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708 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Define anisocytosis
|
varying cell sizes
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Define poikilocytosis
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varying cell shapes
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From which cells do B cells arise?
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stem cells in bone marrow
|
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From which cells do plasma cells differentiate?
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B cells
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How can a Nissl stain be used to differentiate microglia from oligodendroglia?
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Microglia are not discernable in a Nissl stain while oligodendroglia appear as small dark nuclei with dark chromatin
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In what type of CNS tissue (white or grey) are oligodendroglia predominant?
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white matter
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Into what cell type does a monocyte differentiate in tissues?
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Macrophages
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Name 2 substances produced by an eosinophil.
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histiminase and arylsulfatase
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Name the three types of leukocytic granulocytes.
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basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils
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Name the two types of mononuclear leukocytes.
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lymphocytes and monocytes
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What are 2 functions of T cell lymphocytes?
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cellular immune response - regulation of B lymphocytes and macrophages
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What are 2 morphological features of microglia?
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small irregular nuclei - and relatively little cytoplasm
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What are 3 examples of peripheral lymphoid tissue?
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follicles of lymph nodes - white pulp of spleen - unencapsulated lymphoid tissue
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What are 3 functions of a macrophage?
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pagocytosis of bacteria, cell debris, and senescent red cells - scavenges damaged cells and tissues - can function as an antigen presenting cell
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What are 3 morphological characteristics of monocytes?
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. - Large
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- Kidney-shaped nucleus
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- Extensive 'frosted glass' cytoplasm
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What are 4 characteristics of the plasma cell morphology?
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Off center nucleus - Clock face chromatin distribution - Abundant RER - Well developed Golgi apparatus
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What are 4 morphologic characteristics of lymphocytes?
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Round - Small - Densely staining nucleus - Small amount of pale cytoplasm
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What are 4 substances contained within the lysosomes of neutrophils?
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hydrolytic enzymes - lysozyme - myeloperoxidase - lactoferrin
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What are 4 types of cells into which T cells differentiate?
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. - cytotoxic T cells (MHC I, CD8) - helper T cells (MHCII, CD4) - suppressor T cells - delayed hypersensitivity T cells
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What are the 5 important causes for eosinophilia in humans?
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Neoplastic, Asthma, Allergic process, Collagen vascular disease, and Parasites (pneumonic NAACP)
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What are the blood cell diffenentiation names of the ACTIVE T CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?
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. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - T cell - Active T cell
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What are the blood cell differentiation names of the ERYTHROCYTE cell line beginning with pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?
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. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Proerythroblast - Reticulocyte - Erythrocyte
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What are the blood cell differentiation names of the MONOCYTE cell lines beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?
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. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Monoblast - Monocyte
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What are the blood cell differentiation names of the NEUTROPHIL, EOSINOPHIL, and BASOPHIL cell lines beginning with the myeloblast stage?
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. - Myeloblast - Promyelocyte - Myelocyte - Metamyelocyte - Stab cell - Neutrophil, eosinophil or basophil
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What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLASMA CELL line beginning with the pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell?
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. - Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell - Lymphoblast - B cell - Plasma cell
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What are the blood cell differentiation names of the PLATELET CELL line beginning with the hematopoietic stem cell?
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. - Pluripotento hematopoietic stem cell - Megakaryoblast - Megakaryocyte - Platelets
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What are the components of the air-blood barrier?
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. - Type I pneumocyte, endothelial cell, and their fused basement membrane.
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What are the steps of maturation of a B cell? (2 points)
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. - maturation in the marrow - migration to peripheral lymphoid tissue
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What are the substances contained within the densly basophilic granules of the basophil? (4)
|
- Heparin (anticoagulant) - histamine (vasodilator) - vasoactive amines - Slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis
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What are two basic morphological characteristics of neutrophils?
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- multilobed nucleus - Large, spherical azurophilic primary granules (lysosomes)
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What are two important functions of a neutrophil?
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- acute inflammmatory response of a cell - phagocytosis
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What are two names for an increased number of red cells?
|
Erythrocytosis and polycythemia
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What cell type closely resembles a mast cell?
|
basophil
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What cranial nerves are commonly involved in an acoustic neuroma?
|
CN VII, VIII (association with internal acoustic meatus)
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What disease is characterized by destruction of oligodendroglia?
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Multiple sclerosis
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What does CD stand for?
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cluster of differentiation
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What drug prevents mast cell degranulation?
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Cromolyn sodium
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What immunoglobulin can bind to the membrane of a mast cell?
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IgE
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What is a reticulocyte?
|
a baby (developing) erythrocyte
|
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What is an important example of a Schwannoma?
|
Acoustic neuroma
|
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What is another name for pulmonary surfactant?
|
DPPC (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine)
|
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What is percentage of leukocytes in the blood exist as basophils?
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less than 1%
|
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What is the 'gap' between the myelination segment of 2 Schwann cells called?
|
Node of Ranvier
|
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What is the advantage of the large surface area:volume ratio in erythrocytes?
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easy gas exchange (Oxygen and Carbon dioxide)
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What is the basic morphologic structure of an erythrocyte?
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Anucleate, biconcave
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What is the basic morphology of an eosinophil? (2 things)
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- bilobate nucleus - packed with Large eosinophilic granules of uniform size
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What is the embryologic origin of microglia?
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mesoderm
|
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What is the function of Interferon gamma with relation to macrophages?
|
macrophage activation
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What is the function of microglia?
|
phagocytosis in CNS
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What is the function of oligodendroglia?
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myelination of multiple CNS axons
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What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?
|
lowers alveolar surface tension and prevents atelectasis
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What is the function of Schwann cells?
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myelination of PNS (a Schwann cell myelinates only one PNS axon)
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What is the importance of the lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio?
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> 2.0 in fetal lung is indicative of fetal lung maturity
|
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What is the importance of the physiologic chloride shift in erythrocytes?
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Membranes contain the chloride bicarbonate antiport allowing the RBC to transport carbon dioxide from the the lung periphery for elimination.
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What is the last segment of lung tissue in which ciliated cells are found?
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respiratory bronchioles
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What is the last segment of lung tissue in which goblet cells are found?
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terminal broncioles (remember ciliated cells sweep away mucous produced by goblet cells and therefore run deeper)
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What is the primary function of a basophil?
|
Mediates allergic reactions
|
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What is the primary function of a leukocyte?
|
Defense against infections
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What is the primary function of a mast cell?
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Mediates allergic reactions
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What is the primary function of a plasma cell?
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production of large amounts of a specific antibody to a particular antigen
|
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What is the primary source of energy for erythrocytes?
|
glucose (90% anaerobically degraded to lactate, 10% by HMP shunt)
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What is the process of degranulation in mast cells?
|
release of histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors
|
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What is the range of concentration for leukocytes in the blood?
|
4,000 - 10,000 cells per microliter
|
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What is the response of an eosiniphil to antigen antibody complexes?
|
high degree of phagocytosis
|
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What is the response of microglia to tissue dammage?
|
transformation into large ameboid phagocytic cells
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What is the response to microglia infected with HIV?
|
fusion to form multinucleated giant cells in CNS
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What is the survival time for an erythrocyte?
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120 days
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What pathognomonic change is seen in neutrophils of a person who is folate/vitamin B12 deficient?
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hypersegmented polys
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What percentage of leukocytes exist as eosinophils in the blood?
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1 - 6%
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What percentage of leukocytes exist as neutrophils in the blood?
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40 - 75%
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What percentage of leukocytes in blood are monocytes?
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2 - 10%
|
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What process occurs when type I pneumocytes are damaged?
|
Type II pneumocytes develop into type I
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What substance in eosinophilic granules is primarily responsible for defense against helminths and protozoan infections?
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major basic protein
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Where is the site of maturation of T lymphocytes?
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Thymus
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Which cell type constituitively secretes pulmonary surfactant?
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Type II pneumocyte
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Which cell type lines the alveoli?
|
Type I pneumocyte
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Which leukemia is the result of plasma cell neoplasm?
|
Multiple myeloma
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Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is a mast cell involved in?
|
Type I hypersensitivity reaction
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Which type of immunity do B cells exhibit?
|
humoral immunity
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After arising from the floor of the primitive pharynx, where does the thryoid diverticulum go?
|
It descends down into the neck
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After the first breath at birth, what causes closure of the ductus arteriosus?
|
An increase in oxygen
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After the first breath at birth, what causes the closure of the foramen ovale?
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A decrease resistance in pulmonary vasculature causes increased left atrial pressure vs. right atrial pressure
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Although the diaphragm descends during development, it maintains innervation from ____?
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C3-C5
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An easy pneumonic to remember fetal erythropoiesis is?
|
Young Liver Synthesizes Blood
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At what time in the course of development is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?
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Weeks 3-8
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Deoxygenated blood from the SVC is expelled into the pulmonary artery and ____ ____ to the lower body of the fetus.
