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441 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
microscopically, the individual structural and functional unit of the nervous system is the ___________.
|
neuron
|
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supportive elements interspersed among the neurons of the CNS are called _________________.
|
glial cells
|
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what are the two divisions of the human nervous system?
|
peripheral nervous system (PNS)
central nervous system (CNS) |
|
what does the CNS consist of?
|
brain
spinal cord |
|
through which roots do sensory and motor fibers enter or exit the spinal cord?
|
sensory - enter posterior (dorsal) root
motor - exit anterior (ventral) root |
|
what combines to form a spinal nerve?
|
posterior and anterior roots of the spinal cord, making them mixed nerves (posterior = sensory; anterior = motor)
|
|
what functions are neurons specialized to do?
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receive information
transmit electrical impulses influence other neurons or effector tissues |
|
what is a perikaryon?
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neuron cell body
aka soma |
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what constitutes gray matter of the CNS?
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cell bodies
|
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Named and usually function-specific clusters of cell bodies in the CNS are called ___________.
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nuclei (s. nucleus)
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of what does the white matter of the CNS consist?
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bundles of axons wrapped in myelin
|
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a sheath of insulating lipoprotein wrapped around axons is ___________.
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myelin
|
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what are the terminal ends of the axon of a neuron?
|
synapses
motor end plate (neuromuscular junction) |
|
what does an electrochemical synapse consist of?
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presynaptic element
synaptic cleft postsynaptic region |
|
what causes the release of neurotransmitters from a presynaptic element into a synapse?
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action potential (an electrical impulse
|
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where are neurotransmitters stored?
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synaptic vesicles in the presynaptic element
|
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what is a monosynaptic reflex arc?
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one of the simplest types of neuronal circuits, a reflex arc composed of only two neurons
|
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____________ are involuntary responses to a particular bit of sensory input.
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Reflexes
|
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what is areflexia?
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lack of a reflex
|
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what is hyporeflexia?
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obviously weakened reflex
|
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what is hyperreflexia?
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excessively active reflex
|
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this part of the brain is the link between the brainstem and the forebrain.
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midbrain (which is continuous with the pons)
|
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what are the largest and most obvious parts of the human brain?
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cerebral hemispheres
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the ________________________ is a layer of neuronal cell bodies that covers the entire surface of a hemisphere.
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cerebral cortex
|
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what are gyri?
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elevations (hills) in the cerebral cortex
|
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what are sulci?
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creases (valleys) in the cerebral cortex
|
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this is also called the basal ganglia.
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basal nuclei
(prominent group of neuronal cell bodies) |
|
A ______________________________ is a set of neurons linked together to convey a particular block of information or accomplish a particular task.
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functional system
|
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anatomic parts of the CNS, such as the medulla and pons, are commonly called __________.
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regions
|
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the study of the structure and function of anatomic regions of the CNS is called __________________________.
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regional neurobiology
|
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it is important to remember that the functional characteristics of regions coexist with those of ____________.
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systems
|
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what are corticospinal fibers?
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fibers with their cell bodies in the cerebral cortex and their axons end in the spinal cord
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successful diagnosis of patients with neurologic disorders will depend on, among other things, a good understanding of both ___________ and ____________ neurobiology.
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regional
systems |
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in general, cranial nerve signs are more helpful than long-tract signs in ____________________________.
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localizing the lesion
|
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what are the combinations of neurologic deficits which may indicate involvement of one of three general locations of the CNS?
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deficits located on the same side of the head and body - indicates lesions in the cerebral hemishphere
deficits on one side of the headand on the opposite side of the body - indicates a lesion in the brain stem deficits of the body only usually suggest a lesion in the spinal cord |
|
what are crossed (alternating) deficits?
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deficits on one side of the head and on the opposite side of the body
|
|
which root of a spinal cord is afferent?
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posterior root
(conducts impulses toward the spinal cord) |
|
which root of a spinal cord is efferent?
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anterior root
(conducts impulses away from the spinal cord) |
|
the __________ is rostral to the pons but caudal to the thalamus.
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midbrain
|
|
what is a symptom?
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departure from any normal state of structure or function that is experienced by the patient
(something is wrong and the patient knows it) |
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what is a sign?
|
departure from any normal state of structure or function that is discovered, observed and evaluated by a health care professional upon examining the patient
|
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is a sign or a symptom subjective?
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symptom
|
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is a sign or a symptom objective?
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sign
|
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the most routinely used methods to image the brain and the skull are _____________________ and _____________________________
|
computed tomography (CT)
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) |
|
____________________ is particularly useful in visualizing the skull and the brain in the early stages of subarachnoid hemorrhage
|
CT
|
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what are the weighting techniques for use in MRI studies?
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T1-weighted
T2- weighted |
|
_______________________ visualizes arteries and veins by measuring the velocity of flow in them.
|
magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
|
|
________ shows brain anatomy in elegant detail, cisternal relationships, cranial nerves and a wide variety of clinical abnormalities.
|
MRI
|
|
what is computed tomography?
|
an x-ray imaging technique that measures the effects of tissue density and various types of atoms in the tissue on x-rays passing through that tissue
|
|
the higher the _______________, the greater the ability of the atom to attenuate x-rays.
|
atomic number
|
|
what quality of atoms is directly related to the ability of the atom to stop x-rays?
|
atomic number
the higher the atomic number of the atom, the better it can stop x-rays |
|
what are Hounsfield units?
|
aka CT numbers
the unit used to represent the intensity of x-rays that is transmitted through tissues being measured arbitrary system where bone is +1000 (bright white), air is -1000 (very black), and water is 0 |
|
what are the approximate intensities of blood, brain, and CSF using the Hounsfield scale?
|
blood - +100
brain - +30 CSF - +5 |
|
present-generation CT scanners are known as _______________________ scanners.
