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65 Cards in this Set
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- Back
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Which of the following file types are commonly used to create applications that can be run on Linux, macOS, and Windows? |
.py OBJ-4.8: Python is a general-purpose programming language that can develop many different kinds of applications. It is designed to be easy to read, and the programs use fewer lines of code compared to other programming languages. The code runs in an interpreter. Python is preinstalled on many Linux distributions and can be installed on Windows. Python scripts are saved using the .py extension. |
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A laptop is running Windows 10 with Windows Defender on it. A user believes their laptop may have become infected with malware, so they install a second antivirus program that supposedly includes real-time protection. Now, the laptop is sluggish and sometimes non-responsive. Which of the following should you do FIRST to resolve this problem? |
Uninstall the real-time protection antivirusOBJ-3.2: You should not have two antivirus or antimalware solutions running simultaneously on a single computer. Since the issues began for the user when they installed the real-time protection scanner, it should be uninstalled FIRST. Then, you could enable real-time protection in Windows Defender to provide this functionality. While you can have two antivirus and antimalware solutions installed, you should only have one set up for real-time protection at a time. The other could be used to scan the computer during the bootup process if desired. Windows Defender, by default, already has real-time protection enabled. This is why the installation of the second real-time protection service was causing issues on this laptop. Uninstall the real-time protection antivirusOBJ-3.2: You should not have two antivirus or antimalware solutions running simultaneously on a single computer. Since the issues began for the user when they installed the real-time protection scanner, it should be uninstalled FIRST. Then, you could enable real-time protection in Windows Defender to provide this functionality. While you can have two antivirus and antimalware solutions installed, you should only have one set up for real-time protection at a time. The other could be used to scan the computer during the bootup process if desired. Windows Defender, by default, already has real-time protection enabled. This is why the installation of the second real-time protection service was causing issues on this laptop. Uninstall the real-time protection antivirusOBJ-3.2: You should not have two antivirus or antimalware solutions running simultaneously on a single computer. Since the issues began for the user when they installed the real-time protection scanner, it should be uninstalled FIRST. Then, you could enable real-time protection in Windows Defender to provide this functionality. While you can have two antivirus and antimalware solutions installed, you should only have one set up for real-time protection at a time. The other could be used to scan the computer during the bootup process if desired. Windows Defender, by default, already has real-time protection enabled. This is why the installation of the second real-time protection service was causing issues on this laptop. OBJ-3.2: You should not have two antivirus or antimalware solutions running simultaneously on a single computer. Since the issues began for the user when they installed the real-time protection scanner, it should be uninstalled FIRST. Then, you could enable real-time protection in Windows Defender to provide this functionality. While you can have two antivirus and antimalware solutions installed, you should only have one set up for real-time protection at a time. The other could be used to scan the computer during the bootup process if desired. Windows Defender, by default, already has real-time protection enabled. This is why the installation of the second real-time protection service was causing issues on this laptop. |
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Which command-line tool is used on a Linux system to display a list of the files and directories within the current path? |
OBJ-1.11: The ls command lists the files or directories in the current path on a Linux system. When invoked without any arguments, ls lists the files in the current working directory. |
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Karen lives in an area that is prone to hurricanes and other extreme weather conditions. She asks you to recommend an electrical conditioning device that will prevent her files from being corrupted if the building's power is unstable or lost. Additionally, she would like the computer to maintain power for up to an hour of uptime to allow for a graceful shutdown of her programs and computer. Which of the following should you recommend? |
Uninterruptible power supply OBJ-4.5: An uninterruptible power supply or uninterruptible power source (UPS) is an electrical apparatus that provides emergency power to a load when the input power source becomes too low or the main power fails. A UPS provides near-instantaneous protection from input power interruptions by using a battery backup. The on-battery run-time of most uninterruptible power sources is usually short (less than 60 minutes) but sufficient to properly shut down a computer system. |
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Your Windows 10 workstation is currently running version 1909 and was flagged by the cybersecurity team as a threat to the network due to its outdated operating system. Which of the following actions should be performed to remediate this issue? |
Use the Windows Update to install the latest OS versionOBJ-3.1: Windows Update hosts critical updates and security patches (code to fix security vulnerabilities in Windows and its associated software) plus optional software and hardware updates to add or change features or drivers. There is also a complementary program, called Microsoft Update, which can be used to keep Microsoft Office software patched at the same time. If you are working on a small network, you will likely use Windows Update to keep your systems patched and secure. If you work for a large organization, you will likely use the Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) to conduct patch management across all your devices, instead. Use the Windows Update to install the latest OS versionOBJ-3.1: Windows Update hosts critical updates and security patches (code to fix security vulnerabilities in Windows and its associated software) plus optional software and hardware updates to add or change features or drivers. There is also a complementary program, called Microsoft Update, which can be used to keep Microsoft Office software patched at the same time. If you are working on a small network, you will likely use Windows Update to keep your systems patched and secure. If you work for a large organization, you will likely use the Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) to conduct patch management across all your devices, instead. Use the Windows Update to install the latest OS versionOBJ-3.1: Windows Update hosts critical updates and security patches (code to fix security vulnerabilities in Windows and its associated software) plus optional software and hardware updates to add or change features or drivers. There is also a complementary program, called Microsoft Update, which can be used to keep Microsoft Office software patched at the same time. If you are working on a small network, you will likely use Windows Update to keep your systems patched and secure. If you work for a large organization, you will likely use the Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager (MECM) to conduct patch management across all your devices, instead. |
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You are working as a military defense contractor and have been asked to dispose of 5 laptop hard drives used in systems that processed classified information. Which of the following physical data destruction and disposal methods is MOST appropriate to ensure the data cannot be recovered? |
OBJ-2.8: The best option is to use degaussing on the hard drives. Degaussing exposes the disk to a powerful electromagnet that disrupts the magnetic pattern that stores the data on the disk surface. This renders the data on the disk inaccessible, but the disk will become unusable for other purposes. If the drive needs to be reused, repurposed, or recycled, you should not use degaussing. If the drive contains sensitive or classified information, then it should be degaussed or shredded. |
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While troubleshooting the reason that the File Explorer is crashing on a Windows 10 machine, you determine that some of its files may have become corrupt. Which of the following utilities should you use to correct this? |
OBJ-3.1: The system file checker (SFC) command is a utility in Windows that allows users to scan for and restore corrupted Windows system files from the command line. System files (and shared program files) are maintained and version-controlled in the WINSxS system folder. Since the File Explorer is part of the Windows 10 operating system files, it would be repaired or replaced by running the system file checker (SFC). |
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What is the FIFTH step of the seven-step malware removal process? |
