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152 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What are the two categories of maintenance?
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On-equipment and off-equipment
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What is an end-item? Give two examples
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A piece of equipment that is not part of a larger piece of equipment. (Ground power unit, test stand, aircraft, etc)
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Define off-equipment maintenance.
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Maintenance performed off of the aircraft or on an end item piece.
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What are the three levels of maintenance?
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Organizational, Intermediate, depot
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Generally speaking, if you're working in-shop at a regular operational base, what type of maintenance are you performing?
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Intermediate
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Where is depot-level maintenance performed?
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Off-base on a depot base or facility
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What AFI covers the duties and responsibilities of key leadership positions within a maintenance organization?
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21-101
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Who is responsible for establishing written procedutres to review and clear repeat, recurring, and CND discrepancies?
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MXG/CC
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Who is repsonsible for providing aircraft status updates as required?
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Production superintendent
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Who manages the SCR?
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MOO/MX Superintendent
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What three squadrons exist within the MXG?
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AMXS, MXS, & MOS
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What flights exist within MXS?
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Propulsion, Avionics, TMDE, Fabrication, Accesories, Maintenance, Armament, Munitions, and AGE
(PAT FAMAMA) |
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What actions may be taken if an MXS becomes very large (in excess of 700 manning authorizations)?
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The squadron can be divided into an EMS or a CMS
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What is AMXS responsible for?
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Servicing, inspection, maintaining, launching, and recovering assigned and transient aircraft
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Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance at all levels to resolve quality problems?
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QA (Quality Assurance)
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Your role in IMDS starts with what?
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Entering accurate data
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What is the purpose of IMDS?
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To support aircraft, missile, communications, and equipment maintenace activites at worldwide operating locations
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What are the three general functions of IMDS?
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Data input, information retrieval, and data reporting for use by higher headquarters
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What will happen when operational requirements have not been met?
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An investigation is intiated to dermine the cause or causes
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Explain the IMDS training managment subsystem.
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It extends the capability of training management personell by abosrbing much of the manual administrative burden. It also allows users to forecast and scedule personal training requirements.
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What subsystem provides the capability to order parts for unscheduled/scheduled maintenance requirements?
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Material Management interface (SBSS)
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What section of the AFTO Form 244 will you document required service inspections?
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Part 2
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Why is it important to make form entries complete, correct, legible, and neat?
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To reduce the possibiltiy of errors caused by someone's misinterpretation of our careless entries.
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What is the minimum signature of most maintenance forms?
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First name initial, last name, and employee number
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When documenting discrepancies on maintenance forms, what is the date format you will use for the date discovered?
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YYYYMMDD
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Why are symbols entered in red?
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To make the important warning syignals stand out more clearly
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Who may change a symbol if a condition is believed to be more serious than represented by the current symbol?
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Any person within the maintenance activity
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What does the red X indicate?
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The aircraft or equipment is unfit for flight.
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How is the red diagonal entered in the forms?
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From the upper right hand to the lower left hand
\ \ \ \ |
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In regards to qualification training, when are re-evaluations required?
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When an individual shows a qualification deficiency or when there's a change in assignment or equipment
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Maintenance management training covers what three aspects of maintenance management?
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Functions, relationships, and procedures.
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What is UGT (Upgrade Training)?
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A program that provides the Air Force specialty traingin to meet job knowledge and skill-level requirements.
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What are the scheduled aircraft inspections used by the Air Force?
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Periodic, isochronal, phased, and programmed depot maintenance
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What inspection will be accomplished when an immediate turn-around or a continuation flight is scheduled?
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Thruflight
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When should a BPO inspection be accomplished?
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After the last flight of the day and after the aircraft has been cleared for maintenance by operations
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What are the three characteristics in determining the material management segments?
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The material management segment is global; mission accomplishment depends upon the performance of specialized functions such as storage, distribution, and disposal; and the system contains millions of items that vary in size, use, complexity, and value.
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What MAJCOM is responsible for operating the entire Air Force supply system?
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AFMC (Air Force Material Command)
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What does the SBLC (Standard Base-Level Computer) account for?