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helical (spiral)
|
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_________ is a fast and accurate method of detecting recent subarachnoid hemorrhage.
|
CT
|
|
an acute subarachnoid hemorrhage in a noncontrast CT scan appears ______________ in contrast to the subarachnoid spaces and cisterns, which normally are ________________.
|
hemorrhage - hyperdense (white)
spaces and cisterns - hypodense (dark) |
|
Enhanced CT is a technique using an ________________________ material injected intravenously followed by CT examination.
|
iodinated contrast
|
|
what is the "resonance" in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?
|
only a pulse of radio waves at a frequency matching the angulated, spining proton will be absorbed by the proton and knock it off of its axis
|
|
what is "relaxation" in MRI?
|
when the radio wave pulse is turned off, protons off their axis will slowly return to their original axis
|
|
the contrast material used for enhancing tumors and blood vessels is the paramagnetic rare earth ____________.
|
gadolinium
|
|
what imaging technique images acute subarrachnoid hemorrhages poorly? which imaging technique images them well?
|
poorly by T1-weighted MRI
well by CT |
|
what are the contraindications to MRI?
|
cardiac pacemakers
cochlear implants ferromagnetic foreign bodies in the eye certain aneurism clips large metallic implants or ferromagnetic foreign bodies in the body may heat up |
|
___________ imaging planes are oriented perpendicular to the rostrocaudal axis of the forebrain, but are nearly parallel to the rostrocaudal axis of the brainstem and spinal cord.
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coronal
|
|
_____________ images are oriented parallel to the rostrocaudal axis of the cerebral hemispheres but nearly perpendicular to the long axis of the brainstem and spinal cord
|
axial
|
|
_____________ images are at, or parallel with, the midsagittal plane of the brain or spinal cord
|
sagittal
|
|
how are coronal scans viewed?
|
as though you are looking the patient in the face
|
|
how are axial scans viewed?
|
as though you are standing at the patient's feet, with the patient lying supine in the machine
|
|
in both coronal and axial views, the patient's left side is to the observer's _________.
|
right
|
|
the number of cells in the adult human central nervous system has been estimated at _________________.
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100 billion
|
|
what three activities, in addition to maintaining metabolism, are neurons responsible for?
|
1. receive information from the environment or other nerve cells
2. process information 3. send information to other neurons or effector tissues |
|
what is the primary function of glia?
|
to control the environment within the CNS
|
|
what actions are glial cells responsible for?
|
shuttle nutritive molecules from blood vessels to neurons
remove waste products maintain the electrochemical surroundings of neurons guide developing neurons to correct locations structural support for nerve cells |
|
what does an archetypical neuron consist of?
|
cell body (soma)
dendrites axon |
|
what type of neurons have several dendrites extending from the cell body?
|
multipolar neurons
|
|
what is a terminal arbor?
|
the distal end of an axon
the almost exclusive site of branching of an axon |
|
what is a synapse?
|
contact between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector tissue which transfers signals from one to the other
|
|
what are dendritic spines?
|
small bud-like extensions of a variety of shapes frequently seen on the more distal branches of dendritic tree
|
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what are the only organelles seen in thin, distal dendritic branches of neurons? what is also in thicker branches?
|
cytoskeletal elements (microtubules and neurofilaments
in thicker branches, you can also find mitochondria |
|
what is the type of intermediate filament that occurs only in neurons?
|
neurofilaments
|
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in many nerve cells the distal dendrites collect into large, trunk-like __________________ that contain the same organelles as the cell body.
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primary dendrites
|
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the _____________ is the metabolic center of the nerve cell.
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perikaryon (cell body, soma)
|
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what is abundant in the cytoplasm of neurons?
|
ribosomes
rough endoplasmic reticulum golgi complex |
|
extensive, stacked layers of rER are seen as patches of basophilic staining in histologic preparations and are known as ________________.
|
Nissl substance
|
|
_____________ neurons account for more than 99% of all neuons.
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multipolar
|
|
what is the shape of pseudounipolar or unipolar neurons?
|
spherical cell body with a centrally placed nucleus
emits a single process that courses a short distance before dividing into two branches |
|
where are the cell bodies of pseudounipolar axons usually found?
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sensory ganglia of cranial and spinal nerves
|
|
what is the shape of bipolar neurons?
|
round or oval perikaryon, with a single large process emanating from each end
|
|
where are bipolar neurons commonly found?
|
structures associated with special senses (retina, nose, vestibular and auditory systems)
|
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the axon arises from the cell body at a small elevation called the __________________.
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axon hillock
|
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the proximal part of the axon, adjacent to the axon hillock, is the ______________________
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initial segment
|
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what features can distinguish axons from dendrites at the ultrastructural level?
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axons are typically devoid of ribosomes, whereas dendrites have ribosomes
axons can extend for long distances before branching and terminating |
|
to what does the term nerve fiber refer?
|
axon and the sheath (myelination) that is provided by support cells
|
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in most neurons, each axon terminal is capped with small ___________________
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terminal boutons
|
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in some cells, boutons are found along the length of the axon, where they are called __________________.
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boutons en passant
|
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the site at which an axon terminal communicates with a second neuron, or with an effector tissue, is called a ___________.
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synapse
|
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axonal transport from the cell body toward the terminals is called _____________________ transport
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anterograde (orthograde)
|
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axonal transport from the terminals toward the cell body is called ________________ transport.
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retrograde
|
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what are the two classifications of anterograde axonal transport?
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fast (400 mm/day)
slow (~1 mm/day) |
|
what protein is the basis for fast anterograde axonal transport?
|
kinesin
an ATPase which moves macromolecule-containing vesicles and mitochondria along microtubules |
|
what is carried by slow anterograde axonal transport?
|
important structural and metabolic components from the cell body to axon terminals
|
|
what is carried by fast anterograde axonal transport?
|
macromolecule-containing vesicles and mitochondria
|
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______________________ allows the neuron to respond to molecules, for example, growth factors, which are taken up near the axon terminal by either pinocytosis or receptor-mediated endocytosis.
|
retrograde axonal transport
also functions in the continual recycling of components of the axon terminal |
|
what protein drives retrograde axonal transport?
|
dynein
|
|
how is axonal transport important in rabies?
|
rabies virus replicates in muscle tissue at the site of a bite by a rabid animal and is then transported in a retrograde direction to the cell bodies of neurons which synapse on that muscle
|
|
how is axonal transport important in tetanus?
|
clostridium tetani, a bacterium, replicates in muscle tissue and the toxin it produces is carried in a retrograde direction to the cell bodies of neurons which innervate the muscle
|
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In the CNS, a cluster of functionally related nerve cell bodies is most commonly called a ______________
|
nucleus
|
|
cell bodies in the CNS that are arranged in a layer may be called a ____________________.
