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126 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what 10 things should you be checking or performing every 5 minutes as the anesthesia monitor?
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1. HR
2. RR 3. Temperature 4. MM color 5. CRT 6. ETC02 7. 02 level 8. gas anesthesia level 9. anesthetic depth 10. pain level |
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trace the air flow from the oxygen tank to the scavenger on a NON REBREATHER system.
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02 tank--->02 tubing--->02 flowmeter---> vaporizer---->inpiratory tubing---> ET tube-----> expiratory tubing----> pop off valve -----. reservoir bag-----> c02 hose----> scavenger system
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what is the normal range for canine and feline heart rate and what do you do if it is high or low
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canine- 60-180bpm, feline 120-240bpm. If high increase anesthetic depth, if low stimulate patient and give adrenergic such as epi if bad.
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What is the normal range for canine and feline respiration rates and what do you do if they are high or low
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10-30brpm canine, 24-48brpm feline, if high increase enesthetic depth or intraop pain meds, if low start artificial respirations
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what is the normal range for canine and feline CRT and what do you do if it is high or low
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less than 2 secs. If high increase fluids, if low administer vasodilator such as dobutamine
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what is the normal range of Sp02 and what do you do if it is high or low
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>90%. It cannot be too high, if it is low increase artificial respirations or turn up 02
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what must be on a prescription label
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patient/owner name, and usda number
veterinarian name name and address of clinic/vet + phone number date filled expiration date qty dispensed name and concentration of medicine refill number initials of person who filled full instructions in laymans terms |
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what is the dosage and concentration for buprenorphine
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0.02mg/kg, 0.6 mg/ml
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what is the dosage and concentration for butorphanol
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0.5mg/kg, 10mg/ml
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what is the dosage and concentration of acepromazine
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0.1ml/20#, 10mg/ml
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what is the dosage and concentration of glycopyrrolate?
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0.011mg/kg
0.2mg/ml 1ml/40# |
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what is the dosage and concentration of atropine?
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1ml/20#
0.54 mg/kg |
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what is the dosage and concentration of ketamine
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1ml/40#
100mg/ml |
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what is the dosage and concentration of diazepam
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1ml/40#
5mg/ml |
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what is the dosage and concentration of meloxicam
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0.2mg/kg day 1, 0.1mg/kg day 2 on, 1.5 mg/ml
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what are 3 positive and 3 negative aspects of propofol?
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positives- can be titrated to effect, smoother transitions, faster recovery. Negatives- low shelf life, good bacterial medium, high cost
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what clinical signs can indicate intraoperative pain
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increased hr, increased rr, vocalization, voluntary movement
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what 3 ways can you adminsister pain medications intraoperatively and give a positive and neg aspect of each.
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titrate-(+) can be given to effect (-) requires loading dose
Bolus (+) fast onset, (-) can have many side effects CRI- (+) maintains analgesia while on (-) short duration |
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when should analgesics be given and why
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prior to expected pain being felt because it is easier to prevent pain then to treat it once it is established.
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which local anesthetic lasts longer, lidocaine or bupivicaine
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bupivicaine
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what is the dosage and concentration of glycopyrrolate?
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0.011mg/kg
0.2mg/ml 1ml/40# |
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what is the dosage and concentration of atropine?
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1ml/20#
0.54 mg/kg |
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what is the dosage and concentration of ketamine
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1ml/40#
100mg/ml |
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what is the dosage and concentration of diazepam
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1ml/40#
5mg/ml |
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what is the dosage and concentration of meloxicam
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0.2mg/kg day 1, 0.1mg/kg day 2 on, 1.5 mg/ml
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what are 3 positive and 3 negative aspects of propofol?
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positives- can be titrated to effect, smoother transitions, faster recovery. Negatives- low shelf life, good bacterial medium, high cost
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what clinical signs can indicate intraoperative pain
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increased hr, increased rr, vocalization, voluntary movement
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what 3 ways can you adminsister pain medications intraoperatively and give a positive and neg aspect of each.