Schedule scans and run updates OBJ-3.3: The seven steps of the malware removal procedures are (1) Investigate and verify malware symptoms, (2) Quarantine the infected systems, (3) Disable System Restore in Windows, (4) Remediate the infected systems, update anti-malware software, scan the system, and use removal techniques (e.g., safe mode, pre-installation environment), (5) Schedule scans and run updates, (6) Enable System Restore and create a restore point in Windows, and (7) Educate the end user. |
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Which of the following types of backup would require the MOST time to complete? |
OBJ-4.3: A full backup creates a copy of all the selected data regardless of when it was previously backed up. It takes the most time to complete a backup but is the fastest when conducting a restoral of all the data on a hard drive.A differential backup only creates a copy of the selected data that has been modified since the last full backup. It is a good compromise in speed between a full backup (which takes the longest to backup and the least to restore) and an incremental backup (which takes the least to backup and the longest to restore). An incremental backup only creates a copy of new files and files modified since the last full, incremental, or differential backup. Therefore, it takes the least amount of time to complete a backup. Unfortunately, it also takes the most time to restore since you have to first restore the full backup, then any differential and incremental backups until all your data is restored. Synthetic backup is the process of generating a file from a complete copy of a file created at some past time and one or more incremental copies created at later times. The expression synthetic in this context refers to the fact that the assembled file is not a direct copy of any single current or previously created file. Instead, a synthetic file is merged or synthesized by a specialized application program from the original file and one or more modifications to it. OBJ-4.3: A full backup creates a copy of all the selected data regardless of when it was previously backed up. It takes the most time to complete a backup but is the fastest when conducting a restoral of all the data on a hard drive.A differential backup only creates a copy of the selected data that has been modified since the last full backup. It is a good compromise in speed between a full backup (which takes the longest to backup and the least to restore) and an incremental backup (which takes the least to backup and the longest to restore). An incremental backup only creates a copy of new files and files modified since the last full, incremental, or differential backup. Therefore, it takes the least amount of time to complete a backup. Unfortunately, it also takes the most time to restore since you have to first restore the full backup, then any differential and incremental backups until all your data is restored. Synthetic backup is the process of generating a file from a complete copy of a file created at some past time and one or more incremental copies created at later times. The expression synthetic in this context refers to the fact that the assembled file is not a direct copy of any single current or previously created file. Instead, a synthetic file is merged or synthesized by a specialized application program from the original file and one or more modifications to it. OBJ-4.3: A full backup creates a copy of all the selected data regardless of when it was previously backed up. It takes the most time to complete a backup but is the fastest when conducting a restoral of all the data on a hard drive.A differential backup only creates a copy of the selected data that has been modified since the last full backup. It is a good compromise in speed between a full backup (which takes the longest to backup and the least to restore) and an incremental backup (which takes the least to backup and the longest to restore). An incremental backup only creates a copy of new files and files modified since the last full, incremental, or differential backup. Therefore, it takes the least amount of time to complete a backup. Unfortunately, it also takes the most time to restore since you have to first restore the full backup, then any differential and incremental backups until all your data is restored. Synthetic backup is the process of generating a file from a complete copy of a file created at some past time and one or more incremental copies created at later times. The expression synthetic in this context refers to the fact that the assembled file is not a direct copy of any single current or previously created file. Instead, a synthetic file is merged or synthesized by a specialized application program from the original file and one or more modifications to it. OBJ-4.3: A full backup creates a copy of all the selected data regardless of when it was previously backed up. It takes the most time to complete a backup but is the fastest when conducting a restoral of all the data on a hard drive.A differential backup only creates a copy of the selected data that has been modified since the last full backup. It is a good compromise in speed between a full backup (which takes the longest to backup and the least to restore) and an incremental backup (which takes the least to backup and the longest to restore). An incremental backup only creates a copy of new files and files modified since the last full, incremental, or differential backup. Therefore, it takes the least amount of time to complete a backup. Unfortunately, it also takes the most time to restore since you have to first restore the full backup, then any differential and incremental backups until all your data is restored. Synthetic backup is the process of generating a file from a complete copy of a file created at some past time and one or more incremental copies created at later times. The expression synthetic in this context refers to the fact that the assembled file is not a direct copy of any single current or previously created file. Instead, a synthetic file is merged or synthesized by a specialized application program from the original file and one or more modifications to it. OBJ-4.3: A full backup creates a copy of all the selected data regardless of when it was previously backed up. It takes the most time to complete a backup but is the fastest when conducting a restoral of all the data on a hard drive.A differential backup only creates a copy of the selected data that has been modified since the last full backup. It is a good compromise in speed between a full backup (which takes the longest to backup and the least to restore) and an incremental backup (which takes the least to backup and the longest to restore). An incremental backup only creates a copy of new files and files modified since the last full, incremental, or differential backup. Therefore, it takes the least amount of time to complete a backup. Unfortunately, it also takes the most time to restore since you have to first restore the full backup, then any differential and incremental backups until all your data is restored. Synthetic backup is the process of generating a file from a complete copy of a file created at some past time and one or more incremental copies created at later times. The expression synthetic in this context refers to the fact that the assembled file is not a direct copy of any single current or previously created file. Instead, a synthetic file is merged or synthesized by a specialized application program from the original file and one or more modifications to it. |
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A file currently has permissions of 755. Which of the following commands would change file permission to r-xr--r--? |
chmod 544 filename
OBJ-1.11: The chmod command is used to change a file or directory's permissions from the command line or terminal. A technician can either use u+ to add user permission and g+ to add group permissions, or they can use the octal value. In this case, the octal value of r-wr--r-- is 544. In Linux, you can convert letter permissions to octal by giving 4 for each R, 2 for each W, and 1 for each X. R is for read-only, W is for write, and X is for execute. The permissions strings are written to represent the owner’s permissions, the group’s permissions, and the other user’s permissions. |
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Which of the following tools should a technician use to modify the HOSTS file on a Windows 10 system to solve a website address resolution issue? |
Notepad OBJ-3.2: Browser redirection usually occurs if the browser's proxy is modified or the hosts.ini file is modified. If the redirection occurs only for a small number of sites or occurs in all web browsers on a system, it is most likely a maliciously modified hosts.ini file. The hosts.ini file is a local text file that allows a user to specify specific domain names to map to particular addresses. It can be edited using any basic text editor, such as notepad. It works as an elementary DNS server and can redirect a system's internet connection. For example, if your children are overusing YouTube, you can change YouTube.com to resolve to YourSchool.edu for just your child's laptop. |
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Samantha works in the human resource department in an open floorplan office. She is concerned about the possibility of someone conducting shoulder surfing to read sensitive information from employee files while accessing them on her computer. Which of the following physical security measures should she implement to protect against this threat? |
Privacy screen OBJ-2.1: A privacy screen is a filter placed on a monitor to decrease the viewing angle of a monitor. This prevents the monitor from being viewed from the side and can help prevent shoulder surfing. The standard type of anti-glare filter consists of a coating that reduces the reflection from a glass or plastic surface. |
