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603 Cards in this Set

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menopause
the point in time in a woman's life when there is cessation of menses due to follicular atresia occuring after age 40 (mean age 51 years in US)
perimenopause (climacteric)
the transitional 2 to 4 years spanning from immediately before to immediately after the menopause
hot flushes
irregular unpredictable episodes of increased skin temperature and sweating lasting about 3-4 minutes caused by vasomotor changes.
premature ovarian failure
the cessation of ovarian function due to atresia of follicles prior to age 40 years (at ages younger than 30 years-- consider autoimmune diseases and karyotypic abnormalities)
What blood tests can be ordered when perimenopause is suspected?
LH and FSH (ovarian inhibin levels decrease before estradiol decreases-- leading to increased LH and FSH)
potential negative effects of continuous estrogen-progestin treatment?
breast cancer, heart disease, pulmonary embolism, and stroke
effects of decreased estrogen in women
decreased libido, vaginal atrophy, bone loss, hot flushes
symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome
hirsuitism, anovulation, insulin resistance, estrogen excess
what is the mechanism of amenorrhea in anorexia?
hypothalamic dysfunction
sheehan syndrome
hemorrhagic necrosis of the anterior pituitary associated with postpartum hemorrhage
group A streptococcal toxic shock syndrome
rapidly progressing infection of the episiotomy or cesarean delivery incision ("flesh eating bacteria")
Management of septic shock
IV fluids, monitoring UOP, and blood pressure. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring with Swan Ganz may be necessary.
- broad spectrum abx-- penicillin, gentamycin, `metronidazole,
Gas/crepitus in a wound/muscle/fascia infection most likey indicates...
necrotizing fascitis -- likely clostridial species like c. perfringens
latent phase
the initial part of labor when the cervix is mainly effaced rather dilated (<4cm)
active phase
the portion of labor where dilation occurs more rapidly, usually when the cervix is greater than 4 cm dilation
protraction of the active phase
cervical dilation in the active phase is less than expected (normal > 1.2 cm/hr for nulliparous woman, and > 1.5 cm/hr for a woman who has had at least one vaginal delivery
arrest of active phase
no progress in the active phase of labor for 2 hours
stages of labor
1. onset of labor to complete dilation of the cervix
2. complete dilation of the cervix to delivery of the infant
3. delivery of the infant to delivery of the placenta
fetal heart rate accelerations
episodes of fetal heart rate acceleration where the HR increases above baseline for at least 15 bpm for at least 15 seconds
What can be given when insufficient contraction strength is suspected?
oxytocin increases strength of contractions and their frequency
cephalopelvic disproportion
the pelvis is too small for the baby of baby is too big for the pelvis
define clinically adequate contractions
contractions every 2-3 minutes, uterus firm on palpation, lasting for at least 40-60 seconds (greater than or equal to 200 montevideo units)
MVUs = total rise above baseline for each contraction over 10 minute period
montevideo unit
measurement of strength of uterine contractions
MVU = total rise above baseline for each contraction over 10 minute period (Add all of them together)
normal length of active phase of labor ...
1. in nulliparous without epidural
2. np with epidural
3. multip without epidural
4. multip with epidural
1. < 2 hours
2. < 3 hours
3. < 1 hour
4. < 2 hours
normal length of the third stage of labor
< 30 minutes for everyone
normal length of the latent phase of labor for...
1. nullip
2. multip
1. <18-20 hours
2. < 14 hours
3 P's to assess when there is a labor abnormality
Power- of contractions
Pelvis- is there CPD?
Passenger
bloody show
sticky mucus mixed with blood that comes from losing cervical mucus plug-- sign of impending labor
early decelerations
mirror images of uterine contractions, caused by fetal head compression
variable decelerations
abrupt decline and abrupt resolution in deceleration of FHR that is caused by cord compression
late decelerations
gradual in shape and offset from the uterine contractions, caused by uretoplacental insufficiency
(hypoxia)
normal fetal HR
110-160 bpm
threatened abortion
pregnancy with vaginal spotting during the first half of pregnancy (<20 weeks).
what produces bHcg during pregnancy?
chorionic villi- usually there is a logarithmic rise in early pregnancy
bhcg threshold- discriminatory zone
bhcg between 1500-2000 mIU/mL indicates when a normal, viable, intrauterine singleton pregnancy would be visible on TVS
what should be done when ectopic pregnancy is possible but bhcg is below the discriminatory zone?
if patient is stable, discuss the signs of rupture ectopic pregnancy and bring the pt back to recheck bhcg in 48 hours. If <66% rise this indicates increased likelihood of ectopic pregnancy.
progesterone levels indicating normal IUP? nonviable IUP?
>20 ng/mL viable
<5 ng/mL nonviable
what is looked for on D&C to prove there was an intrauterine pregnancy?
chorionic villi-- IUP
if none, then likely was not an IUP
placenta accreta
abnormal adherence of the placenta to the uterine wall due to an abnormality of the decidua basalis layer of the uterus. The placental villi are attached to the myometrium
placenta increta
the abnormally implanted placenta penetrates into the myometrium
placenta percreta
abnormally implanted placenta penetrates through the entire myometrium in the serosa. Often there is invasion into the bladder. Fistulas may develop.
risk factors placenta accreta
1. placenta previa
2. implantation over the lower uterine segment (low lying placenta)
3. Prior c/s scar or other uterine scar
4. uterine curettage
5. fetal down syndrome
management if placenta accreta
hysterectomy-- because attempts to remove a firmly attached placenta often leads to maternal hemorrhage or death
conservative management of placenta accreta in women who wish to maintain childbearing potential
remove as much of placenta as possible and pack uterus. Ligate umbilical cord as high as possible and IV methotrexate
Risk of placenta accreta in women with three or more prior c/s and a low-lying anterior placenta
40-50%
Blue tissue densely adherent between the bladder and uterus suggests what dx?
placenta percreta
What do placental polyps result from
retains products after a term pregnancy or incomplete abortion
What is expected of low lying or marginal placentas discovered in the 2nd trimester?
they will often resolve so repeat US should be done in the 3rd trimester
mucopurulent cervicitis
yellow exudative discharge arising from the endocervix with 10 or more PMNs per hpf
lower genital tract
vulva, vagina, cervix
upper genital tract
uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries
what is the most common organism implicated in mucopurulent cervicitis
Chlamydia trachomatis
treatment for gonorrhea
125-250 mg IV Ceftriaxone plus tx for chlamydia (1 g azithromycin or 100 mg doxycycline BID x 7-10 days)
If mucopurulent discharge is seen on pelvic exam and gram stain is negative, what is the likely diagnosis?
Chlamydia trachomatis
tx: azithromycin or doxycycline
disseminated gonorrhea
septic arthritis that is classically migratory, painful pustular rash
What is the management when complete abortion is suspected?
follow b-hcg levels to zero. Levels should halve in 48-72 hours if dx correct. plateau in bhcg level indicates incomplete abortion or ectopic pregnancy
threatened abortion
a pregnancy less than 20 weeks associated with vaginal bleeding, but without cervical dilation
inevitable abortion
a preg less than 20 weeks associated with cramping, bleeding and cervical dilation--no passage of tissue
incomplete abortion
pregnancy of less than 20 weeks gestation associated with cramping, vaginal bleeding, and an open cervical os, and SOME passage of tissue per vagina, but some retained in utero. The cervix remains open due to the continued uterine contractions in attempt to expel the remaining tissue
complete abortion
a pregnancy less than 20 weeks gestation in which ALL of the products of conception have passed. the cervix is generally closed because all of the products have passed and the uterus is no longer contracting.
inevitable abortion vs incompetent cervix
with inevitable abortion there are uterine contractions with cervical dilation but with cervical incompetence the cervix opens spontaneously without uterine contractions-- painless cervical dilation
molar pregnancy
trophoblastic tissue (placenta-like tissue) without a fetus
- presents with vaginal spotting, absence of fetal heart tones, size greater than dates, and markedly elevated HCG levels.
- dx by US which shows a "snow storm" like pattern in the uterus
- tx: uterine suction curettage followed by weekly hcg levels, if some retained gestational trophoblastic disease can result and require chemotherapy
tx of incomplete abortion
D&C to prevent hemorrhage and infection- send products of conception to pathology to confirm dx
what is vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks gestation called?
antepartum bleeding (not an abortion)
most common causes placenta previa and placental abruption
most common cause of first trimester miscarriage
chromosomal abnormality
shoulder dystocia
inability of the fetal shoulders to deliver spontaneously, usually due to the impaction of the anterior shoulder behind the maternal pubic symphasis
mcroberts maneuver
first step tx for shoulder dystocia- maternal thighs are sharply flexed against maternal abdomen to straighten the sacrum relative to the lumbar spine and rotate the symphasis pubis anteriorly toward the maternal head
risk factors for shoulder dystocia
1. gestational diabetes
2. multiparity
3. post term--> macrosomia
4. macrosomia
5. maternal obesity
6. prolonged 2nd stage of labor (for multiparous women without epidural 1 hour, with epidural 2 hours)
7. operative vaginal delivery (vaccuum etc) in the face of macrosomia
suprapubic pressure
tx for shoulder dystocia-- push down or lateral on suprapubic region to push fetal shoulder into oblique plane from behind the pubic symphysis
fetal complication of shoulder dystocia?
erb duchene palsy -- brachial plexus injury involving C5-6 nerve roots, which may result from downward traction on the anterior shoulder. Baby has weakness of the deltoid and infraspinatus muscles as well as flexors of the forearm.
- the arm hands limply at the side internally rotated-- "waiter's tip position"
- fetal hypoxia may also result
signs of shoulder dystocia
1. external rotation of the fetal head is difficult
2. fetal head retracts towards maternal introitus ("turtle sign"
maneuvers for management of shoulder dystocia
1. mcroberts maneuver- flex maternal hips toward her abdomen
2. suprapubic pressure
3. wood's corkscrew maneuver (progressively rotating the posterior shoulder 180 degrees in a corkscrew fashion)
4. delivery of the posterior arm
5. Zavanelli maneuver (cephalic replacement with immediate c/s)
complication of hysterectomy presenting with CVA tenderness
ureteral obstruction/injury
risk factors- cancer, extensive adhesions, endometriosis, tubo-ovarian abscess, residual ovaries, and interligamentous leiomyomata
anatomical location of ureter and uterine artery
uterine artery is above (more anterior) than ureter (bridge over water)
most common location for ureteral injury after hysterectomy
near the cardinal ligament (attaches cervix to the pelvic side walls and has uterine arteries traveling through)
best way to evaluate potential ureteral injury?
IVP (intravenous pyelogram to access kidney, ureter and bladder)
If IVP shows hydroureter or hydronephrosis, what is the management?
antibiotics, and cytoscopy to attempt retrograde stent passage
percutaneous nephrostomy
placement of stent into renal pelvis through skin
fever and flank pain after hysterectomy or oopherectomy?
ureteral ligation
- tx: abx and relief of obstruction
What should be done first when a women presents with post-menopausal bleeding?
what is the concern?
1. endometrial biopsy
2. endometrial cancer
risk factors for endometrial cancer
1. early menarche
2. late menopause
3. Obesity
4. chronic anovulation-proliferation of endometrium
5. estrogen-secreting ovarian tumors
6. unopposed estrogen ingestion
7. HTN
8. DM
9. personal or family history of breast or ovarian cancer
10. nulliparity
sensitivity of blind endometrial biopsy?
90-95% in detecting endometrial carcinoma. If clinical suspicion is high (multiple risk factors) and bx is negative, then a hysteroscopy should be done.
endometrial polyps
a growth of endometrial glands and stroma, which projects into the uterine cavity, usually on a stalk.
- cause of postmenopausal bleeding
atrophic endometritis
the most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding-- friable tissue in the endometrium or vagina due to low estrogen levels
endometrial stripe
transvaginal US assessment of the endometrial thickness. Thickness > 5 mm in postmenopausal women is abnormal
In a women not on HRT who presents with postmenopausal bleeding what is the incidence of endometrial carcinoma?
