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128 Cards in this Set

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What substances are least likely to penetrate lipid bilayers

Ions - Na+, K-, Cl-




Large water soluble molecules and ions do not diffuse through the lipid bilayer and therefore generally must use channels to enter and exit cells and cross the blood brain and placental barriers.

Endocytosis vs Exocytosis

Endocytosis -molecules transported into the cell


Exocytosis - Molecules transported out of the cell (neurotransmitters)




Proteins reabsorbed from the proximal tubule of the kidney by pinocytosis.

Name 5 second messengers

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)


cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP)


calcium


calmodulin


inositol triphosphate (IP3)




Second Messenger action is tissue-specific.

Why does insulin treat hyperkalemia

insulin stimulates the Na+-K- pump. Insulin, by stimulating the Na+K- pump drives K+ into cells. Insulin also opens glucose channels, which permits the transfer of glucose into fat and skeletal muscles.



Glucose is given just to prevent hypoglycemia

Why does Beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists cause hypokalemia

stimulate the Na+-K+ pump. Beta adrenergic receptor agonists drive potassium into cells stimulating Na-K pump.




Ritodrine and Terbutaline promote hypokalemia.



Extracellular vs Intracellular levels for Na, K, Ca Mg, Cl, PO4, and HCO3

Na Extra- 145 and Intra 10


K Extra 4 and Intra 140


Ca2 Extra 2.0 and Intra <1.0


Mg2 Extra 2 and Intra 50


PO4 Extra 2 and Intra 75


HCO3 Extra 24 and Intra 10.




PIMP -Potassium IN Magnesium and Phos In the cell.

Resting Membrane Potential with Hyperkalemia and Hypokalemia

Hyperkalemia - cell will depolarize - resting membrane potential decrease -60




Hypokalemia - cell will hyper polarize - resting membrane will increase to -80

In the Neuron, voltage-gated sodium channels are found principally where

in the axon and are concentrated in the nodes of ranvier.

Name three examples of how Na channels can become an inactivated state

cardioplegia


depolarization by succs


Local anesthetics block

Hypocalcemia va Hypercalcemia how do they effect the release of neurotransmitter at the nerve terminals

Hypocalcemia associated with decrease of neurotransmitter released


Hypercalcemia associated with increase of neurotransmitter released




Ca and Mg are antagonistic -


High Mg = Low Ca


High Ca = Low Mg

What all does acetylcholinesterase degrade

local anesthetics, Neostigmine, Edrophonium, remifentanil, and esmolol.

Phase 1 block vs Phase II block

Phase 2 - competitive inhibition, FADE, post-tetantic facilitation, antagonized by anticholinesterases, no fasiculations.




Phase 1 -decreased in single twitch, response to high frequency remained, no fade, muscle fasciculation precede block, potentiated by anti cholinesterase ... SUCC metabolized by plasma cholinesterase




WORKS ON SKELETAL MUSCLE.


Phase II block can be mimic by SUCC if large dose given.

ED 95 of Succ, Roc, Vec, Cis, Panc

Suc and Roc = 0.3




Vec, Cis, Panc= 0.05




ALL NDMR can be eliminated renal if not other routes available.

Elimination of NDMR Biliary, Renal, Metabolism

Renal - Panc




Biliary - Vec and Roc




Metabolism - Succ, Cis (hoffman elimination)

which muscle relaxants produce histamine release

Sch, Mivacurium, atracurium, d-tubo, metocurarine.



Which MR cause Tachycardia & HTN

Panc.

Adverse effects of Succ's (1-6)

1. release of K+ from cells = 0.5 meq/L in normal patients and 5-10meq/l in burn,trauma,or head-inury


2.myalgia (muscle pains)- 24-48 hrs after


3.dysrhythmias


4.AV conduction block


5.increase intraocular pressure 5-15


6. MH

Adverse effects of Succ's (7-11)

7. increased ICP [myotonic contraction of eye]


8.prolonged resp paralysis


9.myoglobinuria


10. fasciculations


11.increased intragastric pressure

which conditions proliferate SUCC at the extra junctional postsynaptic cholinergic nicotinic receptors? and What is the Major Concern?

Major Concern= Hyperkalemia




1. Thermal trauma (burns)


2.spinal cord transection (paraplegia)


3.skeletal muscle trauma


4.upper motor neuron injury (Head injury, CVA, parkinsons dx)


5.prolonged immobility.