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ductus arteriosus
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Do the cardiovascular structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Mesoderm
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Do the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Do the enterochromaffin cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Do the lungs arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Endoderm
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Do the lymphatics arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Mesoderm
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Do the melanocytes arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Do the neural crest cells arise from mesoderm, ectoderm, or endoderm?
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Ectoderm
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Do the odontoblasts arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Do the parafollicular (C) cells of the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Do the Schwann cells arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Do the urogenital structures arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Mesoderm
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Does blood arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Mesoderm
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Does bone arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Mesoderm
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Does muscle arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Mesoderm
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Does the thyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Endoderm
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Does the adrenal cortex arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Mesoderm
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Does the ANS arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Does the celiac ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Does the dorsal root ganglion arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Does the dura connective tissue arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
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Mesoderm
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Does the gut tube epithelium arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Endoderm
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Does the liver arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Endoderm
|
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Does the pancreas arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Endoderm
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Does the parathyroid arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Endoderm
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Does the pia arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Neural Crest (Ectoderm)
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Does the serous linings of body cavities arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Mesoderm
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Does the spleen arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Mesoderm
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Does the thymus arise from neural crest (ectoderm), mesoderm, or endoderm?
|
Endoderm
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From what does the ligamentum teres hepatis arise?
|
Umbilical vein
|
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How does a bicornate uterus form?
|
Results from incomplete fusion of the paramesonephric ducts
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How does a cleft lip form?
|
Failure of fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal processes
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How does a cleft palate form?
|
Failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes, the nasal septum, and/or the median palatine process
|
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How does a horseshoe kidney form?
|
Inferior poles of both kidneys fuse, as they ascend from the pelvis during development they get trapped under the inferior mesenteric artery, and remain low in the abdomen
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How is meckel's diverticulum different than an omphalomesenteric cyst?
|
Omphalomesenteric cyst is a cystic dilatation of the vitelline duct
|
|
How long does full development of spermatogenesis take?
|
2 months
|
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How many arteries and veins does the umbilical cord contain?
|
- 2 umbilical arteries (carries deoxygenated blood away from fetus) - 1 umbilical vein (oxygenated blood to fetus)
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|
Is a primary spermatocyte 2N or 4N?
|
4N
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Is a primary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?
|
Diploid, 4N
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Is a secondary spermatocyte haploid or diploid?
|
Haploid, 2N
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Is a secondary spermatocyte N or 2N?
|
2N
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Is a speratogonium haploid or diploid?
|
Diploid, 2N
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Is a spermatid haploid or diploid?
|
Haploid, N
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Meiosis I is arrested in which phase until ovulation?
|
Prophase
|
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Meiosis II is arrested in which phase until fertilization?
|
Metaphase (an egg MET a sperm)
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Most oxygenated blood reaching the heart via IVC is diverted through the ____ ____ and pumped out the aorta to the head.
|
foramen ovale
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The right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein give rise to what adult heart structure?
|
Superior vena cava
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The stapedius muscle of the ear is formed by which branchial arch?
|
2nd
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This type of bone formation consists of ossification of cartilaginous molds and forms long bones at primary and secondary centers.
|
Endochondral
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True or False; blood in the umbilical vein is 100% saturated with oxygen?
|
False, it is 80% saturated
|
|
True or False, there are two types of spermatogonia?
|
True, type A & type B
|
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What are the 1st branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
|
CN V2 and V3
|
|
What are the 2nd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
|
CN VII
|
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What are the 3rd branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
|
CN IX
|
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What are the 4th and 6th branchial arch derivatives innervated by?
|
CN X
|
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What are the cartilage derivatives (5) of the 4th and 6th branchial arches?
|
Thyroid - Cricoid - Arytenoids - Corniculate - Cuneiform
|
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What are the five 2's associated with meckel's diverticulum?
|
- 2 inches long - 2 feet from the ileocecal valve - 2% of the population - Commonly presents in the first 2 years of life - May have 2 types of epithelia
|
|
What are the rule of 2's for the 2nd week of development?
|
- 2 germ layers: epiblast & hypoblast - 2 cavities: amniotic cavity & yolk sac - 2 components to the placenta: cytotrophoblast & syncytiotrophoblast
|
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What are the rule of 3's for the 3rd week of development?
|
3 germ layers (gastrula): ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
|
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What can a persistent cervical sinus lead to?
|
A branchial cyst in the neck
|
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What can be found in the cortex of the thymus?
|
It is dense with immature T cells
|
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What can be found in the medulla of the thymus?
|
It is pale with mature T cells, epithelial reticular cells, and Hassall's corpuscles
|
|
What connects the thyroid diverticulum to the tongue?
|
The thyroglossal duct
|
|
What devlopmental contributions does the 5th branchial arch make?
|
None
|
|
What do the 2nd - 4th branchial clefts form, which are obliterated by proliferation of the 2nd arch mesenchyme?
|
Temporary cervical sinuses
|
|
What does aberrant development of the 3rd and 4th pouches cause?
|
DiGeorge's syndrome
|
|
What does the 1st aortic arch give rise to?
|
Part of the maxillary artery
|
|
What does the 2nd pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
Epithelial lining of the palantine tonsils
|
|
What does the 3rd aortic arch give rise to?
|
Common carotid artery and proximal part of the internal carotid artery
|
|
What does the 4th pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
Superior parathyroids
|
|
What does the 5th aortic arch give rise to?
|
Nothing
|
|
What does the 5th pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
C cells of the thyroid
|
|
What does the 6th aortic arch give rise to?
|
The proximal part of the pulmonary arteries and (on left only) ductus arteriosus
|
|
What does the ductus arteriosus give rise to?
|
Ligamentum arteriosum
|
|
What does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from?
|
Liver
|
|
What does the first branchial cleft develop into?
|
The external auditory meatus
|
|
What does the foramen ovale give rise to?
|
Fossa ovalis
|
|
What does the left 4th aortic arch give rise to?
|
Aortic arch
|
|
What does the ligamentum venosum come from?
|
Ductus venosus
|
|
What does the notochord give rise to?
|
Nucleus Pulposus
|
|
What does the primitive atria give rise to?
|
Trabeculated left and right atrium
|
|
What does the primitive ventricle give rise to?
|
Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricle
|
|
What does the right 4th aortic arch give rise to?
|
Proximal part of the right subclavian artery
|
|
What does the right horn of the sinus venosus give rise to?
|
Smooth part of the right atrium
|
|
What does the spleen arise from?
|
Dorsal mesentery, but is supplied by the artery of the foregut
|
|
What does the thymus arise from?
|
Epithelium of the 3rd branchial pouch
|
|
What does the thyroid diverticulum arise from?
|
The floor of the primitive pharynx
|
|
What does the truncus arteriosus give rise to?
|
The ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk
|
|
What does the umbilical arteries give rise to?
|
Medial umbilical ligaments
|
|
What ear muscle does the 1st branchial arch form?
|
Tensor tympani
|
|
What effect does 13-cis-retinoic acid have on the fetus?
|
Extremely high risk for birth defects
|
|
What effect does ACE inhibitors have on the fetus?
|
Renal Damage
|
|
What effect does iodide have on the fetus?
|
Congenital goiter or hypothyroidism
|
|
What effect does warfarin and x-rays have on the fetus?
|
Multiple anomalies
|
|
What effects does cocaine have on the fetus?
|
Abnormal fetal development and fetal addiction
|
|
What embryonic structure are the smooth parts of the left and right ventricle derived from?
|
Bulbus cordis
|
|
What embryonic structure does the coronary sinus come from?
|
Left horn of the sinus venosus
|
|
What embryonic structure does the median umbilical ligament come from?
|
Allantois (urachus)
|
|
What fetal landmark has developed within week 2 of fertilization?
|
Bilaminar disk
|
|
What fetal landmark has occurred within week 1 of fertilization?
|
Implantation
|
|
What fetal landmark has occurred within week 3 of fertilization?
|
Gastrulation
|
|
What fetal landmarks (2) have developed within week 3 of fertilization?
|
Primitive streak and neural plate begin to form
|
|
What five things arise from neuroectoderm?
|
Neurohypophysis - CNS neurons - Oligodendrocytes - Astrocytes - Pineal gland
|
|
What four structures make up the diaphragm?
|
- Septum transversum - pleuroperitoneal folds - body wall - dorsal mesentery of esophagus
|
|
What four things arise from surface ectoderm?
|
- Adenohypophysis - Lens of eye - Epithelial linings - Epidermis
|
|
What four things does Meckel's cartilage (from the 1st arch) develop into?
|
Mandible - Malleus - Incus - Sphenomandibular ligament
|
|
What four things does Reichert's cartilage (from the 2nd arch) develop into?
|
Stapes - Styloid process - Lesser horn of hyoid - Stylohyoid ligament
|
|
What four things does the dorsal pancreatic bud become?
|
Body, tail, isthmus, and accessory pancreatic duct
|
|
What four things does the mesonephric (wolffian) duct develop into?
|
- Seminal vesicles - Epididymis - Ejaculatory duct - Ductus deferens
|
|
What induces the ectoderm to form the neuroectoderm (neural plate)?
