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441 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
microscopically, the individual structural and functional unit of the nervous system is the ___________.
neuron
supportive elements interspersed among the neurons of the CNS are called _________________.
glial cells
what are the two divisions of the human nervous system?
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
central nervous system (CNS)
what does the CNS consist of?
brain
spinal cord
through which roots do sensory and motor fibers enter or exit the spinal cord?
sensory - enter posterior (dorsal) root

motor - exit anterior (ventral) root
what combines to form a spinal nerve?
posterior and anterior roots of the spinal cord, making them mixed nerves (posterior = sensory; anterior = motor)
what functions are neurons specialized to do?
receive information
transmit electrical impulses
influence other neurons or effector tissues
what is a perikaryon?
neuron cell body

aka soma
what constitutes gray matter of the CNS?
cell bodies
Named and usually function-specific clusters of cell bodies in the CNS are called ___________.
nuclei (s. nucleus)
of what does the white matter of the CNS consist?
bundles of axons wrapped in myelin
a sheath of insulating lipoprotein wrapped around axons is ___________.
myelin
what are the terminal ends of the axon of a neuron?
synapses
motor end plate (neuromuscular junction)
what does an electrochemical synapse consist of?
presynaptic element
synaptic cleft
postsynaptic region
what causes the release of neurotransmitters from a presynaptic element into a synapse?
action potential (an electrical impulse
where are neurotransmitters stored?
synaptic vesicles in the presynaptic element
what is a monosynaptic reflex arc?
one of the simplest types of neuronal circuits, a reflex arc composed of only two neurons
____________ are involuntary responses to a particular bit of sensory input.
Reflexes
what is areflexia?
lack of a reflex
what is hyporeflexia?
obviously weakened reflex
what is hyperreflexia?
excessively active reflex
this part of the brain is the link between the brainstem and the forebrain.
midbrain (which is continuous with the pons)
what are the largest and most obvious parts of the human brain?
cerebral hemispheres
the ________________________ is a layer of neuronal cell bodies that covers the entire surface of a hemisphere.
cerebral cortex
what are gyri?
elevations (hills) in the cerebral cortex
what are sulci?
creases (valleys) in the cerebral cortex
this is also called the basal ganglia.
basal nuclei

(prominent group of neuronal cell bodies)
A ______________________________ is a set of neurons linked together to convey a particular block of information or accomplish a particular task.
functional system
anatomic parts of the CNS, such as the medulla and pons, are commonly called __________.
regions
the study of the structure and function of anatomic regions of the CNS is called __________________________.
regional neurobiology
it is important to remember that the functional characteristics of regions coexist with those of ____________.
systems
what are corticospinal fibers?
fibers with their cell bodies in the cerebral cortex and their axons end in the spinal cord
successful diagnosis of patients with neurologic disorders will depend on, among other things, a good understanding of both ___________ and ____________ neurobiology.
regional

systems
in general, cranial nerve signs are more helpful than long-tract signs in ____________________________.
localizing the lesion
what are the combinations of neurologic deficits which may indicate involvement of one of three general locations of the CNS?
deficits located on the same side of the head and body - indicates lesions in the cerebral hemishphere

deficits on one side of the headand on the opposite side of the body - indicates a lesion in the brain stem

deficits of the body only usually suggest a lesion in the spinal cord
what are crossed (alternating) deficits?
deficits on one side of the head and on the opposite side of the body
which root of a spinal cord is afferent?
posterior root

(conducts impulses toward the spinal cord)
which root of a spinal cord is efferent?
anterior root

(conducts impulses away from the spinal cord)
the __________ is rostral to the pons but caudal to the thalamus.
midbrain
what is a symptom?
departure from any normal state of structure or function that is experienced by the patient

(something is wrong and the patient knows it)
what is a sign?
departure from any normal state of structure or function that is discovered, observed and evaluated by a health care professional upon examining the patient
is a sign or a symptom subjective?
symptom
is a sign or a symptom objective?
sign
the most routinely used methods to image the brain and the skull are _____________________ and _____________________________
computed tomography (CT)
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
____________________ is particularly useful in visualizing the skull and the brain in the early stages of subarachnoid hemorrhage
CT
what are the weighting techniques for use in MRI studies?
T1-weighted
T2- weighted
_______________________ visualizes arteries and veins by measuring the velocity of flow in them.
magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
________ shows brain anatomy in elegant detail, cisternal relationships, cranial nerves and a wide variety of clinical abnormalities.
MRI
what is computed tomography?
an x-ray imaging technique that measures the effects of tissue density and various types of atoms in the tissue on x-rays passing through that tissue
the higher the _______________, the greater the ability of the atom to attenuate x-rays.
atomic number
what quality of atoms is directly related to the ability of the atom to stop x-rays?
atomic number

the higher the atomic number of the atom, the better it can stop x-rays
what are Hounsfield units?
aka CT numbers

the unit used to represent the intensity of x-rays that is transmitted through tissues being measured

arbitrary system where bone is +1000 (bright white), air is -1000 (very black), and water is 0
what are the approximate intensities of blood, brain, and CSF using the Hounsfield scale?
blood - +100
brain - +30
CSF - +5
present-generation CT scanners are known as _______________________ scanners.
helical (spiral)
_________ is a fast and accurate method of detecting recent subarachnoid hemorrhage.
CT
an acute subarachnoid hemorrhage in a noncontrast CT scan appears ______________ in contrast to the subarachnoid spaces and cisterns, which normally are ________________.
hemorrhage - hyperdense (white)

spaces and cisterns - hypodense (dark)
Enhanced CT is a technique using an ________________________ material injected intravenously followed by CT examination.
iodinated contrast
what is the "resonance" in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?
only a pulse of radio waves at a frequency matching the angulated, spining proton will be absorbed by the proton and knock it off of its axis
what is "relaxation" in MRI?
when the radio wave pulse is turned off, protons off their axis will slowly return to their original axis
the contrast material used for enhancing tumors and blood vessels is the paramagnetic rare earth ____________.
gadolinium
what imaging technique images acute subarrachnoid hemorrhages poorly? which imaging technique images them well?
poorly by T1-weighted MRI

well by CT
what are the contraindications to MRI?
cardiac pacemakers
cochlear implants
ferromagnetic foreign bodies in the eye
certain aneurism clips

large metallic implants or ferromagnetic foreign bodies in the body may heat up
___________ imaging planes are oriented perpendicular to the rostrocaudal axis of the forebrain, but are nearly parallel to the rostrocaudal axis of the brainstem and spinal cord.
coronal
_____________ images are oriented parallel to the rostrocaudal axis of the cerebral hemispheres but nearly perpendicular to the long axis of the brainstem and spinal cord
axial
_____________ images are at, or parallel with, the midsagittal plane of the brain or spinal cord
sagittal
how are coronal scans viewed?
as though you are looking the patient in the face
how are axial scans viewed?
as though you are standing at the patient's feet, with the patient lying supine in the machine
in both coronal and axial views, the patient's left side is to the observer's _________.
right
the number of cells in the adult human central nervous system has been estimated at _________________.
100 billion
what three activities, in addition to maintaining metabolism, are neurons responsible for?
1. receive information from the environment or other nerve cells