If you use a nerve muscle stimulator on the right wrist and the pt has right sided hemiplegia- what will happen to the twitch

The twitch on the right will be greater than the left - b/c nicotinic receptors are up-regulated on the right.

Malignant Hyperthermia most common first sign

increase in end title CO2




Other signs include trismus, whole body rigidity,


initial signs of tachy/tachypnea from sympathetic nervous system secondary to hyper metabolism and hypercarbia.


temperature increase 1-2degrees every 5 minutes

MH is a mutation of what receptor

RyR1- in sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle. - leads to sustained contractions + increased metabolism.



What is Treatment for MH

Dantrolene 2.5 mg/kg up to 10 to 20 acts on SR to decrease the release of calcium to contractile proteins



each vial is 20mg with 3g of mannitol = mix with sterile water 50ml.

Drugs that increase blocks

Abx (neomycin, strepto, polymyxin, tetracycline,


Local anesthetics, volatile agents, low K+, High Mg, Resp Acid, hypothermia, Age, Obesity, lithium, diuretics, CA Channel

Drugs that decrease blocks

Anticonvulsants


thermal burn, 10 days manifests, peaks 40, declines 60


2 nondepolarizers given in sequence



Peripheral Nerve Stimulator Single twitch and TOF how many hz


double burst suppressions


Tetany

TOF = 2hz every 0.5seconds




DBS = two short bursts 50 hz tetanic simulation separated by 750 ms.




Tetany = 50hz 5 seconds.

Receptor blockade correlation with percent of receptors occupied 95%, 90%, 75-80%, 70%, 50%

95% - diaphragm movement


90% - abdominal relaxation (1 twitch present)


75-80%- Tidal volume returns to normal (5ml/kg)(single twitch strong, but not a good indicator)


70%- VC at least 20ml/kg


50% - passes inspiratory pressure test- sustained bite, head lift, hand grip. good indicator

Noreepi and epi release percentages from adrenal medulla

80% epi and 20% nore epi unless pheo then opposite.

What enzymes metabolism catecholamines in the body

MAO - concentrated in mitochondria of presynaptic nerve terminals




COMT - found in blood, liver, and kidneys.

What is the end product of epi and nore epi

Nore epi and Epi Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) - in the urine.




Dopamine - homovanillic acid (HVA)

Duchennes muscular dystrophy

X-Linked recessive disorder (males exclusively)



concerns: cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction, SUCC hyperkalemia (AVOID SUCC), delayed gastric emptying, retention of pulmonary secretions, and MH


Myasthenia gravis (MG)

characterized by weakness and easy fatigability of skeletal muscles. - caused by autoimmune destruction of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors at NMJ.


most common is ocular

MG treatment



Big risk for MG patients with surgery

Tx: Anticholinesterases


which lead to cholinergic crisis = SLUDBM



Risk - postoperative resp failure.

Lambert Eaton Syndrome

Characterized by skeletal muscle weakness - usually lower extremities.


usually seen with cancer


Activity will help strength in LES

Dose of Succ for IV and IM for laryngospasm




How to prevent bradycardia with SUCC

Laryngospasm = 0.1-0.5 mg/kg IV and 4-6 mg/kg IM




Brady - give atropine prior to induction.

MR distribute primarily to what body compartment?


what law do they follow?

Extracellular fluid compartment.


Law of Mass action - Le Chateliers principle.

Hoffman elimination is dependent on two factors and what does hoffman elimination eliminate

Temperature and PH (will increase with Alk/High temp and decrease with Acid/low temp)


eliminates CIS

MG patients and NDMR and DMR




Eaton Lambert and NDMR and DMR

NDMR = increased sensitivity to NDMR


DMR = Can be either sensitive or resistant.




Eaton Lambert - Sensitive to both NDMR and DMR

What Abx is the most potent at prolonging NDMR

#1Polymixins (rarely used bc nephrotoxicity)




Aminoglycosides - (neomycin, strepto, and kanamycin)

If the patient is reversed with an anti cholinesterase agent at the end of the case and SUCC is given to break a laryngospasm will the block be prolonged or shorten

Prolonged.

Echothiophate does what to SUCC

prolongs because it inhibits plasma cholinesterase.