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Supplies, equipment, POL (Petroleum, Oil, Lubricants), munitions, and clothing
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What can logisticians, customers, and commanders track with the material management system?
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Every item in the supply system
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What is the NSN (National Stock Number)?
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A 13-digit number used to identify an item in the national supply system
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What does the third position of an ERRC code indicate?
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The cost category in which an item belongs
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Who is responsible for bench stock security?
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The person-in-charge of the maintenance activity
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Who is responsible for replenishing out-of-stock items?
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The bench-stock support section
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What will drive personnel to adopt a more businesslike approach to duty?
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Cost accountability
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What is a stock fund?
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A system for financing the acquisition of inventory and holding it until required for use by various activities
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What are stuock fund cash and inventories called when combined?
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Capital or corpus
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What pricing system was developed for DLR items?
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Forcast acquisition cost, standard price, a carcass price, and an exchange price
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List the positive factors of the DLR program?
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On-equipment troubleshooting improves, repairing more; more repair at base level means more O&M dollars available in the unit O&M budget NRTS items cost money since the unit abosrbs the exchange cost; reparing faster; it's important to realize that the longer a DLR is kept in the repair cylce, the longer O&M dollars are tied up. Repairing an item faster to turn in will free up O&M dollars that maintenance can use elsewhere.
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What form is used for a supply request?
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AF Form 2005
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What is the dating system used in nearly all supply transactions?
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Julian system
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On the AF 2005, what does demand code "R" mean?
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Recurring need
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What tag is used to identify an item that has been removed from the aircraft?
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AFTO Form 350
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What document is used for internal control of a DIFM item?
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AFTO form 350
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As an AFTO Form 350 tag initiator, which blocks are you required to fill out on the front side of Part I?
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Blocks 1-4, and 15a are completed by the person intiating the form
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Why are supply condition tags color coded?
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For easy recognition at a glance
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What supply condition tag would you use to identify unserviceable (Reparable) items?
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The green DD form 1577-2
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What is the purpose of the material deficiency system?
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To provide data to agencies that are responsible for development, procurement, and other logistics management functions
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What conditions would warrant a Cat I DR?
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Emergency conditions that, if uncorrected, would cause death, sever injury, or sever occupational illness major los or damge to equipment/weapons system or directly restricts combat/operations readiness
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Which DR category is submitted when errors due to workmanship are discovered?
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Cat II
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Depending on the circumstances, what types of Air Force property responsibility can any person, military, or civilian, be charged with?
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Command and custodial
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What type of repsonsibility must an individual assume who has acquired physical possesion of governement property?
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Custodial
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What are the two ways a person can be relieved from property responsibility when pecuniary liability is not involved?
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Turn-in or transfer
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What is meant by pecuniary liabilty?
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It means we must pay for the loss, destruction, or damage of property caused by our maladministration or negligence
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What are the three ways to settle an obligatioin to the Air Force?
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Report of survey, cash collection voucher, and statement of charges
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Who prepares the cash collection voucher?
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The responsible or accountable officer
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What is the type of index TO you will use most frequently?
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LOAP or List of Publishable Applications
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When you need to know how to work on a weapons system, what should you use?
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Technical manuals
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What type of Technical Manual ends with a -4?
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IPB (Illustrated Parts Breakdown)
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How many classes of MPTOs are there? Give examples?
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Two (00-20 series and 00-25-223 series TOs)
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What is an abbreviated Technical Order?
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TOs of this thype are primarly work simplification devices
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Beofre using an abbreviated checklist, what should you do?
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You should read the amplified version of the operation contained in the appropriate -2 maintenance manual.
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What does TCTO stand for?
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Time compliance technical order
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What is the most serious TCTO?
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Immediate action
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Who assigns technical order numbers?
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A numbering specialist in the USAF technical order system section
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What is used in the TO numbering system to identify equipment category and type?
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The first group of the TO's name, the number is the category and the letter is the type of equipment.
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Label each group of the TO number given.