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Jason has built a custom Android application that he wants to install on an Android tablet without having to install it through the Play Store. Which of the following would be required to allow him to install the app's APK on the device? |
Sideloading OBJ-3.5: An android application package (APK) is a third-party or custom program that is installed directly on an Android device to give users and business the flexibility to install apps directly on Android devices. Android supports sideloading through the APK package format. An APK file contains all of that program's code, including .dex files, resources, assets, certificates, and manifest files. |
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What is the minimum processor required to install Windows 10 (x64) on a device? |
1 GHz single-core processor
OBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space. |
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Which of the following IP addresses is considered an APIPA address? |
169.254.125.154 OBJ-1.6: Private IP addresses are any addresses in a specified range that are not allowed to be routed over the Internet. This allows companies to use these private IP addresses in their local area networks without having to purchase them from an internet registry. The class A private IP address range contains the addresses from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255.255. The class B private IP address range contains the addresses from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. The class C private IP address range contains the addresses from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255. The APIPA/link-local autoconfiguration range is from 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255. |
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Which of the following types of encryption uses a 128-bit encryption key but is considered weak due to its use of a 24-bit initialization vector? |
WEP OBJ-2.2: Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wi-Fi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme. Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption. The Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users push a button on the access point and connect adapters to associate them securely. WPS is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them, making them vulnerable to attack. |
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Which of the following commands is used on a Linux system to convert and copy files from one hard disk to another? |
dd
OBJ-1.11: The dd command is used to convert and copy files. On Unix and Unix-like operating systems like Linux, almost everything is treated as a file, even block devices like a hard disk drive. This makes dd useful to clone disks or wipe data from a drive. |
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A workstation at Dion Training's office is taking a long time to boot up. Once it finishes booting to the Windows 10 desktop, which of the following tools can a technician use to diagnose and fix the boot issues? |
msconfig.exe OBJ-1.3: System configuration (msconfig.exe) is a system utility to troubleshoot the Microsoft Windows startup processes. MSConfig is used to disable or re-enable software, device drivers, and Windows services that run at startup, or to change boot parameters. |
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A workstation at Dion Training's office is taking a long time to boot up. Once it finishes booting to the Windows 10 desktop, which of the following tools can a technician use to diagnose and fix the boot issues? |
OBJ-1.3: System configuration (msconfig.exe) is a system utility to troubleshoot the Microsoft Windows startup processes. MSConfig is used to disable or re-enable software, device drivers, and Windows services that run at startup, or to change boot parameters.
PerfMon is a performance monitoring and system monitoring utility in Windows that is used to monitor the activities on CPU and memory activity on a computer. Performance monitor is used for viewing performance data either in real-time or from a log file. The performance monitor can only monitor the resource utilization, but it cannot manage or terminate those processes. Resource monitor is a utility used to display information about the use of hardware (CPU, memory, disk, and network) and software (file handles and modules) resources in real-time. The resource monitor helps check the performance counters of specific resources and decide a course of action to improve the performance. System information (msinfo32.exe) is a utility that gathers information about your computer and displays a comprehensive list of hardware, system components, and the software environment that can be used to diagnose computer issues. |
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Which of the following tools is used to duplicate all of the files in one directory to another in the Windows command line? |
xcopy OBJ-1.2: The xcopy tool copies all of the files from one directory to another. The format command creates a new root directory and file system for the disk. It can check for bad areas on the disk, and it can delete all data on the disk. To use a new disk, you must first use the format command to format the disk. The dir command is used to list a directory's files and subdirectories. If used without parameters, this command displays the disk's volume label and serial number, followed by a list of directories and files on the disk (including their names and the date and time each was last modified). The netstat command is used to display active TCP connections, ports on which the computer is listening, Ethernet statistics, the IP routing table, IPv4 statistics, and IPv6 statistics on a Windows machine. |
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Sally was checking her email when she noticed that she has several automated replies from emails she doesn't remember sending. What type of attack was Sally MOST likely the victim of? |
Hijacked email OBJ-3.2: Sally is MOST likely the victim of hijacked email. Hijacked email occurs when someone takes over your email account and sends out messages on your behalf. Hijacked emails can trigger automated replies indicating that the intended recipient's messages were rejected or that the recipient was out of the office. These "bounce back" emails indicate to the victim that they have lost control of their email account. Phishing is an email-based social engineering attack in which the attacker sends an email from a supposedly reputable source, such as a bank, to try to elicit private information from the victim. Phishing attacks target an indiscriminate large group of random people. Spear phishing is the fraudulent practice of sending emails from a seemingly known or trusted sender to induce targeted individuals to reveal confidential information. Vishing is a social-engineering attack where the attacker extracts information while speaking over the phone or leveraging IP-based voice messaging services (VoIP). |
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Which of the following file types are commonly used by scripts in a Linux command line environment? |
.sh OBJ-4.8: A shell script is a file that contains a list of commands to be read and executed by the shell in Linux and macOS. A .sh file is used for a shell script and its first line always begins with #!/bin/bash that designates the interpreter. This line instructs the operating system to execute the script. Shell scripts allow you to perform various functions. These functions include automation of commands and tasks of system administration and troubleshooting, creating simple applications, and manipulating text or files. VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. Network administrators often use VBScript to perform repetitive administrative tasks. With VBScript, you can run your scripts from either the command-line or the Windows graphical interface. Scripts that you write must be run within a host environment. Windows 10 provides Internet Explorer, IIS, and Windows Script Host (WSH) for this purpose. Windows PowerShell enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 7 and later. It is fully integrated with the operating system and supports both remote execution and scripting. Microsoft provides the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) to help create and manage your Windows PowerShell scripts. If you want to save a series of PowerShell commands in a file to rerun them later, you effectively create a PowerShell script by creating a text file with a .ps1 extension. The file can contain a series of PowerShell commands, with each command appearing on a separate line. JavaScript is a scripting language that is designed to create interactive web-based content and web apps. The scripts are executed automatically by placing the script in the HTML code for a web page so that when the HTML code for the page loads, the script is run. JavaScript is stored in a .js file or as part of an HTML file. |
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You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue and need to determine the packet's flow path from your system to the remote server. Which of the following tools would best help you identify the path between the two systems? |
Tracert
OBJ-1.2: The tracert (trace route) diagnostic utility determines the route to a destination by sending Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo packets to the destination. In these packets, tracert uses varying IP Time-To-Live (TTL) values. When the TTL on a packet reaches zero (0), the router sends an ICMP "Time Exceeded" message back to the source computer. The ICMP "Time Exceeded" messages that intermediate routers send back show the route.