Name 4 anticholinergic drugs and best and worse at secretions, sedations, and HR.

Atropine Worse Secretions, Best HR


Glyco- Least sedation


Scop- Best secretions, Best Sedation, Least HR


Ipratropium - Bronchodilator.




Large dose atropine can interfere with sweating

How is anticholinergic syndrome treated

Physostigmine IV 15-60mcg/kg IV (very fast acting and metabolized)

What test checks for pseudocholinesterase activity

Dibucaine test normal is 80% reduction




Heterozygote - 40-60% - one atypical gene




Homozygous atypical plasma cholinesterase = 20%. - prolong SUCC by 6-8 hours

How do anti cholinesterase or cholinesterase inhibitors work

Edrophonium, neostigmine, pyridostigmine and phyostigmine (tertiary amine)




These agents compete with acetylcholine for sites on acetylcholinesterase, thereby preventing acetylcholine attachment to and breakdown by this enzyme.

Difference in binding between edrophonium and Neostigmine

Edro = electrostatically and forms hydrogen bond




Neo = binds covalently- and forms inactive complex.

Recovery from Muscle relaxants comparing diaphragm, laryngeal and orbicularis oculi muscle to the thumb

Respond to and recovery from muscle relaxants sooner than the thumb




First Flaccid and First Firm.

What percent of receptors are blocked if you have a full train of four

70% may be still blocked

Best indicator that muscle relaxant has been reversed

Tongue depressor test. hold in teeth for 5 seconds.


What is released for all sympathetic postganglioninc nerves?


What is the one exception

Nore epi released from all sympathetic except in sweat glands release acetycholine.

Cfibers are responsible for what


Afibers?


A-Beta/a-alpha fibers?

C-fibers - throbbing pain and temperature


A-Delta - sharp, prickling pain, and temperature


A-Beta and A-Alpha - proprioception and motor

Sympathetic outflow whats its called?


Where are the cardioaccelerator fibers located?


Sympathetic outflow located?

Thoracolumbar outflow


Cardio T1-T4


Sympathetic T1-L2/L3





What are signs of horners syndrome

Happens when stellate ganglion blocked


Ipsilateral mitosis (pupil constriction), ptosis (Drooping eyelid), enophthalmous (lazy eye), flushing, anhydrosis( can't sweat), stuffiness, increased skin temp

Alpha 2 Pre vs Post synaptic

Alpha 2 Pre = synthesis and release of noreepi is decreased and cause decrease in b/p etc....




Alpha 2 Post = early transient HTN - stimulates noreepi.



Synthesis of Noreepi and termination

Synthesis = Tyrosine to Dopa to Dopamine to NE to Epi.




Termination (3) =Diffusion first step, but mainly by reuptake (80%), also by metabolism (MAO).

How does ephedrine work and whats contraindicated with it

Ephedrine - indirect acting sympathomimetics - displacing NE from sympathetic nerve terminals (also has some direct acting)




avoided with MAO inhibitor, Meperidine= can cause HTN crisis.

Beta 2 responses cause what to glucose and K

Beta 2 promotes Hyperglycemia, Hypokalemia




Ex Ritodrine (yutopar) - causes tachy, hyperglycemia, and hypokalemia.

When is Renin Released

Decreased renal BP, or increase sympathetic nervous system, and CI




Renin released from Juxtaglomerular cells

What stimulates aldosterone release

Angiotensin II and high serum Potassium




less potent reasons - low Na and ACTH

Name the three indirecting agents for NE

Ephedrine, Metarminol, and Mephentermine

Agent and Receptors stimulated Isoproterenol, Dobutamine, Terbutaline, Ritodrine, Noreepi, Dopamine

Iso = Beta1 and Beta2


Dobutamine - Beta 1 and min Alpha 1


Terbutaline and Ritodrine - Beta 2 and min Beta 1


NE = Everything except Beta 2


Dopamine = Alpha1,2 and Beta 1, min beta 2

Phenoxybenzamine




Phentolamine

Long acting - non selective alpha adrenergic antagonist treat bp with pheo.




