disregard negative judgments made by the patient.

D. project a sympathetic demeanor toward all patients.
A. establish and maintain credibility and instill confidence.
Which of the following statements regarding peer review is correct?

A. It is preferable to use the same people to conduct all peer reviews.

B. Peer review is not a tool to demean or belittle a fellow paramedic.

C. Review findings should be shared with others to facilitate learning.

D. The EMS administrator is the ideal person to conduct the review.
B. Peer review is not a tool to demean or belittle a fellow paramedic
EMS protocol development, training methodologies, and equipment use decisions are based mainly on:

A. personal opinion.

B. public preference.

C. experience.

D. evidence.
D. evidence.
When research participants are advised of all the aspects of the project, the research project is said to be:
Choose one answer.

A. cross-sectional.

B. retrospective.

C. double-blinded.

D. unblinded.
D. unblinded.
Openness, honesty, and truthfulness are attributes that demonstrate:
Choose one answer.

A. empathy.

B. advocacy.

C. sympathy.

D. integrity.
D. integrity.
If a paramedic is self-motivated, he or she should NOT:
Choose one answer.

A. be able to accept constructive feedback.

B. continuously educate himself or herself.

C. possess an internal drive for excellence.

D. require maximum supervision at work.
D. require maximum supervision at work.
All of the following are examples of injury prevention, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.

A. instructing a person on how to wear a seat belt properly.

B. demonstrating the proper use of a bicycle helmet.

C. teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens.

D. informing a patient of a loose rug at the top of the stairs.
C. teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens.
When using a group of subjects who range in age from 30 to 40 years, 35 years of age would considered the:
Choose one answer.

A. mean.

B. median.

C. mode.

D. midpoint.
D. midpoint
The qualitative method of gathering data for a research project:
Choose one answer.

A. uses variables such as mean, median, and mode for data gathering.

B. assigns numerical values to the data and is a highly reliable method.

C. is highly accurate in gathering reliable data for the research project.

D. does not use numerical information and is the least accurate.
D. does not use numerical information and is the least accurate
A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic:
Choose one answer.

A. is held to a higher professional standard.

B. is more likely to be sued for negligence.

C. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.

D. can function independently of a physician.
C. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills
You should prioritize the needs of your patient based on the:

A. injury or illness that requires the most urgent treatment.

B. patient's interpretation of the seriousness of the situation.

C. patient's age and the results of his or her initial vital signs.

D. distance from the scene to the closest medical facility.
A. injury or illness that requires the most urgent treatment
You arrive at a convenience store to find a middle-aged male in cardiac arrest. Your protocols provide for standing orders in this type of scenario. This means that you should:
A. begin CPR and then contact medical control for further direction.
B. perform certain interventions prior to contacting medical control.
C. contact medical control before providing advanced-level care.
D. pronounce the patient dead if there is no response after 10 minutes.
B. perform certain interventions prior to contacting medical control
Which of the following is MOST closely linked to your body weight, nutritional status, and hydration?
Choose one answer.

A. A diet high in calories

B. At least 8 hours of sleep

C. Regular vigorous exercise

D. Adequate calcium intake
C. Regular vigorous exercise
You should know your target heart rate and:
Choose one answer.

A. attempt to achieve it every time you exercise.

B. achieve at least half of it when you exercise.

C. avoid reaching it because it may injure the heart.

D. surpass it by 50% every time you exercise.
A. attempt to achieve it every time you exercise.
During an emergency call, you begin experiencing a significant amount of anxiety. The patient's family is present and the patient's condition is critical. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. try to ignore the anxiety as best you can and take care of the patient.

B. tighten and then relax specific muscle groups to initiate relaxation.

C. request a relief paramedic and disengage from patient care at once.

D. take deep breaths in through your nose and out through your mouth.
D. take deep breaths in through your nose and out through your mouth.
Which of the following is NOT a component of well-being that is essential for a healthy life?
Choose one answer.

A. Financial

B. Physical

C. Mental

D. Emotional
A. Financial
You are transporting a 60-year-old man with pancreatic cancer to the local cancer therapy center for his radiation treatment. The man is clearly depressed. Which of the following questions or statements would be MOST appropriate for you to make?
Choose one answer.

A. “Do you feel the need to talk about dying?”

B. “If there's anything worrying you, I'd be glad to listen.”

C. “I know how you feel and am sorry about your condition.”

D. “I will take care of you and everything will be all right.”
B. “If there's anything worrying you, I'd be glad to listen.”
Progressive relaxation is a technique of anxiety relief that:
Choose one answer.

A. utilizes sedative medications to facilitate anxiety relief.

B. can easily be used even if you are on an emergency call.

C. allows you to relax without being noticed by others.

D. involves tightening and relaxing specific muscle groups.
D. involves tightening and relaxing specific muscle groups.
If health care providers show up to work in shape:
Choose one answer.

A. sleep deprivation will not affect them.

B. they will be able to tolerate higher call volumes.

C. their patient care will be better.

D. they are less likely to get hurt.
D. they are less likely to get hurt.
While caring for a woman with acute shortness of breath, your partner, a dedicated paramedic for many years, tells the patient that she should have driven herself to the hospital instead of calling EMS. Your partner's behavior is MOST consistent with:
Choose one answer.