20%
what is the most common female genital tract malignancy?
endometrial carcinoma
How is staging for endometrial carcinoma conducted?
surgically-- TAHBSO, omenectomy, lymph node sampling, peritoneal washings
what is the biggest risk factor for the development of endometrial carcinoma?
unopposed estrogen
antepartum vaginal bleeding
vaginal bleeding that occurs after 20 weeks' gestation
complete placenta previa
placenta completely covers the internal os of the cervix
partial placenta previa
placenta partially covers the internal os of the cervix
marginal placenta previa
the placenta abuts against the internal os of the cervix
low lying placenta
the edge of the placenta is within 2-3 cm of the internal cervical os
placental abruption
premature separation of a normally implanted placenta
vasa previa
umbilical cord vessels that insert into the membranes with the vessels overlying the cervical os, thus being vulnerable to fetal exsanguination upon rupture of membranes
painless vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks gestation
likely placenta previa
painful contractions + vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks gestation
likely placental abruption
what should be done first when a patient presents with antepartum vaginal bleeding?
ultrasound to determine the location of the placenta (r/o placenta previa) as pelvic exam (speculum or digital) may cause more bleeding
management of stable patient with placenta previa?
bed rest and observation, then c/s at 36-37 weeks once fetal lung maturity achieved
- if 2-3 episodes of bleeding may have to do c/s earlier
what other placental condition are women with placenta previa at risk for ?
placenta accreta -- especially if prior uterine scar
risk factors for placenta previa
1. grand multiparity
2. prior c/s
3. prior uterine curretage
4. previous placenta previa
5. multiple gestation
postcoital spotting may be an indication of ?
placenta previa or cervicitis (chlamydia or gonorrhea)-- however it may be normal
in antepartum bleeding, what should be the order of examination (digital, US, speculum)?
US then speculum exam then digital exam
complications of placental abruption
hemorrhage, fetal to maternal bleeding, coagulopathy, preterm delivery
risk factors for placental abruption
1. HTN
2. Cocaine
3. short umbilical cord
4. trauma
5. Uteroplacental insufficiency
6. submucous leimyomata
7. sudden uterine decompression (polyhydramnios)
8. cigarette smoking
9. PPROM
treatment of placental abruption
natural history of placental abruption is toward extension and of the separation, so delivery should be the goal if > 34 weeks
- US is poor at diagnosing because clotted blood behind placenta had the same echo density as the placenta
concealed abruption
when bleeding occurs completely behing the placenta and no external bleeding is noted, this condition is less common than overt hemorrhage but is more dangerous
fetomaternal hemorrhage
fetal blood that enters into the maternal circulation
couvelaire uterus
bleeding into the myometrium of the uterus giving a discolored appearance to the uterine surface
one test diagnostic for abruptio placentae?
there is no one diagnostic test-- US is poor at picking it up-- must look at the whole clinical picture
what is found in 1/3 of cases where fetal death occurs as a result of abruptio placentae?
coagulopathy in mom-- hyprofibrogenemia--> bleeding
what are some ways to follow suspected abruptio placentae?
serial hemoglobins, following fundal height, fetal heart tracing
in the case of fetal death from placental abruption, what is the best method of delivery for mom's health?
vaginal delivery- often occurs quickly. blood products and IVF should be given to keep HCT > 25-30 and UOP > 30mL/hr--> this may lead to HTN or preeclampsia so MgSO4 may be needed
what is the most common cause of antepartum bleeding with coagulopathy?
abruptio placentae
risk factors for cervical cancer?
1. early age of coitus
2. STDs
3. early childbearing
4. low socioeconomic status
5. HPV
6. HIV infection
7. cigarette smoking
8. multiple sexual partners
most common presenting symptom of cervical cancer?
abnormal vaginal bleeding-- including postcoital spotting
cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)?
preinvasive lesions of the cervix with abnormal cellular maturation, nuclear enlargement, and atypia
human papillomavirus
circular, double stranded DNA virus that can become incorporated into the cervical squamous epithelium, predisposing cells to dysplasia and/or cancer
radical hysterectomy
removal of the uterus, cervix, and supportive ligaments, such as the cardinal ligament, uterosacral ligament, and proximal vagina
radiation brachytherapy
radioactive implants placed near the tumor bed
radiation teletherapy
external beam radiation where the target is at some distance from the radiation source
HPV vaccine
killed virus vaccing, FDA approved for females 9-26. Quadrivalent vaccine against HPV types 6, 11 (genital warts) and 16, 18 (associated with 50% of cervical dysplasia and cancer)
where to the majority of cervical cancers arise?
near the squamocolumnar junction (transitional zone)
what should be done when a pap smear is abnormal?
colposcopy with biopsies. Acetic acid may be added to observe for color change-- if the lesions turn white (acetowhite change)
how is cervical cancer staged?
clinically
how is early stage (contained within the cervix) cervical cancer treated?
early stage may be treated just as successfully with radiation as with hysterectomy
how is advanced cervical cancer treated?
combination of radiotherapy (consisting of brachytherapy (implants) and teletherapy (whole pelvis radiation), along with chemotherapy (usually platinum-based- to sensitize the tissue to radiation)
what is the most common cause of death in cervical cancer?
bilateral ureteral obstruction leading to uremia
Should pap smears still be done on women who have had hysterectomies?
depends if the hysterectomy was for benign or malignant condition
- if for benign reason and no h/o of CIN then no
- if for malignant or pre-malignant (CINIII) then need pap of vaginal cuff
ASCUS
atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance- if low grade intraepithelial legion (LSIL) or high grade intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) may need colpo. In adolescents and pregnant women-- ASCUS may be observed instead of doing colpo
are most cervical cancers squamous or adenomatous?
squamous
Staging procedures for cervical cancer?
examination under anesthesia
IVP
CXR
barium enema or proctoscopy
cystoscopy
what is the treatment for HSIL with possibility of endocervical disease demonstrated on colposcopy?
cervical excisional procedure (either Loop-electrosurgical excisional procedure) or cone biopsy
amenorrhea
no menses for 6 or more months
sheehan syndrome
anterior pituitary hemorrhagic necrosis caused by hypertrophy of the prolactin-secreting cells in conjuction with a hypotensive episode, usually in the setting of postpartum hemorrhage. The bleeding in the anterior pituitary leads to pressure necrosis
asherman's syndrome
intrauterine adhesions - scar tissue that forms in the endometrium leading to amenorrhea caused by unresponsiveness of the endometrial tissue (may also lead to inability to bear children)-- risk factors include repeated D&Cs
postpartum hemorrhage
bleeding greater than 500 mL for a vaginal delivery and greater than 1000 mL for a c/s. The amount of bleeding that results in or threatens to result in hemodynamic instability if untreated.
amenorrhea and inability to breastfeed after postpartum hemorrhage
likely result of sheehan's syndrome
when should menstruation resume in a non-breast feeding woman postpartum?
12 weeks postpartum- otherwise pathology must be considered
What lab findings may be seen with sheehan's syndrome?
dec thyroid, cortisol, prolactin, FSH and LH
excess estrogen without progesterone, obesity, hirsuitism and glucose intolerance, oligomenorrhea
polycystic ovarian syndrome (LH:FSH > 2:1)
tx of sheehan syndrome?
replacement of all deficient hormones
tx of asherman syndrome?
hysteroscopic resection of scar tissue (may put balloon in to prevent re-adhesion post-op)
Will there be bleeding in response to estrogen and progesterone tx (OCP) in sheehans? ashermans?
1. yes in sheehans
2. no in asherman's
what is the first test that should be done when there is secondary amenorrhea with a h/o postpartum hemorrhage?
bhcg- pregnancy test. Remember that pregnancy is still the most common cause of amenorrhea
hypothyroidism and monophasic basal body temperature after postpartum hypotension?
sheehan's syndrome
most common cause of ovulatory dysfunction in women of reproductive age?
PCOS- obesity, anovulation, hirsuitism, glucose intolerance, and estrogen excess
predisposing conditions to umbilical cord prolapse
AROM with unengaged fetal head, transverse lie, or footling breech
dx and management of umbilical cord prolapse
dx: vaginal/cervical exam- feel umbilical cord
tx: emergent cesarean section. in the meantime the doctor should put the patient in trendelenburg and use his/her hand to elevate the fetal presenting part to keep pressure off the cord
engagement
largest transverse (biparietal) diameter of the fetal head has negotiated the pelvic inlet
fetal bradycardia
baseline fetal heart rate less than 110 bpm for greater than 10 minutes
umbilical cord prolapse
umbilical cord enters through the cervical os presenting in front of the presenting part and making it especially prone to compression
initial management of fetal bradycardia
1. confirm fetal heart rate vs maternal heart rate
2. vaginal exam for umbilical prolapse
3. rotation of mom onto left lateral side to offload IVC- positional changes
4. IV fluid bolus if volume depleted
5. 100% O2
6. stop oxytocin if running
dx and tx of hyperstimulation with oxytocin
uterus become tetanic or contractions are frequent (q1 min)
tx: b-agonist like terbutaline given IV helps uterine relaxation
causes of fetal bradycardia
1. umbilical cord prolapse
2. uterine tetany
3. hypotension following epidural placement (give fluids first, then pressors)
what is the most common finding in uterine rupture?
fetal heart rate abnormality such as bradycardia, deep variable decels, or late decels
tx: immediate c/s
uterine hyperstimulation
greater than 5 uterine contractions in a 10 minute period
- can be caused by misoprostol or oxytocin (and prostaglandin cervical ripening agent can do this but higher risk misoprostol)
what is the first step in evaluating fetal bradycardia
differentiating fetal HR from maternal HR- with fetal scalp electrode or US
oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea and white watery breast discharge
hyperprolactinemia
causes of galactorrhea
1. pregnancy (first r/o this)
2. pituitary adenoma
3. hypothyroidism
4. breast stimulation
5. chest wall trauma
6. drugs (dopamine antagonists, antihypertensives, narcotics, OCPs)
7. hypothalamic causes (craniophargioma, etc)
8. hyperplasia of lactotrophs
9. empty sella syndrome
10. acromegaly
11. renal dz (acute or chronic)
galactorrhea
nonpuerperal watery or milky breast secretion that contains neither blood nor mucus. Either spontaneous or only on exam.
pituitary secreting adenoma
a tumor in the pituitary gland that produces prolactin.
sx: galactorrhea, headache, peripheral vision deficit (bitemporal hemianopsia)
approach to patients with mildly elevated PRL level? markedly increased?
1. check TSH, TRH
2. MRI for pituitary adenom
what are women with secondary amenorrhea and low estrogen levels at greater risk for
having a pituitary adenoma and osteoporosis
tx of women with galactorrhea but normal menses and normal prolactin levels
observation, yearly prolactin levels
how does hypothyroidism lead to galactorrhea?
low thryoid levels--> inc TRH--> dec dopamine inhibition on the anterior pituitary--> increased release of prolactin
tx: levothyroxine
complications of transphenoidal resections of pituitary adenomas
1. diabetes insipidus in 1/3 (low ADH- large volumes of dilute urine)
2. hemorrhage
3. meningitis
4. CSF leak
5. panhypopituitarism
tx of prolactinoma
med management- bromocriptine or cabergoline- dopamine agonists. If not tolerated orally can give vaginally
- surgery reserved for failure or medical management-- can shrink with meds then surg
how does a prolactinoma/hyperprolactinemia cause oligo/amenorrhea
Prolactin inhibits GnRH
what can be used to treat prolactinomas in pregnancy?
bromocriptine (if headaches and visual disturbances arise- if pt is symptomatic) - safe during pregnancy
cholestasis of pregnancy
intrahepatic cholestasis of unknown etiology in pregnancy whereby the patient usually complains of pruritis with or without jaundice and NO SKIN RASH
- often occurs in the 3rd trimester
Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of pregnancy (PUPPPs)
a common skin condition of unknown etiology unique to pregnancy characterized by intense pruritis and erythematous papules and hives on the abdomen and extremities (usually starts on abdominal striae)-- often spreads to butt
- narrow pale halo around papules
- histo: lymphs and macs with edema of dermis
- occurs more often with the 1st pregnancy and usually does not recur
- no adverse effects on fetus or mom
- tx: topical steroids or antihistamines
Herpes gestationis
rare skin condition only seen in pregnancy that is characterized by intense itching and erythematous vesicles/blisters on the abdomen and extremities
- etiology- autoimmune- IgG autoanitbodies activate complement against basement membrane
- dx: immunofluorescence of biopsy specimens
- inc risk of fetal growth retardation and stillbirth, or transient same dz in newborn
- tx: corticosteroids
most common cause of pruritis in pregnancy
intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
laboratory findings in intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
increased circulating bile acids with normal LFTs (no hepatic damage)
consequences of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
increased risk of prematurity, fetal distress and fetal loss
(especially when there is maternal jaundice)
- increased incidence of gallstones
tx for intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
1st line- antihistamines and cornstarch baths
other tx- bile acid binders (cholestyramine- associated with vit K def), ursodeoxycholic acid (better tolerated than cholestyramine)
lower abdominal pain, bilateral adnexal tenderness, dyspareunia and hyperemic cervix on exam
saplingitis (new dyspareunia, and hyperemic cervix are indirect markers of cervical motion tenderness)
When are infections most likely to ascend from the cervix into the uterus and fallopian tubes?