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layer, lamina or stratum
|
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columnar groups of cell bodies in the CNS may be called _____________.
|
columns
|
|
where are columns found in the CNS?
|
group of cell bodies arranged in a column
found in cerebral cortex (group of cells that are related by fcn and by location of stimulus that drives them) or spinal cord (longitudinal group of functionally related cells that extend for part or all of the length of the brainstem or spinal cord) |
|
bundles of axons in the CNS are called __________________________.
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tracts, fasciculi or leminisci
typically composed of specific populations of functionally related fibers |
|
a group of several tracts or fasciculi is called a _________________.
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funiculus
(in certain cases, a system) |
|
in the PNS, collections of cell bodies form a _______________.
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ganglion
could be sensory or motor |
|
in the PNS, axons make up _____________________.
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nerves, rami, or roots
|
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a neuron that conducts signals from the periphery toward the CNS is called ______________
|
afferent
|
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a neuron that conducts signals from the CNS toward the periphery is called ______________
|
efferent
|
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neurons with long axons that convey signals to a distant target are called ________________________
|
projection neurons
|
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neurons that act locally (because dendrites and axon are limited to the vicinity of the cell body) are called _________________
|
interneurons (local circuit cells
|
|
what are dopaminergic neurons?
|
neurons that produce dopamine
|
|
what are glutamergic neurons?
|
neurons that produce glutamate
neurons whose axons form the corticospinal tracts |
|
peptidergic
|
contain peptides such as substance P
|
|
the communicative function of neurons is carried out by fluctuations in their _____________________
|
electrical potential
|
|
neurons carry a ______________ electrical charge compared to the ECF bathing them
|
negative
|
|
the plasma membrane is referred to as ______________ because certain ions can cross at certain times but there is not a free exchange
|
semi-permeable
|
|
by what methods can specific ion channels be opened and closed?
|
chemical signals (neurotransmitters)
mechanical distortion of membrane voltage changes |
|
neurons that receive information from the environment are called ______________________________
|
primary sensory neurons
|
|
list some examples of primary sensory neurons
|
photoreceptors
chemoreceptors mechanoreceptors thermoreceptors nociceptors |
|
a graded depolarizing potential in a primary sensory neuron as the result of a stimulus is called a ______________________
|
generator potential
|
|
the process of converting sensory input into a form interpretable by the nervous system is ___________
|
transduction
|
|
how do rod and cone photoreceptors of the retina transduce light energy?
|
photon strikes photoreceptor
many sodium channels close photoreceptor hyperpolarizes |
|
what makes photoreceptors unique among sensory cells?
|
become more negative (hyperpolarized) upon application of a stimulus, rather than more positive (depolarized)
|
|
how do taste and olfactory receptor cells mediate the two primary types of chemoreception?
|
both respond to the presence of specific chemicals dissolved in a solution
|
|
______________ transduce various qualities of physical force into electrical signals that are transmitted by sensory neurons
|
mechanoreceptors
e.g. vestibular, auditory, and somatosensory systems |
|
____________ transduce noxious (painful) stimuli
|
nociceptors
|
|
___________ transduce temperature changes in skin and viscera
|
thermoreceptors
|
|
what are the two broad types of synapses?
|
electrical
chemical (far more common, esp. in CNS) |
|
the prominent collection of vesicles in the presynaptic element of a synapse contain __________________
|
neurotransmitter (to be released into the synaptic cleft)
|
|
what supplies the energy for synaptic function?
|
mitochondria gathered in the terminal axonal bouton
|
|
what are the two important functional properties of chemical synapses?
|
unidirectional
strength of effect on postsynaptic membrane is variable and partly dependent on amount of neurotransmitter released |
|
each synaptic vesicle contains a fixed amount of neurotransmitter called a ______________
|
quantum
|
|
biogenic amines
|
class of neurotransmitters
includes acetylcholine, dopamine, and norepinephrine |
|
amino acids
|
class of neurotransmitters
includes glutamate and GABA |
|
nucleotides
|
class of neurotransmitters
includes adenosine |
|
neuropeptides
|
class of neurotransmitters
includes substance P, cholecystokinin, and somatostatin |
|
gases (NT)
|
class of neurotransmitters
includes nitric oxide and carbon monoxide |
|
biogenic amines and amino acid neurotransmitters are synthesized in the ______________________, though the required enzymes are made in the _________________
|
axon terminal
cell body |
|
_______________________ affects dopamine-synthesizing neurons located in an area of the brain stem known as substantia nigra (these cells die at an accelerated rate)
|
parkinson's disease
|
|
_____________________ affects several million Americans and appears to be caused by imbalances in the phosphatidyl inositol-linked neurotransmitter system
|
bipolar disorder
|
|
the drug _____________________ stabilizes phosphatidyl inositol (PI) turnover, stabilizing the mood of a patient with bipolar disorder
|
lithium carbonate
|
|
__________________ is characterized by the degeneration of neurons in basal forebrain nuclei, the loss of synapses in the cerebral cortex and hippocampus, and the presence of pathologic structures called neurofibrillary tangles and senile plaques
|
alzheimer disease
|
|
what pathologic structures are characteristic of alzheimer patients?
|
fibrillary tangles
senile plaques |
|
in ______________________, the patient's immune system produces antibodies to the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
|
myasthenia gravis
|
|
the ____________________________ is a ligand-gated channel found at the synapse between primary motor neuron and skeletal muscle fibers
|
nicotinic acetylcholine receptor
|
|
astrocytes modulate synaptic activity in their vicinity by releasing small amounts of ___________
|
glutamate
|
|
astrocytes are derived from _____________
|
neuroectoderm
|
|
oligodendrocytes are derived from _____________
|
neuroectoderm
|
|
microglia are derived from ______________
|
mesoderm
|
|
what cells of the PNS are analogous to the astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia?
|
satellite cells
Schwann cells macrophages |
|
where are astrocytes found?
|
throughout the CNS
|
|
how do astrocytes appear?
