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68 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

if the amount of sodium in the blood decreases, what would a negative feedback control mechanism be expected to do?




A. decrease the amount of sodium in the blood


b. increase the amount of sodium in the blood


c. leave the amount of sodium unchanged


d. change the set point for sodium


e. inhibit the ingestion of more sodium

b. increase the amount of sodium in the blood

2. the hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose into body cells. its secretion is controlled by negative feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the cells that secrete insulin. which of the following statements is most likely to be correct?




A. a decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration still further.


B. an increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration.


C. a decrease in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration.


D. an increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn increase the blood glucose concentration still further.



b. an increase in blood glucose concentration will stimulate insulin secretion, which will in turn lower the blood glucose concentration.

3. The composition of the fluid bathing the cells of the body is the same as that within the cells.




A. true


B. false

b. false

4. the fluid compartment with a high sodium concentration that contains only trace amounts of protein is called




A. interstitial fluid


B. plasma


C. intracellular fluid


D. extracellular fluid


E. none of the above

A. Interstitial fluid

5. Changes in the external environment alter the _________, which is detected by the __________, and that information is sent to________




A. set point, regulated variable, integrating center


b. sensor, integrating center, effector


c. stimulus, sensor, effector


d. regulated variable, sensor, integrating center

d. regulated variable, sensor, integrating center

6. which is a covalent bond?




A. two atoms share inner-orbit electrons with each other


b. a bond between water molecules


c. a bond between two oppositely charged ions


d. two atoms share outer orbit electrons with each other

d. two atoms share outer orbit electrons with each other

7. carbohydrates:




a. have carbon and oxygen atoms in equal proportions


b. are the major organic molecules of the body by mass


c. are nonpolar molecules


d. are defined by the inclusion of nitrogen in their structure


e. are composed of only carbon and hydrogen atoms

a. have carbon and oxygen atoms in equal proportions

8. what are the two main atoms in lipids, and what type of bonds connect them?




a. carbon and oxygen, connected by covalent bonds


b. carbon and hydrogen, connected by covalent bonds


c. carbon and hydrogen, connected by ionic bonds


d. carbon and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds


e. oxygen and hydrogen, connected by hydrogen bonds

b. carbon and hydrogen, connected by covalent bonds

9. The atomic number of an element refers to the number of particles in its atomic nucleus




A. true


B. false

b. false



10. what type of molecule is shown in the figure below?




a. monosaccharide


b. disacharide


c. fatty acid


d. phospholipid


e. amino acid

b. disacharide



11. NaCl is a molecule formed by the covalent bonding of a sodium atom to a chlorine atom




a. true


b. false

b. false



12. in general, polar molecules will dissolve in polar solvents, while nonpolar molecules cannot




a. true


b. false

a. true



13. saturated fats contain carbon atoms linked by double bonds




a. true


b. false

b. false

14. the most common elements found in biomolecules are carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and




a. phosphorous


b. calcium


c. oxygen


d. potassium


e. chlorine

c. oxygen

15. when the body needs to make the eicosanoid thromboxane for wound repair, what component of the plasma membrane does it use for their synthesis?




a. fatty acid from phospholipid


b. transmembrane glycoprotein


c. glycolipid


d. cholesterol


e. ATP

a. fatty acid from phospholipid

which of the following molecule types is not a polymer?




a. protein


b. fatty acid


c. glycogen


d. DNA


e. RNA

b. fatty acid

17. Which of following characteristics concerning ribosomes is false?




a. contain protein


b. contain rRNA


c. are the site of protein synthesis


d. can remain free in the cytosol


can be located in the Golgi apparatus

e. can be located in the golgi apparatus

18. what strand of mRNA would be transcribed from the following strand of DNA: AATG?




a. ttuc


b. ttac


c. uugt


d. uuac

d. uuac

19. the stand of DNA that gets transcribed to mRNA is called the




a. intron strand


b. exon strand


c. promoter sequenc


d. sense (template) sequence

d. sense (template) sequence

20. an anticodon is




a. a 3-nucleotide series on tRNA that is complementary to the mRNA to which it binds


b. the strand of DNA used to create mRNA


c. the code for a particular amino acid


d. the stop signal that does not code for an amino acid

a. a 3-nucleotide series on tRNA that is complementary to the mRNA to which it binds

21. what happens at the P site of a ribosome?




a. it contains the enzyme that catalyzes formation of peptide bond


b. it has the binding site for mRNA


c. it holds the tRNA with the most recent amino acid that has been added to the polypeptide chain


d it holds the tRNA with the next amino acid to be added to the polypeptide chain

c. it holds the tRNA with the most recent amino acid that has been added to the polypeptide chain