Phentolamine - non-sleective alpha-adrenergic antagonist





Yohimbine




Prazosin

Yohimbine = only alpha2 selective adrenergic antagonist = treat impotence and orthostatic hypotension




Prazosin = alpha 1 selective antagonist - Fast acting

Propranolol

Propranolol - avoid with asthma (more selective for beta 2 then beta 1)




Esmolol - metabolized by red blood cell ester, used for intraoperative HTN and SVT, help with tachy on intubation. (beta 1 and beta2)

Labetalol ratio IV beta to alpha

Labetalol - good for htn emergencies treats alpha 1, beta 1 and beta 2.


decrease HR, myocardial contractility, and SVR




7:1 beta to alpha ratio (stronger beta).



Side effects of Beta Blockers

Hyperkalemia, Hypoglycemia, Bronchoconstricition, CV effects



Withdrawal hypersensitivity - due to up regulation of beta blockers

Treatment of excess beta blockers

Atropine, Dobutamine, Ca Cl, Glucagon, and pacemaker




DONT USE DOPAMINE

Pheo should you alpha or beta block first

Alpha then Beta !!

Down vs Up Regulation

Down occurs with chronic exposure to agonist ( less receptors)




Up regulation occurs with chronic exposure to antagonist. (more receptors)

Parasympathetic outflow whats its other name?


What arises from it?


and where does each cranial nerve correlate too

Craniosacral outflow


Cranial Nerves III, VII, IX, X and S2-S4




CN III ( midbrain), VII (Pons), IX & X (Medulla)

Cromolyn sodium

Prophylactic treatment with cromolyn sodium prevents histamine release and bronchoconstriction.

Insulin receptors contain an active tyrosine kinase domain... what is the function of kinase?

kinases catalyze the addition of a phosphate group to a substrate.

What higher center regulates the sympathetic nervous system

hypothalamus

Brainstem auditory evoked potential BAEP

auditory clicks look at cranial nerve 8

Visual Evoked Potentials VEP

surgeries near optic nerve.


monitor integrity of cranial nerve II

VEP SSEP and BAEP list in order of most resistant to least resistant to anesthetics

VEP most sensitive to anesthetics


BAEP least sensitive to anesthetics


SSEP in the middle= dose related depression

Pathway for Fast-Sharp Pain


Whats the major neurotransmitter

A Delta Fibers


enter dorsal horn and terminate in rexed's lamina I and V.


Anterolateral pathway




Major neurotransmitter is Glutamate binds to AMPA and NMDA, binds postsynaptic.

Pathway for Slow-Chronic Pain


Whats the major neurotransmitter

C Fibers


Primarily Lamina II and Lamina III.


Anterolateral pathway




Major Neurotransmitter is Substance P, binds to NK-1 (neurokinin 1) binds postsynaptic



Which lamina is the substantia gelatinosa

Lamina II ..... some say lamina II and III

Dermatome Landmarks


C4, T4, T8, T10, L4-L5, S2-S5

C4= Clavicle


T4= Nipples


T8 = Xiphoid


T10 = Umbilicus


L4-L5 = Tibia


S2-S5= Perineum

Morphine Hydrophilic opioid Neuraxial anesthesia

Intrathecal = onset is slow and prolonged. rostral spread of morphine in CSF cause late resp depression.




Epidural = Onset is slow and prolonged.Uptake is faster when epidural compared to intrathecal so resp depression occurs within 2 hours.

Fentanyl Neuraxial anesthesia Lipophilic opioid


(Alfentanil, Sufentanil)

Intrathecal = diffusion is fast out of the CSF. Rapid onset and quick duration. Early depression occurs bc of significant systemic uptake. Minimal Rostral spread




Epidural = Same as Intrathecal

Spinal Analgesia

when transmission of pain impulses through the substantia gelatinosa (Lamina II) is suppressed. Mu-2 is dominate receptors, but all can involved.


Act in the periventricular/periaqueductal gray.


Neuraxial anesthesia


blocks pain signals.

Supraspinal Analgesia

Occur when opioids act at brain sites including the limbic, hypothalamus, and thalamus.


Supraspinal is dominated by Mu1, but also kappa, and delta. Only receptor not used is M2


IV opioids


"I feel pain, but don't care"

What modulates pain?




What neurons act as the gate keeper for pain?

the dorsolateral tract modulates pain




Gate keeper is Enkephalin

MU1 vs MU 2

Mu-1= Spinal and Supraspinal, Decreased HR, Euphoria, Pruritus, Urinary retention, low abuse




Mu-2 = Spinal Analgesia, Resp Depression, Physical Dependence, Constipation.