|
Notochord
|
|
What is a congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
|
Abdominal contents herniate into the thorax due to incomplete development of the diaphragm
|
|
What is a hypospadias?
|
Abnormal opening of penile urethra on inferior side of penis due to failure of urethral folds to close
|
|
What is a single umbilical artery associated with?
|
Congenital and chromosomal anomalies
|
|
What is a urachal cyst or sinus a remnant of?
|
The allantois
|
|
What is an abnormal opening of penile urethra on superior side of penis due to faulty positioning of the genital tubercle?
|
Epispadias
|
|
What is associated with an epispadias?
|
Exstrophy of the bladder
|
|
What is Meckel's diverticulum?
|
Persistence of the vitelline duct or yolk sac
|
|
What is oligohydramnios associated with?
|
Bilateral renal agenesis or posterior urethral valves (in males)
|
|
What is oligohydramnios?
|
< 0.5 L of amniotic fluid
|
|
What is polyhydramnios associated with?
|
Esophageal/duodenal atresia, anencephaly
|
|
What is polyhydramnios?
|
> 1.5-2 L of amniotic fluid
|
|
What is Potter's syndrome?
|
Bilateral renal agenesis, that results in ologohydramnios causing limb and facial deformities and pulmonary hypoplasia (Babies with Potter's can’t pee in utero)
|
|
What is the acrosome of sperm derived from?
|
Golgi apparatus
|
|
What is the female homologue to the corpus spongiosum in the male?
|
Vestibular bulbs
|
|
What is the female homologue to the prostate gland in the male?
|
Urethral and paraurethral glands (of Skene)
|
|
What is the female homologue to the scrotum in the male?
|
Labia majora
|
|
What is the female homologue to the ventral shaft of the penis in the male?
|
Labia minora
|
|
What is the flagellum (tail) derived from?
|
One of the centrioles
|
|
What is the food supply of sperm?
|
Fructose
|
|
What is the male homologue to the glans clitoris in the female?
|
Glans penis
|
|
What is the male homologue to the greater vestibular glands (of Bartholin) in the female?
|
Bulbourethral glands (of Cowper)
|
|
What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract?
|
Meckel's diverticulum
|
|
What is the most common ectopic thyroid tissue site?
|
The tongue
|
|
What is the normal remnant of the thyroglossal duct?
|
Foramen cecum
|
|
What is the postnatal derivative of the notochord?
|
The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc
|
|
What is the site of T-cell maturation?
|
Thymus
|
|
What part of the gut is the pancreas derived?
|
Foregut
|
|
What suppresses the development of the paramesonephric ducts in males?
|
Mullerian inhibiting substance (secreted by the testes)
|
|
What teratogenic agent causes limb defects ('flipper' limbs)?
|
Thalidomide
|
|
What three structures does the 3rd pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
- Thymus - Left inferior parathyroid - Right inferior parathyroid
|
|
What three things does the 1st pharyngeal pouch develop into?
|
- Middle ear cavity - Eustachian tube - Mastoid air cells
|
|
What three things does the paramesonephric (mullerian) duct develop into?
|
Fallopian tube - Uterus - Part of the vagina
|
|
What three things does the ventral pancreatic bud become?
|
- Pancreatic head - uncinate process - main Pancreatic duct
|
|
What two things occur during week 4 of fetal development?
|
Heart begins to beat, upper and lower limb buds begin to form
|
|
What type of bone formation is spontaneous without preexisting cartilage?
|
Intramembranous
|
|
What type of twins would have 1 placenta, 2 amniotic sacs, and 1 chorion?
|
Monozygotic twins
|
|
What type of twins would have 2 amniotic sacs and 2 placentas?
|
Monozygotic or dizygotic twins
|
|
What will DiGeorge's syndrome lead to?
|
T cell deficiency & hypocalcemia
|
|
When do primary oocytes begin meiosis I?
|
During fetal life
|
|
When do primary oocytes complete meiosis I?
|
Just prior to ovulation
|
|
When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the bone marrow?
|
Week 28 and onward
|
|
When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the liver?
|
Weeks 6-30
|
|
When does fetal erythropoiesis occur in the spleen?
|
Weeks 9-28
|
|
When does organogenesis occur in the fetus?
|
Weeks 3-8
|
|
Where does positive and negative selection occur in the thymus?
|
At the corticomedullary junction
|
|
Where does spermatogenesis take place?
|
Seminferous tubules
|
|
Where is the first place fetal erythropoiesis occurs and when does this take place?
|
Yolk sac (3-8 wk)
|
|
Which aortic arch does the stapedial artery and the hyoid artery come from?
|
2nd aortic arch
|
|
Which branchial arch are the greater horn of hyoid and the stylopharyngeus muscle derived from?
|
3rd branchial arch
|
|
Which branchial arch does Meckel's cartilage develop from?
|
1st arch
|
|
Which branchial arch forms the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
|
1st arch
|
|
Which branchial arch forms the incus and malleus of the ear?
|
1st arch
|
|
Which ear bone(s) does the 2nd branchial arch form?
|
Stapes
|
|
Which embryonic tissue are branchial clefts derived from?
|
Ectoderm
|
|
Which embryonic tissue are branchial pouches derived from?
|
Endoderm
|
|
Which is more common a hypospadias or epispadias?
|
Hypospadias
|
|
Which muscles (3) are derivatives of the 4th branchial arch?
|
- Most pharyngeal constrictors - Cricothyroid - Levator veli palatini
|
|
Which muscles (4) are derivatives of the 2nd branchial arch?
|
- Muscles of facial expression - Stapedius - Stylohyoid - Posterior belly of digastric
|
|
Which muscles (8) are derivatives of the 1st branchial arch?
|
- Temporalis - Masseter - Lateral pterygoid - Medial pterygoid - Mylohyoid - Anterior belly of digastric - Tensor tympani - Tensor veli palatini
|
|
Which muscles are derivatives of the 6th branchial arch?
|
All intrinsic muscles of the larynx, except the cricothyroid
|
|
Which pharyngeal arch does Reichert's cartilage develop from?
|
2nd arch
|
|
Which teratogenic agent causes vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma?
|
DES
|
|
Which two branchial arches form the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
|
3rd and 4th arches
|
|
Which two embryonic tissues are branchial arches derived from?
|
Mesoderm and neural crests
|
|
Which week of fetal development have the genitalia taken on male/female characteristics?
|
Week 10
|
|
A common football injury caused by clipping from the lateral side will damage what structures (3 answers)?
|
--Medial collateral ligament --Medial meniscus --Anterior cruciate ligament
|
|
A lumbar puncture is performed at what landmark?
|
Iliac crest
|
|
A positive anterior drawer sign indicates damage to what structure?
|
Anterior cruciate ligament(ACL)
|
|
A pudendal nerve block is performed at what landmark?
|
Ischial spine
|
|
Abnormal passive abduction of the knee indicates damage to what structure?
|
Medial collateral ligament(MCL)
|
|
'Anterior' in ACL refers to what attachment?
|
Tibial
|
|
At what level is a lumbar puncture performed?
|
Between L3-L4 or L4-L5
|
|
Common peroneal nerve damage manifests what deficit?
|
Loss of dorsiflexion(Foot Drop)
|
|
Common peroneal, Tibial, Femoral, and Obturator nerves arise from what spinal cord segments (4 answers)?
|
--'L4-S2 (common peroneal) --L4-S3 (tibial) --L2-L4 (femoral) and (obturator)
|
|
Coronary artery occlusion usually occurs where?
|
Left anterior descending artery (LAD)
|
|
Do the coronary arteries fill during systole or diastole?
|
Diastole
|
|
Erection and sensation of the penis is in what dermatomes?
|
S2-S4
|
|
Femoral nerve damage manifests what deficit?
|
Loss of knee jerk
|
|
How does the course of the left recurrent laryngeal nerve differ from that of the right?
|
The left wraps around the arch of the aorta and the ligamentum arteriosum while the right wraps around the subclavian artery.
|
|
How is the appendix located?
|
2/3 of the way from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine
|
|
How many lobes are in the right and left lungs and what are their names?
|
--Right has three (superior,Middle,inferior) --Left has two (superior and inferior) and the lingula
|
|
Name five portal-systemic anastomoses.
|
1.Left gastric-azygous vv. 2.Superior-Middle/Inferior rectal vv. 3.Paraumbilical-inferior epigastric 4.Retroperitoneal-renal vv. 5.Retroperitoneal-paravertebral vv.
|
|
Name the 4 ligaments of the uterus.
|
--Suspensory ligament of ovaries --Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament --Round ligament of uterus --Broad ligament
|
|
Name the hypothenar muscles.
|
--Opponens digiti minimi --Abductor digiti minimi --Flexor digiti minimi
|
|
Name the retroperitoneal structures (9).
|
1.Duodenum(2nd-4th parts) 2.Descending colon 3.Ascending colon 4.Kidney & ureters 5.Pancreas 6.Aorta 7.Inferior vena cava 8.Adrenal glands 9.Rectum
|
|
Name the rotator cuff muscles.