22. the enzyme catalase is located where?




a. SER


b. lysosomes


c. mitochondria


d. golgi complex


e. peroxisomes

e. peroxisomes

23. what is a glycerol with 3 fatty acids attatched?




a. glycerolipid


b. eicosanoid


c. saturated fat


d. triglyceride


e. phospholipid

d. tiglyceride

24. A H stripped from the amino acid end and a OH is stripped from the carboxyl end in dehydration synthesis?




a. true b. false

a. true

25. attraction to amino acids further away that produces bends and folds creating a specific 3D shape is the secondary structure of proteins.




a. true


b. false

b. false

26. sucrose is a disaccharide composed of a glucose and a lactose molecule




a. true


b. false

b. false

27. thymine is a pyrimidine




a. true


b. false

a. true

28. the exon is cut from the original mRNA sequence, leaving the intro as the portion of mRNA that eaves the nucleus to be translated into a protein




a. true


b. false

b. false

29. which of the following is a correct description of an anabolic pathway?




a. proteins are transcribed from DNA in the nucleus


b. glycogen is synthesized in the cytosol from glucose


c. proteins are degraded by mRNA in the cytoplasm


d. the primary site of the synthesis of triglycerides is in the liver

b. glycogen is synthesize in the cytosol from glucose

30. in a reduction reaction which of the following is most likely added to reactants?




a. water


b. neurons


c. oxygen


d. electrons


e. phosphate

d. electrons

31. which of the following would not increase the rate of a chemical reaction?




a. increasing the concentration of reactants


b. increasing temperature


c. increasing the activation energy barrier


d. adding a catalyst


e. adding an enzyme

c. increasing the activation energy barrier

32. in the induced-fit model for enzyme activity, the substrate alters the ________ of the________ site on the enzyme




a. shape; allosteric


b. conformation: inactive


c. activity: active


d. conformation: active

d. conformation: active

33. identify the following chemical reaction by its type: protein + phosphate -> protein-phosphate




a. hydrolysis


b. condensation


c. oxidation


d. reduction


e. phosphorylation

e. phosphorylation

34. an enzyme that catalyzes phosphorylation of a protein is called a_______. An enzyme that catalyzes dephosphorylation of a protein is called a(n) _________.




a. kinase: phosphatase


b. phophatse: kinase

a. kinase: phosphatase

35. the following reaction is an example of oxidation: FAD + 2H+ --> FADH2




a. true


b. false

b. false

36. cell A is a gland cell that makes and secretes proteins. Cell B is another type of cell that synthesized and secretes steroids. If you were to look at electron micrographs o the two cells, what differences wold you expect to see?




a. cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B.


b. cell A wold have fewer secretion granules then cell B.


c. Cell A would have more agranular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B


d. cell B would have more granular endoplasmic than cell A


e. the two cells would most likely look identical

a. cell A would have more granular endoplasmic reticulum than cell B

37. ATP is




a. a nucleotide


b. a lipid


c. an amino acid


d. a carbohydrate


e. a steroid

a. a nucleotide

38. once protein synthesis is completed, the protein that was synthesized may undergo further changes prior to its secretion or use within the cell




a. true


b. false

a. true

39. in general, polar molecules diffuse more rapidly across cell membranes than do nonpolar molecules




a. true


b. false

b. false

40. which of the following would not increase the rate of simple diffusion across the plasma membrane?




a. greater available surface area


b. greater lipid solubility


c. greater concentration gradient


d. greater number of protein carrier


e. smaller size

d. greater number of protein carrier

41. which of the following molecules is least likely to diffuse through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.




a. fatty acid


b. water


c. disaccharide


d. oxygen


e. steroids

c. disaccharide

42. which of the following transport mechanisms is passive?




a. contransport of glucose with sodium


b. transport of sodium and potassium across the membranes by the Na/K pump


c. movement of sodium through ion channels


d. countertransport of hydrogen ions with sodium


e. movement of calcium out of cytosol

c. movement of sodium through ion channels

43. in active transport, the affinity of a carrier protein for the molecule being transported is greater on which side of the membrane?




a. always the side facing the intracellular fuid


b. on the side where the molecule is in lower concentration


c. on the side where the molecule is in greater concentration

b. on the side where the molecule is in lower concentration

44. when the Na/K pump moves its bound molecules of sodium to the outside of the membrane, it




a. immediatly returns to the inside, ready to transport sodium back outside


b. cannot return to inside empty-handed so it must bind two potassium firth


c. none of the above

b. cannot return to inside empty-handed so it must bind two potassium first

45. which of the following statements about glucose cotransport with sodium is true?




