Bbc Session 9 Prep Questions

Front 1

If one has a seated flexion test positive on the LEFT, and there is evidence to indicate the presence of a sacral oblique axis, on what side will that axis be?

Back 1

RIGHT

Axis is always opposite to the standing flexion test, compression test, or sitting flexion test.

Front 2

What does the standing flexion test evaluate that the seated flexion test DOES NOT?

Back 2

Lower extremity

Front 3

If the Right ASIS is superior
Right PSIS is superior
and there is a positive Standing Flexion Test on the RIGHT
What is the Innominate dysfunction?

Back 3

Right Superior Shear

Front 4

Name 4 causes for a superior pubic shear

Back 4

1. Innominant Posterior Rotation
2. tight rectus abdominus muscles
3. Trauma
4. 3rd trimester pregnancy

Front 5

If the right ASIS is more lateral and there is a positive standing flexion test on the right, what is the innominate dysfunction?

Back 5

Right Inn. Outflate

Front 6

If the right ASIS is INFERIOR
Right PSIS is SUPERIOR
Positive standing flexion test on the right
What is the innominate dysfunction?

Back 6

Right Innominant Anterior Rotation

Front 7

Which sacral dysfunction is very COMMON in postpartum women?

Back 7

Bilateral sacral flexion

Front 8

What is the most common type of sacral shear?

Back 8

Unilateral Sacral Shear

Front 9

If you are told that the patient has a left on left, what type of sacral dysfunction do you know they have?

Back 9

Forward sacral torsion

Front 10

If there is a sacral dysfunction what area of the spine should you 1st evaluate and treat?

Back 10

L5

Front 11

To what class of drugs do Captopril and Enalapril belong?

Back 11

ACEi

Front 12

What are the 4 major side effects in terms of electrolytes, urea, and glucose that may occur with Thiazide use?

Back 12

HYPOkalemia
HYPERcalcemic
HYPERuremic
HYPERglycemic

Do NOT use Thiazides in Diabetics

Front 13

What is the region of DNA that encodes a single protein in a prokaryote?

Back 13

Cistron

Front 14

What is the major DNA polymerase in Prokaryotes?

Back 14

Pol III

Front 15

What are the 3 main roles/abilities of Pol III?

Back 15

1. catalyze DNA replication
2. Proofread
3. 3' nuclease activity

Front 16

1. What type of polymerase produces the leading strand in eukaryotic DNA replication?

2. What one other ability does it have?

3. What 2 abilities does it not have that pol III of bacteria does have?

Back 16

1. Delta
2. Helikase activity
3. Does NOT proofread & NO 3' nuclease activity

Front 17

What are the 3 germ layers?

Back 17

Endoderm
Ectoderm
Mesoderm

Front 18

The median umbilical ligament was once what structure in the fetus?

Back 18

Uracus

Front 19

The medial umbilical ligament was once that structure in the fetus?

Back 19

Umbilical artery

Front 20

From what brachial arch are the muscles of mastication derived?

Back 20

1st

Front 21

From what brachial arch are the muscles of facial expression derived?

Back 21

2nd

Front 22

From what brachial arch are the thymus and inferior parathyroids derived?

Back 22

3rd

Front 23

Where are cervical cysts located?

From what fetal structure are they derived?

Back 23

- Located in the anterior lateral neck

- reminants of pharyngeal clefts

Front 24

What duct eventually develops into the vas deferens and epididymis in the male? What's another name for that?

Back 24

Wolfian duct
aka - mesonephron duct

Front 25

What duct eventually develops into the fallopian tubes in the female? What's another name for that?

Back 25

Mullarian duct
aka - paramesonephric duct

Front 26

What structures pass through the foramen ovale?

Back 26

Cranial nerve 5
specifically CN V - V3

Front 27

What structure passes through the foramen spinosum?

Back 27

Middle meningeal artery

Front 28

What structure passes through the superior orbital fissure?

