• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/161

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

161 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
purpose of the venous sinus technique
increase venous flow
how to perform a venous sinus technique
directly spread apart the sutures that overly the occipital, transverse, and sagittal sinuses
purpose of CV4 bulb decompression
enhance amplitude of the CRI (cranial rhythmic impulse)
does bulb decompression encourage the flexion or extension phase of the CRI
encourages the extension phase
which cranial technique can be useful for inducing uterine contractions in post-expected date pregnant women
CV4 bulb decompression
purpose of the vault hold
to diagnose/address strains of the SBS (sphenobasilar synchondrosis)
where do you place your fingers for a vault hold
index fingers- greater wing of sphenoid
middle fingers- zygomatic arch
ring fingers- mastoid process of temporal bone
pinky fingers- occiput
purpose of the V spread
separate restricted or impacted sutures
purpose of the lift technique
balance/relieve any membranous tension
physiologic complications of performing cranial techniques
may alter the HR, BP, respiration, and cause GI disturbances
absolute contraindications for performing cranial techniques
intracranial bleeds and skull fractures
relative contraindications for performing cranial techniques
brain trauma and epilepsy
5 things that make up the primary respiratory mechanism (PRM)
CNS, CSF, dural membranes, cranial bones, sacrum
do the brain and spinal cord lengthen or shorten during exhalation
lengthen during exhalation and shorten during inhalation
what is the normal CRI
8-12 cycles per minute
what motions occur during craniosacral flexion
flexion of the midline bones
sacral base moves posterior (counternutation)
decreased AP diameter (wider head)
increased tranverse diameter (wider head)
external rotation of paired bones
sphenoid rotates anteriorly
foramen magnum moves superiorly
basiocciput moves anterosuperiorly
what motions occur during craniosacral extension
extension of midline bones
sacral base moves anterior (nutation)
increased AP diameter (narrower head)
decreased transverse diameter (narrower head)
basiocciput moves posterioinferiorly
internal rotation of paired bones
sphenoid rotates posteriorly
foramen magnum moves inferiorly
craniosacral motion occurs about what sacral axis
superior transverse axis of the sacrum
what are the midline bones (5)
sphenoid, occiput, ethmoid, vomer, sacrum
how is torsion name
torsion is named for whichever wing of the sphenoid is more superior
what type of strain is characterized by the sphenoid and occiput rotating in the opposite directions
torsion
what type of strain is characterized by sphenoid and occiput rotating in the same direction
sidebending/rotation
MOST common cause of compression strain of the SBS
trauma to the back of the head
which type of cranial strain can completely stop cranial rhythmic impulses
compression strain
vagal somatic dysfunction can be caused by somatic dysfunction at what vertebral levels
OA, AA, C2
condylar compression most commonly affects what cranial nerve
CN XII
which cranial nerves are involved with infant suckling
CN IX, X, XII
which cranial dysfunction can be considered physiologic if it doesn't interfere with normal cranial motion
torsion
what bones come together to form the pterion
temporal, frontal, parietal, sphenoid
what bones come together to form the bregma
frontal and parietal bones
what bones come together to form lambda
occipital and parietal bones
what bones come together to form the asterion
temporal, parietal, and occipital
what are the 5 principles of the PRM (primary respiratory mechanism)
1. inherent motility of the brain and spinal cord
2. fluctuation of CSF
3. mobility of intracranial and intraspinal membranes
4. articular mobility of cranial bones
5. involuntary mobility of sacrum between the ilia
inherent motion of the CNS is caused by coordinated contraction of what CNS cells
oligodendroglia
pathway of CSF
choroid plexus -> lateral ventricles -> foramen of monro -> 3rd ventricle -> cerebral aqueduct -> 4th ventricle -> foramen of Luschka and foramen of Magendie -> cisterna magna -> arachnoid granulations
what makes up the reciprocal tension membrane
falx cerebri, falx cerebelli, tentorium cerebelli, and spinal dura
serrate (sawtooth) sutures allow what type of motion
rocking
squamous (scale-like) sutures allow what type of motion
gliding
harmonic (edge to edge) sutures allow what type of motion
shearing