during menses-endometrial breakdown
pelvic inflammatory disease
= salpingitis or infection of the fallopian tubes
cervical motion tenderness
extreme tenderness when the cervix is digitally manipulated--suggesting PID/salpingitis
tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA)
collection of purulent material around the distal tube and ovary, which unlike the typical abscess is often treatable by antibiotic therapy rather than surgical drainage
how is PID/salpingitis diagnosed
clinical diagnosis based on abdominal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness and adnexal tenderness
- may be confirmed by positive GC/chlamydia or TOA
- if diagnosis is in doubt then a surgeon can perform a diagnostic laparoscopy and look for purulent material extruding from the fimbria of the tubes
ddx for presentation of PID
appendicitis, cholecystitis, diverticulitis, pancreatitis, ovarian torsion, pyelonephritis, gastroenteritis
tx of PID/acute salpingitis
depends on pt-- candidate for inpatient or outpatient
-outpatient criteria: low grade-fever, tolerates oral meds, no peritoneal signs, compliant pt (IM ceftriaxone single injection + 10-14 days of oral doxycycline BID)
- inpatient criteria: failed outpatient treatmentm pregnant, extremes of age, cannot tolerate oral meds, TOA (IV Cefotetn and oral or IV doxycycline)
-- MUST re-revaluate in 48 hours to determine response to tx-- if not improvement consider laparoscopy
Tx of tubo-ovarian abscess
these can usually be treated with abx
- usually caused by anaerobic organisms
- if rupture-- surgical emergency
(may feel adnexal mass or see complex cyst on US)
- admit patient and give IV clindamycin or metronidazole
long-term complications of salpingitis/PID
chronic pelvic pain, ectopic pregnancy, infertility (directly related to the number of PID episodes)
role of contraceptives in increasing or decreasing risk of PID
inc risk with IUD- allows for ascending infection

dec risk with OCPs because progestin thickens the cervical mucus
cultures obtained during laparoscopy of purulent drainage in PID would most likely reveal what?
multiple organisms- N. gonorrhea, c. trachomatis, anaerobic bacteria, gram negative rods-- for this reason abx must be broad spectrum
what is the gold standard for diagnosing salpingitis (allows differentiation between appendicitis and PID?)
diagnostic laparoscopy- direct visualization of the tubes- look for purulent discharge from the fimbria of the tubes
risk factors for PID
nulliparity, young age of first coitus, multiple sexual partners, IUD
how does having an IUD lead to increased risk of PID
during IUD placement, there is breakdown of the endocervical barrier as the device enters the uterus and this allows the infection to ascend
actinomyces
gram-positive anaerobe that is more common cause of PID in the setting of IUD
- characteristic sulfur granules
- sensitive to penicillin
how normal pH, pO2, pCO2, and HCO3 levels affected in pregnancy?
pH is increased from 7.4 to 7.45
pO2 is increased from 90-100 to 95-105 (inc tidal volume-> inc minute ventilation)
pCO2 is decreased from 40 to 28 (inc tidal volume-> inc minute ventilation)
HCO3 is decreased from 24 to 19
hypoxemia on arterial blood gas, tachycardia, tachypnea and a clear chest xray in a pregnant woman
think pulmonary embolism
Tx for DVT or PE during pregnancy?
full IV anticoagulation for 5-7 days to stabilize the clot and prevent propogation, then switch to subQ heparin or LMWH for at least 3 months with a gold aPTT 1.5-2.5 x normal.
After 3 months may continue full heparin or switch to prophylactic heparin until 6 weeks pp
although pregnancy itself induces a hypercoaguable state, what other conditions might contribute to DVT/PE during pregnancy?
protein C or S deficiency, antithrombin III def, Factor V leiden, prothrombin 20210A, hyperhomocysteinemia, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
most common symptom of PE?
most common sign?
1. dyspnea
2. tachycardia
what is the most common cause of maternal mortality?
thromboembolism-- pregnant women are in a hypercoaguable state until 6 weeks pp
what acid base status does pregnancy induce
a respiratory alkalosis with partial metabolic compensation
herpes simplex virus prodromal symptoms
prior to the outbreak of the classic vesicles, the patient may complain of burning, itching or tingling
neonatal herpes infection
HSV can cause disseminated infection with major organ involvement, be confined to encephalitis, eyes, skin or mucosa or be asx. The vast majority of neonatal herpes infections occur via exposure to virus in fluids and secretions of the genital tract, although 5-10% may occur in the antepartum period transplacentally (most likely due to primary episodes and significant viremia)
management of delivery in a patient with HSV
give acyclovir ppx, do careful examine prior to delivery, ask about prodromal sx. If no lesions or sx, may proceed to vaginal delivery. If lesions or prodrome--> c/s
what is the most common reason for hysterectomy in the US?
symptomatic uterine fibroids
what is the most common symptom of uterine fibroids?
menorrhagia
leiomyomata
benign, smooth muscle tumors, usually of the uterus
leiomyosarcoma
malignant smooth muscle tumor with numerous mitoses
submucous fibroid
leimyomata that are primarly on the endometrial side of the uterus and may impinge on the uterine cavity (as opposed to serous fibroids on the outside of the uterus)
intramural fibroids
leiomyomata that are primarily in the uterine muscle
subserousal fibrouds
leiomyomata that a primarily on the outside of the uterus, on the serosal surface. physical exam may reveal a "knobby" sensation
pedunculated fibroid
leiomyoma on a stalk
cancerous degeneration
aka red degeneration-- chainges of the leiomyomata due to rapid growth; the center becomes red- causing pain. This occurs rarely.
- signs of malignant transformation include rapid growth-- increase in gestational size more than 6 weeks in one year
- risk factor is prior pelvis radiation
symptoms of uterine fibroids
menorrhagia, pressure in pelvis
- rarely twisting of the fibroid leads to necrosis and pain
- may prolapse causing contraction pain
typical physical exam in uterine leiomyomata
irregular, midline, firm non-tender mass that moves contiguously with the cervix
- confirmed with US
- unusual for them to be lateral, fixed or fluctuant
- ddx includes ovarian mass, TOA, pelvic kidney, endometrioma
Tx of uterine fibroids
initially- NSAIDs or progestin
- GnRH angonists can be used to shink the fibroid- will reach max effect in 3 mo, but after cessation, fibroid will regrow (used to shrink fibroid or decrease anemia before surgery)
- if do not want more kids-- hysterectomy is definitive
- if want kids-- myomectomy
- uterine artery embolization = another option
--surgery is indicated after failure of medical therapy
chronic hypertension
blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg before pregnancy or at less than 20 weeks' gestation
gestational hypertension
hypertension without proteinuria at greater than 20 weeks' gestation
preeclampsia
hypertension with proteinuria (>300 mg over 24 hours) at a gestational age greater than 20 weeks, caused by vasospasm
eclampsia
seizure disorder associated with preeclampsia
severe preeclampsia
vasospasm associated with preeclampsia to such an extent that maternal end organs are threatened, usually necessitating delivery of the baby regardless of the gestionational age
- bp >160 systolic or > 110 diastolic on 2 occassions at least 6 hours apart with the patient on bed rest
- marked proteinura >5 g/24 or 3+ dipstick x 2, 4 hrs apart
- oliguria <500mL urine/24 hour
- cerebral or or visual disturbances such as HA or scotomata
- pulmonary edema or cyanosis
- epigastric or RUQ pain- probably caused by subcapsular hepatic hemorrhage or stretching
- evidence of hepatic dysfxn
- thrombocytopenia
- IUGR
superimposed preeclampsia
development of preeclampsia in a patient with chronic hypertension
features of preeclampsia
hypertension (>140 SBP, >90 DPB), proteinuria and often non-dependent edema (facial or hand)
etiology of preeclampsia
unknown but thought to be due to vasospasm and endothelial damage
complications of preeclampsia
placental abruption, eclampsia, coagulopathies, renal failure, hepatic subcapsular hemorrhage, hepatic rupture, uteroplacental insufficiency
risk factors for preeclampsia
- nulliparity
- african american race
- extremes of age
- person h/o severe preeclampsia
- family history
- chronic htn
- chronic renal disease
- APA syndrome
- diabetes
- multifetal gestation
lab tests for evaluation of preeclampsia
- CBC
- UA
- 24 hour urine protein
- LFTs
- LDH
tx of preeclampsia
- if >37 weeks (term) or severe at any GA--> Mag sulfate and delivery
- < 37 weeks and non severe-- expectant management until term or severe
when is there the greatest risk for eclampsia
just prior to delivery, during labor, or within 24 hours pp
What should be monitored when pt on mgso4?
UOP, respiratory depression, dyspnea (pulmonary edema), abolishment of DTRs
what is the first sign of magnesium toxicity?
loss of DTRs
what is the role of MgSO4 in preeclampsia?
prevention of seizures. It actually does not decrease BP
medications for BP control during pregnancy
hydralazine, labetalol (methylodopa sometimes)
when should MgSO4 be discontinued pp?
after 24 hours pp
most common cause of maternal death in eclampsia?
intracerebral hemorrhage
most common cause of significant proteinuria in pregnancy
preeclampsia
firm, nontender, rubbery mobile breast mass
fibroadenoma-- does not change with the menstrual cycle as fibrocystic breast disease does
fine needle aspiration (FNA)
the use of small gauge needle with associatied vacuum via a syringe to aspirate fluid or some cells from a breast mass or cyst. gives loose cells for cytology. good if there is a low risk of cancer-- otherwise need more tissue (either core needle biopsy or excisional bx)
fibroadenoma
benign, smooth muscle tumor of the breast, usually occuring in young women
multiple irregular lumps throughout the breast that are painful and engorged in a cyclic fashion with the menstrual cycle
fibrocystic breast disease-- exaggerated response to ovarian hormones
- common in premenopausal women but rare after menopause
tx of fibrocystic breast disease
-decrease caffeine intake
- NSAIDs
- tight fitting bra
- OCPs or oral progestin
-- if severe danazol (weak antiestrogen) or mastectomy may be considered
what needs to be done for any three dimensional dominant breast mass?
biopsy-- need tissue to make dx. if low risk of cancer then FNA, if higher risk core needle bx or excisional bx
triple assessment for breast mass
clinical exam, imaging (US or MG) and histology
- if all are in agreement then higher reliability of FNA or core needle bx
- most of the time any mass in a woman over 35 or with a family history of breast cancer will require excision
intraductal papilloma
most common cause of bloody (Serosanguinous) nipple discharge
- small benign tumor of the milk ducts most common in women 35-55
- must r/o breast cancer
galactocele
mammayy gland tumors that cystic in nature and contain milk or milky fluid-- they occur when there is any sort of obstruction of milk flow in a lactating breast
what is the best way to image the breast of a woman less than 30?
US because the breasts are usually too dense for accurate mammography
inflammatory breast cancer
aggressive, with skin changes - redness, induration-- causes by cancer cells in the subdermal lymph channels
- more often found in young women
five basic etiologies of infertility
1. ovulatory
2. uterine
3. tubal
4. male factor
5. peritoneal factor (endometriosis)
infertility
inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected intercourse
primary infertility
a woman has never been able to get pregnant
secondary infertility
a woman has been pregnant in the past, but has 1 year of inability to conceive
fecundability
the probability of achieving a pregnany within one menstrual cycle is 20-25% for a normal couple
- 10-15% of couples at any age group experience infertility
what is the easiest method of detecting ovulation in determining an ovarian cause of infertility?
basal body temperature (BBT)
- measured orally first thing in the morning, to detect 0.5 degree F raise in body temperature that occurs after ovulation due to release of progesteron
within how long of LH surge (as can be measured by a urine kit) does ovulation occur?