|
highly branched cells with processes that contact most of the surfaces of neuronal dendrites and cell bodies, as well as some axonal surfaces; other processes end in end feet
|
|
_______________ are terminal expansions of astrocyte processes which join together to completely line the interfaces between the CNS and other tissues
|
end feet
|
|
the outer surface of the brain and spinal cord, where it meets the inner surface of the pia mater is covered with a coating of several layers of joined end-feet called the __________________
|
glia limitans (glial limiting membrane)
|
|
the _________________ is the innermost of the meningeal membranes that enclose the CNS
|
pia mater
|
|
astrocytes of gray matter are called _______________
astrocytes of white matter are called _______________ |
protoplasmic astrocytes
fibrous astrocytes |
|
astrocytes of white matter are called fibrous astrocytes because they have a high content of _________________
|
intermediate filaments
|
|
astrocytes can be distinguished immunohistochemically by the presence of intermediate filaments with a distinctive marker protein called _______________________
|
glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
|
|
__________________ content of protoplasmic astrocytes increases in pathologic conditions
|
glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)
|
|
astrocytes, in the form of __________________, provide a pathway for neuronal migration during development
|
radial glial cells
|
|
what do astrocytes do in the adult brain?
|
frame certain clusters of neurons
enclose bundles of unmyelinated axons in white matter |
|
if injury to the CNS results in the destruction of cells, the space created by the breakdown of debris is filled by proliferation or hypertrophy of ____________; this results in the formation of an __________________
|
astrocytes
astrocytic scar |
|
the majority of CNS tumors are of ________________ origin.
|
astrocytic
astrocytes maintain the ability to proliferate in the mature brain, making them susceptible to events that disrupt the control of cell division |
|
astrocytes secrete ________________ vital to normal function of some neurons
|
growth factors
|
|
astrocytes secrete _____________________________ necessary for synaptic growth and plasticity
|
cholesterol and lipoproteins
|
|
how do astrocytes contribute to the regulation of inflammatory processes in the CNS?
|
secrete cytokines and immune mediators such as IL-1, IL-6 and prostaglandin in disease processes
|
|
astrocytes buffer the _________________ and _________________ of extracellular fluid
|
ionic composition
pH |
|
astrocytes participate in ______________ metabolism as well as modulation of synaptic transmission by releasing small amounts of _________________
|
neurotransmitter
glutamate |
|
how are astrocyte tumors of specific types distributed in the CNS?
|
have characteristic distributions rather than random distribution
ex. glioblastoma multiforme is most frequently in frontal or temporal lobe |
|
in the CNS, vessels are induced by the surrounding jacket of _________________ to form extensive tight junctions
|
astrocyte end-feet
keeps solutes from reaching the neuroal tissue unless they pass through the endothelial cells (i.e. blood-brain barrier) |
|
what can diffuse freely across the endothelial cells of the blood brain barrier?
|
water
gases lipid-soluble small molecules others must be carried across by transport systems (highly selective exchange) |
|
why is the blood-brain barrier of major clinical importance?
|
largely excludes many drugs from the CNS
|
|
in what type of brain matter are oligodendrocytes found?
|
gray matter
white matter |
|
the function of oligodendrocytes is __________________
|
myelination
(provision of an electrochemically insulating sheath around all but the smalles axons in white matter) |
|
where is the cytoplasm of an oligodendrocyte after it has myelinated an axon?
|
only found in the innermost and outermost turns
|
|
a myelinated axon of the CNS is covered by a series of myelin segments, each formed by an ____________________
|
oligodendroglial cell (oligodendrocyte)
|
|
interruptions between myelin segments on an axon are called ____________________
|
nodes of ranvier
|
|
morphologic specializations at the nodes of Ranvier include ____________________________________________
|
dense undercoating of axonal membrane
contact by an astrocyte process |
|
________________________ arise from the cells that make up the structure of the brain and spinal cord, as well as its coverings
|
primary brain tumors
|
|
_____________ are the glial cell tumors encountered most often
|
astrocytomas
|
|
how are astrocytomas traditionally evaluated?
|
how closely the neoplastic cells resemble non-neoplastic astrocytes (a grading system which attempts to define the aggressiveness of the tumor and to give a prognosis)
|
|
grade I astrocytomas
|
uncommon
resemble differentiated astrocytes react to an injury within the brain usually from fibrillary astrocytes in the white matter (many stubby processes) grow slowly (gradual enlargement is main clue that it exists) |
|
grade II astrocytomas
|
prominent processes filled with glial filaments (infiltrate between myelinated axons)
commonly found in adults years may elapse before symptoms present become more aggressive if they recur after surgery |
|
which grades of astrocytomas are generally slowly growing?
|
grade I
grade II |
|
grade III astrocytomas
|
nuclei are often enlarged (with increased density of chromatin)
lose uniformity of nuclear appearance mitotic figures (chromosomes on spindles) frequently noted density of blood vessels is increased rapidly growing (dividing) and malignant |
|
grade IV astrocytomas
|
highly malignant
astrocytes are spindled elongated nuclei may have many mitotic figures can invade letomeninges, spreading from one gyrus to the next spreads between hemispheres, marching through the corpus callosum |
|
what is another name for glioblastoma multiforme?
|
grade IV astrocytoma
|
|
what are the intrinsic features of glioblastoma multiforme?
|
complex neovascular structure
sharp borders between living and dead tumor tissue |
|
what is the most common astrocytoma encountered in middle-aged and elderly adult patients?
|
glioblastoma multiforme
(grade IV astrocytoma) |
|
what is the survival time of patients with a grade 4 astrocytoma, once diagnosed?
|
as little as only weeks
|
|
oligodendroglia can produce slow-growing tumors, located ______________________ rather than in the diencephalon or in the basal ganglia
|
lobes of the brain
|
|
how do oligodendroglia in oligodendrogliomas (tumors of the brain lobes) appear?
|
dark, round nuclei centered within clear cytoplasm (yold of a fried egg embedded in egg white
|
|
the ventricular spaces of the brain and the central canal of the spinal cord are lined by an epithelium of _______________________
|
ependymal cells
|
|
tumors of ependymal cells are called ______________________
|
ependymomas
|
|
when ependymomas are found in children or adolescents, they are found ___________________
|
in the fourth ventricle
|
|
when ependymomas are found in adults, they are found ___________________
|
in the spinal cord
(esp. cervical level) |
|
ependymomas are more/less infiltrative than astrocytomas?
|
less
|
|
why can ependymomas be more easily dissected away from spinal tissues and removed by a neurosurgeon
|
they are more circumscribed
(confined to a limited area) |
|
how are tumors derived from microglia interpreted?