The ipconfig tool displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values on a given system. The netstat tool is a command-line network utility that displays network connections for Transmission Control Protocol, routing tables, and some network interface and network protocol statistics on a single system. The nbtstat command is a diagnostic tool for NetBIOS over TCP/IP used to troubleshoot NetBIOS name resolution problems. |
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What does the command "shutdown /s" do on a Windows workstation? |
OBJ-1.2: The shutdown command allows a user or administrator to shut down or restart local or remote computers, one at a time. Using the /r option will reboot the computer. Using the /s option will shut down the computer. Using the /l option will log off the current user. Using the /h option will enter sleep or hibernation mode. |
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A system administrator is assigned an approved change request with a change window of 120 minutes. After 90 minutes, the change is stuck on step five of a five-step change. The server manager decides to initiate a rollback. Which describes what the system administrator should do next? |
Return the system to the original state before the change OBJ-4.2: By performing a rollback, the administrator will change everything back to the last known good configuration before the change is started. Every change should be accompanied by a rollback (or backout) plan so that the change can be reversed if it has harmful or unforeseen consequences. Changes should also be scheduled sensitively if they are likely to cause system downtime or other negative impacts on the workflow of the business units that depend on the IT system being modified. Most organizations have a scheduled maintenance window period for authorized downtime. |
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Malware infected Natalie's iMac. The malware has deleted numerous files from the system and corrupted the operating system. Natalie needs to access some of her files from the computer that have been deleted by the malware. Which of the following built-in utilities could restore access to those files? |
Time Machine
OBJ-1.10: Time Machine is the built-in backup feature of the macOS operating system. Time Machine automatically backs up all of the system's files, including apps, music, photos, email, documents, and system files. Once a user has a valid backup in Time Machine, they can restore files from the backup if the original files are ever corrupted or deleted on their Mac or if the hard disk (or SSD) is erased or replaced.
A snapshot is used to backup virtual machines by creating a state of the disk at a particular point in time. Snapshots allow a technician to roll back any changes made to a VM during a session if needed. System restore is a Windows feature that creates configuration backups of the operating system. If there are any changes or file corruptions that damage the information in the registry or if the technician needs to reverse changes made when they installed an application or device driver, then System restore can be used to reset the configuration to an earlier point in time. Keychain is a macOS app for managing passwords cached by the OS and supported browser/web applications. |
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Which attack utilizes a wireless access point made to look as if it belongs to the network by mimicking the corporate network's SSID to eavesdrop on the wireless traffic? |
Evil twin
OBJ-2.4: An evil twin is meant to mimic a legitimate hotspot provided by a nearby business, such as a coffee shop that provides free Wi-Fi access to its patrons. An evil twin is a type of rogue wireless access point that masquerades as a legitimate Wi-Fi access point so that an attacker can gather personal or corporate information without the user's knowledge. This type of attack may be used to steal the passwords of unsuspecting users by monitoring their connections or phishing, which involves setting up a fraudulent website and luring people there.
A rogue access point is an access point installed on a network without the network owner's permission. For example, if an employee connected a wireless access point to a wall jack in their office so that they can use their smartphone or tablet, this would be considered a rogue access point. Therefore, an evil twin is the better answer to this question since it is specifically being made to look like it belongs on the network by mimicking the SSID of the corporate network. A WEP attack is a brute force password attack conducted against a wireless network that relies on WEP for its encryption and security. Shoulder surfing is a type of social engineering technique used to obtain information such as personal identification numbers, passwords, and other confidential data by looking over the victim's shoulder. |
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A user contacts the help desk and complains they are getting an error when they attempt to open a 4 GB .dmg file on their Windows 10 workstation. Which of the following should you tell them? |
"You need to use macOS to open DMG files" OBJ-3.2: A .dmg file is a disk image file on a macOS computer. These file types normally are used to download and install applications for macOS. Essentially, a .dmg file on a macOS computer is like a .iso file on a Windows computer. Windows cannot open .dmg files without using special software tools. |
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Which of the following contains virtual memory that can supplement the physical system memory in a Linux system? |
Swap partition
OBJ-1.8: The swap partition on a Linux system is a portion of the hard disk formatted with a minimal kind of file system and used in situations when the operating system runs out of physical memory and needs more of it. It can only be used by the memory manager and not for the storage of ordinary data files.
The third extended filesystem (ext3) is a journaled file system commonly used by the Linux kernel. The ext3 file system can support a maximum volume size of up to 32 TB. The fourth extended filesystem (ext4) is a journaled file system that is used natively by modern Linux operating systems such as Debian and Ubuntu. The ext4 file system can support a maximum volume size of up to 1 EB. The network file system (NFS) is used to mount remote storage devices into the local file system on a Linux system. It allows you to mount your local file systems over a network and remote hosts to interact with them while mounted locally on the same system. |
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You are working as a defense contractor for the U.S. Army. The Army is looking to purchase Microsoft Office for all of its employees to use. Which of the following licenses would be BEST for this sized organization to purchase? |
Enterprise OBJ-4.6: An enterprise license is like a business license, but for an unlimited number of users and is designed for large corporate and government networks. A business license is the standard licensing option for organizations and business entities. With Microsoft, a company can purchase anywhere from 1 to 300 user licenses under the business license program. A Personal license is an option for private individuals who purchase a license with their own funds and solely for their own use. Personal licenses are not to be purchased, refunded, or in any way financed by companies. Open source is software that also makes the program code used to design it available. Generally, open-source software is free to use and distribute, but you may need to pay for ongoing support if you have technical issues. The idea is that other programmers can investigate the program and make it more stable and useful. An open-source license does not forbid commercial use of applications derived from the original, but it is likely to impose the same conditions on further redistributions. |
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You are troubleshooting a network printer when a document is printed with sensitive employee data on it. Which of the following actions should you take? |
Take the document to the office manager OBJ-4.7: The document contains sensitive employee information; therefore, you should not leave it on the printer. Instead, it would be best if you took it to the office manager so they can deliver it to the owner or they can securely dispose of it. |
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Your company has just installed a brand new email server, but you determined that the server cannot send emails to another server during your initial testing. You decide to check the firewall's ACL to see if the server's outgoing email is being blocked. Which of the following ports should you ensure is open and not blocked by the firewall? |
25 OBJ-2.1: The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 25 and is an internet standard communication protocol for electronic mail transmission. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) uses port 143 and is an Internet standard protocol used by email clients to retrieve email messages from a mail server over a TCP/IP connection. Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) uses port 110 and is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a mail server. Secure Shell (SSH) uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the Internet for remote access to a server or system. |