mobility of the sacrum around ilia occurs about a transverse axis through which sacral level
S2
postulated hypothesis for the cause of the CRI
coordinated contractions of glial cells
2 conditions that increase the rate of CRI
acute infection and fast metabolism
3 conditions that decrease the rate of CRI
slow metabolism, chronic infection, and fatigue
2 conditions that decrease the amplitude of CRI
dural tension, SBS compression dysfunction
Major condition that increases the amplitude of CRI
increased intracranial preussure
should the amplitude of the flexion and extension stages be the same
yes
what are the rules of craniosacral bone motion
1. midline bones follow flexion and extension
2. paired bones follow internal/external rotation
3. sacrum follows the occiput
4. temporals follow the occiput
5. facial bones follow the sphenoid
what is a "still point" of cranial motion
a pause between CRI
what are the paired cranial bones
frontal, parietal, temporal, maxilla, zygoma, lacrimal, nasal, palatines
is the mandible a paired bone
no
what vertebrae does the dura attach to
C2, C3, S2
what vessels travel through the superior orbital fissure
CN 3,4,V1,6, and the ophthalmic vein
what nerve traverses the foramen rotundum and ovale
V2- foramen rotundum
V3- foramen ovale
what artery traverses the foramen spinosum
middle meningeal artery
what vessels/sinuses traverse the jugular foramen
CN IX,X,XI, and both the petrosal and sigmoid sinuses
what nerve traverses the cribiform plate
CN I
what vessels traverse the optic canal
CN II, ophthalmic artery, and central retinal vein
what nerves traverse the internal acoustic meatus
CN VII,VIII
what nerve traverses the hypoglossal canal
CN XII
innervation of the anterior cranial dura
trigeminal (V1)
innervation of the posterior cranial dura
C1-C3 and superior cervical ganglion
innervation to the spinal dura
recurrent meningeal nerve of Luschka (aka sinuvertebral n.)
what traverses the foramen magnum
spinal cord, CN XI, vertebral arteries, and the anterior/posterior spinal arteries
strabismus is most commonly caused by damage to what cranial nerve
abducens
when does the occiput begin to ossify
3 years old
symptoms of Bell's palsy (CN VII lesion)
facial muscle paralysis
loss of taste
hyperacusis
difficulty closing the eye of the affected side
how is a sidebending/rotation cranial dysfunction named
side of convexity
lateral strains occur about what 2 parallel axes
an axis through the sphenoid and an axis through the foramen magnum
how are lateral strains named
based on the location of the base of the sphenoid
how are vertical cranial strains named
for the direction of sphenoid movement
reason for frequent occurence of otitis media in children
anatomical structure of the Eustachian tubes (in children, they are shoter, narrower, and more horizontal)
are direct or indirect treatments best for children? what about adults?
direct treatments are best for children
indirect treatments are best for adults
when are the sacral bones normally completely fused
by age 20
a seated flexion test is used to assess what type of dysfunction
sacral (sacroiliac dysfunction)
attachments of sacrotuberous ligament
ILA to ischial tuberosity
attachments of the sacrospinous ligament
sacrum to ischial spine
what ligament divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen
sacrospinous
usually the first and most common ligament involved with lower back pain
iliolumbar ligament
muscles that make up the pelvic diaphragm
levator ani and coccygeus
sciatic nerve usually runs through what muscle
piriformis
respirations and craniosacral motion occur around what sacral axis
superior transverse axis
postural motion occurs around what sacral axis
middle transverse axis
innominate rotation occurs around what sacral axis
inferior transverse axis
tight quadriceps normally cause what innominate dysfunction
anterior innominate rotation
tight hamstrings normally cause what innominate dysfunction
posterior innominate rotation
tight rectus abdominus muscles normally cause what innominate dysfunction
superior pubic shear
tight adductors normally cause what innominate dysfunction
inferior pubic shear
falling on your ass or mis-stepping most commonly causes what innominate dysfunction
upslipped innominate
tests used to lateralize innominate dysfunction
ASIS compression test or standing flexion test
sidebending of L5 always occur towards or away from the oblique axis of the sacrum?
SB always occurs towards to the oblique of the sacrum
rotation of L5 always occurs towards or away from the direction of rotation of the sacrum?