2. process information

3. send information to other neurons or effector tissues
what is the primary function of glia?
to control the environment within the CNS
what actions are glial cells responsible for?
shuttle nutritive molecules from blood vessels to neurons

remove waste products

maintain the electrochemical surroundings of neurons

guide developing neurons to correct locations

structural support for nerve cells
what does an archetypical neuron consist of?
cell body (soma)
dendrites
axon
what type of neurons have several dendrites extending from the cell body?
multipolar neurons
what is a terminal arbor?
the distal end of an axon

the almost exclusive site of branching of an axon
what is a synapse?
contact between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector tissue which transfers signals from one to the other
what are dendritic spines?
small bud-like extensions of a variety of shapes frequently seen on the more distal branches of dendritic tree
what are the only organelles seen in thin, distal dendritic branches of neurons? what is also in thicker branches?
cytoskeletal elements (microtubules and neurofilaments

in thicker branches, you can also find mitochondria
what is the type of intermediate filament that occurs only in neurons?
neurofilaments
in many nerve cells the distal dendrites collect into large, trunk-like __________________ that contain the same organelles as the cell body.
primary dendrites
the _____________ is the metabolic center of the nerve cell.
perikaryon (cell body, soma)
what is abundant in the cytoplasm of neurons?
ribosomes
rough endoplasmic reticulum
golgi complex
extensive, stacked layers of rER are seen as patches of basophilic staining in histologic preparations and are known as ________________.
Nissl substance
_____________ neurons account for more than 99% of all neuons.
multipolar
what is the shape of pseudounipolar or unipolar neurons?
spherical cell body with a centrally placed nucleus

emits a single process that courses a short distance before dividing into two branches
where are the cell bodies of pseudounipolar axons usually found?
sensory ganglia of cranial and spinal nerves
what is the shape of bipolar neurons?
round or oval perikaryon, with a single large process emanating from each end
where are bipolar neurons commonly found?
structures associated with special senses (retina, nose, vestibular and auditory systems)
the axon arises from the cell body at a small elevation called the __________________.
axon hillock
the proximal part of the axon, adjacent to the axon hillock, is the ______________________
initial segment
what features can distinguish axons from dendrites at the ultrastructural level?
axons are typically devoid of ribosomes, whereas dendrites have ribosomes

axons can extend for long distances before branching and terminating
to what does the term nerve fiber refer?
axon and the sheath (myelination) that is provided by support cells
in most neurons, each axon terminal is capped with small ___________________
terminal boutons
in some cells, boutons are found along the length of the axon, where they are called __________________.
boutons en passant
the site at which an axon terminal communicates with a second neuron, or with an effector tissue, is called a ___________.
synapse
axonal transport from the cell body toward the terminals is called _____________________ transport
anterograde (orthograde)
axonal transport from the terminals toward the cell body is called ________________ transport.
retrograde
what are the two classifications of anterograde axonal transport?
fast (400 mm/day)

slow (~1 mm/day)
what protein is the basis for fast anterograde axonal transport?
kinesin

an ATPase which moves macromolecule-containing vesicles and mitochondria along microtubules
what is carried by slow anterograde axonal transport?
important structural and metabolic components from the cell body to axon terminals
what is carried by fast anterograde axonal transport?
macromolecule-containing vesicles and mitochondria
______________________ allows the neuron to respond to molecules, for example, growth factors, which are taken up near the axon terminal by either pinocytosis or receptor-mediated endocytosis.
retrograde axonal transport

also functions in the continual recycling of components of the axon terminal
what protein drives retrograde axonal transport?
dynein
how is axonal transport important in rabies?
rabies virus replicates in muscle tissue at the site of a bite by a rabid animal and is then transported in a retrograde direction to the cell bodies of neurons which synapse on that muscle
how is axonal transport important in tetanus?
clostridium tetani, a bacterium, replicates in muscle tissue and the toxin it produces is carried in a retrograde direction to the cell bodies of neurons which innervate the muscle
In the CNS, a cluster of functionally related nerve cell bodies is most commonly called a ______________
nucleus
cell bodies in the CNS that are arranged in a layer may be called a ____________________.
layer, lamina or stratum
columnar groups of cell bodies in the CNS may be called _____________.
columns
where are columns found in the CNS?
group of cell bodies arranged in a column

found in cerebral cortex (group of cells that are related by fcn and by location of stimulus that drives them) or spinal cord (longitudinal group of functionally related cells that extend for part or all of the length of the brainstem or spinal cord)
bundles of axons in the CNS are called __________________________.
tracts, fasciculi or leminisci

typically composed of specific populations of functionally related fibers
a group of several tracts or fasciculi is called a _________________.
funiculus