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titrate-(+) can be given to effect (-) requires loading dose
Bolus (+) fast onset, (-) can have many side effects CRI- (+) maintains analgesia while on (-) short duration |
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when should analgesics be given and why
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prior to expected pain being felt because it is easier to prevent pain then to treat it once it is established.
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which local anesthetic lasts longer, lidocaine or bupivicaine
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bupivicaine
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name a medication used to directly increase blood pressure during anesthesia
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dopamine or dobutamine
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name one drug and its reversal agent used in anesthesia
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morphine-naloxone
xylazine-antisedan |
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what are 4 things you can do to evaluate depth of anesthesia in a patient
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check pedal reflex
check eye position check muscle tone check mm color |
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what 2 things does pulse oximetry measure and what is a reason for having a low Sp02
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hr and % of oxygenated hemoglobin to total hemoglobin.
Kinked tube |
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hypercarbia can be caused by what
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hypoventillation, decreased rr, decreased minute volume, exhausted soda lime, kinked et tube, machine malfunction
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why must propofol be adminstered IV
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can cause tissue sloughing, fast acting properties, no anesthetic action orally
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does doppler measure direct or indirect blood pressure
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indirect
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ventral central midline made of fibrin attaching external and internal abdominal muscles
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linea alba
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to remove or excise
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-extomy
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surgical fixation
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-pexy
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surgical field, sterile areas of scrubbed personnel, any sterile fields, and airspace above surgical and sterile fields
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sterile zone
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surgical creation of an artificial opening
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-ostomy
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surgical alteration of shape or form
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-plasty
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repair of abdominal hernia
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herniorrhapy
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reduce number of microbes to safe level
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sanitize
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prepared area of the patient and surface of sterile drapes surrounding it
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surgical field
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kills bacteria
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bacteriocide
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inhibits growth of bacteria
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bacteriostat
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infection originating from hospital setting, usually very resistant to antibiotics
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nosocomial infection
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destruction of MOST pathogenic microorganisms on inanimate objects
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disinfect
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destruction of MOST pathogenic microorganisms on animate objects
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antiseptic
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destruction of ALL microorganisms on a surface or object
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sterilize
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to cut into
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-otomy
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surface covered by sterile drapes intended to hold sterile instruments and supplies
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sterile field
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name one way to sterilize an instrument by physical and chemical means
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chemical- gas sterilization
physical -autoclave |
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name 4 chemicals used for disinfection, and a positive and negative attribute for each
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chlorhexidine,(+) non tissue irritating, (-) has to remain in contact for 3 mins to be effective, bleach (+) kills bacteria and viruses (-) irritating to tissue, iodine (+) wide spectrum bacteriocide (-) __________, alcohol(+) kills all bacteria (-)_________
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__________ measures a patients nutritional status and general body condition
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BCS
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GI and renal fuction can easily be assesed without blood work by the ____________ and _________ volume and appearance
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urine and feces
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wetness on a surgical drape can cause _________ that will contaminate the field
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strike through
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____________ is the best surface material to have in the surgical area because it is durable and easily cleaned
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stainless steel
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which of the following is NOT a cause of would dehiscence?
suture failure tissue weakness infections trauma none of the above |
none of the above
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which of the following would NOT be checked to ensure sterility for a surgical pack?
drape color sterile indicator seal wetness date none of the above |
drape color
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which of the following is NOT a main category for sources of contamination?