1C-130J-4-1 |
1- TO Category
C- Basic mission number -130- model J- Production series -4- type of TO -1- section of book |
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What is meant by the term "Basic mission symbol"?
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The TO symbol which represents the mission the aircraft was built to perform.
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When a TO has four groups, what does the fourth group indicate?
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The section of the TO
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What are the three designators in equipment TO 9H4?
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The category, the major group, and the specific type of major group.
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What does MIDAS stand for?
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Maintenance Integrated Data Access System
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What does the MIDAS TO system and the basic TO system have in common?
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The first three group of the TO number are formed in the same manner.
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List the types of TOs you would find in the MIDAS system.
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FI (Fault isolation), FR (Fault reporting, GS (General systems), GV (General Vehicle), JG (Job guide), SD (Schematic diagram), and WD (Wiring data).
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Which technical manual give you an overview of the entire aircraft?
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GV (General vehicle)
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What do the first two digits of the MIDAS system/subsystem number represent?
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The Major system
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Which manual contains a vast wealth of system knowledge?
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GS (General system)
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What are job guides designed for?
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To lead you through a specific maintenance task
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What is a revision, and when is it normally issued?
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A completely new edition to a TO. It incorporates all previous changes, supplements, and new duty that would normally have required a seperate update into the basic TO.
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How are TOPS pages filed?
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Facing the affected TO page
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How is a safety supplement identified?
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The title page is printed with a border of red "SS"s and other important info in red. The words "Safety Supplement" appear at the tope and bottom of the title page.
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When can publications be removed from the files?
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Not until they are listed as "Rescinded" in the TO indexes.
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What is the purpose of the word "Note" in a technical manual?
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Adding emphasis to material that follows it.
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Before you submit an improvement report, what factos must be weighed?
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Personell and weapon system safety, mission impact, damage to equipment, work simplification, urgency, manpower savings, and cost to change the TO
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What are the three types of technical order system publication improvement reports?
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Emergency, routine, and urgent
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To whom does QA forward an urgen action report?
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The appropriate MAJCOM control point
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Once an ALC activity receives a routine report, how many days do they have to reply?
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45 days
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Which TO covers the procedures for preparing an AFTO Form 22?
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TO 00-5-1
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List the personal characteristics that cause an individual to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or tolerate an unsafe condition.
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Inattentiveness, excitability, impatience, and stubborness
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List the four major phases of safety training.
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Initial training, supervisor's training, job training, and general training
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What are the most frequently used methods in sustained job safety training?
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Personal interviews by the supervisor and 5-minute stand-up talks are the most frequent methods
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What do poorly lit work areas contribute to?
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Poor housekeeping and to accident possibilities.
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What type of container is used to dispose of oily rags?
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Plainly marked metal containers with self-closing lids.
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What is a good rule for tool storage?
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A place for every tool, and every tool in it's place.
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Who can correct someone who is carrying tools in their pockets?
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Anyone
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What should be done with cracked or broken tools?
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Replace them immediately
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What protection do safety hats provide?
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Impact and penetration from falling or flying objects
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List some effects that noise can have on you.
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Hearing loss, speech interference, sleep loss, and possible stress reactions
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Who must wear reflective gear? When?
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Flightline personell who are exposed to vehicle or aircraft traffic during the hours of darkness or periods of reduced visibility.
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What goes hand-in-hand with fire prevention?
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Good housekeeping
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List three fire prevention methods.
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Don't allow the accumulation of ooily rags, don't saturate your clothing with flammable material, and don't store flammable fuels in open containers.
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What is considered to be the direct cause of any accident?
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Unsafe acts and conditions.
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When is it permissible to wear wristwatches while working on aircraft electrical systems?
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NEVER!!!
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What type of protective clothing will maintenance personnel wear while working around hot exhaut or tailpipes?
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Gloves and long-sleeve shirts
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What position would you assume to lift an object from a level lower than your waist?
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A squatting position with your back straight
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In order for a fire to burn, what must be present?
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Oxygen
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What is meant by inert gas?
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It will not support life or combustion.
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Describe the two types of nitrogen cylinders.