Kappa and Delta

Kappa - Responsible for sedation and Dysphoria. low abuse, diuresis, spinal/supraspinal




Delta - Physical dependence, constipation, Resp Depression, and spinal/supraspinal.

Remifentanil

Ultra short acting opioid . Metabolized by non-specific esterases. Mu receptor agonist no delta or kappa.

Opioid Antagonists and Side Effects

Naloxone, Naltrexone (long acting), and Nalmefene.




SE Reversal of analgesia, excitement, Tachy, HTN, Dysrhythmias, Pulmonary Edema.... SE can be from SNS from reversal of analgesia.

which two diseases are barbiturates absolutely contraindicated

Status Asthmaticus and porphyria

Rank Opioids from most potent to least


Alfentanil, Fentanyl, Meperidine, Morphine, Remi, Sufentanil)

Sufetanil (2000-4000x morphine)(most lipid soluble)


Remi (220-470xmorphine)


Fentanyl (50-100x morphine)


Alfentanil (10x morphine)


Morphine


Meperidine (1/10th morphine)

Rank the following stimuli according to amount of opioid needed


breast surgery, intubation, lower abdominal surgery, upper abdominal surgery, skin incision, skin closure

Intubation> Upper abdominal surgery> breast surgery = lower abdomen surgery = skin incision > skin closure




Intubation = MOST and Skin closure = Least

what is the most common side effect of administration of spinal

pruritus




other side SE most serious Resp depression (late), urinary retention, n/v, sedation, ileus

Cranial Nerves Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel A Girls Vagina Ah Heaven


1-6

1- Olfactory - Smells


2. Optic - Sees


3. Oculomotor - Move eyes - Adduction of eye, pupil size (Medial rectus)


4. Trochlear - Moves eyes


5. Trigeminal - Chews, Sensory from Face


6. Abducens - Moves eyes, Abduction of eye (lateral rectus)

Cranial Nerves Oh Oh Oh To Touch And Feel A Girls Vagina Ah Heaven


7-12

7. Facial - Facial muscles, taste anterior 2/3 of tongue


8. Acoustic - Balance and Audition


9. Glossopharyngeal - Taste - Posterior 1/3 of tongue. carotid body and carotid sinus


10. Vagus - All KINDS, HR, larynx and pharynx


11. Accessory - shoulder and hand movements


12. Hypoglossal - moves tongue

CSF Circulation Route

Choroid Plexus


Lateral Ventricles


Foramina of Munro


Third Ventricle


Aqueduct of Sylvius


Fourth Ventricle


Foramine of Lushka and Foramen of Magendie


Subarachnoid Space


Brain to arachnoid Villi

Site of formation of CSF

Choroid plexus of lateral, third, and 4th ventricle.



Site of Reabsorption of CSF


Arachnoid villi and arachnoid granulations

Circle Of Willis whats it do

permits collateral blood flow in the event of a major vessel becomes occluded


Major vessels include right and left internal carotids and the basilar artery(supplied by IJ's)

Which vessels in the Circle of Willis are not paired?

Basilar and anterior communicating arteries arent paired.

Circle of Willis and Stump Pressure

Measures the pressure transmitted through the circle of willis back to the carotid artery.


Stump pressure >40 mmhg is consider as good as golden standard of EEG monitoring at predicting ischemia during cross-clamp.

Flow through Circle of Willis


Very Big Posterior Polyps Invade My Aging Ass

V- Vertebral


B- Basilar


P-Posterior Cerebral


P-Posterior Communicating


I-Internal Carotid


M- Middle cerebral


A-Anterior communicating


A-Anterior Cerebral

Which agents increase both cerebral blood flow and cerebral metabolism (2)

Nitrous Oxide and Ketamine

Intravenous anesthetics do what to cerebral blood flow and metabolism

IV agents decrease both cerebral metabolism and cerebral blood flow

Volatile Agents do what to cerebral metabolism and cerebral blood flow

Cerebral metabolism decrease and cerebral blood flow increases with volatile agents




Can be offset with hyperventilation.

Arterial Blood supply to the spinal cord how many anterior and posterior arteries? what precent goes with each?

one anterior spinal artery (75% travels length of cord)


two posterior spinal arteries (25%).


Also have radicular arteries that enter each side of the cord.