client operative personnel patient surgical environment surgical instruments |
client
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which of the following is NOT an ideal property of suture
frays holds knots no memory noncapillary nonferromagnetic |
frays
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true or false
the presence of a -0 after a number denotes a smaller suture size |
true
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true or false
catgut is made from bovine or ovine intestinal mucosa |
false
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true or false
catgut is an excellent choice for GIT surgeries |
false
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which of the following is NOT an advantage of using synthetic over organic absorbable suture
standardized tensile strength absorbs via phagocytosis predictable tissue reactions none of the above |
absorbs via phagocytosis
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true or false
monofilament is weaker then braided filament |
true
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true or false
monofilament is more pliable then braided filament |
false
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true or false
stainless steel suture is better for its holding power but can cause more tissue site reactions because of its knots |
true
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true or false
it takes tissue adhesives approximately 5 seconds to set |
false
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true or false
hemorrhage or granulation tissue are two things that would impede tissue adhesives |
false
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true or false
skin staples should be applied instead of suture because they are easier to do |
false
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what is vetspon, surgigel or gelfoam used for
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to control hemorrhage during surgery to small vessels
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true or false
electrocoagulation is applying heated insturments to tissue |
false
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what are the 2 most important things you should check with EVERY physical exam besides TPR prior to anesthesia
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heart and lung auscultation
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what are 5 things on every surgical consent form besides the animals signalment?
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consent for procedure
DNR instructions emergency contact info consent for optional extras such as toenail clip specific procedure outline with risks |
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why are animals fasted for anesthesia
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to prevent vomiting
to prevent aspiration |
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give an example and detailed description of each ASA class 1-5
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1-minimal risk- spay/neuter
2. mild risk-some controlled abnormalities like DM 3. moderate risk- some variable abnormalities like anemia 4. high risk-uncontrolled DM or hemorrhage 5. extreme risk-HBC less than 24 hours to live without surgery |
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what are the actions and classes of anticholinergics, pain meds and sedatives, and an example of each
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antichoinergics-increase hr, can cause cardiac arrhythmias,ie atropine
pain meds-prevents windup, blocks pain receptors ie buprenorphine sedative- relaxes the animal into a comofortable state while maintaining conciousness, decreases bp ie acepromazine |
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why should we place IV catheters for anesthetic patients
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to ease administration of emergency meds, to administer IV fluids.
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true or false
analgesics should be given prior to painful stimuli to prevent windup |
true
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true or false
lidocaine takes effect in 10 minutes and lasts for approximately 3 hours |
false
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true or false
doppler measures indirect blood pressure in cmH20 |
false (should be mmH20)
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how does an electrical impulse travel through the heart normally?
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sa node----> AV node-----> bundle of his----> right and left bundle branches-----> purkinje fibers
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what electrical impulse coordinates with p, qrs and t waves
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p-atrial depolarization
qrs- ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization T ventricular repolarization |
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what position is an animal placed in to record an EKG and color and placement of the leads
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right lateral recumbency
RF-white RR- green LF-black LR- red |
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what drug category is buprenorphine
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opioid
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what drug class is acepromazine
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phenothiazine derivitive tranquilizer
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what drug category is glycopyrrolate
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anticholinergic
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what drug category is telazol
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cyclohexamine, benzodiazepine
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what drug category is enrofloxacin
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fluoroquinolone
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what drug category is butorphanol
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opioid
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what drug class is atropine
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anticholinergic
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what drug class is thiopental
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barbituate
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what drug category is clindamycin
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lincosamide
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what drug category is ketamine
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alpha 2 agonist
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what category is diazepam
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muscle relaxant
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name 4 chemicals used for disinfection and the positive and negative traits of each
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chlorhexidine- (+) non tissue irritating (-) has to remain in contact for 3 mins to be effective
Bleach (+) kills bacteria and viruses (-) irritating to tissue Iodine (+) wide spectrum bacteriocide (-) staining alcohol (+) kills all bacterias (-) can contribute to hypothermia due to rapid evaporation |
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what surgical examples would each of the suture needles be used for
cutting reverse cutting side cutting tapered tapercut blunt point |
cutting- tough tissues
reverse-cutting- tougher tissues than cutting can cut through without risk of cut out side cutting-opthalmic procedures tapered- intestine, SQ tissue, fascia tapercut- tendons blunt-point- soft organs such as liver |
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what does in increase and decrease in PCV, TP, Blood glucose and BUN indicate
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PCV (+) dehydration (-) anemia
TP (+) fluid loss (-) liver disease, renal disease, starvation blood glucose (+) Diabetes mellitus (-) insulinoma BUN (+) kidney failure (-) liver failure |
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what are the clinical signs of urolithiasis?