A. impending burnout.

B. an acute stress reaction.

C. a lack of interest for EMS.

D. a personal conflict with the patient.
A. impending burnout
At the scene of an incident involving multiple patients, an obviously depressed bystander needs:
Choose one answer.

A. an assessment to determine why he or she is depressed.

B. to be brought back to reality and removed from the scene.

C. prompt removal from the scene by law enforcement personnel.

D. immediate psychological support and possible transport.
B. to be brought back to reality and removed from the scene
The MOST common of all hereditary risk factors are:
Choose one answer.

A. hypertension and stroke.

B. heart disease and cancer.

C. cancer and mental illness.

D. stroke and Alzheimer's disease.
B. heart disease and cancer.
Patterns of living that you develop in your youth:
Choose one answer.

A. typically are outgrown in later life.

B. cannot be modified later in life.

C. are hard to modify in later life.

D. usually are caused by genetics.
C. are hard to modify in later life.
Most of a patient's psychological stress responses to an illness or injury are:
Choose one answer.

A. related to the patient's level of maturity.

B. a direct result of the paramedic's presence.

C. not under his or her conscious control.

D. predictable, so the paramedic can prepare for them.
C. not under his or her conscious control.
A critical incident is MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.

A. a delayed stress reaction to an incident that is similar to what has been experienced in the past.

B. an incident that overwhelms the ability of an EMS worker or system to cope with the experience, either at the scene or later.

C. a situation that completely incapacitates a person's ability to cope with the acute stress reaction at the scene.

D. any incident that completely overwhelms a paramedic's ability to manage the short-term stress caused by the incident.
B. an incident that overwhelms the ability of an EMS worker or system to cope with the experience, either at the scene or later.
The fight-or-flight response is characterized by all of the following physiologic responses, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.

A. mobilization of glucose and an increased heart rate.

B. shunting of blood away from the gastrointestinal tract.

C. decreased sympathetic tone and pupil constriction.

D. an increased flow of blood to the skeletal muscles.
C. decreased sympathetic tone and pupil constriction.
Unrecognized or unrelieved stress:
Choose one answer.

A. can result in poor physical health.

B. results in nervous system failure.

C. is less harmful than acute stress.

D. requires antipsychotic medications.
A. can result in poor physical health.
As a part of your personal health assessment, you should:
Choose one answer.

A. have your cholesterol checked every 3 or 4 months.

B. consider hereditary factors that can impact your health.

C. see your personal physician at least every 6 months.

D. have a routine colonoscopy beginning at age 25 years.
B. consider hereditary factors that can impact your health.
Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. Nearly everyone finds the same events or situations stressful to some degree.

B. Eustress is the type of stress that a person finds overwhelming and debilitating.

C. The specific event that triggers a stress reaction varies from person to person.

D. Most people see distress as noninjurious and are able to adapt to it easily.
C. The specific event that triggers a stress reaction varies from person to person.
Which of the following statements regarding stress is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. Eustress is the leading cause of suicide among EMS, fire, and law enforcement personnel.

B. The way one person reacts to stress may differ significantly from another person's reaction.

C. By itself, any kind of stress has a negative effect on the human body and should be avoided.

D. The human stress reaction is exclusive to physical demands that are placed on the body.
B. The way one person reacts to stress may differ significantly from another person's reaction
Which of the following statements regarding a patient's reaction to an illness or injury and his or her cultural background is MOST correct?
Choose one answer.

A. In most cultures, direct eye contact shows deference to the paramedic's authority and uniform.

B. You will not be able to manage patient care well if you do not respect the culture of your patient.

C. Refusal of a patient to maintain eye contact with you indicates an emotional indifference, not a cultural one.

D. You should touch the patient early in the assessment process to determine his or her cultural customs.
B. You will not be able to manage patient care well if you do not respect the culture of your patient.
Burnout is a consequence of:
Choose one answer.

A. chronic, unrelieved stress.

B. many years in EMS.

C. underlying depression.

D. a high call volume.
A. chronic, unrelieved stress.
For the EMS provider, the process of collecting and analyzing data regarding injury prevention begins with:
Choose one answer.

A. his or her initial paramedic training program.

B. following up on the patient's outcome.

C. completing a legible prehospital care report.

D. retrospective research of severe injuries.
C. completing a legible prehospital care report
The MOST effective injury prevention program is one that is:
Choose one answer.

A. broad and ongoing.

B. financed by the EMS system.

C. implemented within 6 months.

D. targeted to a specific population.
A. broad and ongoing.
Which of the following would MOST likely encourage manufacturers to remove dangerous products from the market or make them safer?
Choose one answer.

A. Economic incentives

B. Increased morbidity rates

C. Product liability litigation

D. Product education
C. Product liability litigation
Many veteran EMS providers have embraced a leadership role in primary injury prevention after:
Choose one answer.

A. suffering burnout from caring for severely injured patients.

B. experiencing a personal loss due to a traumatic injury.

C. witnessing too many episodes of needless suffering.

D. being requested to do so by their captain or chief.
C. witnessing too many episodes of needless suffering.
Which of the following is the BEST example of a teachable moment?
Choose one answer.