|
--Supraspinatus --Infraspinatus --teres minor --Subscapularis
|
|
Name the thenar muscles
|
--Opponens pollicis --Abductor pollicis brevis --Flexor pollicis brevis
|
|
Obturator nerve damage manifests what deficit?
|
Loss of hip adduction
|
|
Pain from the diaphragm is usually referred where?
|
Shoulder
|
|
Subarachnoid space extends to what spinal level?
|
S2
|
|
The area of the body that contains the appendix is known as what?
|
McBurney's point
|
|
The femoral triangle contains what structures from lateral to medial?
|
--Femoral nerve --Femoral artery --Femoral vein --Femoral Canal (lymphatics)
|
|
The inguinal ligament exists in what dermatome?
|
L1
|
|
The kneecaps exist in what dermatome?
|
L4
|
|
The male sexual response of ejaculation is mediated by what part of the nervous system?
|
Visceral and somatic nerves
|
|
The male sexual response of emission is mediated by what part of the nervous system?
|
Sympathetic nervous system
|
|
The male sexual response of erection is mediated by what part of the nervous system?
|
Parasympathetic nervous system
|
|
The nipple exists in what dermatome?
|
T4
|
|
The recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from what cranial nerve and supplies what muscles?
|
1.CN X 2.All intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle.
|
|
The SA and AV nodes are usually supplied by what artery?
|
Right Coronary Artery (RCA)
|
|
The spinal cord ends at what level in adults?
|
L1-L2
|
|
The umbilicus exists in what dermatome?
|
T10
|
|
The xiphoid process exists in what dermatome?
|
T7
|
|
Tibial nerve damage manifests what deficit?
|
Loss of plantar flexion
|
|
What are hernias?
|
Protrusions of peritoneum through an opening, usually sites of weakness.
|
|
What are JG cells?
|
Modified smooth muscle of afferent arteriole in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney
|
|
What are the boundaries of the inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle?
|
--Inferior epigastric artery --Lateral border of the rectus abdominus --Inguinal ligament
|
|
What are the layers encountered from the outsided down to the brain?
|
--Skin --Connective tissue --Aponeurosis --Loose Connective tissue --Pericranium --Dura mater --Subdural space --Arachnoid --Subarachnoid space --Pia mater --Brain
|
|
What are the manifestations of portal hypertension?
|
--Esophageal varices --Hemorrhoids --Caput medusae
|
|
What condition is usually associated with portal hypertension?
|
Alcoholic cirrhosis
|
|
What defect may predispose an infant for a diaphragmatic hernia?
|
Defective development of the pleuroperitoneal membrane
|
|
What gut regions and structures does the celiac artery supply?
|
1.Foregut 2.--Stomach to duodenum --liver --gallbladder --pancreas
|
|
What gut regions and structures does the IMA supply?
|
1.Hindgut 2.--Distal 1/3 of transverse colon to upper portion of rectum
|
|
What gut regions and structures does the SMA supply?
|
1.Midgut 2.--Duodenum to proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
|
|
What is a diaphragmatic hernia?
|
Abdominal retroperitoneal structures enter the thorax
|
|
What is a femoral hernia?
|
entrance of abdominal contents through the femoral canal.
|
|
What is a hiatal hernia?
|
Stomach contents herniate upward through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm
|
|
What is the arterial blood supply difference above and below the pectinate line?
|
--Superior rectal a. (Above) --Inferior rectal a. (Below)
|
|
What is the course of a direct inguinal hernia?
|
Through weak abdominal wall, into the inguinal triangle, medial to the inferior epigastric artery, through the external inguinal ring only.
|
|
What is the course of an indirect inguinal hernia?
|
Through the internal (deep) inguinal ring and the external (superficial) inguinal ring lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and into the scrotum
|
|
What is the course of the ureters?
|
Pass under uterine artery and under the ductus deferens
|
|
What is the function of Myenteric plexus? Submucosal plexus?
|
1.Coordinates motility along entire gut wall 2.Regulates local secretions, blood flow, and absorption
|
|
What is the function of the JG cells?
|
--secrete renin and erythropoietin
|
|
What is the innervation difference above and below the pectinate line?
|
--Visceral innervation (Above) --Somatic innervation (Below)
|
|
What is the innervation of the diaphram?
|
Phrenic nerve (C3,4,5)
|
|
What is the macula densa?
|
Sodium sensor in part of the distal convoluted distal tubule in the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney
|
|
What is the Myenteric plexus also known as? Submucosal plexus?
|
1. Auerbach's plexus 2. Meissner's plexus
|
|
What is the pectinate line of the rectum?
|
Where the hindgut meets ectoderm in the rectum
|
|
What is the relationship of the two pulmonary arteries to the bronchus at the lung hilus?
|
described by RALS -- Right Anterior, Left Superior
|
|
What is the usual pathology above the pectinate line of the rectum?
|
Internal hemorrhoids (not painful) Adenocarcinoma
|
|
What is the usual pathology below the pectinate line of the rectum?
|
External hemorrhoids (painful) Squamous cell carcinoma
|
|
What is the venous drainage difference above and below the pectinate line?
|
--Superior rectal v. to internal mesenteric vein to portal system (Above)
|
|
--Inferior rectal v. to internal pudendal v. to internal iliac v. to IVC (Below)
|
|
|
What layers of the gut wall contribute to motility (4)?
|
--Muscularis mucosae --Inner circular muscle layer --Myenteric plexus --Outer longitudinal muscle layer
|
|
What layers of the gut wall contribute to support (3)?
|
--Serosa --Lamina propria --Submucosa
|
|
What muscle opens the jaw?
|
Lateral pterygoid
|
|
What nerve innervates most of the 'glossus' muscles and which is the exception?
|
All muscles with root 'glossus' in their names (except palatoglossus, innervated by vagus nerve) are innervated by hypoglossal nerve.
|
|
What nerve innervates most of the 'palat' muscles and which is the exception?
|
All muscles with root palat in their names (except tensor veli palatini, innervated by V2) are innervated by vagus nerve.
|
|
What nerve innervates the muscles that close and open the jaw?
|
Trigeminal Nerve (V3)
|
|
What neurons do the GI enteric plexus contain?
|
Cell bodies of parasympathetic terminal effector neurons
|
|
What part of the heart does the LAD supply?
|
anterior interventricular septum
|
|
What spinal cord levels are vertebral disk herniation most likely to occur?
|
Between L5 and S1
|
|
What structure is in the femoral triangle but not in the femoral sheath?
|
--Femoral nerve
|
|
What structures are in the carotid sheath?
|
1.Internal Jugular Vein (lateral) --2.Common Carotid Artery (medial) --3.Vagus Nerve (posterior)
|
|
What structures are pierced when doing an LP?
|
1.Skin/superficial fascia 2.Ligaments(supraspinatous,interspinous,ligamentum flavum) 3.Epidural space 4.Dura mater 5.Subdural space 6.Arachnoid 7.Subarachnoid space--CSF
|
|
What structures do the broad ligament contain (4)?
|
--Round ligaments of the uterus --Ovaries --Uterine tubules --Uterine vessels
|
|
What structures make up the bronchopulmonary segment?
|
--Tertiary bronchus --Bronchial artery --Pulmonary artery
|
|
What structures perforate the diaphragm at what vertebral levels?
|
--IVC at T7 --esophagus, vagal trunks at T9 --aorta, thoracic duct, axygous vein at T11
|
|
What three muscles close the jaw?
|
--Masseter --Temporalis --Medial pterygoid
|
|
What usually provides the blood supply for the inferior left ventricle?
|
Posterior descending artery (PD) of the RCA
|
|
When do the JG cells secrete renin?
|
in response to decreased renal BP, decreased sodium delivery to distal tubule, and increased sympathetic tone
|
|
When is damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve most likely to happen and what are its results(2 answers)?
|
1.Thyroid surgery 2.Hoarseness
|
|
Where is the CSF found?
|
Subarachnoid space
|
|
Where is the Myenteric plexus located? Submucosal plexus?
|
1.Between the inner and outer layers of smooth muscle in GI tract wall 2.Between mucosa and inner layer of smooth muscle in GI tract wall.
|
|
Which ligament contains the ovarian vessels?
|
Suspensory ligament of the ovary
|
|
Which ligament contains the uterine vessels?
|
Transverse cervical (cardinal) ligament
|
|
Which lung is the usual site of an inhaled foreign body?
|
Right lung
|
|
Which lung provides a space for the heart to occupy?
|
Left lung (in the place of the middle lobe)
|
|
Which meningeal layer is not pierced during an LP?
|
Pia mater
|
|
Who usually gets a direct inguinal hernia? indirect hernia (and why)?
|
1.Older men 2.Infants (failure of processus vaginalis to close)
|
|
What are the 3 layers of peripheral nerves? (inner to outer)
|
1) Endoneurium 2) Perineurium 3) Epineurium
|
|
Where is type I collagen found?(7)
|
1. bone 2. tendon 3. skin 4. dentin 5. fascia 6. cornea 7. late wound repair
|
|
Where is type II collagen found? (3)
|
1. cartilage (including hyaline) 2. vitreous body 3. nucleus pulposus.