(in certain cases, a system)
in the PNS, collections of cell bodies form a _______________.
ganglion

could be sensory or motor
in the PNS, axons make up _____________________.
nerves, rami, or roots
a neuron that conducts signals from the periphery toward the CNS is called ______________
afferent
a neuron that conducts signals from the CNS toward the periphery is called ______________
efferent
neurons with long axons that convey signals to a distant target are called ________________________
projection neurons
neurons that act locally (because dendrites and axon are limited to the vicinity of the cell body) are called _________________
interneurons (local circuit cells
what are dopaminergic neurons?
neurons that produce dopamine
what are glutamergic neurons?
neurons that produce glutamate

neurons whose axons form the corticospinal tracts
peptidergic
contain peptides such as substance P
the communicative function of neurons is carried out by fluctuations in their _____________________
electrical potential
neurons carry a ______________ electrical charge compared to the ECF bathing them
negative
the plasma membrane is referred to as ______________ because certain ions can cross at certain times but there is not a free exchange
semi-permeable
by what methods can specific ion channels be opened and closed?
chemical signals (neurotransmitters)
mechanical distortion of membrane
voltage changes
neurons that receive information from the environment are called ______________________________
primary sensory neurons
list some examples of primary sensory neurons
photoreceptors
chemoreceptors
mechanoreceptors
thermoreceptors
nociceptors
a graded depolarizing potential in a primary sensory neuron as the result of a stimulus is called a ______________________
generator potential
the process of converting sensory input into a form interpretable by the nervous system is ___________
transduction
how do rod and cone photoreceptors of the retina transduce light energy?
photon strikes photoreceptor
many sodium channels close
photoreceptor hyperpolarizes
what makes photoreceptors unique among sensory cells?
become more negative (hyperpolarized) upon application of a stimulus, rather than more positive (depolarized)
how do taste and olfactory receptor cells mediate the two primary types of chemoreception?
both respond to the presence of specific chemicals dissolved in a solution
______________ transduce various qualities of physical force into electrical signals that are transmitted by sensory neurons
mechanoreceptors

e.g. vestibular, auditory, and somatosensory systems
____________ transduce noxious (painful) stimuli
nociceptors
___________ transduce temperature changes in skin and viscera
thermoreceptors
what are the two broad types of synapses?
electrical
chemical (far more common, esp. in CNS)
the prominent collection of vesicles in the presynaptic element of a synapse contain __________________
neurotransmitter (to be released into the synaptic cleft)
what supplies the energy for synaptic function?
mitochondria gathered in the terminal axonal bouton
what are the two important functional properties of chemical synapses?
unidirectional

strength of effect on postsynaptic membrane is variable and partly dependent on amount of neurotransmitter released
each synaptic vesicle contains a fixed amount of neurotransmitter called a ______________
quantum
biogenic amines
class of neurotransmitters

includes acetylcholine, dopamine, and norepinephrine
amino acids
class of neurotransmitters

includes glutamate and GABA
nucleotides
class of neurotransmitters

includes adenosine
neuropeptides
class of neurotransmitters

includes substance P, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin
gases (NT)
class of neurotransmitters

includes nitric oxide and carbon monoxide
biogenic amines and amino acid neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ______________________, though the required enzymes are made in the _________________
axon terminal

cell body
_______________________ affects dopamine-synthesizing neurons located in an area of the brain stem known as substantia nigra (these cells die at an accelerated rate)
parkinson's disease
_____________________ affects several million Americans and appears to be caused by imbalances in the phosphatidyl inositol-linked neurotransmitter system
bipolar disorder
the drug _____________________ stabilizes phosphatidyl inositol (PI) turnover, stabilizing the mood of a patient with bipolar disorder
lithium carbonate
__________________ is characterized by the degeneration of neurons in basal forebrain nuclei, the loss of synapses in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus, and the presence of pathologic structures called neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques
alzheimer disease
what pathologic structures are characteristic of alzheimer patients?
fibrillary tangles
senile plaques
in ______________________, the patient's immune system produces antibodies to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
myasthenia gravis
the ____________________________ is a ligand-gated channel found at the synapse between primary motor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
astrocytes modulate synaptic activity in their vicinity by releasing small amounts of ___________
glutamate
astrocytes are derived from _____________
neuroectoderm
oligodendrocytes are derived from _____________
neuroectoderm
microglia are derived from ______________
mesoderm
what cells of the PNS are analogous to the astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia?
satellite cells
Schwann cells
macrophages
where are astrocytes found?
throughout the CNS
how do astrocytes appear?
highly branched cells with processes that contact most of the surfaces of neuronal dendrites and cell bodies, as well as some axonal surfaces; other processes end in end feet
_______________ are terminal expansions of astrocyte processes which join together to completely line the interfaces between the CNS and other tissues
end feet
the outer surface of the brain and spinal cord, where it meets the inner surface of the pia mater is covered with a coating of several layers of joined end-feet called the __________________
glia limitans (glial limiting membrane)
the _________________ is the innermost of the meningeal membranes that enclose the CNS
pia mater
astrocytes of gray matter are called _______________

astrocytes of white matter are called _______________
protoplasmic astrocytes

fibrous astrocytes
astrocytes of white matter are called fibrous astrocytes because they have a high content of _________________
intermediate filaments
astrocytes can be distinguished immunohistochemically by the presence of intermediate filaments with a distinctive marker protein called _______________________
glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
__________________ content of protoplasmic astrocytes increases in pathologic conditions
glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
astrocytes, in the form of __________________, provide a pathway for neuronal migration during development
radial glial cells
what do astrocytes do in the adult brain?
frame certain clusters of neurons

enclose bundles of unmyelinated axons in white matter
if injury to the CNS results in the destruction of cells, the space created by the breakdown of debris is filled by proliferation or hypertrophy of ____________; this results in the formation of an __________________
astrocytes

astrocytic scar
the majority of CNS tumors are of ________________ origin.
astrocytic

astrocytes maintain the ability to proliferate in the mature brain, making them susceptible to events that disrupt the control of cell division
astrocytes secrete ________________ vital to normal function of some neurons
growth factors
astrocytes secrete _____________________________ necessary for synaptic growth and plasticity
cholesterol and lipoproteins
how do astrocytes contribute to the regulation of inflammatory processes in the CNS?
secrete cytokines and immune mediators such as IL-1, IL-6 and prostaglandin in disease processes
astrocytes buffer the _________________ and _________________ of extracellular fluid
ionic composition

pH
astrocytes participate in ______________ metabolism as well as modulation of synaptic transmission by releasing small amounts of _________________
neurotransmitter

glutamate
how are astrocyte tumors of specific types distributed in the CNS?
have characteristic distributions rather than random distribution

ex. glioblastoma multiforme is most frequently in frontal or temporal lobe
in the CNS, vessels are induced by the surrounding jacket of _________________ to form extensive tight junctions
astrocyte end-feet

keeps solutes from reaching the neuroal tissue unless they pass through the endothelial cells

(i.e. blood-brain barrier)
what can diffuse freely across the endothelial cells of the blood brain barrier?
water
gases
lipid-soluble small molecules

others must be carried across by transport systems (highly selective exchange)
why is the blood-brain barrier of major clinical importance?
largely excludes many drugs from the CNS
in what type of brain matter are oligodendrocytes found?
gray matter
white matter
the function of oligodendrocytes is __________________
myelination