rotation always occurs away from the direction of rotation of the sacrum
test to lateralize the side of sacral dysfunction
seated flexion test
MOST common sacral dysfunction after giving birth
bilateral sacral flexion
during the swing phase of the R LE, the sacrum moves around what axis
L oblique axis
forward torsion of the sacrum involves which Fryette principle
type 1
backward torsion of the sacrum involves which Fryette principle
type II
LOL and ROR are examples of which type of sacral dysfunction
type I (forward torsion)
LOR and ROL are examples of which type of sacral dysfunction
type II (backward torsion)
seated flexion test positive on the L suggests which dysfunctions
L sacral extension
LOR
L sacral flexion
ROR
+ seated flexion test on the L
+ sphinx
+ spring
ILA and sacral base on L are shallow
LOR
+ seated flexion test on the L
- sphinx
- spring
ILA and sacral base on L are deep
ROR
+ seated flexion test on the R
+ sphinx
+ spring
ILA and sacral base on R are shallow
ROL
+ seated flexion test on R
- sphinx
- spring
ILA and sacral base on R are deep
LOL
only sacral dysfunction in which the sphinx and spring tests wont be the same
bilateral sacral extension
setup for treatment of ROR
patient lies lateral recumbent with oblique axis towards the table
flex knees and hips >90 degrees
patient hugs table
setup for treatment of LOR
patient lies lateral recumbent with oblique axis towards the table
flex knees and hips <90 degrees
patients looks to the sky
setup for treatment of R sacral extension
patient lies prone
doctor places L hand on patient's R sacral base
externally rotate R leg
patient exhales and holds breath for 3-5 seconds
when patient inhales again, physician resists movement
setup for treatment of R sacral flexion
doctor places L hand on patient's R ILA
internally rotate L leg
patient inhales and holds breath for 3-5 seconds
when patient exhales, physician resists movement
what condition can give you a false positive standing flexion test
tight hamstrings on contralateral side
abductors of the innominate
gluteus muscles
trendelenburg test checks the strength of what muscle
gluteus medius
iliac crests are at what vertebral level
L4
PSIS is at what vertebral level
S1
gold standard test for iliosacral dysfunction
standing flexion test
what's the "rule of 3's"
the spinous processes of T1-T3 are located at the same level as the corresponding vertebrae
the spinous processes of T4-T6 are located one half segment below its corresponding vertebrae
the spinous processes of T7-T9 are located one full segment below its corresponding vertebrae
T10 follows T7-T9 mechanics
T11 follows T4-T6 mechanics
T12 follows T1-T3 mechnanics
Suprasternal notch is at what vertebral level
T2
sternal angle (angle of Louis) is at what vertebral level
T4
what rib attaches to the sternal angle
rib 2
MAJOR thoracic motion
rotation
LEAST thoracic motion
extension
which ribs are atypical
1,2,11,12
why is the 1st rib atypical
articulates with only 1 vertebrae and has no rib angle
why is the 2nd rib atypical
large tuberosity on the shaft
why are ribs 11,12 atypical
articulate only with the corresponding veterbrae and they lack tubercles
which ribs are true ribs
ribs 1-7
which ribs are false ribs
ribs 8-10
which ribs are floating
ribs 11,12
which ribs have pump-handle motion
ribs 1-5
which ribs have bucket-handle motion
ribs 6-10
which ribs have caliper motion
ribs 11,12
ribs are "held up" in which dysfunction
inhalation dysfunction

("held down" in exhalation dysfunction)
key rib in inhalation dysfunctions
lowest rib
key rib in exhalation dysfunctions
highest rib
which muscles attach to the 1st rib
anterior and middle scalenes
which muscles attach to the 2nd rib
posterior scalene
MAJOR muscle of inspiration during quiet breathing
diaphragm
MAJOR muscle of expiration during quiet breathing
no specific muscle- passive motion
muscles involved with inspiration during exercise
external intercostals, scalenes, SCM, diaphragm
muscles involved with exhalation during exercise
rectus abdominis, internal/external obliques, transversus abdominis, internal intercostals
vertebral level of the superior angle of the scapula
T2
vertebral level of the spine of the scapula
T3
vertebral level of the inferior angle of the scapula
T7
borders of the thoracic outlet
clavicle, 1st ribs, scapula
borders of the anatomical inlet
manubrium, 1st ribs, T1
borders of the functional inlet
manubrium, ribs 1/2, and T1-T4
what muscle attaches to the large tuberosity of rib 2
serratus anterior
bucket handle motion is best palpated where
mid-axillary line
pump handle motion is best palpated where
mid-clavicular line
bucket handle motion occurs around what axis
costovertebral-costosternal line
bucket handle motion occurs in what plane
coronal
pump handle motion occurs in what plane
sagittal
pump handle motion occurs around what axis
costovertebral-costotransverse line
caliper motion occurs in what plane
transverse plane
caliper motion occurs around what axis
vertical axis
treatment for scoliosis if angle is <20 degrees
exercise and OMM
treatment for scoliosis if angle is between 20-40 degrees
braces and electrical stimulation
treatment for scoliosis if angle >40 degrees
surgery
at what angle of scoliosis is heart/lung function usually compromised
>60 degrees
what type of curve is present in the thoracics
kyphosis
patient presents with chronic, dull chest pain with radiation to the shoulder; pain gets worse during coughing, sneezing, or deep inhalation; all lab values were within range; OMM treatment did not alleviate the pain; what's the most likely diagnosis?
costochondritis
MOST commonly fractured bone in children
clavicle