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You are working at the Dion Training headquarters in Puerto Rico. The island just suffered a power outage due to a hurricane. The server room in the headquarters has power, but the rest of the office does not. You verify that the diesel generator is running at full electrical load capacity. Which of the following solutions should you recommend to Dion Training to allow them to continue working during a long-term power outage? |
Increase the capacity of their backup generator to support a larger load
OBJ-4.5: When a hurricane causes a power outage on an island, it can be hours, days, or even months before the power is fully restored. Since the Dion Training headquarters is located in Puerto Rico, they should have a large capacity diesel generator to power their entire office during a long-term power outage. After Hurricane Maria in 2017, some parts of Puerto Rico went without grid power for nine-month. We have multiple redundant and high-capacity power sources at the Dion Training offices to ensure we can remain online and work even without any grid power available. |
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A network technician is tasked with designing a firewall to improve security for an existing FTP server on the company network. The FTP server must be accessible from the Internet. The security team is concerned that the FTP server could be compromised and used to attack the domain controller hosted within the company's internal network. What is the BEST way to mitigate this risk? |
Migrate the FTP server from the internal network to a screened subnet OBJ-2.9: A screened subnet (formerly called a demilitarized zone or DMZ) is a perimeter network that protects an organization's internal local area network (LAN) from untrusted traffic. A screened subnet is placed between the public internet and private networks. Public servers, such as the FTP server, should be installed in a screened subnet so that additional security mitigations like a web application firewall or application-aware firewall can be used to protect them. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) is a file transfer protocol that leverages a set of utilities that provide secure access to a remote computer to deliver secure communications by leveraging a secure shell (SSH) connection to encrypt the communication between the client and the server. This will prevent an attacker from eavesdropping on the communications between the SFTP server and a client, but it will not prevent an attacker from exploiting the SFTP server itself. An implicit deny is when a user or group is not granted specific permission in the security settings of an object, but they are not explicitly denied either. This is a best practice to enable, but the FTP server would still have some open ports, such as ports 20 and 21, to operate. These ports could then be used by the attacker to connect to the FTP server and exploit it. Adding a deny rule to the firewall's ACL that blocks port 21 outbound would simply prevent internal network users and servers from accessing external FTP servers. This would in no way prevent the exploitation of the company's FTP server since it has port 21 open and listening for inbound connections. |
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Which of the following Windows tools can a technician use to display information about the performance of hardware and software resources in real-time? |
resmon.exe
OBJ-1.3: Resource monitor (resmon.exe) is a utility used to display information about the use of hardware (CPU, memory, disk, and network) and software (file handles and modules) resources in real-time. The resource monitor helps check the performance counters of specific resources and decide a course of action to improve the performance.
System information (msinfo32.exe) is a utility that gathers information about your computer and displays a comprehensive list of hardware, system components, and the software environment that can be used to diagnose computer issues. The DirectX diagnostic (dxdiag.exe) utility is used to collect info about devices to help troubleshoot problems with DirectX sound and video. It is a diagnostics tool used to test DirectX functionality and troubleshoot video-related or sound-related hardware problems. DirectX diagnostic can save text files with the scan results. Device manager (devmgmt.msc) is a utility used to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. The device manager will highlight a piece of hardware that is not working so that a technician can repair or replace it. |
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Your company has just finished replacing all of its computers with brand new workstations. Colleen, one of your coworkers, has asked the company's owner if she can have the old computers that are about to be thrown away. Colleen would like to refurbish the old computers by reinstalling a new operating system and donating them to a local community center for disadvantaged children in the neighborhood. The owner thinks this is a great idea but is concerned that the private and sensitive corporate data on the old computer’s hard drives might be placed at risk of exposure. You have been asked to choose the best solution to sanitize or destroy the data while ensuring the computers will still be usable by the community center. What type of data destruction or sanitization method do you recommend? |
Wiping OBJ-2.8: Data wiping or clearing occurs by using a software tool to overwrite the data on a hard drive to destroy all electronic data on a hard disk or other media. Data wiping may be performed with a 1x, 7x, or 35x overwriting, with a higher number of times being more secure. This allows the hard drive to remain functional and allows for hardware reuse. Degaussing a hard drive involves demagnetizing a hard drive to erase its stored data. You cannot reuse a hard drive once it has been degaussed. Therefore, it is a bad solution for this scenario. Purging involves removing sensitive data from a hard drive using the device's internal electronics or an outside source such as a degausser, or by using a cryptographic erase function if the drive supports one. Shredding involves the physical destruction of the hard drive. This is a secure method of destruction but doesn’t allow for device reuse. |
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What type of structure is "IF THEN ELSE" in scripting? |
Branch OBJ-4.8: A branch is used to control the flow within a computer program or script, usually based on some logic condition. Often, these are implemented with IF THEN ELSE statements. A variable is a placeholder in a script containing a number, character, or string of characters. Variables in scripts do not have to be declared (unlike in programming languages) but can be assigned a value. Then, the variable name is referenced throughout the script instead of the value itself. A loop deviates from the initial program path to some sort of logic condition. In a loop, the computer repeats the task until a condition is met. Often implemented with For or While statements. For example, a short script like (For i=1 to 100, print I, next) would print the numbers from 1 to 100 to the screen. A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, the value to convert a number from F to C is always 5/9 because the formula is C = (F -32) * 5/9. |
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A small doctor's office has asked you to configure their network to use the highest levels of wireless security and desktop authentication. The office only uses cloud-based SaaS applications to store their patient's sensitive data. Which TWO of the following protocols or authentication methods should you implement for the BEST security? |
WPA2 and Multifactor OBJ-2.2: Since everything is being stored within a cloud-based SaaS application, the doctor's office needs to ensure their network connection uses the highest encryption level (WPA2), and their desktop authentication should use a multifactor authentication system. Multifactor authentication relies on using at least 2 of the following factors: something you know (password or pin), something you have (smart card or key fob), something you are (fingerprint or retinal scan), or something you do (draw a pattern or how you sign your name). Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption. Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. The Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a mechanism for auto-configuring a WLAN securely for home users. On compatible equipment, users push a button on the access point and connect adapters to associate them securely. WPS is subject to brute force attacks against the PIN used to secure them, making them vulnerable to attack. The Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructure. Users supply authentication information to RADIUS client devices, such as wireless access points. The client device then passes the authentication data to an AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) server that processes the request. Single sign-on (SSO) is a type of mutual authentication for multiple services that can accept the credential from one domain or service as authentication for other services. |
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Which of the following is used to communicate data and preferences to child processes within a script or batch file? |