A. Telling a babysitter that the child for whom she was caring would not have been injured had the babysitter practiced safer babysitting habits

B. Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed

C. Lecturing the parent of a small child in cardiac arrest that the parent should have placed a fence around the swimming pool

D. Being stern with a man in front of his family when telling him that he would not have fallen from the roof if his son had been helping him
B. Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed
The ongoing, systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of injury data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice is called:
Choose one answer.

A. injury surveillance.

B. mortality review.

C. the Haddon matrix.

D. morbidity tracking.
A. injury surveillance
With regard to injury prevention, effective educational techniques include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.

A. penalties.

B. behavioral feedback.

C. incentives.

D. modeling.
A. penalties.
The statement, “The bicycle safety program will increase the rate of helmet use by children younger than 18 years of age from 30% to 50% within the next 18 months,” is an example of a / an:
Choose one answer.

A. process objective.

B. proactive intervention.

C. outcome objective.

D. short-term objective.
C. outcome objective.
When focusing on childhood injury prevention, the highest priorities are assigned to those injuries that are:
Choose one answer.

A. uncommon, serious, and easily preventable.

B. common, severe, and readily preventable.

C. rare, nonfatal, and difficult to prevent.

D. common, nonfatal, and difficult to prevent.
B. common, severe, and readily preventable.
From an injury prevention standpoint, the term “intervention” is defined as:
Choose one answer.

A. participating in a mortality/morbidity review following a series of major motor vehicle crashes.

B. on-the-spot education of an injured person regarding how his or her injury could have been prevented.

C. specific prevention measures or activities designed to increase positive health and safety outcomes.

D. any activity or measure that is performed following an injury and that is designed to decrease mortality.
C. specific prevention measures or activities designed to increase positive health and safety outcomes.
Which of the following results in the MOST years of potential life lost?
Choose one answer.

A. Unintentional injury

B. Heart disease

C. Cancer

D. Suicide
A. Unintentional injury
Which of the following is the BEST example of a teachable moment?
Choose one answer.

A. Lecturing the parent of a small child in cardiac arrest that the parent should have placed a fence around the swimming pool

B. Being stern with a man in front of his family when telling him that he would not have fallen from the roof if his son had been helping him

C. Telling a babysitter that the child for whom she was caring would not have been injured had the babysitter practiced safer babysitting habits

D. Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed
D. Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed
Which of the following general statements regarding injuries and injury prevention is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. Injury is defined as intentional damage inflicted upon a person.

B. EMS has the greatest impact in preventing unintentional injuries.

C. Most assaults and suicides can be prevented effectively by EMS.

D. Intentional injuries outnumber unintentional injuries every year
B. EMS has the greatest impact in preventing unintentional injuries.
Many veteran EMS providers have embraced a leadership role in primary injury prevention after:
Choose one answer.

A. being requested to do so by their captain or chief.

B. experiencing a personal loss due to a traumatic injury.

C. suffering burnout from caring for severely injured patients.

D. witnessing too many episodes of needless suffering.
D. witnessing too many episodes of needless suffering.
The ongoing, systematic collection, analysis, and interpretation of injury data essential to the planning, implementation, and evaluation of public health practice is called:
Choose one answer.

A. morbidity tracking.

B. injury surveillance.

C. mortality review.

D. the Haddon matrix.
B. injury surveillance.
An advance directive is MOST accurately defined as a:
Choose one answer.

A. written document that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to his or her future medical care.

B. notarized document that is executed by a terminally ill patient's family when the patient develops cardiopulmonary arrest.

C. general guideline provided to the paramedic by the medical director that stipulates the level of care provided to terminally ill patients.

D. legal document that describes which life-sustaining procedures are to be performed if the patient's condition acutely deteriorates.
A. written document that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to his or her future medical care.
Interventions that have been proven by studies to be of no benefit to the patient in cardiac arrest:
Choose one answer.

A. are commonly authorized by medical control.

B. should be performed unless the family objects.

C. are illegal for the paramedic to perform.

D. are not medically or ethically indicated.
D. are not medically or ethically indicated.
If a conflict arises between a paramedic and a physician bystander in the field, the paramedic should:
Choose one answer.

A. involve law enforcement in the incident.

B. become subordinate to the physician.

C. contact medical control to seek resolution.

D. politely ask the physician to leave the scene.
C. contact medical control to seek resolution.
Which of the following statements would be inappropriate when documenting your care of a patient with an emotional problem?
Choose one answer.

A. “There was no evidence of suicidal behavior.”

B. “The patient was uncooperative during the exam.”

C. “The possible smell of ETOH was noted at the scene.”

D. “The patient's actions suggest the use of illicit drugs.”
D. “The patient's actions suggest the use of illicit drugs.”
If a paramedic is on duty and receives a 9-1-1 call in his or her jurisdiction:
Choose one answer.

