Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
78 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which antibiotics are commonly used for anaerobic infections?
|
Metronidazole, clindamycin, cefoxitin, cefotetan, imipenem, ticarcillin-clavulanic acid, Unasyn, Augmentin
|
|
Which antibiotics are commonly used for gram-negative infections?
|
Gentamycin and other aminoglycosides, ciprofloxacin, aztreonam, third-generation cephalosporins, TMP/SMZ
|
|
Which antibiotic, if taken with alcohol, will produce a disulfiram-like reaction?
|
Metronidazole
|
|
What is the drug of choice for treating amoebic infections?
|
Metronidazole
|
|
Which antibiotic is associated with cholestasis
|
Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
|
|
Which antibiotic cannot be given to children or pregnant women
|
Ciprofloxacin (interferes with the growth plate)
|
|
With which antibiotics must serum levels be determined?
|
Aminoglycosides and vancomycin
|
|
Is rash (only) in response to penicillins a contraindication to cephalosporins?
|
No, but breathing problems, urticaria, and edema in response to penicillins are contraindications to the cephalosporins
|
|
What is Augmentin made up of?
|
Amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
|
|
What is Unasyn made up of?
|
Ampicillin and sulbactam
|
|
Which medication is a first-generation cephalosporin used as surgical prophylaxis for skin flora?
|
Cefazolin (Ancef)
|
|
Which medication is a second-generation cephalosporin; used for mixed aerobic/anaerobic infections; effective against Bacteroides fragilis and anaerobic bacteria?
|
Cefoxitin (Mefoxin)
|
|
Which medication is a third-generation cephalosporin with strong activity against Pseudomonas?
|
Ceftazidime (Ceftaz)
|
|
Which medication has strong activity against gram-negative anaerobes, such as B. fragilis, and has adequate gram-positive activity?
|
Clindamycin
|
|
Which medication is an aminoglycoside used to treat gram-negative bacteria; nephrotoxic, ototoxic; blood peak/trough levels should be monitored?
|
Gentamycin
|
|
Describe Imipenem and cilastatin (Primaxin)
|
Often used as a last resort against serious, multiresistant organisms. Usually combined with cilastin, which inhibits renal excretion of imipenem. Has a very wide spectrum
|
|
Which medication is used for serious anaerobic infections (e.g. diverticulitis); also used to treat amebiasis; patient must abstain from alcohol use during therapy?
|
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
|
|
Which medication is an antistaphylococcal penicillin commonly used for cellulitis?
|
Nafcillin (Nafcil)
|
|
Which medication is used to treat MRSA; used orally to treat C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis (poorly absorbed from the gut); with IV administration, peak/trough levels should be monitored?
|
Vancomycin
|
|
Describe Percocet
|
PO narcotic pain reliever with acetaminophen and oxycodone
|
|
Which medication is a quinoline antibiotic with broad-spectrum activity, especially against gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas?
|
Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
|
|
Describe Aztreonam (Azactam)
|
Monobactam with gram-negative spectrum
|
|
Describe Amphotericin
|
IV antifungal antibiotic associated with renal toxicity, hypokalemia
|
|
Describe Fluconazole (Diflucan)
|
Antifungal agent (IV or PO) not associated with renal toxicity
|
|
Describe Nystatin
|
PO and topical antifungal
|
|
What are the side effects of steroids?
|
Adrenal suppression, immunosuppression, weight gain with central obesity, cushingoid facies, acne, hirsutism, purple striae, hyperglycemia, sodium retention/hypokalemia, hypertension, osteopenia, myopathy, ischemic bone necrosis (avascular necrosis of the hip), GI perforations
|
|
What are the uses of steroids?
|
Immunosuppression (transplant), autoimmune diseases, hormone replacement (Addison's disease), spinal cord trauma
|
|
Can steroids be stopped abruptly?
|
No, steroids shoudl never be stopped abruptly; always taper
|
|
Which patients need stress-dose steroids before surgery?
|
Those who are on steroids, were on steroids in the past year, have suspected hypoadrenalism, or are about to undergo adrenalectomy
|
|
What is the "stress dose" for steroids?
|
100mg of hydrocortisone IV every 8 hours then taper (adults)
|
|
Which vitamin helps counteract the deleterious effects of steroids on wound healing?
|
Vitamin A
|
|
Describe the action of heparin
|
Heparin binds with and activates antithrombin III
|
|
What are the uses of heparin?
|
Prophylaxis/treatment--DVT, pulmonary embolism, stroke, atrial fibrillation, acute arterial occlusion, cardiopulmonary bypass
|
|
What are the side effects of heparin?
|
Bleeding complications; can cause thrombocytopenia
|
|
What reverses the effects of heparin?
|
Protamine IV (1:100, 1 mg of protamine to every 100 units of heparin)
|
|
What laboratory test should be used to follow the effect of heparin
|
aPTT--activated partial thromboplastin time
|
|
What is the standard lab target for therapeutic heparinization?
|
1.5-2.5 times control or measured antifactor X level
|
|
Who is at risk for a protamine anaphylactic reaction?