Environmental variables OBJ-4.8: Shell scripts and batch files use environment variables to communicate data and preferences to child processes. They can also be used to store temporary values for reference later in a shell script. A variable is a placeholder in a script containing a number, character, or string of characters. Variables in scripts do not have to be declared (unlike in programming languages) but can be assigned a value. Then, the variable name is referenced throughout the script instead of the value itself. A comment is written into the code to help a human understand the initial programmer's logic. In Python, for example, you can use the # symbol to comment on a line of code. Anything on the line after the # is ignored by the computer when the script is being executed. A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, the value to convert a number from F to C is always 5/9 because the formula is C = (F -32) * 5/9. |
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A cybersecurity analyst is applying for a new job with a penetration testing firm. He received the job application as a secured Adobe PDF file, but unfortunately, the firm locked the file with a password so the potential employee could not fill in the application. Instead of asking for an unlocked copy of the document, the analyst decides to write a script in Python to attempt to unlock the PDF file by using passwords from a list of commonly used passwords until he can find the correct password or attempts every password in his list. Based on this description, what kind of cryptographic attack did the analyst perform? |
Dictionary attack OBJ-2.4: A dictionary attack is a technique for defeating a cipher or authentication mechanism by trying to determine its decryption key or passphrase by trying hundreds or sometimes millions of likely possibilities, such as words in a dictionary. The key to answering this question is that they were using passwords from a list. A brute-force attack consists of an attacker submitting many passwords or passphrases with the hope of eventually guessing correctly. A session hijacking attack compromises the session token by stealing or predicting a valid session token to gain unauthorized access to the webserver. An on-path attack is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe that they are directly communicating with each other. A brute-force attack consists of an attacker submitting many passwords or passphrases with the hope of eventually guessing correctly. A session hijacking attack compromises the session token by stealing or predicting a valid session token to gain unauthorized access to the webserver. An on-path attack is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe that they are directly communicating with each other. |
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Your smartphone's battery has been draining quickly. You have looked at the applications that are causing the drain and notice that a free game runs in the background, collecting GPS data even when you aren't using it. Which of the following threats is this an example of? |
Unauthorized location tracking OBJ-3.4: While location-based data can be valuable when using maps and trying to find sites, it can also give away sensitive information if accessed by someone who should not have it. You can optimize your battery life and protect yourself by turning off Location Services. On an iPhone, turn it off in Settings > Privacy > Location Services. There you will see each app listed along with its permission setting. Apps that recently used location services have an indicator next to the on/off switch, and you can configure them accordingly. Unauthorized account access can give users access to personal files and data they should not have access to. Therefore, you should closely monitor your account usage. When files are accessed without authorization from your cloud storage service, it can lead to the leaking of your personal files and data. The microphone can be activated remotely and allow a troublemaker to spy on you. It is suggested that, when not in authorized use, you cover the microphone of your device to keep them from providing any data if remotely accessed. When anonymous devices are allowed to connect to Bluetooth-enabled devices, this is known as unintended Bluetooth pairing, and it represents a security threat. Mobile security policies should be created and enforced that prevent this from occurring. |
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Which command is used to create a new disk partition on a Windows system? |
diskpart
OBJ-1.2: The diskpart command is a command-line disk-partitioning utility available for Windows that is used to view, create, delete, and modify a computer's disk partitions.
The chkdsk command is used to check the file system and file system metadata of a volume for logical and physical errors. If used without parameters, chkdsk displays only the status of the volume and does not fix any errors. If used with the /f, /r, /x, or /b parameters, it fixes errors on the volume. The format command creates a new root directory and file system for the disk. It can check for bad areas on the disk, and it can delete all data on the disk. To use a new disk, you must first use the format command to format the disk. The dd command is a Linux utility that is used to copy and convert raw data from one source to another such as a hard disk to an image file. |
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Which of the following options in Windows 10 would create a small hibernation file saved on the storage device before shutting down the computer so that it reduces the time to boot up when powered on? |
Fast startup OBJ-1.4: Fast startup is a mode in between a full shutdown and a hibernation mode. With a fast startup, the computer will log out of the computer close all of its open files when being shut down. Before the system powers off, though, a small hibernation file is created to help speed up the bootup process when the computer is powered on again. The USB selective suspend feature allows the hub driver to suspend an individual port without affecting the operation of the other ports on the hub. Selective suspension of USB devices is helpful when using a laptop computer as it helps to conserve battery power by powering off USB ports that are not needed at the time. Sleep or standby mode is used to save the current session to memory and put the computer into a minimal power state to save battery life when the system is not being used. The computer takes less time to start up again from the sleep or standby mode than it does from the hibernate mode. A lock will secure the desktop with a password while leaving programs running. |
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You are helping to set up a backup plan for your organization. The current plan states that all of the organization's Linux servers must have a daily backup conducted. These backups are then saved to a local NAS device. You have been asked to recommend a method to ensure the backups will work when needed for restoration. Which of the following should you recommend? |
Attempt to restore to a test server from one of the backup files to verify them OBJ-4.3: The only way to fully ensure that a backup will work when needed is to restore the files from the backups. To do that, it is best to restore them to a test server since this will not affect your production environment. |
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Which of the following policies or plans would dictate the complexity requirements for a wireless network's shared secret key? |
Password policy
OBJ-2.6: A password policy is a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create dependable, secure passwords and then store and utilize them properly. This document promotes strong passwords by specifying a minimum password length, complexity requirements, requiring periodic password changes, and placing limits on the reuse of passwords. An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict how the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used. A data loss prevention policy is a document that defines how organizations can share and protect data. It guides how data can be used in decision-making without it being exposed to anyone who should not have access to it. The goal of a data loss prevention policy is to minimize accidental or malicious data loss. A remote access policy is a document that outlines and defines acceptable methods of remotely connecting to the internal network. |
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You are working as a mobile device technician for a large corporation's enterprise service desk. A user complains that every time they attempt to launch the company's mobile email application, it crashes and displays an error message of Code123. This is the third user with this error on an Android (model DTA) smartphone. The same app is working on your smartphone, but it is a model DTX. Which of the following should you do FIRST to attempt to solve this problem? |
Update the smartphone sOS OBJ-3.4: Normally, your first step would be to uninstall and reinstall the application. But, since this issue is occurring on multiple devices with the same model, it would be a better first step to update the smartphone's OS. Based on the scenario, you know that the app works on a different smartphone model. With Android devices, the OS is usually modified by the smartphone manufacturer, specifically for their devices. If the app doesn't work on one model, but it does on another, it may be an operating system issue. |