A. he or she is not covered by the Good Samaritan law.

B. state law requires that he or she respond within 5 minutes.

C. the Good Samaritan law will provide limited immunity.

D. he or she cannot be held liable if a fee is not charged to the patient.
A. he or she is not covered by the Good Samaritan law.
When a person experiences an injury and seeks redress for that injury:
Choose one answer.

A. it is usually the paramedic who is found grossly negligent.

B. the judicial process must determine who was responsible.

C. it must be established that the injury led to a bad outcome.

D. he or she must prove that the standard of care was provided.
B. the judicial process must determine who was responsible.
While en route to a call for an emotionally disturbed patient, law enforcement notifies you by radio that the patient has become extremely violent. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. continue to the scene and assist law enforcement in restraining the patient.

B. wait for law enforcement to advise you that they have the patient under control.

C. advise law enforcement to handcuff the patient and transport him to the hospital.

D. carefully enter the scene and administer a benzodiazepine to sedate the patient.
B. wait for law enforcement to advise you that they have the patient under control
While off duty and outside of your jurisdiction, you encounter a motor vehicle crash. You can see one patient lying motionless on the ground near her overturned vehicle. As an off-duty paramedic, you:
Choose one answer.

A. may feel an ethical obligation to stop and assist.

B. have a legal responsibility to stop and render aid.

C. should stop if you have an EMS decal on your car.

D. should call 9-1-1 but not stop to provide care.
A. may feel an ethical obligation to stop and assist
When determining the most appropriate hospital to which to transport a patient, the paramedic's FIRST consideration should be:
Choose one answer.

A. whether or not the patient has insurance.

B. the patient's clinical condition.

C. the wishes of the patient or family.

D. traffic conditions and similar variables.
B. the patient's clinical condition.
A 39-year-old man with severe dehydration requires IV fluid therapy to treat his condition. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. ask him if you can start an IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy.

B. establish the IV line based on the law of implied consent, because his condition has impaired his decision-making capacity.

C. tell the patient that you are going to start an IV on him in order to replenish his body with lost fluid and electrolytes.

D. start the IV to quickly restore his body fluid balance and then explain to the patient why you started the IV line.
A. ask him if you can start an IV and explain the reason for the IV as well as the potential risks of IV therapy.
The husband of a terminally ill woman called 9-1-1 because he thinks his wife is about to die. The patient has a valid living will and an out-of-hospital DNR order. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. ask the husband why he called EMS if his wife is not to be resuscitated.

B. assume that the husband has revoked the DNR order and begin treatment.

C. contact medical control and request permission to provide emergency care.

D. treat the husband and his wife with respect and provide emotional support.
D. treat the husband and his wife with respect and provide emotional support.
The wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit is called:
Choose one answer.

A. a tort.

B. liability.

C. negligence.

D. damage.
A. a tort.
If a physician insists that you perform an intervention that you are not properly trained to perform, it would be MOST appropriate to:
Choose one answer.

A. ask the physician if he or she can suggest another alternative.

B. ask the physician to talk you through the procedure over the phone.

C. refuse to perform the intervention and follow your protocols.

D. perform the ordered intervention to the best of your ability.
A. ask the physician if he or she can suggest another alternative.
You have been attempting resuscitation of a middle-aged woman for approximately 15 minutes; however, she has not responded to any of your treatment. There is no evidence of hypothermia or drug ingestion, and the cardiac monitor shows asystole. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. pronounce the patient dead and call the coroner.

B. perform CPR only and try to contact her family.

C. consider terminating your resuscitative efforts.

D. determine if she has an advance directive.
C. consider terminating your resuscitative efforts
Assault on a patient occurs when the EMS provider:
Choose one answer.

A. defames a patient's character in his or her report.

B. carries out a harmful physical act against a patient.

C. instills the fear of immediate bodily harm in a patient.

D. touches another person without obtaining consent.
C. instills the fear of immediate bodily harm in a patient.
Before asking a patient to sign a refusal form, the paramedic must:
Choose one answer.

A. ask a police officer to determine if the patient is competent.

B. tell the patient that he or she will die without treatment.

C. ask an impartial observer to sign the refusal form first.

D. ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal.
D. ensure the patient is aware of the risks of his or her refusal.
Resuscitation efforts would MOST likely be ceased in the prehospital setting on a patient with:
Choose one answer.

A. blunt trauma arrest.

B. hypothermic cardiac arrest.

C. witnessed cardiac arrest.

D. an extensive cardiac history.
Correct
A. blunt trauma arrest.
Informed consent involves:
Choose one answer.

A. a patient verbally expressing his or her wishes for you to proceed with emergency medical treatment.

B. ensuring that a patient understands the potential risks involved in performing a particular procedure.

C. carefully explaining the potential ramifications of refusing emergency medical treatment.

D. explaining the rationale for an invasive procedure to a patient after you have already performed it.
B. ensuring that a patient understands the potential risks involved in performing a particular procedure.
People who call 9-1-1 at the moment of a loved one's death MOST often need:
Choose one answer.

A. medical care for themselves.

B. information and support.

C. assurance that everything will be okay.

D. sympathy and reassurance.
B. information and support
Which of the following patients is NOT an emancipated minor?
Choose one answer.