|
|
What are the functions of the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?
|
1. Cochlea- hearing 2. vestibule- linear acceleration 3. semicircular canals- angular acceleration.
|
|
What are the major structures of the inner ear bony labyrinth?
|
1. Cochlea 2. vestibule 3. semicircular canals
|
|
What are the major structures of the inner ear membranous labyrinth?
|
1. Cochlear duct 2. utricle. 3. saccule 4. semicircular canals.
|
|
Name two proteins involved in the structure of macula adherens.
|
1. Desmoplakin 2.Keratin
|
|
Name 6 functions of Golgi apparatus.
|
1. Distribution center of proteins and lipids from ER to plasma membrane, lysosomes, secretory vessicles 2. Modifies N-oligosaccharides on asparagine 3. Adds O-oligosaccharides to Ser and Thr residues 4. Proteoglycan assembly from proteoglycan core proteins 5. Sulfation of sugars in proteoglycans and of selected tyrosine on proteins 6. Addition of mannose-6-phosphate to specific lysosomal proteins, which targets the protein to the lysosome
|
|
Name two proteins involved in the structure of zona adherens?
|
1. E-cadherins 2. actin filaments
|
|
Which cells are rich in smooth ER?
|
1. liver hepatocytes, 2. steroid hormone-producing cells of adrenal cortex.
|
|
Describe the immune response stimulated via Peyer's patches.
|
1. M cells take up antigen. 2. stimulated B cells leave Peyer's patch and travel through lymph and blood to lamina propria of intestine. 3. In lamina propria B cells differentiate into IgA-secreting plasma cells. 4. IgA receives protective secretory component. 5. IgA is transported across epithelium to gut to deal with intraluminal Ag.
|
|
Which cells are rich in rough ER?
|
1. Mucus-secreting goblet cells of small intestine, 2. antibody-secreting plasma cells.
|
|
What are the functions of the lymph node?
|
1. Nonspecific filtration by macrophages. 2. storage/proliferation of B and T cells 3. Ab production.
|
|
Where is type III collagen found? (5)
|
1. skin 2.blood vessels 3.uterus 4.fetal tissue 5.granulation tissue
|
|
Name five types of epithelial cell junctions.
|
1. zona occludens 2.zona adherens 3.macula adherens 4.gap junction 5.hemidesmosome
|
|
Describe microtubule arrangement of cilia.
|
9+2 arrangement of microtubules.
|
|
Describe the outer structure of a Peyer's patch.
|
A Peyer's patch is 'covered' by single layer of cuboidal enterocytes, interspersed with specialized M cells (no goblet cells).
|
|
What is a lymph node? Include information on structural components.
|
A secondary lymphoid organ. Has many afferents, one or more efferents. With trabeculae. Major histological regions Follicle, Medulla, Paracortex
|
|
What is the primary regulatory control of zona fasciculata secretion?
|
ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
|
|
What is the primary regulatory control of zona reticularis secretion?
|
ACTH, hypothalamic CRH
|
|
What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona glomerulosa?
|
aldosterone
|
|
What do Brunner's glands secrete?
|
alkaline mucus
|
|
What is the function of liver sinusoids?
|
Allow macromolecules of plasma full access to surface of liver cells through space of Disse.
|
|
What is the function of a gap junction?
|
Allows adjacent cells to communicate for electric and metabolic functions.
|
|
What is produced by alpha cells of the Islets of Langerhans?
|
alpha cells produce glucagon
|
|
What three cell types are found in Islets of Langerhans?
|
alpha, beta, and gamma cells
|
|
What type of cells are Nissl bodies found? In what parts of the cell?
|
Are found in neurons. Are not found in axon or axon hillock.
|
|
IN what area of the spleen are B cells found?
|
B cells are found within the white pulp of the spleen.
|
|
What is type IV collagen found? (1)
|
basement membrane or basal lamina
|
|
What is produced by beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans?
|
beta cells produce insulin
|
|
What is the only GI submucosal gland?
|
Brunner's glands
|
|
Describe the histological layers of the adrenal glands (outside to in)
|
Capsule, Zona glomerulosa, Zona fasciculata, Zona reticularis, Medulla.
|
|
What are/is the primary secretory product of the adrenal medulla?
|
Catecholamines (Epi, NE)
|
|
What do the medullary cords consist of?
|
Closely packed lymphocytes and plasma cells.
|
|
What is the most common type of collagen?
|
Collagen Type I - 90%
|
|
What is the most abundant protein in the human body?
|
Collagen
|
|
Define Islets of Langerhans.
|
Collections of endocrine cells.
|
|
What is the function of hemidesmosomes?
|
Connect cells to underlying extracellular matrix.
|
|
What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona fasciculata?
|
cortisol, sex hormones.
|
|
What is another name for macula adherens?
|
Desmosome
|
|
What is the effect of duodenal ulcers on Brunner's gland histology?
|
Duodenal ulcers cause hypertrophy of Brunner's glands.
|
|
How does dynein function in cilia function?
|
Dynein causes the bending of cilium by differential sliding of doublets.
|
|
What kind of protein is dynein?
|
Dynein is an ATPase
|
|
Describe the role of dynein in cilia structure.
|
Dynein links peripheral 9 doublets of microtubules.
|
|
What makes endolymph?
|
Endolymph is made by the stria vascularis.
|
|
What is Endoneurium?
|
Endoneurium invests single nerve fiber of the peripheral nerve.
|
|
What is Epineurium?
|
Epineurium (dense connective tissue) surrounds entire nerve (fascicles and blood vessels)
|
|
Where is type X collagen found? (1)
|
epiphyseal plate
|
|
Plasma is filtered on the basis of what properties?
|
Filtration of plasma occurs according to net charge and size.
|
|
How is the glomerular basement membrane formed?
|
From the fusion of endothelial and podocyte basement membranes.
|
|
What is produced by gamma cells of the Islets of Langerhans?
|
gamma cells produce somatostatin.
|
|
What is the mnemonic to remember layers and products of adrenal cortex?
|
GFR (Glomerulosa, Fasciculata, Reticularis) corresponds to Salt (Na+), Sugar (glucocorticoids) and Sex (androgens) The deeper you go, the sweeter it gets.
|
|
What is the function of hair cells?
|
Hair cells are the sensory elements in both the cochlear and vestibular apparatus.
|
|
Name a protein involved in the structure of hemidesmosomes.
|
Integrin
|
|
What is another name for zona adherens?
|
Intermediate junction
|
|
Describe the histological structure of sinusoids of the liver.
|
Irregular 'capillaries' with round pores 100-200 nm in diameter and no basement membrane
|
|
What is the function of smooth ER?
|
Is the site of steroid synthesis and detoxification of drugs and poisons
|
|
What is the function of rough ER?
|
Is the site of synthesis of secretory (exported proteins and of N-linked oligosaccharide addition to many proteins.
|
|
What part of pancreas are the Islets of Langerhans concentrated?
|
Islets of Langerhans are most numerous in the tail of pancreas.
|
|
What structural defect causes Kartagener's syndrome? What is the consequence?
|
Kartagener's syndrome is due to dynein arm defect. Results in immotile cilia.
|
|
Define Pacinian corpuscles.
|
Large, encapsulated sensory receptors found in deeper layers of skin at ligaments, joint capsules, serous membranes, mesenteries
|
|
Where are Brunner's glands located?
|
Located in submucosa of duodenum
|
|
Describe the histologic structure of sinusoids of the spleen.
|
Long, vascular channels in red pulp. With fenestrated 'barrel hoop' basement membrane.
|
|
What is the histologic change in lymph nodes during an extreme cellular immune response?
|
Lymph node paracortex becomes enlarged during extreme cellular immune response.
|
|
What is the histologic presentation of DiGeorge's syndrome?
|
Lymph node paracortex is not well developed in patients with DiGeorge's syndrome
|
|
What kind of cells are found nearby the sinusoids of the spleen?
|
Macrophages
|
|
What are the major structures of the lymph node medulla?
|
Medulla consists of medullary cords and medullary sinuses.
|
|
What do medullary sinuses communicate with?
|
Medullary sinuses communicate with efferent lymphatics.
|
|
What do medullary sinuses consist of?
|
Medullary sinuses contain reticular cells and macrophages.
|
|
What is the function of Meissner's corpuscles?
|
Meissner's corpuscles are involved in light discriminatory touch of glabrous skin
|
|
What is the histologic change in nephrotic syndrome? What is the consequence of this change?
|
Negative charge is lost. Plasma protein is lost in urine
|
|
What is the glomerular basement membrane coated with? (provides negative charge to filter).
|
Negatively charged heparan sulfate
|
|
What is the most common tumor the adrenal medulla in children?
|
Neuroblastoma
|
|
What is the function of Pacinian corpuscles?
|
Pacinian corpuscles are involved in pressure, coarse touch, vibration, and tension.