|
as lymphomas (large family of neoplasms consisting of bone marrow-derived or thymus-derived cells, B cells or T cells respectively)
|
|
lymphomas of the brain are more frequent in patients who suffer from one of the various states of __________________________
|
acquired immunodeficiency
(HIV or medicine-induced immunodeficiency) |
|
tumors that primarily affect children may contain cells that function like ________________
|
stem cells
|
|
medulloblastomas arise in the _____________________ of children and consist of primitive "___________" that are capable of developing along several pathways
|
cerebellar hemispheres
blue cells |
|
why must medulloblastomas be treated aggressively?
|
most retain the characteristic unrestrained growth of embryonal cells without differentiation, so they quickly spread along the surface of the brain and spinal cord
|
|
benign primary brain tumors are often covered by a ____________________ that demarcates them from surrounding normal brain
|
fibrous, vascularized capsule
|
|
how do benign primary brain tumors cause problems?
|
they compress normal tissue as they grow
|
|
tumors that primarily affect children may contain cells that function like ________________
|
stem cells
|
|
medulloblastomas arise in the _____________________ of children and consist of primitive "___________" that are capable of developing along several pathways
|
cerebellar hemispheres
blue cells |
|
why must medulloblastomas be treated aggressively?
|
most retain the characteristic unrestrained growth of embryonal cells without differentiation, so they quickly spread along the surface of the brain and spinal cord
|
|
benign primary brain tumors are often covered by a ____________________ that demarcates them from surrounding normal brain
|
fibrous, vascularized capsule
|
|
how do benign primary brain tumors cause problems?
|
they compress normal tissue as they grow
|
|
what are the two types of frequently encountered benign primary brain tumors?
|
meningioma
schwannoma |
|
from where do metastatic brain tumors arise?
|
malignant cells that originate outside the nervous system
|
|
how do the growth patterns of metastatic tumors differ from primary tumors?
|
clumps of tumor cells, broken away from a tumor, travel through the bloodstream and become lodged at tiny arteriolar branch points (often at gray/white matter junction)
|
|
___________________ is the most common primary tumor to secondarily involve the brain.
|
lung carcinoma
|
|
breast carcinoma can spread to the _____________ or the _____________
|
dura
brain substance |
|
prostate carcinoma can spread to the ______________
|
spinal cord
(travels through veins of Batson's venous plexus) |
|
what are the PNS supporting cells? what are they analogous to from the CNS?
|
satellite cells - astrocytes
schwann cells - oligodendrocytes |
|
______________ surround the cell bodies of neurons in sensory and autonomic ganglia
|
satellite cells
|
|
_____________ ensheath the axons in peripheral nerves
|
schwann cells
|
|
small pockets of cytoplasm, known as ____________________________ are found at irregular intervals in PNS myelin
|
Schmidt-Lanterman clefts
|
|
A ________________ covers the external surface of a schwann cell
|
basal lamina
formed by the schwann cell may help stabilize during myelin formation |
|
each schwann cell can myelinate how many internodes of a PNS axon?
|
only a single internode
(oligodendrocytes in the CNS can myelinate multiple internodes) |
|
in what are unmyelinated axons in the PNS enclosed?
|
invaginations in Schwann cells
|
|
what are the three connective tissue sheaths that cover peripheral nerve fibers external to the schwann cell basal lamina?
|
endoneurium - innermost (type III collagen fibrils with occasional fibroblasts) - around individual axons
perineurium - middle sheath (several concentric layers of flattened fibroblasts with basal laminae) - around groups (fascicles) of axons epineurium - outermost (dense connective tissue sheath of type I collagen and typical fibroblasts) - surrounds entire nerve |
|
what forms the blood-nerve barrier?
|
tight junctions connecting perineurial cells
|
|
why are schwannomas easily excised?
|
they arise singly
they are encapsulated they do not include nerve fibers |
|
why are neurofibromas difficult to remove?
|
they arise in multiples
they are not encapsulated they infiltrate nerve bundles |
|
how can neurons recover from damage?
|
only if axons are injured
if cell body is damaged, axon cannot be regenerated |
|
what type of axonal injuries have a better prognosis for regeneration?
|
compression or crushing
severing has low success for regeneration |
|
in milder lesions in which focal demyelination occurs without axonal degeneration (___________), there is loss of conduction in the nerve, but recovery is to be expected
|
neurapraxia
|
|
when compression or crushing kills the axons distal to the site of injury, the neuronal cell bodies, which are in the ___________ or __________ usually survive
|
spinal cord
sensory or autonomic ganglia |
|
cell bodies of damaged neurons may undergo _______________ in response to the trauma
|
chromatolysis
|
|
days to weeks after the trauma ____________ starts at the point of injury, and the _______ grow distally
|
axonal sprouting
axons |
|
while axonal sprouting occurs, axons die and are removed by macrophages in the distal part of the nerve, what remains?
|
schwann cells, which lose their myelin but keep their basal lamina
|
|
what are bands of Bungner?
|
cordons of Schwann cells which have proliferated inside the basal lamina after an injury to the axon
|
|
________________ and ________________ guide distally growing axonal sprouts after injury
|
schwann cells
basal lamina |
|
macrophages, activated by phagocytosis of myelin debris, signal schwann cells to secrete ________________, a neurotrophin that promotes axon growth
|
nerve growth factor
|
|
the growth rate of sprouting axons is about ____________
|
1mm/day
|
|
in a compression injury (___________), the proximal axon sprouts and distal bands of Schwann cells remain in their original orientation, so nerve fibers are lined up just as they were before the injury
|
axonotmesis
|
|
when a peripheral nerve is severed (_____________) regeneration is less likely to occur
|
neurotmesis
|
|
why is regeneration so unlikely in a severed peripheral nerve?
|
sprouting occurs at the proximal end of the axon an, and the axon grows, but it may not reach its distal target
|
|
some regenerating axons enter correct bands of bungner (regain fcn), some enter wrong bands of bungner (don't regain fcn), and others fail to enter schwann cell tubes, ending blindly in connective tissue as _______________
|
neuromas
|
|
mechanical or chemical stimulation of _____________ may be the cause of "phantom pain" in persons with amputated limbs
|
neuromas (blindly ending sensory axons)
|
|
what happens in response to neuronal injury in the CNS?
|
neuron mounts a sprouting response
astrocytes hypertrophy and proliferate, filling space left by injury or by degeneration of damaged nerve tissue (form a scar) sprouts can't get through scar axonal sprouts are retracted and loss of function is permanent |
|
what factors can inhibit the regrowth of axons in the CNS?