(provision of an electrochemically insulating sheath around all but the smalles axons in white matter)
where is the cytoplasm of an oligodendrocyte after it has myelinated an axon?
only found in the innermost and outermost turns
a myelinated axon of the CNS is covered by a series of myelin segments, each formed by an ____________________
oligodendroglial cell (oligodendrocyte)
interruptions between myelin segments on an axon are called ____________________
nodes of ranvier
morphologic specializations at the nodes of Ranvier include ____________________________________________
dense undercoating of axonal membrane

contact by an astrocyte process
________________________ arise from the cells that make up the structure of the brain and spinal cord, as well as its coverings
primary brain tumors
_____________ are the glial cell tumors encountered most often
astrocytomas
how are astrocytomas traditionally evaluated?
how closely the neoplastic cells resemble non-neoplastic astrocytes (a grading system which attempts to define the aggressiveness of the tumor and to give a prognosis)
grade I astrocytomas
uncommon
resemble differentiated astrocytes
react to an injury within the brain
usually from fibrillary astrocytes in the white matter (many stubby processes)
grow slowly (gradual enlargement is main clue that it exists)
grade II astrocytomas
prominent processes filled with glial filaments (infiltrate between myelinated axons)

commonly found in adults

years may elapse before symptoms present

become more aggressive if they recur after surgery
which grades of astrocytomas are generally slowly growing?
grade I
grade II
grade III astrocytomas
nuclei are often enlarged (with increased density of chromatin)

lose uniformity of nuclear appearance

mitotic figures (chromosomes on spindles) frequently noted

density of blood vessels is increased

rapidly growing (dividing) and malignant
grade IV astrocytomas
highly malignant

astrocytes are spindled

elongated nuclei may have many mitotic figures

can invade letomeninges, spreading from one gyrus to the next

spreads between hemispheres, marching through the corpus callosum
what is another name for glioblastoma multiforme?
grade IV astrocytoma
what are the intrinsic features of glioblastoma multiforme?
complex neovascular structure

sharp borders between living and dead tumor tissue
what is the most common astrocytoma encountered in middle-aged and elderly adult patients?
glioblastoma multiforme

(grade IV astrocytoma)
what is the survival time of patients with a grade 4 astrocytoma, once diagnosed?
as little as only weeks
oligodendroglia can produce slow-growing tumors, located ______________________ rather than in the diencephalon or in the basal ganglia
lobes of the brain
how do oligodendroglia in oligodendrogliomas (tumors of the brain lobes) appear?
dark, round nuclei centered within clear cytoplasm (yold of a fried egg embedded in egg white
the ventricular spaces of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord are lined by an epithelium of _______________________
ependymal cells
tumors of ependymal cells are called ______________________
ependymomas
when ependymomas are found in children or adolescents, they are found ___________________
in the fourth ventricle
when ependymomas are found in adults, they are found ___________________
in the spinal cord

(esp. cervical level)
ependymomas are more/less infiltrative than astrocytomas?
less
why can ependymomas be more easily dissected away from spinal tissues and removed by a neurosurgeon
they are more circumscribed

(confined to a limited area)
how are tumors derived from microglia interpreted?
as lymphomas (large family of neoplasms consisting of bone marrow-derived or thymus-derived cells, B cells or T cells respectively)
lymphomas of the brain are more frequent in patients who suffer from one of the various states of __________________________
acquired immunodeficiency

(HIV or medicine-induced immunodeficiency)
tumors that primarily affect children may contain cells that function like ________________
stem cells
medulloblastomas arise in the _____________________ of children and consist of primitive "___________" that are capable of developing along several pathways
cerebellar hemispheres

blue cells
why must medulloblastomas be treated aggressively?
most retain the characteristic unrestrained growth of embryonal cells without differentiation, so they quickly spread along the surface of the brain and spinal cord
benign primary brain tumors are often covered by a ____________________ that demarcates them from surrounding normal brain
fibrous, vascularized capsule
how do benign primary brain tumors cause problems?
they compress normal tissue as they grow
tumors that primarily affect children may contain cells that function like ________________
stem cells
medulloblastomas arise in the _____________________ of children and consist of primitive "___________" that are capable of developing along several pathways
cerebellar hemispheres

blue cells
why must medulloblastomas be treated aggressively?
most retain the characteristic unrestrained growth of embryonal cells without differentiation, so they quickly spread along the surface of the brain and spinal cord
benign primary brain tumors are often covered by a ____________________ that demarcates them from surrounding normal brain
fibrous, vascularized capsule
how do benign primary brain tumors cause problems?
they compress normal tissue as they grow
what are the two types of frequently encountered benign primary brain tumors?
meningioma

schwannoma
from where do metastatic brain tumors arise?
malignant cells that originate outside the nervous system
how do the growth patterns of metastatic tumors differ from primary tumors?
clumps of tumor cells, broken away from a tumor, travel through the bloodstream and become lodged at tiny arteriolar branch points (often at gray/white matter junction)
___________________ is the most common primary tumor to secondarily involve the brain.
lung carcinoma
breast carcinoma can spread to the _____________ or the _____________
dura

brain substance
prostate carcinoma can spread to the ______________
spinal cord

(travels through veins of Batson's venous plexus)
what are the PNS supporting cells? what are they analogous to from the CNS?
satellite cells - astrocytes

schwann cells - oligodendrocytes
______________ surround the cell bodies of neurons in sensory and autonomic ganglia
satellite cells
_____________ ensheath the axons in peripheral nerves
schwann cells
small pockets of cytoplasm, known as ____________________________ are found at irregular intervals in PNS myelin
Schmidt-Lanterman clefts
A ________________ covers the external surface of a schwann cell
basal lamina

formed by the schwann cell
may help stabilize during myelin formation
each schwann cell can myelinate how many internodes of a PNS axon?
only a single internode