36 hours
what is the initial test to detect uterine problems in evaluation of infertility?
hysterosalpingogram- assesses uterine shape and tubal patency. -- then hysteroscopy if there is a defect noted on HSG
- tx - hysteroscopic procedure, surgery to correct anatomical defect
tubal causes of infertility? how to assess?
chlamydia or gonorrhea infection, may initially inspect with HSG but laparoscopy is the gold standard
tx - IVF
how long does spermatogonia take?
74 days-- so wait 2-3 months between different semen analysis
- normal semen analysis = volume > 2 mL, conc > 20 million/mL, motility > 50% and > 30% normal morphology
how might endometriosis cause infertility?
inhibiting ovulation, inducing adhesions, and maybe interfering with fertilization
- laparoscopy is the gold standard for dx of endometriosis
- tx- ablation of endometriosis or medical tx (OCPs)
tx for ovulatory dysfunction as a cause for infertility?
clomiphene citrate
5 most common cause of acute abdominal pain in pregnancy
1. appendicitis
2. cholecystitis
3. ovarian torsion
4. ectopic pregnancy
5. placental abruption
what is the best treatment for ovarian torsion due to cyst?
if the ovarian tissue is still viable then laparoscopic cystectomy should be attempted
when does ovarian torsion usually happen during pregnancy?
either 14 weeks gestation-- when the uterus rises above the pelvic brim or immediately pp
complications of appendicitis during preg
preterm labor or abortion
presentation of appendicitis during pregnancy
n/v, fever, anorexia, leukocytosis, pain superior and lateral to mcburney's point-- enlarged uterus pushes the appendix up and out toward the flank
tx- surgery + IV abx
acute cholecystitis in preg
- in preg there is an increase in gallbladder volume and biliary sludge--> leads to gallstones
- sx: RUQ pain after meal, nausea, bloating, fever and infectious signs
tx of simple biliary colic in preg
low fat diet and observation
what is the most common complication of a benign ovarian cyst?
ovarian torsion
- preg = risk factor, esp at 14 weeks
- sx: unilateral abdd and pelvic colicky pain with n/v (acute nset of colicky pain)
- tx: surgery-- untwist-- if reperfusion then cystectomy
risk factors for placental abruption
htn, trauma, cocaine, smkoing PPROM
- persistent crampy midline pain, abn fetal heart tracing
- us not very accurate
ectopic pregnacy presentation
amenorrhea, spotting, lower abd pain, n/v, slightly enlarged uterus, adnexal mass, with rupture-- syncope and hypovolemia
- TVS and bhcg
what produces bhcg during pregnancy?
synciotrophoblasts
threshold hcg for TVS?
1500-2000 mIU/mL-- at this point you should be able to visualize a normal, singleton, intrauterine, viable pregnancy by TVS-- if cannot then ectopic more likely
most common cause of maternal mortality in the first 20 weeks of gestation
hemorrhage from an ectopic preg
risk factors for ectopic pregnancy
salpingitis
tubal adhesive disease
infertility
progesterone secreting IUD
tubal surgery
prior ectopic preg
ovulation induction
congenital abn of tube
culdocentesis
spinal needle is used to pierce the posterior vaginal fornix into the cul-de-sac
pseudogestational sac
fluid in the uterus associated with an ectopic pregnancy
pseudogestational sac
fluid in the uterus associated with an ectopic pregnancy
if hcg level less than 1500, no severe abd pain, hypotension or adnexal mass, how can suspected ectopic preg be managed
repeat bhcg in 48 hours, if greater than 66% rise than likely normal/viable pregnancy
pseudogestational sac
fluid in the uterus associated with an ectopic pregnancy
how do progesterone levels help predict normal IUPs or abn pregnancies?
progesterone > 25 ng/mL almost always normal IUP
if < 5 ng/mL then abn preg
if hcg level less than 1500, no severe abd pain, hypotension or adnexal mass, how can suspected ectopic preg be managed
repeat bhcg in 48 hours, if greater than 66% rise than likely normal/viable pregnancy
if hcg level less than 1500, no severe abd pain, hypotension or adnexal mass, how can suspected ectopic preg be managed
repeat bhcg in 48 hours, if greater than 66% rise than likely normal/viable pregnancy
management of microcytic anemia in a pregnant women of non-SE asian decent
therapeutic trial of iron and recheck hgb in 3 weeks- if no improvement than do iron studies and hgb electrophoresis
how do progesterone levels help predict normal IUPs or abn pregnancies?
progesterone > 25 ng/mL almost always normal IUP
if < 5 ng/mL then abn preg
how do progesterone levels help predict normal IUPs or abn pregnancies?
progesterone > 25 ng/mL almost always normal IUP
if < 5 ng/mL then abn preg
management of microcytic anemia in a pregnant women of non-SE asian decent
therapeutic trial of iron and recheck hgb in 3 weeks- if no improvement than do iron studies and hgb electrophoresis
anemia in pregnancy
hgb level of 10.5 or less in preg woman
management of microcytic anemia in a pregnant women of non-SE asian decent
therapeutic trial of iron and recheck hgb in 3 weeks- if no improvement than do iron studies and hgb electrophoresis
anemia in pregnancy
hgb level of 10.5 or less in preg woman
anemia in pregnancy
hgb level of 10.5 or less in preg woman
G6PD deficiency
x-linked condition whereby RBCs may have decreased capacity for anaerobic glucose metabolism. oxidizing agents like nitrofurantoin, sulfa drugs, antimalarial drugs can can cause hemolysis
most common cause of anemia during pregnancy?
iron deficiency-- icreased iron demands
sickle cell disease in preg
women with sickle cell disease often have more anemia (fatigue and SOB), more frequent vasooclusive/pain crises, and more frequent infections/pulm complications
- higher chance of IUGR and perinatal mortality-- serial US
-- good hydration is key!
- inc risk of preterm labor and low birth weight baby
african american woman who has dark urine, jaundice and fatigue after being treated for a UTI with nitrofurantoin
G6PD deficiency
most common cause of macrocytic anemia in pregnancy?
folate deficiency
elevated A2 hemoglobin level is suggestive of ? hemoglobin F?
1. b-thalassemia
2. a-thalassemia
preterm labor
cervical change associated with uterine contractions prior to 37 completed weeks and after 20 weeks. I a nulliparous woman, uterine contractions and a single cervical exam revealing 2-cm dilation and 80% effacement or greater is sufficient to make the dx
elevated A2 hemoglobin level is suggestive of ? hemoglobin F?
1. b-thalassemia
2. a-thalassemia
tocolysis
pharmacologic agents used to delay delivery once preterm labor is diagnosed. most common agents include- indomethacin, nifedipine, terbutaline, ritodrine
MgSO4 might not be effective
preterm labor
cervical change associated with uterine contractions prior to 37 weeks and after 20 weeks. I a nulliparous woman, uterine contractions and a single cervical exam revealing 2-cm dilation and 80% effacement or greater is sufficient to make the dx
fetal fibronectin assay
a basement membrane protein that helps bind placental membranes to the decidua of the uterus. A vaginal swab is used to detect its presence. Its best utility is a negative result, which is associated with a 99% chance of not delivering within 1 week
tocolysis
pharmacologic agents used to delay delivery once preterm labor is diagnosed. most common agents include- indomethacin, nifedipine, terbutaline, ritodrine
MgSO4 might not be effective
cervical length assessment
TVS to measure cervical length. cervical length less than 25 mm results in increased risk of preterm delivery.
- impinging of the amniotic cavity into the cervix (aka funneling) increases risk of preterm delivery
fetal fibronectin assay
a basement membrane protein that helps bind placental membranes to the decidua of the uterus. A vaginal swab is used to detect its presence. Its best utility is a negative result, which is associated with a 99% chance of not delivering within 1 week
cervical length assessment
TVS to measure cervical length. cervical length less than 25 mm results in increased risk of preterm delivery.
- impinging of the amniotic cavity into the cervix (aka funneling) increases risk of preterm delivery
G6PD deficiency
x-linked condition whereby RBCs may have decreased capacity for anaerobic glucose metabolism. oxidizing agents like nitrofurantoin, sulfa drugs, antimalarial drugs can can cause hemolysis
most common cause of anemia during pregnancy?
iron deficiency-- icreased iron demands
sickle cell disease in preg
women with sickle cell disease often have more anemia (fatigue and SOB), more frequent vasooclusive/pain crises, and more frequent infections/pulm complications
- higher chance of IUGR and perinatal mortality-- serial US
-- good hydration is key!
- inc risk of preterm labor and low birth weight baby
african american woman who has dark urine, jaundice and fatigue after being treated for a UTI with nitrofurantoin
G6PD deficiency
most common cause of macrocytic anemia in pregnancy?
folate deficiency
elevated A2 hemoglobin level is suggestive of ? hemoglobin F?
1. b-thalassemia
2. a-thalassemia
preterm labor
cervical change associated with uterine contractions prior to 37 weeks and after 20 weeks. I a nulliparous woman, uterine contractions and a single cervical exam revealing 2-cm dilation and 80% effacement or greater is sufficient to make the dx
tocolysis
pharmacologic agents used to delay delivery once preterm labor is diagnosed. most common agents include- indomethacin, nifedipine, terbutaline, ritodrine
MgSO4 might not be effective
fetal fibronectin assay
a basement membrane protein that helps bind placental membranes to the decidua of the uterus. A vaginal swab is used to detect its presence. Its best utility is a negative result, which is associated with a 99% chance of not delivering within 1 week
cervical length assessment
TVS to measure cervical length. cervical length less than 25 mm results in increased risk of preterm delivery.
- impinging of the amniotic cavity into the cervix (aka funneling) increases risk of preterm delivery
risk factors for preterm labor
1. PPROM
2. multiple gestations
3. previous preterm labor
4. hydramnios
5. uterine anomaly
6. history of cervical cone bx
7. cocaine
8. african american race
9. abd trauma
10. pyelonephritis
11. abd surgery during pregnancy
risk factors for preterm labor
1. PPROM
2. multiple gestations
3. previous preterm labor
4. hydramnios
5. uterine anomaly
6. history of cervical cone bx
7. cocaine
8. african american race
9. abd trauma
10. pyelonephritis
11. abd surgery during pregnancy
12. bacterial vaginosis
13. UTI and pyelo
management of preterm labor
1. tocolysis if < 34-35 weeks
2. identify and treat cause if possible
3. steroids if gestational age <34 weeks
management of preterm labor
1. tocolysis if < 34-35 weeks
2. identify and treat cause if possible
3. steroids if gestational age <34 weeks
speculated MOA of MgSO4 in tocolysis
competitive inhibition of calcium
speculated MOA of MgSO4 in tocolysis
competitive inhibition of calcium
side effects of mgSO4
pulmonary edema, resp depression
- neonatal depression, osteoporosis if used long-term
side effects of mgSO4
pulmonary edema, resp depression
- neonatal depression, osteoporosis if used long-term
side effects of nifedipine
- pulmonary edema
- increased pulse pressure
- hyperglycemia
-hypokalemia
- tachycardia
side effects of nifedipine
CHF, Mi, pulmonary edema, severe hypotension
MOA, use, SE, CI of terbulatine and ritodrine
use: tocolysis
MOA: b2 agonists that stimulate smooth muscle relaxation
SE: pulmonary edema, increased pulse pressure, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, tachycardia
CI: arrythmia, htn, seizure disorder
MOA, use, SE, and CI of indomethacin
NSAID- decreased prostaglandin synthesis
SE: closure of ductus arteriosus--> pulm htn, oligohydramnios
CI: 3rd trimester
17 hydroxyprogesterone caproate
used for tocolysis/prevention of preterm labor
MOA: synthetic progesterone, HRT, inhibits pituitary gonadotropin release to maintain a pregnancy
SE: breast pain, dizziness abd pain, intermittent bleeding
CI: undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
work-up for preterm labor
- h/o risk factors
- serial digital cervical exams
- CBC
- UDS
- UA, urine culture
- GC/Chlamydia test
- GBS swab
- US for fetal weight and presentation
when a corticosteroids given during pregnancy for preterm labor? what for?
between 24-34 weeks
24-28 weeks the goal is to prevent intraventricular hemorrhage
28-34 weeks the goal is to dec risk of Neonatal RDS
what type of STD is most strongly associated with preterm labor
gonorrhea (chlamydia is not as strongly associated with PTL)
should tocolysis be given if there is a placental abruption?
no, because the abruption may extend and cause fetal distress and in that case, delivery is the best option
- if delivery occured there would be greater chance of PPH due to uterine atony
SE of b2 agonists given for tocolysis
pulmonary edema!