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Both are grey. The oil-free nitrogen is recognized by two 3-inch black bands around the shoulder. The second is oil-tolerant and is recognized by one 3-inch black band.
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List five hazards that are responsible for accidents involving electricity.
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Short circuits, overloading, accidental grounding, poor electrical contacts, and misuse of equipment
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When working with electrical equipment, why not use a wooden-handled screwdriver?
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Wood can abosrb moisture.
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What does the Air Force use to warn you of immediate, existing, or potentially hazardous situations?
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Mishap prevention tags
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List four prevention tags.
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Danger, caution, out of order, and do not start.
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When using Danger Tags, when would you not coordinate with ground safety, fire department, and BES personnel?
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During routine aircraft or shop maintenance required by TOs or regulations.
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Who can remove a Caution Tag?
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The supervisor when the hazard is abated.
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If the TO prescribes it, an out of order tag can be substituted with what tag?
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A green tag
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What is energy control?
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Preventing unexpected start-up of equipment through the lock out/tag-out of energy isolation devices
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List three sources of radio frequency (RF) radiation.
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High frequency radio transmitters, radar, and electric countermeasure devices.
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Why is the hazard of radiation not always apparent?
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It is often hidden behind a viosr or radome.
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List the major danger areas around an operating jet engine.
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Engine intake, exhaust, and the plane or rotation
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What is normally considered a safe distance from an operating jet engine intake?
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25 feet
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In regard to turbine plane of rotation, where should you stand when the engine is operating?
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Always stand for or aft of the plane of rotation
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How is sound measured?
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in decibels
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Where is noise intensity the greatest around operating jet aircraft?
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To the rear of the engine, 45 degrees on either side
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Why is "Prop wash" dangerous?
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It can throw dirt and other particles
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When are ejection seat safety pins and streamers installed?
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Immediately after flight
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What is switchitis?
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Turning ever switch or lever to find out what it does.
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When operating power-actuated systems, what must you do?
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Make sure they are clear of personell and equipment.
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What are the effects of excessive braking?
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It weakens the tire and wheel, increases tire pressure, and creates a fire hazard in magnesium wheels.
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Why would you not want to rapidly cool an overheated wheel?
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Cooling may cause it to fracture or fly apart
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Hoow and from what direction should you approach an aircraft with overheated brakes?
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The nose or tail direction
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What is the goal of the Nuclear Surety Program?
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To incorporate maximum nuclear surety surety, consistent with operational requirements, from weapon development to retirement from the inventory.
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What are the three minimum safety standards of the nuclear surety program?
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Maintain weapons security, prevent unauthorized or accidental actions, or prevent unauthorized explosion.
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What is a Safe Haven?
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A designated area where nuclear weapons might be evacuated during an emergency.
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What information might you hear during a pre-task briefing?
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Locations of restricted areas, emergency evacuation procedures, and methods for reporting violations and hazards.
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What is permissive action link?
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A family of devices designed to reduce the possibility of a nuclear explosion without the insertion of a controlled numerical code.
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Name two of your individual responsibilities toward the nuclear surety program.
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Reporting whether or not you are qualified for a task, and compliance with the 2-person concept.
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Who is responsible to certify or decertify individuals from PRP (Personnel Reliablity Program)?
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The Unit Commander
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Can a non-US citizen/US national be PRP certified?
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No.
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By what methods, does a CO (Certifying official) study past behanvior?
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Reviewing EPRs, requesting special investigations, and conducting personal interviews
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What are your individual responsiblities toward PRP?
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Monitor your reliablitly; inform support agencies of your PRP status; monitor coworkers; stay physically, mentally, and technically competent.
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What is the two-person concept designed to do?
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Make sure that a lone individual never has an opportunity to perform an incorrect action.
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Who identifies/establishes no-lone zones?
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The organization that has a mission or function involving nuclear weapons.
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When may a non-PRP certified individual enter into a no-lone zone?
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When accompanied by a qualified 2-person team.
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What is the purpose of the tamper detecrtion program?
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To verify no one has tampered with a component.
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