|
|
What do the Islets of Langerhans arise from?
|
Pancreatic buds
|
|
What specialized vascular structure is found in the lymph node paracortex? What is the function of this structure?
|
Paracortex contains high endothelial venules (HEV). T and B cells enter from the blood through the HEV.
|
|
What cells are found in the lymph node paracortex?
|
Paracortex houses T cells
|
|
What is Perineurium?
|
Perineurium (permeability barrier) surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers.
|
|
What is the most common tumor the adrenal medulla in adults?
|
Pheochromocytoma
|
|
Compare the consequences of pheochromocytoma vs. neuroblastoma on blood pressure
|
Pheochromocytoma causes episodic hypertension. Neuroblastoma does NOT cause episodic hypertension.
|
|
What is the space of Disse?
|
Pores in liver sinusoids allowing plasma macromolecules access to liver cell surfaces.
|
|
What is the primary regulatory control of adrenal medulla secretion?
|
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers.
|
|
What is the function of zona occludens?
|
Prevents diffusion across intracellular space.
|
|
Describe the appearance and status of primary vs. secondary follicles.
|
Primary follicles are dense and dormant. Secondary follicles have pale central germinal centers and are active.
|
|
Describe the location of the lymph node paracortex.
|
Region of cortex between follicles and medulla.
|
|
What is the primary regulatory control of zona glomerulosa secretion?
|
Renin-angiotensin
|
|
What is the glomerular basement membrane responsible for?
|
Responsible for the actual filtration of plasma.
|
|
What is another name for type III collagen?
|
reticulin
|
|
What are Nissl bodies?
|
rough ER
|
|
Where in the inner ear are the ampullae found? What is the function of this structure?
|
Semicircular canals contain ampullae. Functions in detecting angular acceleration.
|
|
What are/is the primary secretory product of the zona reticularis?
|
sex hormones (e.g. androgens)
|
|
What is the function of lymph node follicles?
|
Site of B-cell localization and proliferation.
|
|
Define macula adherens.
|
Small, discrete sites of attachment of epithelial cells.
|
|
Define Meissner's corpuscles.
|
Small, encapsulated sensory receptors found in dermis of palm, soles and digits of skin.
|
|
What is an M cell? What is it's function.
|
Specialized cell interspersed between the cuboidal enterocytes covering a Peyer's patch. M cells take up antigens
|
|
Name the layers of epidermis from surface to base.
|
stratum Corneum, stratum Lucidum, stratum Granulosum, stratum Spinosum, stratum Basalis
|
|
What is the location of zona adherens?
|
Surrounds the perimeter just below zona occludens.
|
|
What is the function of Nissl bodies?
|
Synthesize enzymes (e.g. ChAT) and peptide neurotransmitters.
|
|
In what area of the spleen are T cells found?
|
T cells are found in the PALS and the red pulp of the spleen.
|
|
Which part of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound? Which picks up low frequency?
|
The base of the cochlea picks up high frequency sound the apex picks up low frequency sound
|
|
What is the bony labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.
|
The bony labyrinth is filled with perilymph. Perilymph is Na+ rich, similar to ECF
|
|
What is the cause of I cell disease? What is the consequence?
|
The failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate to lysosome proteins. These enzymes are secreted outside the cell instead of being targeted to the lysosome.
|
|
What is the membranous labyrinth filled with? Describe its composition.
|
The membranous labyrinth is filled with endolymph. Endolymph is K+ rich, similar to ICF.
|
|
What layer of the peripheral nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment?
|
The perineurium must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment.
|
|
Where in the inner ear are the maculae found? What is the function of this structure?
|
The utricle and saccule contain maculae Functions in detecting linear acceleration.
|
|
How is the function of gap junctions accomplished?
|
Through a connection with central channels.
|
|
What is another name for zona occludens?
|
Tight junction
|
|
What are mnemonics for remembering locations for type I, II and IV collagen?
|
Type ONE: bONE Type TWO: carTWOlage Type FOUR: under the FLOOR (basement membrane)
|
|
What is a Peyer's patch?
|
Unencapsulated lymphoid tissue found in lamina propria and submucosa of small intestine.
|
|
What type of infection may induce an extreme cellular immune response? What happens to the lymph node during such an immune response?
|
Viral response is an example. The paracortex enlarges.
|
|
According to the Homunculus man, place the following in order (from medial to lateral). hand, foot, tongue, face, trunk
|
foot, trunk, hand, face, tongue
|
|
(T or F) Can Bell's palsy occur idiopathically?
|
true
|
|
(T or F) Can fasiculations be present in a LMN lesion?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Is the anterior nucleus of the thalamus part of the limbic system?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Is the cingulate gyrus part of the limbic system?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Is the Entrorhinal cortex part of the limbic system?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Is the hippocampal formation part of the limbic system?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Is the mammillary body part of the limbic system?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Is the septal area part of the limbic system?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in atrophy of the interosseous muscles?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in atrophy of the thenar and hypothenar eminences?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in disappearance of the radial pulse upon moving the head to the opposite side?
|
True
|
|
(T or F) Thoracic outlet syndrome results in sensory deficits on the medial side of the forearm and hand?
|
True
|
|
A lesion of the globus pallidus causes what disease?
|
Wilson's disease
|
|
A lesion of the mammillary bodies (bilateraly) produces what?
|
Wernicke-Korsakoff's encephalopathy (confabulations, anterograde amnesia)
|
|
A lesion of the optic chiasm produces?
|
bitemporal hemianopsia
|
|
A lesion of the right dorsal optic radiation (parietal lesion) produces?
|
left lower quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)
|
|
A lesion of the right Meyer's loop (temporal lobe) produces?
|
left upper quadrantic anopsia (a temporal lesion)
|
|
A lesion of the right optic nerve produces?
|
right anopsia
|
|
A lesion of the right optic tract produces?
|
left homonymous hemianopsia
|
|
A lesion of the right visual fibers just prior to the visual cortex produces?
|
left hemianopsia with macular sparing
|
|
A lesion of the Striatum can cause which 2 diseases?
|
Huntington's and Wilson's disease
|
|
A positive Babinski is an indicator for a (UMN or LMN) lesion?
|
UMN lesion
|
|
A rupture of the middle menigeal artery causes what type of hematoma? (epidural or subdural)
|
epidural hematoma
|
|
A rupture of the superior cerebral veins causes what type of hematoma? (epidural or subdural)
|
subdural hematoma
|
|
An aneurysm of the anterior communicating artery may cause what type of defects?
|
visual defects
|
|
An aneurysm of what artery may cause CN III palsy?
|
posterior communicating artery
|
|
Are D1 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?
|
Excitatory
|
|
Are D2 neurons in the basal ganglia inhibitory or excitatory?
|
Inhibitory
|
|
Beginning with anterior communicating artery describe the path around the circle of Willis.
|
ant. comm. - ACA - ICA - post. comm. - PCA - PCA - post. comm. - ICA - ACA - ant. comm.
|
|
Bell's Palsy is seen as a complication in what 5 things?
|
AIDS, Lyme disease, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes (ALexander Bell with STD)
|
|
Brodmann's area 17 is?
|
principal visual cortex
|
|
Brodmann's area 22 is?
|
Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)
|
|
Brodmann's area 3,1,2 is?
|
principal sensory area
|
|
Brodmann's area 4 is?
|
principal motor area
|
|
Brodmann's area 41, 42 is?
|
primary auditory cortex
|
|
Brodmann's area 44, 45 is?
|
Broca's area (motor speech)
|
|
Brodmann's area 6 is?
|
premotor area
|
|
Brodmann's area 8 is?
|
frontal eye movement and pupilary change area
|
|
CN I has what function?
|
smell
|
|
CN I passes through what 'hole'?
|
cribriform plate
|
|
CN II has what function?
|
sight
|
|
CN II passes through what 'hole'?
|
optic canal
|
|
CN III has what 4 functions?
|
eye movement, pupil constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening
|
|
CN III inervates what 5 muscles.
|
medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae superioris
|
|
CN III passes through what 'hole'?
|
superior orbital fissure
|
|
CN IV has what function?
|
eye movement
|
|
CN IV inervates what muscle?
|
superior oblique
|
|
CN IV passes through what 'hole'?
|
superior orbital fissure
|
|
CN IX has what 4 functions?
|
posterior 1/3 taste, swallowing, salivation (parotid), monitoring carotid body and sinus
|
|
CN IX passes through what 'hole'?
|
jugular foramen
|
|
CN V has what 2 functions?
|
mastication, facial sensation
|
|
CN V1 passes through what 'hole'?
|
superior orbital fissure
|
|
CN V2 passes through what 'hole'?
|
foramen rotundum
|
|
CN V3 passes through what 'hole'?
|
foramen ovale
|
|
CN VI has what function?
|
eye movement
|
|
CN VI inervates what muscle?
|
lateral rectus
|
|
CN VI passes through what 'hole'?
|
superior orbital fissure
|
|
CN VII has what 4 functions?