- tachycardia
- hyperglycemia
- hypokalemia
- increased pulse pressure
cystitis
bacterial infection of the bladder (most commonly caused by E coli) defined as having > 100,000 CFUs/mL on a single bacterial type on midstream specimen
urethritis
infection of the urethra commonly caused by c. trachomatis
urethral syndrome
urgency and dysuria caused by urethral inflammation of unknown etiology, urine cultures are negative
why does pregnancy predispose women to UTIs
incomplete bladder emptying, ureteral obstruction, immune suppression
management of asx bacteriuria in pregnancy
- this leads to acute UTI in 25% of cases so it should always be treated with abx
frequent agent for UTI ppx in preg?
nitrofurantoin (macrobid)
yuzpe regimen
use of specific oral contraceptive regimen consisting of two tablet of OCPs at 0 and 12 hours after intercourse- emergency contraceptive
plan b
progesterone only- levonorgestrel 0.75 mg taken at time 0 and 12 hours after intercourse for emergency contraception
vaginal diaphragm
form of contraceptive that must be placed 1-2 hours before sex and left in place for at least 8 hours after sex
active agent in spermicidals
nonoxynol-9-- disrupts sperm ell membrane and provides a mechanical barrier
moa of OCPS
prevention of ovulation by use of progesterone-- also causes thickening of the cervical mucus
effect of estrogen in OCPs
maintainence of the epithelium, prevention of unscheduled bleeding, and inhibition of follicular development
contraindications of OCP use
1. thrombogenic mutations
2. prior VTE
3. cerebrovascular or CAD
4. uncontrolled HTN
5. migraines with aura
6. diabetes with peripheral vascular disease
7. smoking and age >35
8. known or suspected breast cancer
9. estrogen-dependent neoplasia
10 undiagnosed abn genital bleeding
11. benign or malignant liver tumors, active liver dz
12. known or suspected pregnancy
what is the comparative risk of DVT with the patch vs combined OCP?
2x greater risk of VTE with the patch
active agent in spermicidals
nonoxynol-9-- disrupts sperm ell membrane and provides a mechanical barrier
moa of OCPS
prevention of ovulation by use of progesterone-- also causes thickening of the cervical mucus
effect of estrogen in OCPs
maintainence of the epithelium, prevention of unscheduled bleeding, and inhibition of follicular development
contraindications of OCP use
1. thrombogenic mutations
2. prior VTE
3. cerebrovascular or CAD
4. uncontrolled HTN
5. migraines with aura
6. diabetes with peripheral vascular disease
7. smoking and age >35
8. known or suspected breast cancer
9. estrogen-dependent neoplasia
10 undiagnosed abn genital bleeding
11. benign or malignant liver tumors, active liver dz
12. known or suspected pregnancy
what is the comparative risk of DVT with the patch vs combined OCP?
2x greater risk of VTE with the patch
implant contraceptive/implanon
placed in women's upper arm, releases steady amount of levonorgestrel
- lasts 3 years
how long can a levonorgestrel containing IUD be left in? copper?
5 years
-10 years for copper
what patients are IUDs most beneficial for?
women in stable monogamous relationships with a low risk for STDs
contraindications to IUD
1. current pregnancy
2. current STD
3. current PID or PID within the last 3 mo
4. unexplained vaginal bleeding
5. malignant gestational trophoblastic disease
6. untreated cervical cancer
7. utreated endometrial cancer
8. uterine fibroids distorting the uterine cavity
9. current breast cancer-- for prog IUD only
10. wilson's disease for copper IUD
11. known pelvic TB
which type of emergency contraception is most effective?
progestin only type-- 85% effective, combined OCP (Yuzpe method) = 75% effective
when can IUDs be placed for emergency contraception?
within 5 days of unprotected sex
what is the best type of contraception while breast feeding?
progesterone only pill (minipill)
-- very dependent on taking the pill each day at the same time
what is the contraceptive method best suiding for sickle cell disease and epilepsy?
depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate
what are the main side effects of emergency contraceptive methods?
n/v (less with progesterone only option- plan b)
effect of OCP on risk of ovarian ca, breast ca, endometrial ca, and benign breast disease
dec risk of endometrial and ovarian cancer as well as benign breast disease
slightly inc risk of breast ca
acute respiratory distress syndrome
alveolar and endothelial injury leading to leaky pulmonary capillaries, clinically causing hypoxemia, large alveolar-arterial gradient and loss of lung volume
what is the most common cause of sepsis in pregnant women?
pyelonephritis
treatment of pyelonephritis in pregnant women
hospitalize and treat with IV abx-- either cephalosporin like cefriaxone or cefotetan or a combination of ampicllin and gentamycin.
- should continue IV abx until fever and flank pain resolve then switch to oral abx followed by ppx for the rest of pregnancy-- up to 1/3 will have recurrence if no ppx
If no clinical improvement within 48-72 hours with appropriate antibiotic therapy for pyelonephritis then what should be suspected?
urinary tract obstruction (ureterolithiasis) or perinephric abscess
what is a risk of pyelonephritis in pregnancy which has sx of dyspnea and tachycardia?
ARDS-2-5% of women will get ARDS and this is usually related to sepsis from endotoxins (component of gram negative bacteria cell wall that enters blood stream often after abx treatment)--
- may see diffuse bilateral infiltrates on CXR
- may also inc risk of PTL
tx of ARDS
supportive-- priorities are oxygenation and careful fluid management
- may require mechanical ventilation if severe
what are the most common organisms that cause pyelonephritis?
E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, and S. aureus
hemolytic uremic syndrome
hemolytic anemia, acute renal failure (uremia) and thrombocytopenia-- often caused by E.coli that presents with bloody diarrhea
what is the best way to dx asx bacteriuria in pregnancy?
prenatal UA and urine culture
- UA at every prenatal visit
what predisposed women to DVT during pregnancy?
hypercoaguability due to increased levels of clotting factors (particularly fibrinogen) and venous stasis-- may be caused by IVC compression
Homan's sign
dorsiflexion of the foot in attempt to elicit tenderness in the leg of pt to screen for DVT- not very sensitive
- may theoretically inc risk of embolization
- doppler US is better
signs and sx of DVT
muscle/calf pain, deep linear cords of the calf, tenderness and swelling of the lower extremity (2cm difference in leg circumference)
- exam in normal in 1/2
- if undx and untx-- inc risk of death
- 40% chance of PE in untx DVT
tx of DVT
anticoagulation with bed rest and leg elevation
-- HEPARIN during pregnancy-- inhibits clot propogation
- full IV anticoag for 5-7 days then switch to subQ to maintain aPTT from 1.5-2.5 for at least 3 mo, then either full or ppx heparin for rest of pregnancy and 6 weeks pp
-coumadin is a teratogen
long term complications of heparin use
osteoporosis and thrombocytopenia
what is the most important risk factor for breast cancer?
age
- the overall lifetime risk of breast cancer is 1 in 8
when should yearly mammograms be instituted?
at age 50 or earlier if a positive family history then at 35 (or 10 years before the first diagnosed case in the family)
false negative rate of mammograms
10% so any palpable dominant breast mass must be biopsied. greater risk for cancer then the more tissue that needs to be biopsied
BRCA mutation
autosomal dominant mutation that confers 50-70% chance of breast cancer and 30% chance of ovarian cancer
- more common in ashkenazi jews
- all women with 2 or more first degree family members with breast cancer should be offered screening
what is the most common cause of unilateral serosangiouneous nipple discharge?
intraductal papilloma
what is the most common type of breast cancer?
infiltrated intraductal carcinoma
what is a complex cyst?
partially solid and partially cystic
epithelial ovarian tumor
neoplasm arising from the outer layer of the ovary, which can imitate the other epithelium of the gynecologic or urologic system. The most common type of ovarian malignancy, usually occuring in older women
functional ovarian cyst
physiologic cysts of the ovary, which occur in reproductive-aged women of follicular, corpus luteal, or theca lutein origin
struma ovarii
teratoma in which thyoid tissue has overgrown the other elements.
- often appear as multilobulated masses with thick septa
- 10% may have malignant changes
1. what is the most common ovarian tumor in women > 30?
2. less than 30?
1. epithelial tumors of the serous subtype (often bilateral)
2. cystic teratoma/ dermoid cyst
management of adnexal masses
any mass > 8 cm is likely a tumor and must be explored
- if a prepubertal girl than any mass 2-3 cm should be surgically explored
- if < 5cm is likely a functional cyst- may observe and reassess in 1-2 months
- if 5-8 the US feature might help differentiate
what components/appearance of ovarian tumors on US indicates a likely cancerous process?
septatiions, solid components, or excrescences (growth on the surface or inner lining)
granulosa theca cell tumor
sex cord stromal tumor (usually solid) that may produce estrogen and thus cause precocious puberty
how are malignant teratomas graded
these contain immature neural elements are graded by the amount of neural tissue involved
- they contain all 3 germ layers, occur mostly in the 1st and 2nd decades of life
risk factos for fascial dehiscence
obesity, diabetes, cancer, intra-abdominal distention, exposure to radiation, corticosteroid use, infection, coughing, malnutrition, and vertical incision
hours of profuse serosangiunous drainage from an incision site is indicative of what?
fascial disruption--surgical emergency-- start broad spectrum IV abx and head to the OR- often occurs 5-14 days after surgery
wound dehiscence
a separation of part of the surgical incision but with an intact peritoneum
surgical site infection
infection related to the operative procedure that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of an operation.
superficial wound infection
anterior to the fascia, usually occurs 4-10 days post-op
- most open, and drain, then wet to dry dressings, abx and allow for secondary closure
float test
place tissue passed per vagina in saline and observe to see if it floats in a "frond pattern"-- 95% sensitive for presence of chorionic villi/products of conceptus
corpus luteum
a physiologic ovarian cyst formed from mature graafian follicles following ovulation, which secretes progesterone
hemorrhagic corpus luteum
bleeding occurring in a corpus luteum which may cause enlargement and eventual rupture leading to hemoperitoneum
- more likely to rupture during pregnancy because of increased incidence and friability of the corpus lutea
- progesterone is largely produced by the corpus luteum until about 10 weeks gestation when the placenta takes over-- so if corpus luteum is surgically removed prior to 10-12 weeks gestation, then progesterone should be given to sustain the pregnancy
hemoperitoneum
a collection of blood in the peritoneal cavity. The blood initially clots then lyses, so that there may be a combinations of clots and hemorrhagic fluid
tx of corpus luteal cyst
medication to prevent ovulation
what is the first sign of hypovolemia?
decreased UOP, then positive tilt table test, then tachycardia then hypotension
- in a young healthy person, generally 30-40% of blood is lost before hypotension is apparent
most common cause of hemoperitoneum in early pregnancy?
ruptured ectopic pregnancy
intrauterine adhesions/asherman syndrome
condition when scar tissue or synechiae form to obliterate the endometrial cavity, usually occuring because of uterine curettage following a pregnancy
- cause of secondary amenorrhea where the endometrium is no longer hormone responsive, no progesterone induced
withdrawal bleeds occur
- dx by hysterosalpingogram showing no uterine cavity, but hysteroscopy is the gold standard-- can se extent
- worst prognosis is with atrophic and sclerotic endometrium without adhesions usually found after radiation or endo TB- not amenable to tx
tx of intrauterine adhesions
lysis of adhesions followed by IUD insertion or pediatric foley catheter to prevent adhesions from reforming
- combined OCP
- look at uterine cavity before conception
if cervical stenosis goes untreated, what is likely to occur?
endometriosis due to retrograde menstruation
- cervical stenosis would present as secondary amenorrhea with crampy abdominal pain but without passage of blood q month
if a breast mass is felt on exam in a patient with a normal MG, what should be done?