|
astrocyte scar
astrocytes don't secete adequate growth factors to sustain regrowing axons molecules in oligodendrocyte myelin |
|
from what germ layer does the central nervous system develop?
|
primitive ectoderm
|
|
how much does the brain weigh at birth? at 6 years? in adulthood?
|
birth - 800 g
6 yo - 1200 g adult - 1400 g |
|
most, but not all neurons undergo their last cell division ________________
|
before birth
|
|
what percent of births are associated with major malformations of the CNS?
|
3 %
|
|
about ___% of spontaneously aborted fetuses and __% of infants who die within the first year of life have major CNS malformations
|
75
40 |
|
the basic form of the human CNS is complete by about ________________
|
the sixth week of gestation
|
|
phases after the basic form of the CNS, cellular proliferation and migration, are most prominent ______________________
|
in the second trimester of gestation
(though they continue until term) |
|
myelination peaks _________________ but continues into adulthood
|
in the third trimester
|
|
the development of synaptic connections between neurons and the response of the brain to its experiences result in its ______________
|
functional maturity
(process that continues throughout life) |
|
one of the first indicators of the developing nervous system to appear is the ________________ on the posterior aspect of the trilaminar embryo
|
neural groove
|
|
the neural groove deepens and the _____________ at the lateral margins of the ________________ become obvious as they elevate and eventually join along the posterior midline to form the ______________________
|
neural folds
neural plate neural tube |
|
the apposition and fusion of the neural folds and of the overlying ectoderm initially takes place at what will be the ________________ of the spinal cord, then proceeds _____________ from this location
|
cervical levels
rostrally and caudally |
|
the _______________________ are the last points at which the neural tube closes
|
anterior and posterior neuropores
|
|
after formation of the neural tube, three layers appear in rapid succession. they are:
|
ventricular zone
marginal zone intermediate zone |
|
in early stages the closing neural plate and and tube consist of a single layer, the _________________, composed of a pseudostratified layer of fusiform-shaped cells undergoing DNA replication and cell division
|
ventricular zone
|
|
the progenitor cells of the __________________ will give rise to the neurons and some glial cells o the mature nervous system, and to the ependymal cells lining the ventricles
|
ventricular zone
|
|
immediately after the ventricular zone is formed, the ______________ appears
|
marginal zone
|
|
the ___________________ is at the abluminal aspect of the neural tube and consists of the processes of cells located within the ventricular zone, but does not contain their nuclei
|
marginal zone
|
|
the marginal zone contains ____________ cell bodies
|
almost no
it will be invaded by axons of neurons that are located in the intermediate zone |
|
the third area of the neural tube to appear is the ____________________
|
intermediate zone
|
|
the ___________________________ is formed between the ventricular zone and the marginal zone
|
intermediate zone
|
|
the progenitor cells from the ventricular zone give rise to immature __________________
|
postmitotic neurons
|
|
immature neurons from the intermediate zone migrate to the area immediately external to the _________ zone, where they set up residence
|
ventricular
|
|
the _______________ zone develops at the interface of the ventricular and intermediate zones
|
subventricular
|
|
the progenitor cells of the subventricular zone give rise to ______________________
|
macroglial cells of the CNS and to specific populations of developing neurons in the brainstem and forebrain
|
|
development of the alar plate and the basal plate is a __________ process
|
dynamic
|
|
alar and basal plates consist of the ____________ zone and adjacent ______________ zone
|
ventricular
intermediate alar plate is posterior, whereas basal plate is anterior |
|
what is the basic organizational plan from which the brain and spinal cord will arise? what modification accommodates the cerebral cortex?
|
appearance of the cortical plate and subplate
|
|
the __________ forms at the interface of the marginal zone and the intermediate zone and is composed of neurons that originate from the ventricular zone
|
cortical plate
|
|
the postmitotic immature neurons of the ventricular zone, traverse the intermediate zone, using the processes of ____________ as a scaffold to take up their position as the cortical plate
|
radial glia
|
|
the __________ is a narrow region located immediately internal to the cortical plate
|
subplate
|
|
the first neural tissue appears at the end of the ___________ third week of embryonic development
|
third
|
|
a specialized part of the ectoderm, the ________________, gives rise to the brain, spinal cord and peripheral nervous system
|
neuroectoderm
|
|
the notochord arises from _______________ at about _______________
|
axial mesoderm
16 days |
|
the notochord is completely formed by the beginning of the __________ week
|
fourth
|
|
the ___________ defines the longitudinal axis of the embryo
|
notochord
|
|
the ____________ determines the orientation of the vertebral column
|
notochord
|
|
the _____________ persists as the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs
|
notochord
|
|
one important function of the ____________ is induction
|
notochord
|
|
_______________ is the directing of ectoderm overlying the notochord to form the neural plate
|
induction
|
|
associated with the process of induction is the production of ________________________ in the notochord
|
cell adhesion molecules
|
|
_________________________ diffuse from the notochord into the neural plate and function to join the primitive neuroepithelial cells into a tight unit
|
cell adhesion molecules
|
|
within the neuroectoderm, some neuroepithelial cells elongate and become spindle shaped; this is induced by the notochord and forms the ________________; it is completed by the end of the __________ week of gestation
|
neural plate
third |
|
what are the two infolding processes that form the neural tube from the neural plate?
|
primary neurulation (rostral end) - gives rise to brain and spinal cord through lumbar levels
secondary neurulation (caudal-most segment) - gives rise to sacral and coccygeal |
|
the neural plate begins to thicken at its lateral margins by about day __
|
18 (after fertilization)
|
|
the thickening of the lateral margins of the neural plate elevates the edges of it to form _____________
|
neural folds
|
|
the neural folds first contact each other to begin the formation of the neural tube at about day __
|
20
|
|
during the process of fusion of the neural tube, the lumen, called the _______________, is open to the amniotic cavity both rostrally and caudally
|
neural canal
|
|
the rostral opening of the neural tube is called the __________________, and closes at about day __
|
anterior neuropore
24 |
|
the caudal opening of the neural tube is called the __________________, and closes at about day __
|
posterior neuropore
26 (about two days after the anterior neuropore) |
|
neurulation is brought about by morphologic changes in the ____________
|
neuroblasts
|
|
_____________ are the immature and dividing future neurons in the ventricular zone
|
neuroblasts
|
|
congenital malformations associated with defective neurulation are called ____________________
|
dysraphic defects
|
|
several well-controlled clinical trials have proven that supplementation with the vitamin ______________, found in green, leafy vegetables, can reduce the incidence of neural tube defects
|
folic acid
|
|
most dysraphic defects occur at the location of the ______________________
|
anterior or posterior neuropore
|
|
failure of the anterior neuropore to close results in ________________
|
anencephaly
(the brain is not formed, the surrounding meninges and skull may be absent, and there are facial abnormalities |
|
anencephaly extends from the level of the ________________________ to the region of the __________________
|
lamina terminalis
foramen magnum |
|
the __________________ is the site of anterior neuropore closure
|
lamina terminalis
|
|
how frequent is anencephaly?