|
facial movement, anterior 2/3 taste, lacrimation, salivation(SL, SM glands)
|
|
CN VII passes through what 'hole'?
|
internal auditory meatus
|
|
CN VIII has what 2 functions?
|
hearing, balance
|
|
CN VIII passes through what 'hole'?
|
internal auditory meatus
|
|
CN X has what 5 functions?
|
taste, swallowing, palate elevation, talking, thoracoabdominal viscera
|
|
CN X passes through what 'hole'?
|
jugular foramen
|
|
CN XI has what 2 functions?
|
head turning, shoulder shrugging
|
|
CN XI passes through what 'hole'?
|
jugular foramen (descending) -- foramen magnum (ascending)
|
|
CN XII has what function?
|
tounge movements
|
|
CN XII passes through what 'hole'?
|
hypoglossal canal
|
|
Complete the muscle spindle reflex arc by placing the following in order: alpha motor, Ia afferent, muscle stretch, extrafusal contraction, intrafusal stretch.
|
muscle stretch - intrafusal stretch - Ia afferent - alpha motor - extrafusal contraction
|
|
Extrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?
|
alpha motor neuron
|
|
From which 3 spinal roots does long thoracic nerve arises?
|
C5, C6, C7
|
|
General sensory/motor dysfunction and aphasia are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)
|
anterior circle
|
|
Give 3 characteristics of a LMN lesion.
|
atrophy, flaccid paralysis, absent deep tendon reflexes
|
|
Give 3 charateristics of internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)
|
medial rectus palsy on lateral gaze, nystagmus in abducted eye, normal convergence.
|
|
Give 4 characteristics of an UMN lesion.
|
spastic paralysis, increased deep tendon reflexes, + Babinski, minor to no atrophy
|
|
Golgi tendon organs send their signal via what nerve?
|
group Ib afferents
|
|
Horner's Syndrome is present if the lesion in Brown-Sequard is above what level?
|
T1
|
|
How are the fibers of the corticospinal tract laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)
|
arms- medial, legs-lateral
|
|
How are the fibers of the dorsal column laminated? (legs/arms medial or lateral?)
|
legs-medial, arms-lateral
|
|
How are the fibers of the spinothalmic tract laminated? (sacral/cervical medial or lateral?)
|
cervical-medial, sacral-lateral
|
|
How do glucose and amino acids cross the blood-brain barrier?
|
carrier-mediated transport mechanism
|
|
How does the hypothalamus control the adenohypophysis?
|
via releasing factors (ie. TRH, CRF, GnRF, etc.)
|
|
Huntington's patients typically have what type of movements?
|
Chorea
|
|
If the radial nerve is lesioned, what 2 reflexes are lost?
|
triceps reflex and brachioradialis reflex
|
|
If you break your humerus mid-shaft, which nerve would likely injure?
|
radial nerve
|
|
If you break your medial epicondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?
|
ulnar nerve
|
|
If you break your supracondyle of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?
|
median nerve
|
|
If you break your surgical neck of the humerus, which nerve would likely injure?
|
axillary nerve
|
|
In a lesion of the radial nerve, what muscle is associated with wrist drop?
|
extensor carpi radialis longus
|
|
Intrafusal fibers are encapsulated and make up muscle spindles that send their signal via what nerve?
|
group Ia afferents
|
|
Intrafusal fibers are innervated by what motor neuron?
|
gamma motor neuron
|
|
Is Bell's palsy an UMN or a LMN lesion?
|
LMN
|
|
Is the Babinski reflex (positive or negative) when the big toe dorsiflexes and the other toes fan-out?
|
positive (pathologic)
|
|
Name 2 locations for lesions in Syringomyelia?
|
ventral white commissure and ventral horns
|
|
Name 3 locations for lesions in Vit.B12 neuropathy(Friedreich's ataxia)?
|
dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar tracts
|
|
Name 7 functions of the hypothalamus?
|
Thirst/waterbalance, Adenohypophysis control, Neurohypophysis control, Hunger/satiety, Autonomic regulation, Temperature regulation, Sexual emotions. TAN HATS
|
|
Name the 4 foramina that are in the posterior cranial fossa?
|
internal auditory meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, and foramen magnum.
|
|
Name the 5 foramina that are in the middle cranial fossa?
|
optic canal, superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum.
|
|
Name the 5 functions of the Limbic system?
|
Feeding, Fighting, Feeling, Flight, sex (F--K) [the famous 5 F's]
|
|
Name the 5 segments of the brachial plexus in order from proximal to distal.
|
roots - trunks - divisions - cords - branches
|
|
Name the type of movement with slow writhing movements (esp. the fingers)?
|
Athetosis
|
|
Name the type of movement with sudden, jerky, purposeless movements?
|
Chorea
|
|
Name the type of movement with sudden, wild flailing of one arm?
|
Hemiballismus
|
|
Neurons from the globus pallidus have what action on the ventral anterior nucleus?
|
Inhibitory
|
|
Neurons from the striatum have what action on the globus pallidus?
|
Inhibitory
|
|
retina, CN II, pretectal nuclei, Edinger-Westphal nuclei, CN III, ciliary ganglion, pupillary constrictor muscle
|
|
|
Stimulation from the paraventricular nucleus cause the release of what hormone?
|
oxytocin
|
|
Stimulation from the supraoptic nucleus cause the release of what hormone?
|
ADH (vasopressin)
|
|
The Blood-Brain Barrier is formed by what 3 structures?
|
choriod plexus epithelium, intracerebral capillary endothelium, astrocytes. (First Aid says Arachnoid but the brains say that’s a typo)
|
|
The central retinal artery is a branch off what larger artery?
|
ophthalmic artery
|
|
The embryologic defect of having a cervical rib can compress what 2 structures?
|
subclavian artery and inferior trunk of the brachial plexus
|
|
The fasciculus cuneatus contains fibers from the upper or lower body?
|
upper extremities
|
|
The fasciculus gracilis contains fibers from the upper or lower body?
|
lower extremities
|
|
The hippocampal formation is connected to the mammillary body and septal area via what structure?
|
fornix
|
|
The hippocampus has input from what two areas?
|
entorhinal cortex, septal area
|
|
The hippocampus has output to what two areas?
|
mammillary body, septal area
|
|
The infraorbital nerve is a branch off what larger nerve?
|
CN V2
|
|
The Nucleus Ambiguus has fibers from what 3 CNs?
|
CN IX, X, XII
|
|
The Nucleus Solitarius has fibers from what 3 CNs?
|
CN VII, IX, X
|
|
Traction or tear of the superior trunk of the brachial plexus causes what syndrome?
|
Erb-Duchenne palsy (waiter's tip)
|
|
Vertigo, ataxia, visual deficits, and coma are caused by stroke of the? (ant. circle or post. circle)
|
posterior circle
|
|
Visual fibers from the lateral geniculate body terminate on the upper and lower banks of what fissure?
|
Calcarine fissure
|
|
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the achilles reflex?
|
S1
|
|
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the biceps reflex?
|
C5
|
|
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the patella reflex?
|
L4
|
|
What 1 nerve root is assoc. with the triceps reflex?
|
C7
|
|
What 2 areas have sensation deficit in a lesion of the median nerve?
|
lateral palm/thumb and the radial 2 1/2 fingers
|
|
What 2 areas have sensation deficit in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
|
medial palm and the ulnar 1 1/2 fingers
|
|
What 2 cutaneus nerves are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?
|
posterior brachial cutaneous and posterior antebrachial cutaneous
|
|
What 2 spinal roots make up the inferior trunk of the brachial plexus?
|
C8, T1
|
|
What 2 spinal roots make up the superior trunk of the brachial plexus?
|
C5, C6
|
|
What 2 structures pass through the internal auditory meatus?
|
CN VII, VIII
|
|
What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the musculocutaneus nerve?
|
difficulty flexing the arm, variable sensory loss
|
|
What 2 symptoms are seen with a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
|
weak intrinsic muscles of the hand, Pope's blessing
|
|
What 3 blood barriers does the body have?
|
blood-brain, blood-gas, blood-testis
|
|
What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?
|
coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis
|
|
What 3 muscles are lost in a lesion of the radial nerve?
|
triceps brachii, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis longus
|
|
What 3 structures pass through the foramen magnum?
|
spinal roots of CN XI(ascending), brainstem, vertebral arteries
|
|
What 3 structures pass through the optic canal?
|
CN II, ophthalmic artery, central retinal vein
|
|
What 4 'muscles' does the radial nerve innervate?
|
Brachioradialis, Extensors of the wrist and fingers, Supinator, Triceps. (BEST)
|
|
What 4 areas is there decreased output in Parkinson's?
|
substantia nigra pars compacta, globus pallidus, ventral anterior nucleus, cortex
|
|
What 4 movements are impaired in a lesion of the ulnar nerve?
|
wrist flexion, wrist adduction, thumb adduction, and adduction of the 2 ulnar fingers
|
|
What 4 movements are lost in a lesion of the median nerve?
|
forearm pronation, wrist flexion, finger flexion, and several thumb movements
|
|
What 4 structures pass through the jugular foramen?