biopsy
MG findings suspicious for breast cancer
a small cluster of calcifications (especially if linear or wispy) or masses with ill-defined borders, distortion of architecture, assymetric tissue densities
(fat necrosis from breast trauma can appear similar to breast cancer)
primary amenorrhea
no menarche by age 16 years
androgen insensitivity
an androgen receptor defect in which 46 XY individuals are phenotypically female with normal breast development but scant or absent pubic hair and high testosterone levels
- requires gonadectomy to remove testes that could develop cancer
mullerian agenesis
congenital absence of the development of the uterus, cervix and fallopian tubes in 46 XX females that leads to primary amenorrhea
- often have associated renal anomalies
- normal breast development and axillary and pubic hair
differential diagnosis of primary amenorrhea with normal breast development
mullerian agenesis vs androgen insensitivity
- there are normally functioning ovaries in mullerian agenesis- since ovaries are not mullerian structures
- normal breast development in XY individuals with androgen insensitivity syndrome occurs due to peripheral conversion of testosterone to estrogen
most common cause of delayed puberty
gonadal dysgenesis (as in Turner's syndrome 45 X,O)
- hypergonadotropic hypogonadism
what can help distinguish androgen insensitivity syndrome from mullerian agenesis
karyotype and testosterone levels
- androgen insensitivity- 46 X,Y with high testosterone levels
- mullerian agenesis- 46 X,X with normal testosterone levels
septic abortion
any type of abortion associated with uterine infection
tx: broad spectrum abx and D&C
incomplete abortion, lower abd cramping, vaginal bleedings, fever and chills, open cervical os
septic abortion-- retain products of conceptus is a nidus for infection
what is the usual etiology of septic abortion
almost always polymicrobial source ascending from the vagina or cervix: anaerobic strep, bacteroides, e. coli, GBS, gram neg rods
tx of septic abortion
IV abx- gentamycin plus clindamycin
- stabilize blood pressure with IVF or pressors if needed
- uterine evacuation of products of conceptus after 4 hours of abx- may lead to hemorrhage though
- monitor UOP for signs of shock -- oliguria is first sign
GI illness in pregnant woman that leads to amnionitis, amniocentesis reveals gram positive rods and meconium staining
listeria monocytogenes-- often from deli meats and cheeses-- passes through the placenta
- tx: metronidazole, ampicillin and aminoglycoside
- if appropriate abx tx may avoid having to delivery
postpartum hemorrhage
loss of > 500 mL of blood during a vaginal delivery or > 1000 mL of blood during a c/s
- may lead to hemodynamic instability if untreated
uterine atony
lack of myometrial contraction clinically manifested by a boggy uterus and inc risk of post partum hemorrhage
risk factors for uterine atony
- MgSO4
- oxytocin use during labor
- rapid labor or delivery
- overdistention of the uterus (macrosomia, multifetal gestation, hydramnios)
- intramniotic infection
- prolonged labor
- high parity
tx for uterine atony
1st- uterine massage and dilute oxytocin
- if ineffective may try methergine (if pt is not hypertensive) or prostaglandin F2 alpha (if pt is not an asthmatic) or rectal misoprostol (preferred- less SE)
methylgonovine maleate (methergine)
an ergot alkyloid agent that induces myometrial contraction as a treatment of uterine atony, contraindicated in htn because of risk of stroke
prostaglandin f2- alpha
a prostaglandin compound that causes smooth muscle CONTRACTION, contraindicated in asthmatics-- bronchocontstriction
if there early (within 24 hours pp) postpartum hemorrhage and the uterus is firm, what should be expected?
genital tract lacerations
causes of late postpartum hemorrhage
subinvolution of the placental site and retained products of conceptus
(usually have cramping and bleeding +/- fever and/or foul smelling lochia)
subinvolution of the placental site
- usually occur at 10-14 days after delivery where the eschar over the placental bed falls off and there is a lack of myometrial contraction to stop the bleeding
tx: ergot alkaloid (methergine) and f/u
surgical treatment for uterine atony
ligation of blood supply to the uterus-- suture ligation of the ascending branch of the uterine artery (utero-ovarian ligament) or internal iliac/hypogastric artery, hysterectomy as las resort
- if you ligate the uterine arteries in the cardinal ligament then usually a hysterectomy is required
delayed puberty
lack of secondary sexual characteristics (breasts and pubic hair) by age 14
gonadal dysgenesis
failure of development of the ovaries, usually associated with a karyotypic abnormality (such as 45 X,O) and often associated with streaked gonads/ovaries. Less commonly, 46,XX or 46 X,Y
4 stages of pubertal development
1. Thelarche- breast budding- age 10.8
2. pubarche/adrenarche- pubic and axilarry hair- 11
3. growth spurt- one year after thelarche
4. menarche- 2.3 years after thelarche, 12.9 yo
2 broad categories of etiology for delayed puberty
gonadotropic or gonadal (differentiate by FSH level, if high then a gonadal problem, if low HPA problem)
hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism
high FSH, low estrogen--most common cause of this type of delayed puberty is Turner syndrome.
- internal and external genitalia are female but they remain infantile even in adulthood
- also have short stature, webbed neck, shield chest, increased carrying angle at elbow
- 46 xy then the gonads should be removed to prevent malignant transformation
- other causes: ovarian damage due to radiation, chemo, inflammation, torsion
hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
low FSH and estrogen-- secondary to a central defect
- may occur due to poor nutrition or eating disorders, extremes in exercise, chronic stress or illness
- also cushing syndrome, pituitary adenomas, craniopharyngiomas
laboratory tests for evaluation of delayed puberty
FSH, prolactin, TSH, free T4
- if FSH increased then get karyotype
tx for delayed puberty
hormonal therapy (OCPs) and human growth horman
what is the most important test for primary amenorrhea with normal breast development?
pregnancy test
mastitis
- infection of the breast parenchyma that typically presents as indurated, erythematous region of the breast, accompanied by fever and pain
- usually occurs between 2-4 weeks pp
- continue breast feeding to prevent abscess development
- 1 in 10 cases complicated by abscess formation (persistent fever after 48 hours of abx)
most common etiology of mastitis?
tx?
s. aureus
tx? dicloxacillin- continue breaste feeding or pumping
if there is fluctuance noted on breast exam with a presentation of mastitis, what is dx? tx?
dx: breast abscess
tx: incision and drainage, abx
breast abscess
the presence of a collection of purulent material in a breast which usually requires I&D
galactocele
a non-infected collection of milk due to a blocked mammary duct leading to palpable mass and sx of breast pressure and pain
- non erythematous, fluctuant breast mass
breast engorgement
breast pain and induration with possibly low grade fever
- due to vascular congestion and milk accumulation
- round the clock infant feeding tends to help
tx for galactocele
aspiration if it does not resolve spontaneously because it could become an abscess
contraindications to breast feeding
- infant with classic galactosemia
- mother with untreated TB or HIV
- mother getting radiation or chemo or antimetabolite meds
- mother using street drugs
- mother has herpes simplex lesions on breast
what vitamin is not found in breast milk and thus needs to be given as a supplement to babies?
vitamin D beginning at 2 months of age if child is exclusively breast fed
benefits of breast feeding
babies have less infections, including meningitis, UTIs and sepsis due to Igs and WBCs in breast milk
- less risk of diabetes and childhood obesity
- breast milk contains whey and casein, lactoferrin, IgA, and lysozyme
less casein than formula allows for easier digestion
most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the US?
graves disease-- painless, uniformly enlarged thyroid gland with proptosis or pretibial myxedema
hyperthyroidism
a syndrome caused by excess thyroid hormone, leading to nervousness, tachycardia, palpitations, weight loss, diarrhea, heat intolerance, tremor, throid bruit, exopthalamos, and systolic htn
thyroid storm
extreme thyrotoxicosis leading to CNS dysfunction (coma or delirium), diarrhea, and autonomic instability (hyperthermia, hypertension or hypotension)
- CHF can result
- high mortality with this condition-- ICU
treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy
propythiouracil (PTU) and methimazole are ok to use in pregnancy even though both cross the placenta, but PTU generally preferred
- SE of PTU: bone marrow aplasia
- SE of Methimazole : aplasia cutis- skin or scalp defects
graves disease
the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy in which the there are autoantibodies that stimulate the TSH receptors on the thryoid gland leading to excess thyroid hormone production
- dx by inc t4 and low TSH
treatment of thyroid storm
PTU, beta blocker such as propanolol, and corticosteroids to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
what problems can maternal hyperthyroidism cause in fetus? management?
hyper or hypothyroidism
- maternal admin of PTU for hyper
- intra-amniotic thyroxine for hypo
- if untx can lead to nonimmune hydrops and fetal demise
what happens to TSH, thyroid binding globulin, total T4 and gree T4 in pregnancy?
thyroid binding globulin and total T4 increase, but free/active T4 and TSH remain the same, thus pregnancy is euthryoid state
what is the best screening test for hyperthyroidism?
TSH but free T4 is a good follow up test if TSH is abn
what is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the postpartum period
destructive lymphocytic thyroiditis
- occurs 1-4 months pp, associated with antimicrosomal abs (can start hyper then turn hypo)
- high corticosteroid levels in pregnancy supress autoimmune antibodies and a flare occurs postpartum when the CS levels fall after delivery of the placenta
- often antimicrosomal and antiperoxidase enzymes are present
consequence of untreated maternal hypothyroidism
neonatal and childhood neurodevelopmental delays
complications of chlamydia infection during pregnancy
- is NOT known to cause preterm labor, PPROM
- neonatal conjuctivitis and pneumonia
- erythromycin eye ointment given after delivery protects against gonoccal eye infection but NOT chlamydia
- if baby gets chlamydial eye infection then tx is oral erythromycin for 14 days
when should chlamydia screening take place during pregnancy?
in the third trimester because the complications of the infection occur in the neonatal period
treatment of chlamydial infection during pregnancy
erythromycin or amoxicillin for 7 days or azithromycin as a one time dose
- tetracyclins such as doxycycline are CONTRAINDICATED- because of risk of staining neonatal teeth
most common cause of conjuctivitis in the first month of life
chlamydial conjuctivitis
what is a potential cause of late postpartum endometritis?
chlamydia
- 2-3 weeks after delivery
complications of gonococcal disease in pregnancy
abortion, preterm labor, PPROM, chorioamnionitis, neonatal sepsis and postpartum infection
- disseminated gonococcal infection is more common in pregnancy-- presents as pustular skin lesions, arthralgias, and septic arthritis
what is a complication of untreated gonococcal opthalmia in a neonate?
corneal scarring and blindness
when are antibodies of HIV detectable?
after 1 mo and almost always by 3 mo
risk of HIV transmission to fetus in utero or during delivery?
decreased substantially if undetectable viral load
- women with HIV should be tested with viral load and CD4 counts- evaluate monthly until viral load is undectable- keep viral load less than 1000 RNA copies/mL
- combination retroviral tx decreases transmission to less than 2%
route of delivery for HIV positive women
schedule c/s before labor or ROM-- but if vaginal then give zidovudine during labor- avoid trauma to baby that will allow blood exposure-- FSE or mechanical delivery
- to decrease risk of vertical transmission c/s must be done before ROM or labor
- no breast feeding
- baby gets oral zidovudine syrup
chlamydia trachomatis in pregnancy
most common STD in US
- not seen on gram stain as it is an obligate intracellular organism (long replication cycle)
- cause of late postpartum (2-3 weeks pp) endometritis
- has propensity for transitional and columnar epithelium
- can cause neonatal pneumonia or conjuctivitis
- worldwide it is the most common cause of preventable blindness
uterine size great than predicted for dates and fetal parts are difficult to palpate
hydramnios
- US will show excess of amniotic fluid
positive IgG negative IgM for parvovirus in pregnancy
mom is immune, reassurance
- about 50% of adult women are immune
negative IgG and IgM for parvovirus in pregnancy plus exposure, managment?
if > 20 days from exposure then susceptible but not infected
- if < 20 days from exposure then possible infection vs uninfected-- repeat IgG and IgM in 1-2 weeks
negative IgG and positive IgM for parvovirus during pregnancy?