|
t of every 10,000 live births
(neonatal death is inevitable) |
|
an ____________________ is a herniation of intracranial contents through a defect in the cranium (__________________)
|
encephalocele
crania bifidum |
|
a herniation of only meninges through a defect in the cranium is a _______________
|
meningocele
|
|
a herniation of meninges plus brain through a defect in the cranium is a ____________________
|
meningoencephalocele
|
|
a herniation of meninges, plus brain and a part of the ventricular system is a ___________________________
|
meningohydroencephalocele
|
|
encephaloceles are most common in the _____________ region
|
occipital
(can also occur in frontal or parietal regions) |
|
a congenital herniation of the cerebellar vermis through the foramen magnum, which may cause pressure on the medulla oblongata and cervical spinal cord is a ____________________
|
Arnold-Chiari malformation
(thought to be caused by a more subtle defect in closure of the neuropore than an encepalocele) |
|
________________ may go unnoticed until early adulthood and is often associated with a cavitation of the spinal cord or of the medulla
|
Arnold-Chiari malformation
|
|
a cavitation of the spinal cord is a _______________
|
syringomyelia
|
|
a cavitation of the medulla is a _______________
|
syringobulbia
|
|
defects in the closure of the posterior neuropore cause a range of malformations known collectively as _________________
|
myeloschisis
(always involves a failure of of the vertebral arches at the affected levels to form completely and fuse to cover the spinal cord |
|
failure of the vertebral arches to form completely and to fuse to cover the spinal cord is ___________________
|
spina bifida
|
|
if the vertebral arches don't fully fuse and skin closes over it, the unseen condition is called _________________________
|
spina bifida occulta
site of defect usually marked by a patch of dark, coarse hairs |
|
if the vertebral arches don't fully fuse and the skin doesn't close over it, leaving a patent aperture, the condition is called _______________________
|
spina bifida aperta
|
|
if a cystic mass accompanies spina bifida, the condition is called ______________________
|
spina bifida cystica
|
|
if the cyst-like structure from an incomplete fusion of the posterior neuropore contains only meninges and CSF, it is called a ______________________
|
meningocele
|
|
if the cyst-like structure from an incomplete fusion of the posterior neuropore contains meninges and CSF, plus spinal neural tissue, it is called a ______________________
|
meningomyelocele
|
|
the sacral and coccygeal segments of the spinal cord and their corresponding dorsal and ventral roots are formed by ______________________
|
secondary neurulation
|
|
secondary neurulation begins on day __ and is complete by about day __
|
20
42 |
|
a cell mass, the __________________, appears just caudal to the neural tube, enlarges and cavitates, joins the neural tube, and becomes continuous with the neural canal
|
caudal eminence
|
|
_____________________ refers to malformations of the parts of the neural tube formed by secondary neurulation
|
myelodysplasia
|
|
______________________ is a common abnormality of secondary neurulation in which the conus medullaris and filum terminale are abnormally fixed to the defective vertebral column
|
tethered cord syndrome
(sustained traction damages the cord, with subsequent loss of sensations from the legs and fee, and with bladder control problems) |
|
the three primary brain vesicles are formed during the __ week after fertilization, in which the anterior neuropore closes and neural tissue in the cranial region grows rapidly
|
fourth
|
|
the three primary brain vesicles are the _____________, _______________, and _______________
|
prosencephalon (forebrain)
mesencephalon (midbrain) rhombencephalon (hindbrain) |
|
the slight bend in the developing neural tube at the rhombencephalon-spinal cord junction is the __________________
|
cervical flexure
|
|
a bend in the neural tube at the level of the mesencephalon is the _____________________
|
mesencephalic (cephalic) flexure
|
|
when do the three primary brain vesicles divide into five secondary brain vesicles
|
during the fifth week
|
|
what are the two additional flexures that arise from the division of the three primary brain vesicles?
|
pontine flexure - divides hindbrain
telencephalic flexure - divides forebrain (diencephalic-telencephalic sulcus) |
|
the _________________ divides the hindbrain into the myeloencephalon caudally and the metencephalon rostrally
|
pontine flexure
|
|
which primary vesicle does not partition further?
|
mesencephalon (midbrain)
|
|
the ___________________ divides the forebrain into the diencephalon caudally and the telencephalon rostrally
|
telencephalonic flexure
|
|
what is the order of brain vesicles from rostral to caudal?
|
telencephalon
diencephalon mesencephalon metencephalon myeloencephalon Tel-Di-Mes-Met-Myelo |
|
what is the order of primary brain vesicles from rostral to caudal?