A. 18-year-old woman who is pregnant and lives with her grandmother

B. 17-year-old man who is a member of the U.S. armed forces

C. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents

D. 16-year-old woman who is pregnant and lives with her boyfriend
C. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents
Transporting a competent adult patient without his or her consent would MOST likely result in allegations of:
Choose one answer.

A. false imprisonment.

B. criminal trespassing.

C. battery.

D. assault.
A. false imprisonment.
When determining whether or not a paramedic's actions were consistent with the standard of care, the court would be LEAST likely to:
Choose one answer.

A. talk to patients to whom the paramedic has provided care in the past.

B. speak with other paramedics who have the same training.

C. subpoena the paramedic's instructor and the text he or she used.

D. request a copy of the paramedic's standard operating procedures.
A. talk to patients to whom the paramedic has provided care in the past.
If a paramedic receives an order from a physician that he or she feels is detrimental to the patient's best interests, the paramedic should:
Choose one answer.

A. tell the patient that the physician's order is appropriate for him or her.

B. not carry out the order and discuss the issue with the physician later.

C. carry out the order, but factually and carefully document the event.

D. immediately discuss with the physician why the paramedic feels that way.
D. immediately discuss with the physician why the paramedic feels that way.
Which of the following statements regarding certification is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. Unlike a licensed health care provider, a certified health care provider is not required to obtain continuing education hours.

B. Certification is a process in which a certifying entity attests to the fact that the health care provider has mastered a certain skill set.

C. Certification is evidence that an individual has a certain level of credentials based on hours of training and examination.

D. A certified health care provider has been granted the authority and privilege to practice medicine in a certain municipality.
C. Certification is evidence that an individual has a certain level of credentials based on hours of training and examination.
A DNR order is MOST accurately defined as a:
Choose one answer.

A. written or oral directive that stipulates the care that a patient should receive at the end of his or her life.

B. legal document that is executed by the patient while he or she still has decision-making capacity.

C. written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.

D. legal document signed by at least two physicians that prohibits resuscitative efforts in terminally ill patients.
C. written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate.
Without obtaining her consent, you transport a mentally competent young woman to the hospital because you suspect she is experiencing internal bleeding. This action:
Choose one answer.

A. reflects an act of gross negligence.

B. is justifiable because of your suspicions.

C. is defensible in a court of law.

D. constitutes false imprisonment.
D. constitutes false imprisonment.
Which of the following patients is NOT an emancipated minor?
Choose one answer.

A. 18-year-old woman who is pregnant and lives with her grandmother

B. 16-year-old woman who is pregnant and lives with her boyfriend

C. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents

D. 17-year-old man who is a member of the U.S. armed forces
C. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents
Current bioethical guidelines regarding the decision not to initiate resuscitation efforts rely mainly on the use of:
Choose one answer.

A. the personal beliefs of the paramedic.

B. flexible algorithms and protocols.

C. criteria established by the local coroner.

D. common sense and reasonable judgment.
D. common sense and reasonable judgment.
You are called to a community center for a 40-year-old woman who is “acting strange.” Upon your arrival, you assess the patient and determine that she is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. She does not appear to be mentally impaired. Her oxygen saturation is 99% on room air and her blood glucose level is 112 mg/dL. The patient's husband tells you that his wife has bipolar disorder and takes medication for it. The patient tells you that she is fine and does not want to go to the hospital. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. contact online medical control and request permission to transport the patient against her will because of her bipolar disorder.

B. advise the patient that, because of her history of bipolar disorder, she does not have the legal capacity to refuse EMS treatment and transport.

C. recognize that this patient has decision-making capacity at the present time and that you cannot force her to go to the hospital.

D. transport the patient against her will, but only if it can be established that she has been noncompliant with her bipolar medication.
C. recognize that this patient has decision-making capacity at the present time and that you cannot force her to go to the hospital.
The wrongful act that gives rise to a civil suit is called:
Choose one answer.

A. negligence.

B. liability.

C. damage.

D. a tort.
D. a tort.
While providing care to a seriously ill public official who is semiconscious, a media representative arrives at the scene and inquires about the patient's condition. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. give the media representative the patient's name and age only.

B. tell the media representative that you cannot disclose any information.

C. obtain consent from the patient before releasing any personal information.

D. advise the media representative to obtain the information at the hospital.
B. tell the media representative that you cannot disclose any information.
Ethics is MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.

A. the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.

B. a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience.

C. the professional behavior that a person's peers as well as the general public expect.

D. behavior that is consistent with the law and an attitude that society in general expects.
A. the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.
Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?
Choose one answer.

A. A patient with a possible fracture of the radius wishes to go to the hospital, but does not have transportation, so you arrange for a friend to take him to the emergency department the next day.

B. During a mass-casualty incident involving a building collapse, a paramedic triages a patient as being low priority and instructs an EMT to observe the patient and inform the paramedic if the patient's condition deteriorates.

C. While en route to the hospital with a patient experiencing chest pressure, you encounter a major motor vehicle accident, call the dispatcher to request assistance, and proceed to the hospital with your patient.