(oligodendrocytes in the CNS can myelinate multiple internodes)
in what are unmyelinated axons in the PNS enclosed?
invaginations in Schwann cells
what are the three connective tissue sheaths that cover peripheral nerve fibers external to the schwann cell basal lamina?
endoneurium - innermost (type III collagen fibrils with occasional fibroblasts) - around individual axons

perineurium - middle sheath (several concentric layers of flattened fibroblasts with basal laminae) - around groups (fascicles) of axons

epineurium - outermost (dense connective tissue sheath of type I collagen and typical fibroblasts) - surrounds entire nerve
what forms the blood-nerve barrier?
tight junctions connecting perineurial cells
why are schwannomas easily excised?
they arise singly
they are encapsulated
they do not include nerve fibers
why are neurofibromas difficult to remove?
they arise in multiples
they are not encapsulated
they infiltrate nerve bundles
how can neurons recover from damage?
only if axons are injured

if cell body is damaged, axon cannot be regenerated
what type of axonal injuries have a better prognosis for regeneration?
compression or crushing

severing has low success for regeneration
in milder lesions in which focal demyelination occurs without axonal degeneration (___________), there is loss of conduction in the nerve, but recovery is to be expected
neurapraxia
when compression or crushing kills the axons distal to the site of injury, the neuronal cell bodies, which are in the ___________ or __________ usually survive
spinal cord

sensory or autonomic ganglia
cell bodies of damaged neurons may undergo _______________ in response to the trauma
chromatolysis
days to weeks after the trauma ____________ starts at the point of injury, and the _______ grow distally
axonal sprouting

axons
while axonal sprouting occurs, axons die and are removed by macrophages in the distal part of the nerve, what remains?
schwann cells, which lose their myelin but keep their basal lamina
what are bands of Bungner?
cordons of Schwann cells which have proliferated inside the basal lamina after an injury to the axon
________________ and ________________ guide distally growing axonal sprouts after injury
schwann cells

basal lamina
macrophages, activated by phagocytosis of myelin debris, signal schwann cells to secrete ________________, a neurotrophin that promotes axon growth
nerve growth factor
the growth rate of sprouting axons is about ____________
1mm/day
in a compression injury (___________), the proximal axon sprouts and distal bands of Schwann cells remain in their original orientation, so nerve fibers are lined up just as they were before the injury
axonotmesis
when a peripheral nerve is severed (_____________) regeneration is less likely to occur
neurotmesis
why is regeneration so unlikely in a severed peripheral nerve?
sprouting occurs at the proximal end of the axon an, and the axon grows, but it may not reach its distal target
some regenerating axons enter correct bands of bungner (regain fcn), some enter wrong bands of bungner (don't regain fcn), and others fail to enter schwann cell tubes, ending blindly in connective tissue as _______________
neuromas
mechanical or chemical stimulation of _____________ may be the cause of "phantom pain" in persons with amputated limbs
neuromas (blindly ending sensory axons)
what happens in response to neuronal injury in the CNS?
neuron mounts a sprouting response

astrocytes hypertrophy and proliferate, filling space left by injury or by degeneration of damaged nerve tissue (form a scar)

sprouts can't get through scar

axonal sprouts are retracted and loss of function is permanent
what factors can inhibit the regrowth of axons in the CNS?
astrocyte scar

astrocytes don't secete adequate growth factors to sustain regrowing axons

molecules in oligodendrocyte myelin
from what germ layer does the central nervous system develop?
primitive ectoderm
how much does the brain weigh at birth? at 6 years? in adulthood?
birth - 800 g
6 yo - 1200 g
adult - 1400 g
most, but not all neurons undergo their last cell division ________________
before birth
what percent of births are associated with major malformations of the CNS?
3 %
about ___% of spontaneously aborted fetuses and __% of infants who die within the first year of life have major CNS malformations
75

40
the basic form of the human CNS is complete by about ________________
the sixth week of gestation
phases after the basic form of the CNS, cellular proliferation and migration, are most prominent ______________________
in the second trimester of gestation

(though they continue until term)
myelination peaks _________________ but continues into adulthood
in the third trimester
the development of synaptic connections between neurons and the response of the brain to its experiences result in its ______________
functional maturity

(process that continues throughout life)
one of the first indicators of the developing nervous system to appear is the ________________ on the posterior aspect of the trilaminar embryo
neural groove
the neural groove deepens and the _____________ at the lateral margins of the ________________ become obvious as they elevate and eventually join along the posterior midline to form the ______________________
neural folds

neural plate

neural tube
the apposition and fusion of the neural folds and of the overlying ectoderm initially takes place at what will be the ________________ of the spinal cord, then proceeds _____________ from this location
cervical levels

rostrally and caudally
the _______________________ are the last points at which the neural tube closes
anterior and posterior neuropores
after formation of the neural tube, three layers appear in rapid succession. they are:
ventricular zone
marginal zone
intermediate zone
in early stages the closing neural plate and and tube consist of a single layer, the _________________, composed of a pseudostratified layer of fusiform-shaped cells undergoing DNA replication and cell division
ventricular zone
the progenitor cells of the __________________ will give rise to the neurons and some glial cells o the mature nervous system, and to the ependymal cells lining the ventricles
ventricular zone
immediately after the ventricular zone is formed, the ______________ appears
marginal zone
the ___________________ is at the abluminal aspect of the neural tube and consists of the processes of cells located within the ventricular zone, but does not contain their nuclei
marginal zone
the marginal zone contains ____________ cell bodies
almost no

it will be invaded by axons of neurons that are located in the intermediate zone
the third area of the neural tube to appear is the ____________________
intermediate zone
the ___________________________ is formed between the ventricular zone and the marginal zone
intermediate zone
the progenitor cells from the ventricular zone give rise to immature __________________
postmitotic neurons
immature neurons from the intermediate zone migrate to the area immediately external to the _________ zone, where they set up residence
ventricular
the _______________ zone develops at the interface of the ventricular and intermediate zones
subventricular
the progenitor cells of the subventricular zone give rise to ______________________
macroglial cells of the CNS and to specific populations of developing neurons in the brainstem and forebrain
development of the alar plate and the basal plate is a __________ process
dynamic
alar and basal plates consist of the ____________ zone and adjacent ______________ zone
ventricular

intermediate

alar plate is posterior, whereas basal plate is anterior
what is the basic organizational plan from which the brain and spinal cord will arise? what modification accommodates the cerebral cortex?
appearance of the cortical plate and subplate
the __________ forms at the interface of the marginal zone and the intermediate zone and is composed of neurons that originate from the ventricular zone
cortical plate
the postmitotic immature neurons of the ventricular zone, traverse the intermediate zone, using the processes of ____________ as a scaffold to take up their position as the cortical plate
radial glia
the __________ is a narrow region located immediately internal to the cortical plate
subplate
the first neural tissue appears at the end of the ___________ third week of embryonic development
third
a specialized part of the ectoderm, the ________________, gives rise to the brain, spinal cord and peripheral nervous system
neuroectoderm
the notochord arises from _______________ at about _______________
axial mesoderm