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hematuria, stranguria, dysuria, pollakuria, obstruction
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what are 3 causes of a ruptured urinary bladder and how is it diagnosed?
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prolonged obstruction, overzealous bladder expression, trauma, improper use of urinary catheter
diagnosed using xray, ultrasound, abdominal palpation and history |
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what are 3 indications for cystotomy other than uroliths
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rupture of bladder, neoplasia, and congenital urinary system abnormalities
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what special instrumentation is needed for a cystotomy?
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bladder spoon, balfour retractor, urinary catheter and syringe
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describe a cystotomy for urolithiasis in detail
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make a large abdominal clipping pattern, make a midline abdominal incision, place moistened lap sponges and retractor along incision, isolate exteriorize and pack off bladder, place stay sutures, make stab incision into dorsal aspect of bladder, remove excess urine by suction, extend incision with metzenbaum scissors and use bladder spoon to remove stones, pass urinary catheter and flush with sterile saline, close incision with 2-3 layer continuous or simple interrupted absorbable monofilament suture, remove stay sutures, use warm sterile saline to lavage of both cystotomy incision and abdominal cavity, close with a routine abdominal closure
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what lab tests are performed before and after a cystotomy
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before-abdominocentesis to compare createnine and BUN levels of abdominal fluid to blood and contrast urethrogram to detect site of leakage
After- urinary culture and sensitivity, urinary tissue sample biopsy and culture and stone analysis |
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what are 3 etiologies for an aural hematoma
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common sequela to ear mites, otitis, atopy, and aural foreign bodies
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what are three ways to repair an aural heatoma and describe in detail the best procedure
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aspiration, teat canula placement, and surgical repair, best is surgical repair, patient in lateral recumbency with afftected ear up, place draping with opening for surgical site, place sutures in a quilting pattern throughout ear flap, use a peice of xray film to maintain ear shape, leave incision open for drainage
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what is a lateral ear canal resection and a TECA and what is the difference between them?
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lateral ear canal resection is resection of teh lateral ear canal involving lateralization of the horizontal ear canal, TECA is a salvage procedure that involves the removing of the entire ear conal to the skull and oopeing of the typmanic bulla and removing the lining. all that is left is the cochlea, LECR the animal can still hear, TECA the animal is deaf in the ear
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what are postoperative instructions for TECA
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advise owner of possibility of patient self mutilation of the surgical site, send home e-collar, instruct owner on how to clean and administer meds, and suture removal 10 days later, without complications
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trace the blood flow from the right kidney to the heart and back again
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renal vein---> cranial vena cava----> right atrium----> tricuspid valve----> Right ventricle----> Pulmonary valve---> pulmonary artery----> lungs-----> pulmonary vein----> L atrium-----> mitral valve----> left ventricle----> aortic valve----->aorta---> renal artery----> kidney
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what are the 4 phases of the pain pathway
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transduction
transmission perception modulation |
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what is the meibomian gland?
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the 3rd eyelid
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what is entropion
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rolling inward of the eyelid
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what is ectropion
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rolling outward of the eyelid
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what is scleral injection
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dilation of blood vessels into the sclera
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what is blepharospasm
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rapid, involuntary contraction of the eyelid
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what is lacrimation
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tear secretion
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what is photophobia
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fear or intolerance of light
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what is conjunctivitis
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inflammation of the conjuctiva
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how can you determine, by what test, if entropion is congenital or developmental
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by injection of lidocaine anesthetic into the eye, if the entropion remains it is congenital
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name 3 breeds predisposed to entropion
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chow chow, st bernard, english bulldog
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what are 3 specialized instruments used for entropion surgery
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bishop-harmon forceps, chalazion forceps, jaeger lid plate
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why is the 3rd eyelid important? what does it do and contain
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it helps to distribute a tear film accross the cornia, removes dirt or particles from eye, secretion and distribution of 30% of tears,
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