|
CN IX, X, XI(descending), jugular vein
|
|
What 4 things do the lateral striate arteries supply?
|
internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus
|
|
What 5 spinal nerves make up the brachial plexus?
|
C5, C6, C7, C8, T1
|
|
What 5 structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?
|
CN III, IV, V-1, VI, ophthalmic vein
|
|
What 5 types of cells make up the suportive cells of the CNS/PNS?
|
Astrocytes, Microglia, Oligodendroglia, Schwann cells, Ependymal cells.
|
|
What are 2 characteristics of Tabes Dorsalis?
|
impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia
|
|
What are 3 clinical findings of the arm in Erb-Duchenne palsy?
|
arm hangs by the side, medially rotated, forearm is pronated
|
|
What are the 2 classic causes of Erb-Duchenne palsy?
|
blow to the shoulder and trauma during birth
|
|
What are the 3 classic symptoms of Horner's syndrome?
|
ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis
|
|
What are the 4 classic findings of Brown-Sequard syndrome?
|
ipsi motor paralysis(spastic), ipsi loss of dorsal column, contra loss of spinothalamic, ipsi loss of ALL sensation at the level of the lesion
|
|
What are the input and output of the anterior nucleus of the thalamus?
|
input - mammillary body, output - cingulate gyrus
|
|
What are the input and output of the cingulate gyrus?
|
input - anterior nucleus of the thalamus, output - entorhinal cortex
|
|
What are the input and output of the entorhinal cortex?
|
input - cingulate gyrus, output - hippocampal formation
|
|
What are the input and output of the mammillary body?
|
input - hippocampal formation, output - anterior nucleus of the thalamus
|
|
What are the input and output of the septal area?
|
input - hippocampal formation, output - hippocampal formation
|
|
What artery do the lateral striate branch off of?
|
internal carotid artery
|
|
What artery does the anterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?
|
basilar artery
|
|
What artery does the anterior spinal artery branch off of?
|
vertebral artery
|
|
What artery does the posterior inferior cerebellar artery branch off of?
|
vertebral artery
|
|
What artery does the superior cerebellar artery branch off of?
|
basilar artery
|
|
What artery supplies Broca's and Wernicke's speech areas?
|
middle cerebral artery
|
|
What artery supplies the medial surface of the brain (foot-leg area)?
|
anterior cerebral artery
|
|
What bone do all the foramina of the middle cranial fossa pass through?
|
sphenoid bone
|
|
What CN arises dorsally?
|
CN IV trochlear
|
|
What CN is the afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?
|
CN II
|
|
What CN is the efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex?
|
CN III
|
|
What CNs lie medially at the brain stem?
|
CN III, VI, XIII (3 - 6 - 12)
|
|
What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: central myelin production?
|
Oligodendroglia
|
|
What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: inner lining of the ventricles?
|
Ependymal cells
|
|
What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: peripheral myelin production?
|
Schwann cells
|
|
What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: phagocytosis?
|
Microglia
|
|
What CNS/ PNS supportive cell has the following functions: physical support, repair, K+ metabolism?
|
Astrocytes
|
|
What disease does Tabes Dorsalis result from?
|
tertiary syphilis
|
|
What disorder results from a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF)?
|
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (INO)
|
|
What embryologic defect is thoracic outlet syndrome caused by?
|
by having a cervical rib.
|
|
What happens if a swinging light test is performed on a Marcus Gann pupil (afferent pupil defect)?
|
results in pupil dialation of the defective eye as the light is swung from the normal eye to the defective eye
|
|
What happens if you illuminate one pupil in a normal patient?
|
both eyes constrict (consensual reflex)
|
|
What hypo/hyper-kinetic disorder is marked by decreased serum ceruloplasm and Keyser-Fleischer rings in the eyes?
|
Wilson's disease
|
|
What is a Argyll Robertson pupil?
|
the eyes DO NOT constrict to light, but DO accommodate to near objects
|
|
What is affected in a central VII lesion (lesion above the facial nucleus - UMN)?
|
paralysis of the contralateral lower quadrant
|
|
What is affected in a peripheral VII lesion (lesion at or below the facial nucleus - LMN)?
|
paralysis of the ipsilateral face both upper and lower
|
|
What is the common name for a peripheral VII lesion?
|
Bell's palsy
|
|
What is the consequence when your CNS stimulates the gamma motor neuron and the intrafusal fibers contract?
|
increased sensitivity of the reflex arc
|
|
What is the direct pathway from the striatum to the cortex?
|
The striatum to the substantia nigra pars reticularis /medial globus pallidus to the thalamus to the cortex (excitatory path)
|
|
What is the embryologic tissue origin of Microglia (ecto/meso/edo)?
|
Mesoderm
|
|
What is the indirect pathway from the striatum to the cortex?
|
The striatum to the lateral globus pallidus to the subthalamic nucleus to the substantia nigra/medial globus pallidus to the thalamus to the cortex (inhibitory pathway but still increases the thalamic drive)
|
|
What is the lesion in Brown-Sequard syndrome?
|
hemisection of the spinal cord
|
|
What is the most common circle of Willis aneurysm?
|
anterior communicating artery
|
|
What is the name for the small muscle fiber type that regulates muscle length?
|
Intrafusal fibers
|
|
What lesion produces coma?
|
reticular activating system
|
|
What lesion produces conduction aphasia, poor repetition w/ poor comprehension, and fluent speech?
|
Arcuate fasiculus
|
|
What lesion produces Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hyperorality, hypersexuality, disinhibited behavior)?
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Amygdala (bilateral)
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What lesion produces motor(expressive) aphasia with good comprehension?
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Broca's area (motor speech)
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What lesion produces personality changes and deficits in concentration, orientation, judgement?
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frontal lobe - these are frontal release signs
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What lesion produces sensory(fluent/receptive) aphasia with poor comprehension?
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Wernicke's area (associative auditory cortex)
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What lesion produces spatial neglect syndrome?
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right parietal lobe -- contralateral neglect.
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What lobe of the brain is the Broca's area in?
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frontal
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What lobe of the brain is the frontal eye movement and pupillary change area in?
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frontal
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What lobe of the brain is the premotor area in?
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frontal
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What lobe of the brain is the primary auditory cortex area in?
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temporal
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What lobe of the brain is the principal motor area in?
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frontal
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What lobe of the brain is the principal sensory area in?
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parietal
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What lobe of the brain is the principal visual cortex area in?
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occipital
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What lobe of the brain is the Wernicke's area in?
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temporal
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What midbrain structure is important in mitigating voluntary movements and making postural adjustments?
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Basal Ganglia
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What mineral causes the pathology of Wilson's disease
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copper
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What muscle depresses and extorts the eye?
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inferior rectus
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What muscle elevates and intorts the eye?
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superior rectus
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What muscle extorts, elevates, and adducts the eye?
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inferior oblique
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What muscle fiber type makes up the muscle bulk and provides the force for contraction?
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Extrafusal fibers
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What muscle intorts, depresses, and abducts the eye?
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superior oblique
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What muscle sensor senses tension and provides inhibitory feedback to alpha motor neurons?
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golgi tendon organs
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What muscular disorder is a medial longitudinal fasciculus syndrome associated with?
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Multiple Sclerosis (MLF=MS)
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What nerve is known as the great extensor nerve?
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radial nerve
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What neurotransmitter is decreased in Parkinson's disease?
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dopamine
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What nucleus if typically lesioned in hemiballismus?
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contralateral subthalamic nucleus
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What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls circadian rhythms?
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suprachiasmatic nucleus
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What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls hunger?
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lateral nucleus
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What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls satiety?
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ventromedial nucleus
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What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls sexual emotions?
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septate nucleus
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What nucleus of the hypothalamus controls thirst and water balance?
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supraoptic nucleus
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What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls autonomic regulation?
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anterior hypothalamus
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What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls cooling when hot?
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anterior hypothalamus
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What part of the hypothalamus (ant./post.) controls heat conservation when cold?
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posterior hypothalamus
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What part of the spinal cord is spared with complete occlusion of the ventral artery?
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dorsal columns
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What passes through the cavernous sinus? (nerves and artery)
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CN III, IV, V1, V2, VI, post-ganglionic SNS and the Internal carotid artery
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What reflex is lost in a lesion of the musculocutaneous nerve?
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biceps reflex
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What structure passes through the foramen ovale?
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CN V3
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What structure passes through the foramen rotundum?
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CN V2
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What structure passes through the foramen spinosum?
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middle meningeal artery
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What structure passes through the hypoglossal canal?
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CN XII
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What symptom is seen with a lesion of the axillary nerve?
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Deltoid paralysis
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What symptom is seen with a lesion of the median nerve?
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decreased thumb function
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What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the long thoracic nerve?
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Winged scapula
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What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus?
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Claw hand
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What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus?
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Wrist drop
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What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the radial nerve?
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Saturday night palsy
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What syndrome is seen with a lesion of the upper trunk of the brachial plexus?
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Waiter's tip (Erb-Duchenne palsy)
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