D. A mentally competent adult with shortness of breath adamantly refuses to be transported to the hospital via EMS, so you arrange for a friend or family member to stay with the patient and call 9-1-1 if it becomes necessary.
A. A patient with a possible fracture of the radius wishes to go to the hospital, but does not have transportation, so you arrange for a friend to take him to the emergency department the next day.
Which of the following scenarios reflects a violation of EMTALA?
Choose one answer.

A. A registration clerk asks you if the patient has insurance.

B. Paramedics transport a woman in labor to the closest hospital.

C. An emergency department provides stabilization care only.

D. A hospital transfers an unstable patient to another facility.
D. A hospital transfers an unstable patient to another facility.
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 29-year-old man, is in cardiac arrest from a severe head injury and has been receiving bystander CPR for approximately 10 minutes. A law enforcement official advises you that the patient's driver's license identifies him as an organ donor. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. recognize that none of the patient's vital organs are appropriate for donation and ask the bystanders to stop CPR.

B. begin full resuscitative efforts and transport the patient to a trauma center because certain tissues may be viable for harvesting.

C. continue to attempt resuscitation of the patient because his liver, kidneys, and heart are likely viable for harvesting.

D. continue basic life support only until law enforcement can notify a family member of the patient and obtain consent for organ donation.
B. begin full resuscitative efforts and transport the patient to a trauma center because certain tissues may be viable for harvesting.
Which of the following general statements regarding medical law is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. The patient or survivor must prove all elements of negligence before a lawsuit will be successful.

B. Medical providers with fewer than 5 years of experience are at highest risk of being sued.

C. A poor patient outcome typically means that the medical provider was grossly negligent.

D. A medical liability lawsuit will only be successful if the patient's outcome was unfavorable.
A. The patient or survivor must prove all elements of negligence before a lawsuit will be successful.
According to the qualified immunity doctrine, the paramedic can be held liable only if:
Choose one answer.

A. he or she volunteers as a paramedic and receive no remuneration for his or her medical services.

B. the plaintiff proves that the paramedic violated a clearly established law about which he or she should have known.

C. he or she was not employed by a governmental entity at the time an incident or violation occurred.

D. the medical care that he or she provided was not consistent with what a physician would have provided.
B. the plaintiff proves that the paramedic violated a clearly established law about which he or she should have known.
While on duty, a paramedic unit stops at the scene of a traffic accident to which it has not been dispatched. During the course of providing patient care, one of the paramedics purposely manipulates the patient's neck to elicit a painful response. This paramedic:
Choose one answer.

A. is not a Good Samaritan and did not perform as any other paramedic with similar training would have performed.

B. is not protected by the Good Samaritan law but provided treatment that is consistent with the accepted standard of care.

C. is protected by the Good Samaritan law because he was not officially dispatched to the scene of the accident.

D. cared for the patient in a manner consistent with his scope of practice and is not liable for the patient's injury or injuries.
A. is not a Good Samaritan and did not perform as any other paramedic with similar training would have performed
Which of the following statements would be inappropriate when documenting your care of a patient with an emotional problem?
Choose one answer.

A. “The patient was uncooperative during the exam.”

B. “The possible smell of ETOH was noted at the scene.”

C. “The patient's actions suggest the use of illicit drugs.”

D. “There was no evidence of suicidal behavior.”
C. “The patient's actions suggest the use of illicit drugs.”
Historically, most EMTALA violations occurred when:
Choose one answer.

A. the patient did not have medical insurance.

B. paramedics transported a woman in active labor.

C. hospitals refused to accept clinically stable patients.

D. paramedics functioned above their scope of practice.
A. the patient did not have medical insurance
f a patient with a possible heart attack asks you if he or she is going to die, you should:
Choose one answer.

A. advise him or her that only a licensed physician can answer this question.

B. acknowledge the seriousness of the situation without taking away all hope.

C. be honest and forthcoming by stating that the situation does not look good.

D. avoid answering the question and redirect the patient's thought process.
B. acknowledge the seriousness of the situation without taking away all hope.
Standard precautions differ from universal precautions in that standard precautions:
Choose one answer.

A. are designed to approach all body fluids as being potentially infectious.

B. involve the use of latex gloves when you make contact with any patient.

C. are only applied when you encounter a patient who is actively bleeding.

D. assume that only blood and certain other fluids are infected with HIV.
A. are designed to approach all body fluids as being potentially infectious.
Immediately following exposure to a patient's blood or body fluids, the paramedic should:
Choose one answer.

A. turn patient care over to another provider.

B. be evaluated by a physician.

C. wash the affected area with soap and water.

D. thoroughly document the exposure.
A. turn patient care over to another provider.
Your unit is the first to arrive at the scene of a traffic accident. Numerous bystanders are surrounding the wrecked vehicle. The driver appears to be unresponsive. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. exit your unit, immediately move the bystanders to an area of safety, and gain access to the patient.

B. remain in the ambulance and wait for law enforcement personnel to arrive at the scene.

C. quickly gain access to the patient, remain alert for any scene hazards, and keep the bystanders away from the vehicle.

D. assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present.
D. assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present.
An exercise program should be targeted at maintaining or improving:
Choose one answer.