16 days
the notochord is completely formed by the beginning of the __________ week
fourth
the ___________ defines the longitudinal axis of the embryo
notochord
the ____________ determines the orientation of the vertebral column
notochord
the _____________ persists as the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs
notochord
one important function of the ____________ is induction
notochord
_______________ is the directing of ectoderm overlying the notochord to form the neural plate
induction
associated with the process of induction is the production of ________________________ in the notochord
cell adhesion molecules
_________________________ diffuse from the notochord into the neural plate and function to join the primitive neuroepithelial cells into a tight unit
cell adhesion molecules
within the neuroectoderm, some neuroepithelial cells elongate and become spindle shaped; this is induced by the notochord and forms the ________________; it is completed by the end of the __________ week of gestation
neural plate

third
what are the two infolding processes that form the neural tube from the neural plate?
primary neurulation (rostral end) - gives rise to brain and spinal cord through lumbar levels

secondary neurulation (caudal-most segment) - gives rise to sacral and coccygeal
the neural plate begins to thicken at its lateral margins by about day __
18 (after fertilization)
the thickening of the lateral margins of the neural plate elevates the edges of it to form _____________
neural folds
the neural folds first contact each other to begin the formation of the neural tube at about day __
20
during the process of fusion of the neural tube, the lumen, called the _______________, is open to the amniotic cavity both rostrally and caudally
neural canal
the rostral opening of the neural tube is called the __________________, and closes at about day __
anterior neuropore

24
the caudal opening of the neural tube is called the __________________, and closes at about day __
posterior neuropore

26
(about two days after the anterior neuropore)
neurulation is brought about by morphologic changes in the ____________
neuroblasts
_____________ are the immature and dividing future neurons in the ventricular zone
neuroblasts
congenital malformations associated with defective neurulation are called ____________________
dysraphic defects
several well-controlled clinical trials have proven that supplementation with the vitamin ______________, found in green, leafy vegetables, can reduce the incidence of neural tube defects
folic acid
most dysraphic defects occur at the location of the ______________________
anterior or posterior neuropore
failure of the anterior neuropore to close results in ________________
anencephaly

(the brain is not formed, the surrounding meninges and skull may be absent, and there are facial abnormalities
anencephaly extends from the level of the ________________________ to the region of the __________________
lamina terminalis

foramen magnum
the __________________ is the site of anterior neuropore closure
lamina terminalis
how frequent is anencephaly?
t of every 10,000 live births

(neonatal death is inevitable)
an ____________________ is a herniation of intracranial contents through a defect in the cranium (__________________)
encephalocele

crania bifidum
a herniation of only meninges through a defect in the cranium is a _______________
meningocele
a herniation of meninges plus brain through a defect in the cranium is a ____________________
meningoencephalocele
a herniation of meninges, plus brain and a part of the ventricular system is a ___________________________
meningohydroencephalocele
encephaloceles are most common in the _____________ region
occipital

(can also occur in frontal or parietal regions)
a congenital herniation of the cerebellar vermis through the foramen magnum, which may cause pressure on the medulla oblongata and cervical spinal cord is a ____________________
Arnold-Chiari malformation

(thought to be caused by a more subtle defect in closure of the neuropore than an encepalocele)
________________ may go unnoticed until early adulthood and is often associated with a cavitation of the spinal cord or of the medulla
Arnold-Chiari malformation
a cavitation of the spinal cord is a _______________
syringomyelia
a cavitation of the medulla is a _______________
syringobulbia
defects in the closure of the posterior neuropore cause a range of malformations known collectively as _________________
myeloschisis

(always involves a failure of of the vertebral arches at the affected levels to form completely and fuse to cover the spinal cord
failure of the vertebral arches to form completely and to fuse to cover the spinal cord is ___________________
spina bifida
if the vertebral arches don't fully fuse and skin closes over it, the unseen condition is called _________________________
spina bifida occulta

site of defect usually marked by a patch of dark, coarse hairs
if the vertebral arches don't fully fuse and the skin doesn't close over it, leaving a patent aperture, the condition is called _______________________
spina bifida aperta
if a cystic mass accompanies spina bifida, the condition is called ______________________
spina bifida cystica
if the cyst-like structure from an incomplete fusion of the posterior neuropore contains only meninges and CSF, it is called a ______________________
meningocele
if the cyst-like structure from an incomplete fusion of the posterior neuropore contains meninges and CSF, plus spinal neural tissue, it is called a ______________________
meningomyelocele
the sacral and coccygeal segments of the spinal cord and their corresponding dorsal and ventral roots are formed by ______________________
secondary neurulation
secondary neurulation begins on day __ and is complete by about day __
20

42
a cell mass, the __________________, appears just caudal to the neural tube, enlarges and cavitates, joins the neural tube, and becomes continuous with the neural canal
caudal eminence
_____________________ refers to malformations of the parts of the neural tube formed by secondary neurulation
myelodysplasia
______________________ is a common abnormality of secondary neurulation in which the conus medullaris and filum terminale are abnormally fixed to the defective vertebral column
tethered cord syndrome

(sustained traction damages the cord, with subsequent loss of sensations from the legs and fee, and with bladder control problems)
the three primary brain vesicles are formed during the __ week after fertilization, in which the anterior neuropore closes and neural tissue in the cranial region grows rapidly
fourth
the three primary brain vesicles are the _____________, _______________, and _______________
prosencephalon (forebrain)

mesencephalon (midbrain)

rhombencephalon (hindbrain)
the slight bend in the developing neural tube at the rhombencephalon-spinal cord junction is the __________________
cervical flexure
a bend in the neural tube at the level of the mesencephalon is the _____________________
mesencephalic (cephalic) flexure
when do the three primary brain vesicles divide into five secondary brain vesicles
during the fifth week
what are the two additional flexures that arise from the division of the three primary brain vesicles?
pontine flexure - divides hindbrain

telencephalic flexure - divides forebrain
(diencephalic-telencephalic sulcus)
the _________________ divides the hindbrain into the myeloencephalon caudally and the metencephalon rostrally
pontine flexure
which primary vesicle does not partition further?
mesencephalon (midbrain)
the ___________________ divides the forebrain into the diencephalon caudally and the telencephalon rostrally
telencephalonic flexure
what is the order of brain vesicles from rostral to caudal?
telencephalon
diencephalon
mesencephalon
metencephalon
myeloencephalon