|
Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus, s/p prostate surgery
|
|
What is the half-life of heparin?
|
Approximately 90 minutes (1-2 hours)
|
|
How long before surgery should heparin be discontinued?
|
From 4-6 hours preoperatively
|
|
Does heparin dissolve clots?
|
No; it stops the progression of clot formation and allows the body's own fibrinolytic systems to dissolve the clot
|
|
What laboratory test do you need to follow LMWH (low molecular weight heparin)?
|
None, except in children, patients with obesity, and those with renal failure, which is the major advantage of LMWH (check factor X levels)
|
|
Describe the action of warfarin (coumadin)
|
Inhibits vitamin K-dependent factors II, VII, IX, X, which are produced in the liver
|
|
What are the uses of coumadin?
|
Long-term anticoagulation (PO)
|
|
What are the associated risks with coumadin?
|
Bleeding complications, teratogenic in pregnancy, skin necrosis, dermatitis
|
|
What laboratory test should be used to follow the effect of coumadin?
|
PT (prothrombin time) as reported as INR
|
|
What is the classic therapeutic INR when on coumadin?
|
INR of 2-3
|
|
What is the half-life of effect of coumadin?
|
40 hours; thus, it takes about 2 days to observe a change in the PT
|
|
What reverses the action of coumadin?
|
Cessation, vitamin K, fresh-frozen plasma (in emergencies)
|
|
How long before surgery should coumadin be discontinued?
|
From 3-5 days preoperatively and IV heparin should be begun; heparin should be discontinued from 4 to 6 hours preoperatively and can be restarted postoperatively; Coumadin can be restarted in a few days
|
|
Describe sucralfate (Carafate)
|
Treats peptic ulcers by forming an acid-resistant barrier; binds to ulcer craters; needs acid to activate and thus should not be used with H2 blockers
|
|
Describe cimetidine (Tagamet)
|
H2 blocker (ulcers/gastritis)
|
|
Describe Odansetron (Zofran)
|
Anti-nausea, anti-emetic
|
|
Describe promethazine (Phenergan)
|
Acute antinausea agent; used postoperatively
|
|
Describe metoclopramide (Reglan)
|
Increases gastric emptying with increase in LES pressure; dopamine antagonist; used in diabetic gastroparesis and to help move feeding tubes past the pylorus
|
|
Describe albumin
|
5% albumin--expands plasma volume. 25% albumin--draws extravascular fluid into intravascular space by oncotic pressure
|
|
Describe octreotide
|
Somatostatin analog
|
|
Describe furosemide (lasix)
|
Loop diuretic (watch for hypokalemia)
|
|
What is the antibiotic option for colon/appendectomy coverage if the patient is allergic to penicillin
|
1. IV ciprofloxacin AND 2. Clindamycin or IV Flagyl
|
|
If the patient does not respond to a dose of furosemide, should the dose be repeated, increased, or decreased?
|
The dose should be doubled if there is no response to the initial dose
|
|
What medication is used to treat promethazine-induced dystonia?
|
Benadryl
|
|
Which medication is classically associated with mesenteric ischemia?
|
Digitalis
|
|
What type of antihypertensive medication is contraindicated in patients with renal artery stenosis?
|
ACE inhibitors
|
|
Does tylenol inhibit platelets?
|
No
|
|
What medication are used to stop seizures?
|
Benzodiazepines--Lorazepam(Ativan), phenytoin (Dilantin)
|
|
List the preop antibiotic for vascular prosthetic graft
|
Ancef (gram positive coverage)
|
|
List the preop antibiotics for appendectomy
|
Cefoxitin, cefotetan, Unasyn (anaerobic coverage)
|
|
List the preop antibiotics for colon surgery
|
Cefoxitin, cefotetan, Unasyn (anaerobic coverage)
|
|
What are common postoperative IV narcotics?
|
Morphine, meperidine (Demerol), fentanyl, Percocet, Dilaudid
|
|
What is Demerol's claim to fame?
|
It is used commonly with acute pancreatitis/biliary pathology because classically morphine may cause sphincter of Oddi spasm/constriction
|
|
What are the side effects of narcotics?
|
Respiratory depression, hypotension, itching, bradycardia, nausea
|
|
What is the danger of prolonged use of Demerol?
|
Accumulation of metabolite mormeperidine (especially with renal/hepatic dysfunction), which may result in oversedation, hallucinations, and seizures
|
|
Which narcotic is used to decrease postoperative shivering?
|
Demerol
|
|
What reverses the effects of benzodiazepines?
|
Flumazenil (Romazicon), 0.2mg IV
|
|
What is Toradol?
|
Ketorolac IV NSAID
|
|
What are the risks of Toradol?
|
GI bleed, renal injury, platelet dysfunction
|
|
Why give a patient IV Cipro when he is eating a regular diet?
|
No reason--500mg Cipro PO gives the same serum level as 400mg Cipro IV. PO is much cheaper
|
|
What is clonidine rebound?
|
If you stop clonidine, the patient will often have severe rebound hypertension
|