A. respiratory efficiency, muscle strength, and mental health.

B. cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, and physical strength.

C. body weight, muscle flexibility, and a strong bone structure.

D. blood pressure, resting heart rate, and respiratory efficiency.
B. cardiovascular endurance, flexibility, and physical strength.
When attempting to control your own anxiety through controlled breathing, you should:
Choose one answer.

A. wait until the call is over before attempting this form of anxiety relief.

B. take in several shallow breaths followed by prolonged exhalation.

C. take deep breaths in through the nose and out through the mouth.

D. breathe rapidly for 5 seconds and then hold your breath for 5 seconds.
C. take deep breaths in through the nose and out through the mouth
While starting an IV on a patient complaining of abdominal pain, you inadvertently get stuck with the needle before you can place it in the sharps container. You should:
Choose one answer.

A. ask the driver to pull over, assume the role of driver, continue on to the hospital, and see a physician in the emergency department.

B. immediately clean the affected area with isopropyl alcohol, ask the patient if he has any infectious diseases, and report the incident to your supervisor.

C. complete your care of the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor.

D. continue with patient care, report the incident to your infection control officer, and schedule an appointment with your physician.
C. complete your care of the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor.
Any time you need to move a patient who cannot or should not walk, it is MOST important to consider:
Choose one answer.

A. the need for extra help.

B. how far the patient must be moved.

C. why the patient cannot walk.

D. the type of moving device needed.
A. the need for extra help.
When dealing with a grieving child, it is important to remember that:
Choose one answer.

A. family members should be discouraged from crying in front of the child.

B. children as young as 1 year of age are aware that something bad has occurred.

C. children 9 to 12 years of age may want to know details of the incident.

D. you should advise family members to change the child's routine.
C. children 9 to 12 years of age may want to know details of the incident.
The statement “If I can just live long enough to see my son's wedding, I can die in peace” is indicative of the ____________ stage of the grieving process.
Choose one answer.

A. bargaining

B. depression

C. anger

D. denial
A. bargaining
Part of your therapeutic role as a paramedic includes:
Choose one answer.

A. maintaining a calm and confident attitude.

B. not keeping your emotions bottled up inside of you.

C. clearly displaying your emotions to the patient.

D. advising noncritical patients that they do not need EMS.
A. maintaining a calm and confident attitude.
When a patient calls EMS for an apparent non-life-threatening condition, the paramedic should:
Choose one answer.

A. recall that what he or she considers to be a non-emergency may be very emergent to the patient.

B. perform a brief assessment only to rule out any life threats and then transport the patient to the hospital.

C. educate the patient regarding what constitutes an emergency and thus the need to call for an ambulance.

D. remember that most non-emergent calls involve patients with an emotional crisis who just need to talk.
A. recall that what he or she considers to be a non-emergency may be very emergent to the patient.
Which of the following situations would be the LEAST likely to require a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD)?
Choose one answer.

A. An airliner crash involving multiple casualties

B. Death of a 91-year-old patient with lung cancer

C. Intense media attention during a major incident

D. Serious injury of a coworker in the line of duty
B. Death of a 91-year-old patient with lung cancer
A return to an earlier age level of behavior or emotional adjustment during a crisis situation is called:
Choose one answer.

A. digression.

B. projection.

C. regression.

D. redirection.
C. regression.
Prolonged or excessive stress has been proven to be a strong contributor to:
Choose one answer.

A. hypotension.

B. depression.

C. bipolar disorder.

D. schizophrenia.
C. bipolar disorder.
You are transporting a 60-year-old man with pancreatic cancer to the local cancer therapy center for his radiation treatment. The man is clearly depressed. Which of the following questions or statements would be MOST appropriate for you to make?
Choose one answer.

A. “I know how you feel and am sorry about your condition.”

B. “I will take care of you and everything will be all right.”

C. “If there's anything worrying you, I'd be glad to listen.”

D. “Do you feel the need to talk about dying?”
C. “If there's anything worrying you, I'd be glad to listen.”
When people are ill or injured, they are often forced into a state of dependency. This usually manifests as:
Choose one answer.

A. denial.

B. displacement.

C. regression.

D. projection.
C. regression.
Which of the following statements regarding distress is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. A paramedic who becomes distressed at the sight of a mutilating injury should consider a different line of work.

B. Distress is a learned reaction, based on the way the paramedic perceives and interprets a given situation.

C. The same situations or events that cause distress in one paramedic usually cause distress in another paramedic.

D. Paramedics most commonly become distressed because of what other people believe about them.
B. Distress is a learned reaction, based on the way the paramedic perceives and interprets a given situation.
A formal critical incident stress debriefing (CISD):
Choose one answer.

A. is usually a brief defusing session that is typically conducted at the scene of a major incident and facilitates the normal process of grieving.

B. is usually coordinated by one or more professional counselors 24 to 72 hours after an incident that is causing persistent symptoms in personnel.

C. typically takes about 1 hour and is usually conducted within the workplace with the EMS provider's supervisor and medical director present.

D. is a one-on-one session in which a psychiatrist or psychologist meets with each person who was directly involved in an incident that causes stress.
B. is usually coordinated by one or more professional counselors 24 to 72 hours after an incident that is causing persistent symptoms in personnel.
According to the 2010 Dietary Guidelines, the keys to controlling body weight include:
Choose one answer.