Radicular arteries how many?


Whats the most important and why?

8 radicular arteries - 1 cervical, two thoracic, one in upper lumbar.




The Largest is the Artery of Adamkiewicz - usually enters on left side in lower thoracic region. Major source of blood supply to lower two-thirds of the spinal cord. Possible paraplegia if interrupted. originates between T-8-T12 (75%)usually, some L1-L2 (10%).

Coma vs Decorticate Rigidity vs Decerebrate Rigidity

Coma - damage to RAS




Decorticate - damage above cerebellum and brainstem (protect yourself)




Decerebrate - damage to brainstem or cerebral lesions. (Don't protect yourself)

Intracranial Pressure-Volume curve


Whats Normal ICP ?


What part of the curve are associated with high ICP?


Cushing Triad would be seen at what part of the curve?


Focal vs Global ischemia what part of the curve?

Normal ICP = less than 15


Stage 3 and 4 associated with High ICP


Crushing triad seen in stage 3 - Decrease HR, Increase BP, irregular respirations


Local ischemia point 3 and global at point 4.

Cerebral Steal (luxury perfusion)

When cerebral vasculature dilates (hypoventilation/Vasodilator) and shunts blood to non-ischemia areas of brain instead of ischemia areas.

Inverse Steal (Robin Hood, Reverse Steal)

patient with ischemic region of brain is hyperventilated and constricts blood vessels and ischemia areas of the brain get extra blood diverted too them.




Rob from rich and give to the poor!


Ischemia areas are always maximally dilated

Skull Anatomy Where is the Sella Turcica?


Where is the frontal lobes


Temporal Lobes?


Brainstem and Cerebellum?

Sella Turcica, which houses the pituitary gland, is part of the sphenoid bone.(middle cranial fossa)


Frontal lobes - anterior cranial fossa


Temporal lobes - middle cranial fossa


Brainstem and Cerebellum - posterior cranial fossa

Withdrawing entrained Air during Craniotomy- whats the correct position?

Multi-orifice catheter-Positoned high in right atrium 2cm below the SVC- atrial junction.



Single orifice catheter is 3cm above the junction of the SVC-artial junction.

When do the fontanelles close Anterior, Posterior, Anterolateral, and posterolateral

Posterior 2 months


Anterolateral - two months


Anterior 18 months


Posterolateral - two years



What is cerebral blood flow in ml/min?


in ml/100g/min, % of cardiac output

Cerebral Blood Flow


750 ml/min


50ml/100g/min


15% of cardiac output

Cerebral Perfusion Pressure = what

MAP- ICP.

Three Factors that alter cerebral vascular resistance are?


what is the most important determinant of cerebral blood flow

Changes in PaCo2, PO2, and temperature alter resistance


PaCO2 is the single most important with ranges between 20-80.

Decrease in cerebral blood flow for each degree of temperature change

7% decrease in cerebral blood flow/cerebral metabolism for every 1 degree of temperature change.

when would expect to see focal ischemia and global ischemia (what ICP)

focal at 25-55


global 55

what percentage of the brain is blood, brain, and CSF

brain 80%


blood 12%


CSF 8% (1st to move out when ICP increases)

8 things to do to tx high ICP

1. mannitol (#2)/ lasix (#3)


2.steroid (#4)


3. hyperventilate (fastest #1)


4.restrict fluids


5.HOB 30 degree


6.potent cerebral vasoconstrictor (prop, etomidate, thiopental)


7.control bp


8.cool patient to 34 degree

Mannitol dosing and how does it work

Mannitol a sugar - can't permeate the cerebral capillary- cause high osmotic pressure and moves fluids


Dose 0.25-1 g/kg.


no effect on blood glucose.

What agents don't you give to a neuro patient

D5W and Ketamine

Where is CSF located

between pia and arachnoid

Most common site of obstruction for CSF

aqueduct of slyvius

autonomic hyperreflexia occurs usually with a lesion at what level?


What occurs with autonomic hyperreflexia?


Whats most effective anesthesia for these patients?

T5 to T6


Vasodilation above the lesion and Vasoconstriction below the lesion. = TX the vasoconstriction.


Spinal Anesthesia

St. John Wart whats you major concern

CYP450 induced.

Where do you place a doppler with VAE

right atrium - 3rd to 6th intercostal spaces right of the sternum.