Tel-Di-Mes-Met-Myelo
what is the order of primary brain vesicles from rostral to caudal?
prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

Pros-Mes-Rhomb
the ____________ (meaning end-brain) forms as an outpocketing of the forebrain and expands enormously with its complex lobes, gyri, and sulci, to become the largest part of the brain
telencephalon
the main structures of the forebrain develop during the _____ month of gestation
second
at about the end of the fifth week, the telencephalon gives rise to two lateral expansions called the ___________________
telencephalic (cerebral) vesicles
_______________ are the primordia of the cerebral hemispheres
telencephalic (cerebral) vesicles
the adult derivatives of the telencephalic vesicles are the:
cerebral cortex
subcortical white matter (including internal capsule)
olfactory bulb
olfactory tract
portions of the basal ganglia
amygdala
hippocampus
the ___________________ develops into the thalamic nuclei and associated structures and also gives rise to the optic cup, which eventually forms the optic nerve and retina
diencephalon
by __ weeks of development, the major structures of the CNS are clearly recognizable by their morphologic features
10
immature versions of all structures in the brain are present by the end of the __________________
first trimester
the sequence of events by which the primitive prosencephalon differentiates into the diencephalic and telencephalic vesicles is called _______________________
prosencephalization
failure of the prosencephalon to undergo cleavage results in a malformation called ______________
holoprosencephaly
in the most severe form of a failure of the prosencephalon to undergo cleavage no discernible lobes develop; this is called ________________
alobar holoprosencephaly
in _______________________, there is some separation of the forebrain into two discernible lobes (more prominent in occipital areas) and partial development of the falx cerebri
semilobar holoprosencephaly
_____________ is a facial malformation characterized by unusually close-set eyes
hypotelorism
_____________ is a facial malformation characterized by the presence of only a single, midline eye
cyclops
how do facial defects relate to forebrain malformations?
the forebrain develops at about the same time as facial features, so malformations of one often lead to malformations of another

in general, the more severe the brain malformation, the more severe the facial defect
the acronym "TORCH" is often used for the more common etiologic agents (infectious diseases) which cause congenital nervous system defects; it stands for:
Toxoplasma
Other (syphilis)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes simplex virus
nervous system defects caused by infectious diseases include:
cataracts
retinitis
blindness
deafness
cerebral calcifications
cerebral atrophy
microcephaly
the _________________ is an elaboration of the lumen of cephalic portions of the neural tube
ventricular system
the cavities of the telencephalic vesicles become the ______________________
lateral ventricles
the diencephalic cavity becomes the ______________________
third ventricle
the rhombencephalic cavity becomes the ___________________________
fourth ventricle
the cavity of the mesencephalon becomes the ____________________
cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius)
the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) connects the ________________________
third and fourth ventricles
the openings between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle become the ____________________________
intraventricular foramina (of Monro)
the ventricular system is lined with ______________________
ependymal cells
in each ventricle, blood vessels invaginate the ependymal cell membrane to form the _________________
choroid plexus
openings that arise in the caudal roof of the fourth ventricle during development form a communication between the _____________________________________; what are these openings?
ventricular system and the subarachnoid space

these openings are the foramen of Magendie (midline medial aperture) and the foramina of Luschka (paired lateral foramina)
the foramen of Magendie and the foramina of Luschka form slowly, but are patent by the end of the _____________________
first trimester
CSF is produced mainly by the choroid plexus of the ____________________________

It escapes to the subarachnoid space through the _____________________________
lateral and third ventricles

foramen of Magendie and foramina of Luschka (fourth ventricle)
CSF is absorbed into the venous system through the arachnoid villi located primarily in the _______________________
superior sagittal sinus
the condition in which the ventricular system becomes markedly dilated because of an obstruction to the flow of CSF through the ventricles during prenatal development is called _____________________
congenital hydrocephalus
___________________ are seen in the Dandy-Walker malformation
enlarged ventricles

cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle

variable degree of aplasia of the cerebellar vermis
aplasia
absence or defective development
the peripheral nervous system develops mostly from cells of the ____________________
neural crest
specialized epidermal cells called _________________ are found in the developing head region, and join neural crest cells to form ganglia of several cranial nerves
placodes

cranial nerves are V, VII, VIII, IX, and X
what are the cranial nerve ganglia which arise from neural crest cells and placode cells?
trigeminal/semilunar (V) ganglion
geniculate ganglion (VII)
superior and inferior ganglia of the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)
jugular and nodose ganglia of vagus nerve (X)
in the __________________________, pseudounipolar cells have failed to migrate with the neural crest and remain inside the CNS, forming a ganglion ectopically trapped inside the mesencephalon
mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
the cell bodies of the ganglia of cranial nerve VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve) arise primarily from the ____________
otic placode

(small contribution from neural crest)

retain a bipolar shape in the adult
pseudounipolar cells of posterior, or dorsal, root ganglia are derived from ___________________
neural crest
schwann cells, which ensheathe and myelinate axons in the peripheral nervous system, are derived from _______________
neural crest cells
________________ migrate in a segmental fashion, accompanying the growing processes of the peripheral nerve fibers they will eventually ensheathe
schwann cells
in general, CNS neuroblasts arise at the ___________________ of the developing brain
ventricular surface
(luminal surface of the neural tube)
just after the neural tube forms, it is a _________________ epithelium
pseudostratified columnar
as development proceeds, the wall of the neural tube thickens and dividing cells cluster at the ventricular surface, leaving a zone without cell bodies at the abluminal surface; this region is called the _______________
marginal zone
as cells in the neural tube undergo their last division, they begin to migrate away from the luminal (ventricular) surface on transient glial cell guides called ______________
radial glia
as the neural tube cells migrate, away from the ventricular surface, they form a moving front of cell bodies between the marginal and ventricular zones called the ______________________
intermediate zone
after neural tube cells migrate and take up their final positions in the developing brain, they begin to extend processes and form connections with ________________________
other neurons or muscle cells
on developing neural tube cells, an axonal process, tipped by a spade-like extension called the _____________, begins to drive its way through intervening regions to reach distant targets
growth cone
although the idea is controversial, both neurons and glia seem to originate from a __________________________
single precursor cell population