A. consuming more calories and eating fewer vegetables.

B. exercising more and increasing your caloric intake.

C. drinking less water per day and exercising regularly.

D. eating fewer calories while increasing physical activity.
D. eating fewer calories while increasing physical activity.
The statement “If I can just live long enough to see my son's wedding, I can die in peace” is indicative of the ____________ stage of the grieving process.
Choose one answer.

A. bargaining

B. depression

C. anger

D. denial
A. bargaining
The ability to remain calm and think clearly when everything else is in disarray is a trait of:
Choose one answer.

A. competence.

B. professionalism.

C. empathy.

D. compassion.
B. professionalism.
“Everyday” calls are the most dangerous kinds of calls the paramedic will run because:
Choose one answer.

A. everyday calls tend to attract a lot of bystanders.

B. he or she becomes naturally comfortable with them.

C. law enforcement personnel are often not available.

D. most of these calls have a high potential for violence.
B. he or she becomes naturally comfortable with them.
An unsuccessful resuscitation attempt will rarely be an emotional issue for the paramedic if he or she:
Choose one answer.

A. maintains a firm and realistic grip on his or her own ego.

B. has never personally experienced a loved one's death.

C. has participated in many resuscitation attempts in the past.

D. critiques the call and knows that mistakes were not made.
A. maintains a firm and realistic grip on his or her own ego.
The MOST common of all hereditary risk factors are:
Choose one answer.

A. stroke and Alzheimer's disease.

B. heart disease and cancer.

C. cancer and mental illness.

D. hypertension and stroke.
B. heart disease and cancer.
Any time you need to move a patient who cannot or should not walk, it is MOST important to consider:
Choose one answer.

A. why the patient cannot walk.

B. the type of moving device needed.

C. how far the patient must be moved.

D. the need for extra help.
D. the need for extra help.
Burnout is MOST accurately defined as:
Choose one answer.

A. an acute reaction to an overwhelming situation.

B. the exhaustion of physical or emotional strength.

C. a person's emotional reaction to a stressful event.

D. cynicism after being a paramedic for many years.
B. the exhaustion of physical or emotional strength.
Which of the following is NOT an early warning sign of stress?
Choose one answer.

A. Dry, irritated skin

B. Chest pain or tightness

C. Heart palpitations

D. Difficult or rapid breathing
A. Dry, irritated skin
Patterns of living that you develop in your youth:
Choose one answer.

A. cannot be modified later in life.

B. typically are outgrown in later life.

C. are hard to modify in later life.

D. usually are caused by genetics.
C. are hard to modify in later life.
Which of the following statements regarding TB is correct?
Choose one answer.

A. N95 respirators do not provide protection against TB as once thought.

B. The number of patients with TB has been declining over the last 5 years.

C. It is one of the most common diseases contracted by breathing in germs.

D. A surgical mask should be worn when caring for any patient with TB.
C. It is one of the most common diseases contracted by breathing in germs.
According to the 2010 Dietary Guidelines, the keys to controlling body weight include:
Choose one answer.

A. eating fewer calories while increasing physical activity.

B. drinking less water per day and exercising regularly.

C. exercising more and increasing your caloric intake.

D. consuming more calories and eating fewer vegetables.
A. eating fewer calories while increasing physical activity.
You are transporting a 60-year-old man with pancreatic cancer to the local cancer therapy center for his radiation treatment. The man is clearly depressed. Which of the following questions or statements would be MOST appropriate for you to make?
Choose one answer.

A. “If there's anything worrying you, I'd be glad to listen.”

B. “I will take care of you and everything will be all right.”

C. “Do you feel the need to talk about dying?”

D. “I know how you feel and am sorry about your condition.”
A. “If there's anything worrying you, I'd be glad to listen.”
When caring for a confused elderly patient, it is MOST important for the paramedic to:
Choose one answer.

A. avoid talking to the patient to minimize anxiety.

B. explain what he or she is doing at all times.

C. request the presence of a family member.

D. recognize that this is normal in elderly people.
B. explain what he or she is doing at all times.
When the parent of an ill or injured child is angry and demanding, and implies that you are not competent to handle the situation, your MOST appropriate response should be to:
Choose one answer.

A. advise the parent that you have many hours of training and experience and can handle the situation competently.

B. show the parent your paramedic credential to reassure him or her that you are qualified to provide emergency care.

C. reassure the parent that you are working under the physician's guidance in the best interests of the child.
C. reassure the parent that you are working under the physician's guidance in the best interests of the child.
By using the mechanisms of _____________ and _____________, parents or caregivers of an injured child often express their guilty feelings as aggression or anger toward the paramedic.
Choose one answer.

A. regression, misplacement

B. projection, displacement

C. regression, redirection

D. digression, projection
B. projection, displacement
Family members who are depressed following the loss of a loved one:
Choose one answer.

A. typically do not want to be cheered up.

B. will usually wish to share their feelings.

C. should have their emotions redirected.

D. should seek psychiatric counseling.
A. typically do not want to be cheered up.