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What is the BEST way to update an app purchased from the Mac App Store on a Macbook? |
Open the Mac App Store and select the Updates button
OBJ-1.10: You can open the Mac App Store and click the Updates button to see any applications that require a software update. This will work for all macOS software, built-in apps like Safari, and third-party apps downloaded from the App Store. You can use the Software Update tool in the System Preferences area of your system to update these apps. The apt-get utility is a powerful package management command-line program that works with Ubuntu’s APT (Advanced Packaging Tool) library to install new software packages, remove existing software packages, upgrade existing software packages, and even upgrade the entire operating system. The apt-get utility works with Ubuntu and Debian-based Linux distributions. |
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Which of the following security controls provides Windows system administrators with an efficient way to deploy system configuration settings across many devices? |
GPO OBJ-2.1: Microsoft's Group Policy Object (GPO) is a collection of Group Policy settings that defines what a system will look like and how it will behave for a defined group of users. A Group Policy is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization. In an active directory environment, Group Policy is applied to users or computers based on their membership in sites, domains, or organizational units. A host-based intrusion detection system (HIDS) is a device or software application that monitors a system for malicious activity or policy violations. Any malicious activity or violation is typically reported to an administrator or collected centrally using a security information and event management system. Anti-malware software is a program that scans a device or network for known viruses, Trojans, worms, and other malicious software. Patch management is the process of distributing and applying updates to the software to prevent vulnerabilities from being exploited by an attacker or malware. Proper patch management is a technical control that would prevent future outbreaks. |
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Dion Training will be hiring 10 college students as interns to work over the summer. Each year, the same interns will work for the company for 8 weeks, but then they will return to school. Next summer, they will return to the company and will need to reaccess their accounts. What is the BEST policy to use so that the interns can use the accounts during the summer but cannot log in during the school year? |
Disable the user accounts at the end of each summer
OBJ-2.6: If the accounts are disabled at the end of the summer, the interns will be unable to log in again until their accounts are enabled again when they return next summer. This is the best method since deleting the accounts would require the interns to get new accounts each summer, and they would lose all their data and configurations. |
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Which of the following security controls provides Windows system administrators with an efficient way to deploy system configuration settings across many devices? |
GPO OBJ-2.1: Microsoft's Group Policy Object (GPO) is a collection of Group Policy settings that defines what a system will look like and how it will behave for a defined group of users. A Group Policy is the primary administrative tool for defining and controlling how programs, network resources, and the operating system operate for users and computers in an organization. In an active directory environment, Group Policy is applied to users or computers based on their membership in sites, domains, or organizational units. |
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Dion Training will be hiring 10 college students as interns to work over the summer. Each year, the same interns will work for the company for 8 weeks, but then they will return to school. Next summer, they will return to the company and will need to reaccess their accounts. What is the BEST policy to use so that the interns can use the accounts during the summer but cannot log in during the school year? |
Disable the user accounts at the end of each summer OBJ-2.6: If the accounts are disabled at the end of the summer, the interns will be unable to log in again until their accounts are enabled again when they return next summer. This is the best method since deleting the accounts would require the interns to get new accounts each summer, and they would lose all their data and configurations. |
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Gina just installed a 4 TB HDD into her Windows 10 computer and wants to assign the drive letter "M" to store her media files. Which type of partition should Gina use if she wants to mount the drive as a single partition? |
GPTOBJ-1.1: GPT is a newer way to partition disks that allows partition sizes over the 2 TB limit imposed by MBR. The GUID partition table (GPT) is a modern disk partitioning system allowing large numbers of partitions and very large partition sizes. The GPT is used in modern computers that support the UEFI standard and can support a maximum capacity of up to 9.7 ZB and up to 128 partitions. GPTOBJ-1.1: GPT is a newer way to partition disks that allows partition sizes over the 2 TB limit imposed by MBR. The GUID partition table (GPT) is a modern disk partitioning system allowing large numbers of partitions and very large partition sizes. The GPT is used in modern computers that support the UEFI standard and can support a maximum capacity of up to 9.7 ZB and up to 128 partitions. GPTOBJ-1.1: GPT is a newer way to partition disks that allows partition sizes over the 2 TB limit imposed by MBR. The GUID partition table (GPT) is a modern disk partitioning system allowing large numbers of partitions and very large partition sizes. The GPT is used in modern computers that support the UEFI standard and can support a maximum capacity of up to 9.7 ZB and up to 128 partitions. |
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Which of the following encryption types was used by WPA to better secure wireless networks than WEP? |
TKIP OBJ-2.2: Wi-Fi protected access (WPA) is an improved encryption scheme for protecting Wi-Fi communications designed to replace WEP. WPA uses the RC4 cipher and a temporal key integrity protocol (TKIP) to overcome the vulnerabilities in the older WEP protection scheme. Wired equivalent privacy (WEP) is an older mechanism for encrypting data sent over a wireless connection. WEP is considered vulnerable to attacks that can break its encryption. WEP relies on the use of a 24-bit initialization vector to secure its preshared key. Wi-Fi protected access version 2 (WPA2) replaced the original version of WPA after the completion of the 802.11i security standard. WPA2 features an improved method of key distribution and authentication for enterprise networks, though the pre-shared key method is still available for home and small office networks. WPA2 uses the improved AES cipher with counter mode with cipher-block chaining message authentication protocol (CCMP) for encryption. |
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Which command-line tool could you use on a Windows system to enable an inactive administrator account? |
Net user
OBJ-1.2: There are several net command utilities that you can use to view and configure shared resources on a Windows network. The net user command allows system administrators to manage user accounts on Windows PCs. You can use the command to display account information or make changes to user accounts. It can be used, among other things, to enable the inactive administrator account of a Windows system. The robocopy tool is used to mirror or synchronize directories and their contents. |
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Dion Training wants to upgrade its employees’ workstations from Windows 10 to Windows 11. All of the employees’ data and files are saved to the company’s shared drive. The technician has been told to choose an installation type that will delete all of the existing data, settings, and applications on the workstations during the upgrade. Which of the following types of upgrades or installations should you perform on the workstations? |
Clean installOBJ-1.9: A clean install is an installation of the new operating system on a new computer or a computer that has been recently formatted. A clean install will completely replace the operating system software on the computer with the new operating system. During a clean install, all of the user’s data, settings, and applications will be deleted. Clean installOBJ-1.9: A clean install is an installation of the new operating system on a new computer or a computer that has been recently formatted. A clean install will completely replace the operating system software on the computer with the new operating system. During a clean install, all of the user’s data, settings, and applications will be deleted. Clean installOBJ-1.9: A clean install is an installation of the new operating system on a new computer or a computer that has been recently formatted. A clean install will completely replace the operating system software on the computer with the new operating system. During a clean install, all of the user’s data, settings, and applications will be deleted. |