(gives rise to two separate lineages; neuroblastic and glioblastic)
_______________ lineage generates neurons
neuroblastic
______________ lineage includes precursors of radial glial cells, astroglial cells, and oligodendrocytes
glioblastic lineage
the three main branches of the glioblastic lineage are the ____________________, the ____________________, and the ____________________
type I astrocyte progenitor

oligodendrocyte/type II astrocyte precursor

radial glia progenitor
whereas all other cell types persist into adulthood, radial glial cells in most regions of the brain appear to be converted to ________________________
astrocytes
ependymal cells
tanycytes
two notable exceptions where radial glia cells retain most of their features in adulthood are the _________________ in the cerebellum, and the _________________ in the retina
Bergmann glial cells

Muller cells
gray matter of the spinal cord is butterfly shaped with _______________________________ horns
anterior (ventral)
posterior (dorsal)
lateral - at only some levels
spinal cord develops from caudal portions of the neural tube, where the neural canal becomes ___________________________
the central canal of the spinal cord
neuroblasts that give rise to spinal cord neurons migrate peripherally to form four longitudinal ___________ which become the gray matter of the spinal cord
plates

anterior two - basal plate
posterior two - alar plate
the basal and alar plates on each side are separated by a longitudinal groove called the __________________ in the lateral wall of the central canal
sulcus limitans
the _________ plate develops into the anterior (ventral) horn of the spinal cord and the ____________ plate develops into the posterior (dorsal) horn.
basal

alar
as each somite develops, it subdivides into a _____________, a _______________, and a _______________
sclerotome - forms vertebrae
dermatome - forms skin and dermis
myotome - forms muscles
the posterior (sensory) and anterior (motor) roots of the spinal cord join at about the level of the future _________________ to form the _________________
intervertebral foramina

spinal nerves
vertebrae develop between the spinal nerves and are thus __________________ in position, even though they originate from the segmental sclerotomes
intersegmental
by the end of the _________________ the spinal cord, its meningeal coverings, and the surrounding vertebral arches are fully formed
first trimester
why is the spinal cord shorter than the vertebral column?
the vertebral column grows slightly faster than does the spinal cord

cord seems to be drawn rostrally by its attachment to the brain
the brainstem consists of:
myeloencephalon (medulla oblongata)
pons (part of the metencephalon)
mesencephalon (midbrain)
although developmentally the cerebellum is a part of the metencephalon, it is considered a "________________" structure and not a part of the brainstem
suprasegmental
the caudal part of the brainstem is the ______________________
medulla oblongata
the __________________ nucleus forms a continuous cell column from the cord-medulla junction to midpontine levels
spinal trigeminal nucleus
motor neurons in the brainstem originate from the ____________ plate
basal
the rostral-caudal segmentation of the developing rhombencephalon divides it into ________________
rhombomeres
rhombomeres are sites of _________________ gene expression
homeobox (hox)

master switches that control formation of large blocks of tissue
the cerebellum arises from the ________________, an alar plate structure that forms part of the wall of the fourth ventricle
rhombic lip
the rostral part of the rhombic lip forms the _______________, whereas the caudal part forms the _____________, _______________, and ______________ nuclei
cerebellum

inferior olivary
cochlear
pontine
the cerebral cortex is develloped using an ___________________ pattern of development, in which the neurons take up positions close to the ventricular surface and subsequent ones move progressively closer to the pial surface
inside-out
by the end of the _________________, the longitudinal cerebral, sylvian, and transverse cerebral fissures are recognizable
first trimester
a condition in which the cerebral cortex has a smooth surface, caused by a failure of gyri to form is known as _________________________
lissencephaly
a condition in which gyri are unusually large is called _________________
pachygyria
a condition in which gyri are unusually small is called _________________
microgyria
the term _______________ is used to describe the defect in which the migration of immature neurons from the ventricular surface is disrupted
heterotopia

mature neurons take up residence in the intermediate zones
_____________________ is a condition in which there are unilateral or bilateral clefts in the cerebral hemispheres
schizencephaly
three important parameters in brain organization are:
1. density of neurons
2. pattern of axon and dendrite branching
3. pattern of synaptic contacts

(begin to develop at the sixth month of gestation - end of the peak period of neuronal migration)
embryogenesis produces__________________ neurons than are present in the mature brain; they are almost all produced before week 24 and then begin to die selectively
1.5 to 2 times more
genetically programmed cell death is called ______________
apoptosis
nerve growth factor, brain-derived neurotrophic factor, and fibroblast growth factor are know to limit cell death by _______________________________
interrupting the normal process of apoptosis
_______________ guide a cell toward a particular target
tropic factors
_______________ maintain the metabolism of a cell or its processes
trophic factors
after neuroblasts complete their final cell division and migrate to their final location, they begin to extend a single axon with one or more distal elaborations known as ____________
growth cones
once an axonal growth cone arrives at its site of termination, it undergoes biochemical and morphologic changes to become a ___________________
presynaptic terminal
a synapse that forms will persist only if it exchanges the right cues with the target cell, so only a subset of the large number formed are retained; this concept is known as _______________
synaptic stabilization
synaptic stabilization requires:
1. a signal generated by the presynaptic cell (e.g. neurotransmitter)

2. a means for the postsynaptic cell to respond

3. a retrograde signal from the post- to pre-synaptic cell to say contact should remain into maturity
the developing brain is not as vulnerable to injury as is the mature brain; this concept is known as _________________
plasticity

infants with significant cortical injury prenatally or early postnatally can show surprising functional recovery
the period of time during which plastic changes can occur in the innervation (such as the input from the eyes) is called the __________________
critical period
the condition in which the visual cortex responds only to inputs from a "good" eye (ignores inputs from the other eye) is called _______________
amblyopia
synaptic development occurs _____________ with cellular proliferation and migration
in parallel
many children with mental retardation, including those with ___________________, have fewer and less complex axonal and dendritic amplifications and fewer dendritic spines than in normal children
Down syndrome
____________________ myelinate neuronal axons in the CNS
oligodendrocytes
myelination begins at about the ______________ of development
sixth month

peaks between birth and first year of life, but continues into adulthood
what is the hierarchy in the regional maturation of myelin formation?
motor and sensory tracts first

association tracts later