a. glucose moves into cell while sodium moves out


b. glucose moves out while sodium moves into the cell


c. glucose and sodium both move into the cell


d. glucose and sodium both move out of the cell

c. glucose and sodium both move into the cell

46. when solute is actively transported across epithelium, what usually follows?




a. water movement in the same direction


b. water movement in the opposite direction

a. water movement in the same direction

47. which condition exists when there are more solutes present in a solution?




a. there is a lower thermal energy affecting diffusion


b. there is a lower concentration of water in that solution


c. there is a greater concentration of water to leave the solution


d. there is a greater need for active transport

b. there is a lower concentration of water in that solution

48. the higher the osmolarity of a solution, the higher the concentration of water in it




a. true


b. false

b. false

49. the movement of water across the membrane is always a passive process




a. true


b. false

a. true

50. the driving force for simple diffusion is moving up the concentration gradient




a. true


b. false

b. false

51. the component of the plasma membrane that acts as a selective barrier to diffusion of polar molecules is the integral proteins




a. true


b. false

a. true

52. large differences of water concentration are required to drive water across membrane




a. true


b. false

b false

53. what is the primary role of Na/K pump?




a. to produce ATP


b. to pump Na and K down the concentration gradient


c. the maintenance of Na and K concentrations on either side of the membrane

c. the maintenance of Na and K concentrations on either side of the membrane

54. which of the following solutions bathing a red blood cell wold be considered hypotonic? a solution containing:




a. 400 mOsm


b. 200 mOsm

b. 200 mOsm

55. lisinopril is a medication that lowers high blood pressure back to within a desired range of function. The action of this medication is similar to that of a(n) __________ in the human body




a. set point


b. regulated variable


c. negative feedback response


d. positive feedback response

c. negative feedback response

56. The amphipathic property of phospholipids can be described as a




a. nonpolar region facing the outside and a polar region facing the inside of the cell


b. polar region that dissolves in water and a nonpolar region that repels water.


c. nonpolar region that dissolves in water and a polar region that face one another

b. polar region that dissolves in water and a nonpolar region that repels water.

57. this is an example of a catalyzed anabolic reaction. Enzyme + reactant --- E-R complex --- product1 + product2 + enzyme




a. true


b. false

b. false

58-62




58. first


59. second


60. third


61. fourth


62. fifth




a. post translational modification of protein chain


b. translaton


c. gene acivation


d. transcription


e. mRNA processing

58. c


59. d


60. e


61. b


62. a

63-67




63. steroid hormone


64. oxygen


65. glucose


66. water


67. amino acid




a. simple diffusion


b. facilitated diffusion


c. none of the above

63. a


64. a


65. b


66. a


67. b

68. which is true about the structure and function of a gene?




a. it is an uncoiled protein that contains information necessary for the synthesis of other proteins


b. it is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that acts an an enzyme to digest proteins


c. it is composed of many molecules of DNA and contains information needed to make RNA


d. it is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains information necessary for the synthesis of proteins

d. it is a sequence of nucleotides in DNA that contains information necessary for the synthesis of proteins

69. what is the term for the segments of primary RNA that are cleaved and discarded?




a. codons


b. introns


c. exons


d. anticodons


e. genes

b. introns

70. Integral membrane proteins can form channels through which ions such as Na+ and K+ can diffuse




a. true


b. false

a. true

71-75




a. true


b. false




71. phosphorylation occurs in mitochondria


72. peptide hormones synthesis in the ER


73. breakdown of phagocytosed bacteria occurs in the peroxisomes


74. packaging and secretory products into vesicles occurs in the golgi complex


75. calcium is stored in the SER

71. a


72. a


73. b


74. a


75. a

76. once protein synthesis is completed, the protein that was synthesized may undergo further changes prior to its secretion or use within the cell




a. true


b. false

a. true



77. because of the active transport of Na+ and K+ the intracellular concentration of Na+ is lower than the extracellular concentration, whereas the reverse is true for K+




a. true


b. false

a. true

78. which of the following components of the plasma membrane forms ion channels?




a. phospholipids


b. cholesterol


c. peripheral proteins


d. transmembrane glycolipids


e. transmembrane proteins

e transmembrane proteins

79. where is the genetic code stored?




a. brain


b. heart


c. nucleus


d. cytoplasm


e. vaults

c. nucleus

80. oligopeptides are composed of up to 9 amino acids




a. true


b. false

a. true