probable acute infection, possible false positive
- repeat IgG and IgM in 1-2 weeks, expect both to be positive indicating infection-- then weekly US for detection of hydrops
one of the first signs of fetal hydrops
hydramnios
fifth disease
aka erythema infectiosum- illness caused by single stranded DNA virus- parvovirus B19
- in kids presents as high fever with slapped cheeks appearance
- in adults- malaise, arthralgias, myalgias, and faint reticular/lacy rash
consequence of infection with parvovirus B19 during pregnancy
- fetal abortion, stillbirth and hydrops

fetal hydrops- excess fluid in two or more fetal body cavities that is often assoc with hydramnios.- body cavity involvement can lead to-- ascites, skin edema, pericardial effusion, and/or pleural effusion
- severe fetal anemia caused by suppression of eyrthrocyte
precursors in bone marrow-- may lead to extramedullary hematopoeisis in the liver and dec protein production
- pregnancies less than 20 weeks gestation are at particular risk
sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern
a fetal heart rate pattern that resembles a sine wave with cycles of 3 to 5 minutes, indicative of fetal anemia or asphyxia
management of parvovirus b19 infection during pregnancy
weekly ultrasounds fordetaction of fetal hydrops, and if found referal for fetal transfusion
causes of polyhydramnios
- fetal CNS abn
- fetal GI tract abn
- fetal chromosomal abn
- fetal nonimmune hydrops
- maternal diabetes
- isoimmunization
- multiple gestation
- syphilis
most common cause of fever in a woman who has undergone c/s
endomyometritis-- usually occurs from an ascending polymicrobial infection
- ddx includes mastitis, wound infection, and pyelonephritis
- atelectasis is rare because most women undergoing c/s have regional anesthesia
febrile morbidity postpartum
temperature after c/s greater than or equal to 38C or 100.4 F on two occasions that at least 6 hours apart, excluding the first 24 hours pp
endomyometritis
infetion of the decidua, myometrium and sometimes parametrial tissues
- presentation includes pp fever, abd tenderness, foul-smelling lochia
- risk factors include- c/s, long labor, IUPC, numerous vaginal exams
- most significant risk factor = cesarean section
septic pelvic thrombophlebitis
bacterial infection of pelvic venous thrombi usually involving the ovarian vein
- bacterial infection at teh placental implantation site spreads to the ovarian plexuses or to common iliac vein and sometimes into IVC
- presentation: hectic fever but look well or may have palpable pelvic mass
- confirm by CT
- tx: abx plus heparin
tx of endomyometritis after c/s fs after vaginal delivery
after vaginal delivery abx for anaerobes is not necessary-- ampicillin and gentamycin usually adequate
- after c/s need anaerobe coverage- gentamycin and clindamycin
- regardless the fever should improve by 48 hours of abx-- if no improvement- add coverage for enterococcus-- ampicillin
- if no response after 72 hours-- CT abd/pelvis for abscess or infected hematoma
wound infection as cause of post-c/s fever
usually occurs POD4, erythema and drainage from the wound site
- tx surgical opening of the wound, dressing changes, and abx. inspect integrity of fascial closure
- if wound infection within 24 hours post op-- think group A strep -- necrotizing fascitis -- immediate debridement
most commonly isolated organisms in post c/s endometritis
anaerobes like bacteriodes (thus give clinda plus gent)
non-tender vulvar/labial firm, ulcerated lesion with clean raised borders on indurated erythematous base and non-tender bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy
chancre- primary syphilis
- usually manifests within 2-6 weeks after innoculation
two most common causes of vulvar ulcers in the US
HSV and syphilis (chancroid is much less common - h. ducreyi)
nontreponemal tests for syphilis?
serological syphilis tests?
1. VRDL and RPR
2. FTA-ABS, MHA-TP ( remain positive for life after infection)
-- if nontreponemal tests are negative but syphilis is suspected then scrape the lesion and do darkfield microscopy
stages of syphilis infection
primary syphilis- indurated, non-tender ulcer- chancre- arises 3 weeks after exposure- usually spontaneously resolves in 2-6 weeks
secondary- systemic, 9 weeks after chancre-- macular papular rash across body and palms and soles. may also have chondyloma lata
latency- early < 1 yr, late > 1 yr- if untreated 1/3 will progress to tertiary syphilis
tertiary- optic atrophy, tabes dorsalis (dorsal columns), aortic aneurysms, argyll roberston pupils, charcot joints, gummas
treatment for syphillis
IM penicillin G- long acting (only need one injection)
- need three courses if in late latent syphilis
- if penicillin allergy then erythromycin or doxycyclin may be used
- if neurosyphilis then IV penicillin x 4-6 doses
- after tx follow nontreponemal test quantitatively every 3 mo for 1 yr - should be 4 fold fall in 3 mo and negative test by 1 yr
chancroid
soft, tender ulcer of the vulva or penis that has ragged edges on a necrotic base, tender lymphadenopathy
- caused by h. ducreyi- small gram neg rod- gram stain shows classic "School of fish"
- dx by bx and/or culture
tx- oral azithromycin or IM ceftriaxone
best test for dx of tertiary syphilis
lumbar puncture, RPR of CSF
-should suspect tertiary syphilis if pt undergoes adequate tx for syphilis but their RPR does not fall
if a woman if pregnant and dx with syphilis, but is allergic to penicillin, what is the tx of choice?
desensitization and then tx with penicillin
- penicillin is the ONLY known effective treatment for preventing congenital syphilis
- cannot use doxy because it can stain child's teeth
- erythromycin not effective
what are the two most common acute complications of preterm premature rupture of membranes?
infection and labor
what is a fetal sign of chorioamnionitis?
fetal tachycardia
signs of intra-amniotic infection?
fever, uterine tenderness, fetal tachycardia, foul-smelling vaginal d/c
risk factors for PPROM
- lower socioeconomic status
- STDs
- cigarette smoking
- cervical conization
- emergency cerclage
- multiple gestations
- polyhydramnios
- placental abruption
premature rupture of membranes
ROM prior to the onset of labor
preterm premature rupture of membranes
ROM in a gestation <37 weeks before the onset of labor
latency period
the duration of time from ROM to onset of labor
how is PROM diagnosed?
pooling of amniotic fluid on speculum exam, changes in vaginal pH (more alkalotic)-nitrazine test), ferning on microscopy
- if all of these is negative but clinical suspicion is high then an US can be done to look for oligohydramnios
outcome of PPROM
50% will go into labor in the next 48 hours
- 90% will go into labor in the next week
complications of PPROM
- preterm delivery- neonatal RDS
- chorioamnionitis
- placental abruption
- necrotizing entercolitis
treatment of PPROM
- prior to 32 weeks- antenatal steroids to promote fetal lung maturity if no signs of infection, broad spectrum abx can delay delivery and decrease risk of chorioamnionitis, expectant management
- after 34-35 weeks- tx = delivery
risks of expectant management for PPROM
stillbirth, cord accident, infection, abruption
treatment of chorioamnionitis
- broadspectrum abx such ampicillin and gentamycin
- induction of labor
what infections are neonates most commonly affected by with intra-amniotic infection?
GBS and gram-negative enteric rods such as E. coli
If PPROM occurs and there is phosphatidyl glycerol in the vaginal pool of amniotic fluid, what should be done?
induction of labor
most common complication of PROM?
labor
what is the most likely etiology of chorioamnionitis with rupture of membranes?
listeria monocytogenes-- can occur through transplacental spread
- h/o unpasteurized milk products raises suspicion
earliest sign of chorioamnionitis?
fetal tachycardia
three most common causes of vaginal infections (vaginosis or vaginitis)?
1. bacterial vaginosis
2. trichomoniasis
3. candida vulvovaginitis
cause of vaginal infection that is non-inflammatory?
bacterial vaginosis- most likely caused by anaerobes
-- since non-inflammatory, patients will not complain of irritation or swelling and there will not be WBSs on microscopy
treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole orally or vaginally, or clindamycin
(since most BV is caused by anaerobes)
bacterial vaginosis
condition of excessive anaerobic bacteria (bacterial overgrowth) in the vagina leading to homogeneous, alkaline vaginal discharge like "spilled milk" with a "fishy" OR "musty" odor that is exacerbated by menses or intercourse since both of these situations introduce an alkaline substance-release of amines
- positive whiff test (fishy odor with KOH due to release of amines)
- clue cells on microscopy-- bacteria stuck to vaginal epithelial cells
- tx metronidazole
- may be sexually transmitted but not always
candida vulvovaginitis
vaginal and/or vulvar infection caused by candida sp - usually with heterogeneous (curdy, clumpy) discharge and inflammation-intense burning, itching, irritation and swelling, dyspareunia, and normal vaginal pH
(pseudohyphae on microscopy when mixed with KOH which lyses the WBCs and RBCs)
- can be precipitated by recent antibiotic use
tx : oral fluconazole or imidazole cream
- risk factors include diabetes, ICH, and pregnancy
trichomonal vaginitis
infection of the vagina caused by the protozoa trichomonas vaginalis, usually associated with FROTHY yellow to green vaginal discharge and an inflammatory response (classically red punctate lesions on the cervix -- "strawberry cervix")- may have a somewhat fishy smell and be alkaline
- trichomonads on microscopy- motile flagellated single celled protozoa
- tx: metronidazole in high dose (2 g once and tx for partner)- tinidazole for metronidazole resistant cases
- common STD that can survive on wet surface for 6 hours
- may inhabit vagina, urethra or skenes glands
hirsuitism
excessive male pattern hair in a female
virilization
androgen effect other than hair pattern, such as clitoromegaly, male balding, deepening of the voice, acne, oily skin, increased muscle mass, inc libido
- usually caused by adrenal hyperplasia or androgen secreting tumors of the adrenal gland or ovary
most sensitive clinical marker of excessive androgen production
hirsuitism
rapid onset of hirsuitism and virilization most likely indicates?
tumor-- sertoli-leydig tumor
slow onset of hirsuitism and menstrual irregularity since menarche generally indicates?
PCOS
sertoli-leydig cell tumor
ovarian tumor that is solid and produces testosterone, usually slow growing and low malignant potential but often recur-- need to do surgical staging
what determines growth and pigmentation of sex hair?
androgens -- especially testosterone
what is the action of 5 alpha reductase?
converts testosterone to DHT-- more DHT, more stimulation of hair growth
ddx for hirsuitism
1. anovulation/ PCOS-onset since menarche, elevated LH:FSH (tx: OCPs)
2. late-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia (21-hydroxylase deficiency)- hypotension, ambiguous genitalia, fhx, inc 17 hydroxy-progesterone, tx- replace cortisol and mineralocorticoid (fludrocortisone)
3. androgen-secreting tumors- rapid onset- abdominal mass, dx: DHEA-S, tx: surgical
4. cushing disease- glucose intolerance, htn, buffalo hump, central obesity, striae, dx by dex suppression test, tx: surgical
5. medications
6. thyroid disease
7. hyperprolactinemia
most common cause of ambiguous genitalia in a newborn
21 hydroxylase deficiency-- can cause death through salt wasting/hypotension
- late onset can occur in adult females leading to hirsuitism and anovulation
- dx: elevated morning 17 hydroxyprogesterone!
tx: decrease DHT, spironolactone-- testosterone antagonist, OCPs
initial treatment of intertility in PCOS
clomiphene citrate- induction of ovulation
tx of PCOS in general- OCPs and spirolactone- testosterone antagonist
most common cause of abnormal serum screening
wrong dates and multiple gestations-- do an US
what might a elevated maternal serum AFP indicate? decreased level?
1. inc- neural tube defect
2. dec- Down syndrome
components of a certain LMP
1. patient sure of date of LMP
2. regular menses
3. LMP was normal
4. no spotting or bleeding after LMP
-uterine size should correlate with dates
at 20 weeks what is the fundal height generally?
at the umbilicus.
alpha-fetoprotein
a glycoprotein made by the fetal liver, analogous to adult albumin
first trimester screening
use of biochemical markers and/or transvaginal US measuring the aspect in the posterior neck region called "nuchal transluceny" giving a risk of down syndrome and trisomy 18
neural tube defect
failure of closure of the embryonic neural folding leading to an absent cranium and cerebral hemispheres (anenchephaly) or nonclosure of the vertebral arches (spina bifida)
open neural tube defect
a neural tube defect that is not covered by skin
maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
alpha fetoprotein level drawn from maternal blood, this may be elevated due to increased amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein.