Back 28

CN 3,4,5,6, SNS, and opthalmic veins

Front 29

What is the innervation of the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?

Back 29

CN 6

Front 30

What is the innervation of the superior oblique muscle of the eye?

Back 30

CN 4

Front 31

What muscle above the eye becomes relaxed in Horner's syndrome due to the syndrome's involement of the sympathetic nervous system?

What is the physical result of that relaxation?

Back 31

Mullers muscle (smooth muscle in the eyeball)

Ptosis (eyelid drop)

Front 32

What muscle is responsible for mydriasis?

Back 32

Dialator pupilae

Front 33

What muscle is responsible for miosis?

Back 33

Sphincter pupilae

Front 34

If a patient presents with injury to the 12th cranial nerve to what side of the face will the tongue deviate when he attempts to protrude his tongue?

Back 34

To the side of the lesion***

You always lick your wounds

Front 35

Which pytergoid muscle operates to open the mouth?

Back 35

lateral

Front 36

What one laryngeal muscle is NOT innverated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

Back 36

cricothyroid - innervated by superior pharngeal nerve

Front 37

What muscle is paralyzed in scapular winging?

What nerve innervates this muscle?

Back 37

serratus anterior

innervated by long thoracic nerve

Front 38

What nerve root supplies the musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 38

C5
C6

Front 39

What nerve root supplies the axillary nerve?

Back 39

C7

Front 40

What nerve root supplies the radial nerve

Back 40

C7

Front 41

What nerve root supplies the ulnar nerve?

Back 41

C8
T1

Front 42

What cutaneous loss is associated with ulnar nerve damage?

Back 42

Palm and ulnar side of pinky and 1/2 ring finger

Front 43

What cuatenous loss is associated with musculocutaneous nerve?

Back 43

Extensors forearms

Front 44

What cuatenous loss is associated with radial nerve?

Back 44

Post. arm and dorsal hand

Front 45

What nerve risks injury with a fracture to the humerus?

Back 45

radial nerve (runs in the radial groove)

Front 46

What type of fracture is a fracture of the distal radius?

Back 46

Colle's Fracture
fall on an outstreched hand

Front 47

What type of fracture occurs if you fall on a flexed hand?

Back 47

Smith's fracture

Front 48

What is the primary abductor of the hip?

Back 48

Gluteus medius

Front 49

What is the primary adductor of the hip?

Back 49

Adductor Magnus and Minimus

Front 50

What the primary internal rotator of the hip?

Back 50

Gluteus Minimus and Medius

Front 51

What is the primary external rotator of the hip?

Back 51

Gluteus Maximus

Front 52

Specifically what type of glomerular disease is marked by cresent formation?

How many types exist with that type / category?

Back 52

Rapid Progressive Glomerular Nephritis (RPGN)

There are 3 types in this category

Front 53

What type of glomerulonephritis is Goodpasture's disease?

Back 53

Inflammatory disease
make antibodies to the Basement membrane
begins as nephritic syndrome

Front 54

If a pt has an inhalation dysfunction of ribs 3,4,5 what rib should you treat 1st?

Back 54

Rib 5

Front 55

What is the main movement of:

OA
AA
Upper Cervical?

Back 55

OA - Flex and Exten
AA - Rot
Upper Cervicals - Rot

Front 56

What is the DOC for CMV retinitis?

Back 56

Ganciclovir

Front 57

To what generation of cephalopsorins are:
Cefoxitin
Cefazolin
Ceftriaxone

Back 57

1st - Cefazolin

2nd - Cefoxitin

3rd - Ceftriaxone

Front 58

What is the antidote to a warfarin OD?

Back 58

Vit K

Front 59

What is the antidote to a benzodiazepine OD?

Back 59

Flumazenil

Front 60

What drug is used to eliminate tapeworms?

Back 60

Praziquantel or Niclosamide***

Front 61

What drug is used to eliminate flukes?

Back 61

Praziquentel