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Dion Training has configured Windows Defender Firewall on all of its corporate Windows 10 workstations. When connected to a private network, the firewall has been configured to only allow inbound connections that match an existing rule and to only allow outbound connections that do not match any existing rules. What type of security posture has Dion Training implemented? |
Explicit allow for inbound, implicit allow for outbound OBJ-1.4: The Windows Defender Firewall is a software-based firewall that is installed by default on Windows workstations. The Windows Defender firewall is used to prevent hackers and malicious software from gaining access to the workstation over the Internet or the local area network. Explicit allow refers to a security posture where the system will only allow an item to traverse the firewall if the traffic matches an existing rule. Implicit allow refers to a security posture where the system will allow all traffic to traverse the firewall unless there is a specific rule to prevent it. |
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Joanne is having a drink at the coffee shop near her office. She takes out her Windows 10 laptop and connects it to the coffee shop’s wireless network to check her email. Which type of network should she select to hide their computer from other devices on the network and prevent file sharing with other patrons of the coffee shop? |
Public OBJ-1.6: Joanne should select the public network type when connecting to this coffee shop's wireless network. The Network and Sharing Center in the Control Panel allows a technician to see information and modify the configuration settings of the network adapters in the workstation. The Network and Sharing Center is used to connect to a network using broadband, dial-up, or VPN connection, or add/remove file and printer sharing over the network on the workstation. When connecting to a network for the first time, the user must select if it is a public or private network. A public network will hide your computer from other devices on the network and prevent file and printer sharing. A private network is considered trusted, allows the computer to be discoverable to other devices on the network, and supports the use of file and printer sharing. In older versions of Windows, there were also Home and Work network types, but those have since been merged into public and private network types, as well. |
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A customer is complaining that there is are intermittent problems with their PC. As a technician, you don't know exactly what the errors are, so which tool should you use to determine what errors have previously occurred? |
Event ViewerOBJ-1.3: You should use the Event Viewer to read the log entries within Windows to determine what errors have occurred in the past. Logs are a treasure trove of information on any workstation or server. The event viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It's a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows problems. If you use the Event Viewer, you can identify what was occurring at or around 2:35 am each day before the server crashed and use this to troubleshoot the problem. Event ViewerOBJ-1.3: You should use the Event Viewer to read the log entries within Windows to determine what errors have occurred in the past. Logs are a treasure trove of information on any workstation or server. The event viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It's a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows problems. If you use the Event Viewer, you can identify what was occurring at or around 2:35 am each day before the server crashed and use this to troubleshoot the problem. Event ViewerOBJ-1.3: You should use the Event Viewer to read the log entries within Windows to determine what errors have occurred in the past. Logs are a treasure trove of information on any workstation or server. The event viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It's a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows problems. If you use the Event Viewer, you can identify what was occurring at or around 2:35 am each day before the server crashed and use this to troubleshoot the problem. Event ViewerOBJ-1.3: You should use the Event Viewer to read the log entries within Windows to determine what errors have occurred in the past. Logs are a treasure trove of information on any workstation or server. The event viewer shows a log of application and system messages, including errors, information messages, and warnings. It's a useful tool for troubleshooting all kinds of different Windows problems. If you use the Event Viewer, you can identify what was occurring at or around 2:35 am each day before the server crashed and use this to troubleshoot the problem. |
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A developer uses a MacBook Pro when working from home, but they need access to both a Windows and macOS system to test their programs. Which of the following tools should be used to allow both operating systems to exist on their MacBook Pro? |
Boot Camp OBJ-1.10: Boot Camp is used to allow dual booting on a Macintosh computer. It allows the user to boot into either macOS (OS X) or Windows as the computer is rebooted. Boot Camp is only supported on Intel-based macOS systems, though. |
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Which file system type is used to mount remote storage devices on a Linux system? |
NFS OBJ-1.8: The Network File System (NFS) is used to mount remote storage devices into the local file system on a Linux system. It allows you to mount your local file systems over a network and remote hosts to interact with them while mounted locally on the same system. |
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What is the minimum amount of memory required to install Windows 10 (x86) on a device? |
1 GBOBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space. 1 GBOBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space. 1 GBOBJ-1.7: For the Windows 10 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 10 (32-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 32 GB of hard drive space. For the Windows 11 (64-bit) operating system, the minimum requirements are a dual-core 1 GHz processor, 4 GB of RAM, and at least 64 GB of hard drive space. |
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Which command would a Linux user need to enter to change their password? |
Passwd OBJ-1.11: The passwd command changes passwords for user accounts. A normal user may only change the password for their account, while the superuser may change the password for any user. |
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Jason wants to configure his Windows 10 workstation to automatically block pop-ups when searching for websites online. Which of the following Control Panel sections should he use to achieve this? |
Internet OptionsOBJ-1.4: The Internet Options section of the Control Panel allows a technician to manage the Internet settings for their computers, including the security settings, access settings, and add-on control settings. Using Internet Options, a technician can set the homepage of the browser, set up the proxy server connection details, and change the trust and security settings used by the system. Internet OptionsOBJ-1.4: The Internet Options section of the Control Panel allows a technician to manage the Internet settings for their computers, including the security settings, access settings, and add-on control settings. Using Internet Options, a technician can set the homepage of the browser, set up the proxy server connection details, and change the trust and security settings used by the system. Internet OptionsOBJ-1.4: The Internet Options section of the Control Panel allows a technician to manage the Internet settings for their computers, including the security settings, access settings, and add-on control settings. Using Internet Options, a technician can set the homepage of the browser, set up the proxy server connection details, and change the trust and security settings used by the system. |
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Which of the following macOS features is the equivalent of the Taskbar in Windows? |
Dock OBJ-1.10: Dock is a macOS feature for managing applications from the desktop that is similar to the Windows taskbar. A technician can change the way the dock behaves by right-clicking near the vertical line at the right of the dock. For example, they can configure the dock to autohide or position itself on another edge of the screen. |
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Which of the following Control Panel options should a technician configure to automatically adjust the volume of different sounds when the computer is being used to place or receive telephone calls? |
Sound OBJ-1.4: The Sound section of the Control Panel allows technicians to configure settings for the playback, recording, and sound effects on the computer. Under the communications tab of the Sound section, a technician can adjust whether or not the computer should adjust the volume of other sounds when a telephone call is occurring. |