- measured in multiples of the mean (MOM). Outside of 2-2.5 MOM is abnormal
trisomy screen
three or four serum markers that may indicate and increased risk of chromosomal abnormalities. A common combination includes maternal serum alpha fetoprotein, hcg, inhibin-A and unconjugated estriol. peroformed between 15-21 weeks. Determines risk for neural tube defects and fetal aneuploidy.
what causes an increased alpha fetoprotein in maternal serum when the fetus has an open neural tube defect?
AFP leaks out of fetal circulation in amniotic fluid due to skin defect over neural tube defect and is them absorbed into maternal circulation
Causes of elevated maternal serum AFP
- underestimation of gestational age
- multiple gestations
- neural tube defects
- abdominal wall defects
- cystic hygroma
- fetal skin defects
- sacrococcygeal teratoma
- decreased maternal weight
- oligohydramnios
causes of low maternal serum AFP
- overestimation of gestational age
- chromosomal abnormalities
- molar pregnancy
- fetal death
- increased maternal weight
triple screen consistent with down syndrome? quad screen?
dec MS-AFP
dec unconj. estriol
inc b-hcg
inc inhibin a (quad)
- 60% of down syndrome pregnancies show abn triple screen
triple screen consistent with trisomy 18- edwards syndrome?
dec ms-AFP, estriol and b-hcg
first trimester screening for down syndrome
pregnancy-associated plasma protein (PAPP-A) and free b-hcg. both of these are decreased in abn pregnancies.
nuchal translucency- showing increased thickness also demonstrates abn
- 85% identification of Downs
- 90% identification of Edwards/ trisomy 18
management of abnormal maternal serum screening?
1st step-- basic US to exclude wrong dates, multigestation, and fetal demise
- if still determined to be at risk then can offer amniocentesis to check levels of AFP and do chromosomal analysis on amniotic fluid
- could also do targeted US to look at spine
US characteristics consistent with down syndrome
- thickened nuchal fold
- shortened femur length
- echogenic bowel
complications of amniocentesis
- 0.5% rate of fetal loss
- rupture of membranes
- chorioamnionitis
pregnancies with increased ms AFP that are evaluated, but no etiology is found are at risk for...?
inc risk of stillbirth, growth restriction, preeclampsia, and placental abruption
-- do serial US if concerned, BPP
what are women with PCOS at an inc risk for?
1. diabetes mellitus
2. endometrial cancer (unopposed estrogen)
3. hyperlipidemia
4. metabolic syndrome (obesity etc)
5. Cardiovascular disease
6. infertility
7. menstrual irregularity
8. hyperandrogenism- hirsuitism, acne, alopecia
Polycystic ovarian syndrome
a condition of unexplained hyperandrogenic chronic anovulation associated with excessive estrogen
acanthosis nigricans
velvety, mossy, verrucous, hyperpigmented skin usually noted on the back of the nexk, in the axilla, and under the breasts that is usually a sign of insulin resistance
tests useful in the diagnosis of PCOS
TSH, prolactin, lipid profile, glucose-intolerance screening, endometrial biopsy (if longstanding anovulation-unopposed estrogen), pelvic US, 17-hydroxyprogesterone. if clinical signs suggestive -- testosterone and DHEA-S
overall treatment goals in PCOS
1. reduce circ androgens
2. protect endometrium from unopposed estrogen- reduce risk of endometrial cancer
3. encourage weight loss
4. induce ovulation when pregnancy desired- clomiphene citrate
5. monitor for the development of diabetes and cv disease and modify risk factors if possible
-- primary management is through combination OCPs- more reg menses, dec endometrial ca risk, inc SHBG to dec free testosterone, suppress ovarian androgen production
in women with PCOS induced grade I endometrial cancer on endo bx, what can be done if the patient wants to preserve ability to have children?
high dose progestin and repeat endometrial bx in 2-3 months
testosterone is largely secreted where in female? DHEAS?
1. ovary
2. adrenal gland
cystocele
defect of the pelvic muscular support of the bladder allowing the bladder to fall down into the vagina. often the urethra is hypermobile. anterior pelvic organ prolapse.
enterocele
defect in the pelvic muscular support of the uterus and cervix (if still situ) or vaginal cuff (if s/p hysterectomy). The small bowel and/or omentum pushes the organs into the vagina. central pelvic organ prolapse defect
rectocele
defect in the pelvic muscular support of the rectum, allowing the rectum to impinge into the vagina. The patient may have constipation or difficulty evacuating stool. posterior pelvic organ prolapse defect
paravaginal defect
defect in the levator ani attachment to the lateral side wall leading to lack of support of the vagina, known as lateral pelvic defect
symptoms of pelvic organ prolapse
heaviness or pressure snesation in the pelvis
- bulging mass (central)
- difficulty voiding or incomplete bladder emptying, urinary incontinence (anterior)
- constipation or having to use fingers in vagina to push poop out (posterior defect)
- sexual dysfunction or dyspareunia
risk factors for pelvic organ prolapse
- multiple vaginal births
- coughing
- lifting
- connective tissue disorders
- genetic predisposition
- lack of estrogen
- obesity
muscles of the pelvic diaphragm
pubococcygeus, puborectalis, levator ani
q tip test
determines presence of hypermobile urethra
- place q tip in the urethra then have patient bear down
- if greater than 60 degree angle between rest and bearing down then positive test
procidentia
entire uterus prolapsed outside of patient's introitus
sacrospinous ligament fixation procedure
fixation of the vaginal cuff to the sacrospinous ligament to prevent prolapse
sacrocolpopexy
using synthetic material to fix vaginal cuff to sacral bone
treatment of central pelvic organ prolapse
almost always caused by enterocele causing vaginal or uterine prolapse-- tx is resection of enterocele hernia sac and fixation of the vagina to secure ligamentous tissue
risks incurred with twin gestation
increased risk of...
- congenital abn
- preterm labor
- preeclampsia
- postpartum hemorrhage
- maternal death
- gestation DM
- anemia
- DVT
- need for c/s
- IUGR
- stillbirth
- fetal anomalies
- placenta previa
- placental abruption
- Twin twin transfusion syndrome
velamentous cord insertion
umbilical vessels separate before reaching the placenta, protected by only a thin fold of amnion, instead of by the cord or the placenta itself; these vessels are susceptible to tearing after rupture of membranes
vasa previa
umbilical vessels that are not protected by cord or membranes which cross the internal cervical os in front of the fetal presenting part, this most commonly occurs with a velamentous cord insertion or a placenta with or more accessory lobes
bilobed or succenturiate-lobed placenta
a placenta with either one more accessory lobe
monozygotic twins
twins formed by the fertilization of one egg by one sperm
dizygotic sperm
twins formed by the fertilization of two eggs by two sperm
chorionicity
the number of placentas in a twin or higher order gestation in monozygotic twins, can either be monochorionic or dichorionic. dizygotic twins are always dichorionic
amnioncity
the number of amniotic sacs in a twin or higher order gestation, monozyogtic twins may be monoamniotic or diamniotic, whereas dizygotic twins are always diamniotic
etiology of monozygous twins
not completely known
- may be associated with slow tubal motility as when someone is on OCPs within 3 mo of pregnancy
- incidence not affected by race, heredity, or parity
etiology of dizygotic twins
inc incidence in black women (1:100 white, 1:80 black), inc with age and peaks at 37, when mother is a dizygotic twin, inc rate with fertility tx
twin twin transfusion syndrome
one twin is donor and one recipient, one gets more blood-- at risk for hemoconcentration, and more amniotic fluid, other has less of both
- tx: laser ablation of the shared anastomotic vessels or serial amniocentesis for decompression
risk factors for vasa previa, if have risk factors then?
if vasa previa identified?
bilobed placenta, low-lying placenta, multifetal pregnancy, and pregnancy resulting from IVF
- if these risk factors are present then do color doppler US
- if vasa previa then planned c/s at 35-36 weeks before ROM
- digital exam should be avoided!
- identification cuts rate of fetal death in 1/2
how are chorionicity and amniocity determined?
timing of the division of the embryos
- in first 72 hours-- dichorionic diamniotic
- day 4-8: monochorionic, diamniotic
day 8: monochorionic/monoamniotic
after day 8: conjoined twins
maternal effects of twin gestation
- increase n/v
- greater physiologic anemia due to greater plasma volume but not proportionately inc red cell volume -- greater risk for pulmonary edema
- greater increase in BP after 20 weeks
- greater increase in size and weight of uterus
what are twin gestations without a dividing membrane at risk for?
high rate of stillbirth due to cord entanglement
What are normal ABGs in a pregnant woman?
pH 7.45, PCO2 28, HCO3 18, primary respiratory alkalosis with a partial metabolic compensation
What happens to hemoglobin, platelet and WBC counts during pregnancy?
hgb and platelets slightly dec, WBCs slightly inc
Rh isoimmunization
Rh negative woman who develops anti-D antibodies in response to exposure to Rh D antigen
vertical transmission
the passage of infection from mother to fetus, whether in utero, during labor and delivery or pp
what do you do if..
1. rubella nonimmune
2. Rh -
3. positive antibody screen
4. HBsAg positive
1. vaccinate pp since live vaccine, avoid sick contacts
2. Rhogam anytime there is bleeding during pregnancy to prevent sensitization, also at 28 weeks and then after delivery if baby is Rh +
3. may have isoimmunization- identify the ab rxn and do a titer
4. patient is infectious with Hep B, check LFTs and hepatitis serology to determine if patient is a chronic carrier or has active hepatitis- baby will need HBIG and hep B vaccine
what to do if abnormal pap smear during pregnancy...
1. ASCUS
2. LGSIL, HSIL
1. repeat pap pp
2. LGSIL or HSIL- colposcopy
-- only invasive cancer should alter management
What do you do if there is an abnormal 1hr glucose screen?
do a 3 hour glucose tolerance test to determine if GDM is present- 15% of people screened are positive
when does the neural tube close in the fetus?
by 21-28 days (5-6 weeks) before many women realize they are pregnant, which is why women need to take prenatal vitamins
- folate supplement decrease risk of neural tube defects by 50%
Which of the following antibodies can cross the placenta and thus are dangerous to a fetus...
1. anti-lewis
2. anti-kell
3. anti-duffy
1. IgM does not cross placenta-- no problem
2. crosses
3. crosses
Lewis Lives, Kell Kills, Duffy dies
what should be done if lichen sclerosus is expected on exam?
biopsy- will see thinned epidermis, hyperkeratosis, and elongation of the rete pegs
- vulvar cancer is associated with lichen sclerosus and thus bx is essential
lichen sclerosus
chronic inflammatory dermatologic disease characterized by pruritis and pain, which affects the anogenital region
vulva
the external genitalia of the female comprise of the mons pubis, labia majora, the clitoris, the vestibule of the vagina and its glands and opening of the urethra and the vagina
vulvar itching in a post menopausal woman that is worse at night, figure of eight pattern on exam, "cigarette paper" skin that is crinkled, fragile, thin and atrophic. May have agglutination of the tissues and pain with intercourse. dz?
lichen sclerosus
tx of lichen sclerosus
avoid irritants, use corticosteroid ointment like Clobetasol, taper with relief, this a chronic disease and needs to be followed for signs of cancer transformation
where are the bartholin glands (major vestibular glands) located. If abscess occurs, what is the tx?
at 5 and 7 oclock of the labia majora
I&D will likely lead to recurrence, so placing a pediatric foley bulb will help to continue the drainage and allow healing- usually infection is polymicrobial
- bx if >40 bc of risk of cancer
lichen sclerosus
chronic inflammatory dermatologic disease characterized by pruritis and pain, which affects the anogenital region
vulva
the external genitalia of the female comprise of the mons pubis, labia majora, the clitoris, the vestibule of the vagina and its glands and opening of the urethra and the vagina
vulvar itching in a post menopausal woman that is worse at night, figure of eight pattern on exam, "cigarette paper" skin that is crinkled, fragile, thin and atrophic. May have agglutination of the tissues and pain with intercourse. dz?
lichen sclerosus
tx of lichen sclerosus
avoid irritants, use corticosteroid ointment like Clobetasol, taper with relief, this a chronic disease and needs to be followed for signs of cancer transformation
where are the bartholin glands (major vestibular glands) located. If abscess occurs, what is the tx?
at 5 and 7 oclock of the labia majora
I&D will likely lead to recurrence, so placing a pediatric foley bulb will help to continue the drainage and allow healing- usually infection is polymicrobial
- bx if >40 bc of risk of cancer