|
prosencephalon
mesencephalon rhombencephalon Pros-Mes-Rhomb |
|
the ____________ (meaning end-brain) forms as an outpocketing of the forebrain and expands enormously with its complex lobes, gyri, and sulci, to become the largest part of the brain
|
telencephalon
|
|
the main structures of the forebrain develop during the _____ month of gestation
|
second
|
|
at about the end of the fifth week, the telencephalon gives rise to two lateral expansions called the ___________________
|
telencephalic (cerebral) vesicles
|
|
_______________ are the primordia of the cerebral hemispheres
|
telencephalic (cerebral) vesicles
|
|
the adult derivatives of the telencephalic vesicles are the:
|
cerebral cortex
subcortical white matter (including internal capsule) olfactory bulb olfactory tract portions of the basal ganglia amygdala hippocampus |
|
the ___________________ develops into the thalamic nuclei and associated structures and also gives rise to the optic cup, which eventually forms the optic nerve and retina
|
diencephalon
|
|
by __ weeks of development, the major structures of the CNS are clearly recognizable by their morphologic features
|
10
|
|
immature versions of all structures in the brain are present by the end of the __________________
|
first trimester
|
|
the sequence of events by which the primitive prosencephalon differentiates into the diencephalic and telencephalic vesicles is called _______________________
|
prosencephalization
|
|
failure of the prosencephalon to undergo cleavage results in a malformation called ______________
|
holoprosencephaly
|
|
in the most severe form of a failure of the prosencephalon to undergo cleavage no discernible lobes develop; this is called ________________
|
alobar holoprosencephaly
|
|
in _______________________, there is some separation of the forebrain into two discernible lobes (more prominent in occipital areas) and partial development of the falx cerebri
|
semilobar holoprosencephaly
|
|
_____________ is a facial malformation characterized by unusually close-set eyes
|
hypotelorism
|
|
_____________ is a facial malformation characterized by the presence of only a single, midline eye
|
cyclops
|
|
how do facial defects relate to forebrain malformations?
|
the forebrain develops at about the same time as facial features, so malformations of one often lead to malformations of another
in general, the more severe the brain malformation, the more severe the facial defect |
|
the acronym "TORCH" is often used for the more common etiologic agents (infectious diseases) which cause congenital nervous system defects; it stands for:
|
Toxoplasma
Other (syphilis) Rubella Cytomegalovirus Herpes simplex virus |
|
nervous system defects caused by infectious diseases include:
|
cataracts
retinitis blindness deafness cerebral calcifications cerebral atrophy microcephaly |
|
the _________________ is an elaboration of the lumen of cephalic portions of the neural tube
|
ventricular system
|
|
the cavities of the telencephalic vesicles become the ______________________
|
lateral ventricles
|
|
the diencephalic cavity becomes the ______________________
|
third ventricle
|
|
the rhombencephalic cavity becomes the ___________________________
|
fourth ventricle
|
|
the cavity of the mesencephalon becomes the ____________________
|
cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius)
|
|
the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) connects the ________________________
|
third and fourth ventricles
|
|
the openings between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle become the ____________________________
|
intraventricular foramina (of Monro)
|
|
the ventricular system is lined with ______________________
|
ependymal cells
|
|
in each ventricle, blood vessels invaginate the ependymal cell membrane to form the _________________
|
choroid plexus
|
|
openings that arise in the caudal roof of the fourth ventricle during development form a communication between the _____________________________________; what are these openings?
|
ventricular system and the subarachnoid space
these openings are the foramen of Magendie (midline medial aperture) and the foramina of Luschka (paired lateral foramina) |
|
the foramen of Magendie and the foramina of Luschka form slowly, but are patent by the end of the _____________________
|
first trimester
|
|
CSF is produced mainly by the choroid plexus of the ____________________________
It escapes to the subarachnoid space through the _____________________________ |
lateral and third ventricles
foramen of Magendie and foramina of Luschka (fourth ventricle) |
|
CSF is absorbed into the venous system through the arachnoid villi located primarily in the _______________________
|
superior sagittal sinus
|
|
the condition in which the ventricular system becomes markedly dilated because of an obstruction to the flow of CSF through the ventricles during prenatal development is called _____________________
|
congenital hydrocephalus
|
|
___________________ are seen in the Dandy-Walker malformation
|
enlarged ventricles
cystic dilation of the fourth ventricle variable degree of aplasia of the cerebellar vermis |
|
aplasia
|
absence or defective development
|
|
the peripheral nervous system develops mostly from cells of the ____________________
|
neural crest
|
|
specialized epidermal cells called _________________ are found in the developing head region, and join neural crest cells to form ganglia of several cranial nerves
|
placodes
cranial nerves are V, VII, VIII, IX, and X |
|
what are the cranial nerve ganglia which arise from neural crest cells and placode cells?
|
trigeminal/semilunar (V) ganglion
geniculate ganglion (VII) superior and inferior ganglia of the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) jugular and nodose ganglia of vagus nerve (X) |
|
in the __________________________, pseudounipolar cells have failed to migrate with the neural crest and remain inside the CNS, forming a ganglion ectopically trapped inside the mesencephalon
|
mesencephalic nucleus of the trigeminal nerve
|
|
the cell bodies of the ganglia of cranial nerve VIII (the vestibulocochlear nerve) arise primarily from the ____________
|
otic placode
(small contribution from neural crest) retain a bipolar shape in the adult |
|
pseudounipolar cells of posterior, or dorsal, root ganglia are derived from ___________________
|
neural crest
|
|
schwann cells, which ensheathe and myelinate axons in the peripheral nervous system, are derived from _______________
|
neural crest cells
|
|
________________ migrate in a segmental fashion, accompanying the growing processes of the peripheral nerve fibers they will eventually ensheathe
|
schwann cells
|
|
in general, CNS neuroblasts arise at the ___________________ of the developing brain
|
ventricular surface
(luminal surface of the neural tube) |
|
just after the neural tube forms, it is a _________________ epithelium
|
pseudostratified columnar
|
|
as development proceeds, the wall of the neural tube thickens and dividing cells cluster at the ventricular surface, leaving a zone without cell bodies at the abluminal surface; this region is called the _______________
|
marginal zone
|
|
as cells in the neural tube undergo their last division, they begin to migrate away from the luminal (ventricular) surface on transient glial cell guides called ______________
|
radial glia
|
|
as the neural tube cells migrate, away from the ventricular surface, they form a moving front of cell bodies between the marginal and ventricular zones called the ______________________
|
intermediate zone
|
|
after neural tube cells migrate and take up their final positions in the developing brain, they begin to extend processes and form connections with ________________________
|
other neurons or muscle cells
|
|
on developing neural tube cells, an axonal process, tipped by a spade-like extension called the _____________, begins to drive its way through intervening regions to reach distant targets
|
growth cone
|
|
although the idea is controversial, both neurons and glia seem to originate from a __________________________
|
single precursor cell population
(gives rise to two separate lineages; neuroblastic and glioblastic) |
|
_______________ lineage generates neurons
|
neuroblastic
|
|
______________ lineage includes precursors of radial glial cells, astroglial cells, and oligodendrocytes
|
glioblastic lineage
|
|
the three main branches of the glioblastic lineage are the ____________________, the ____________________, and the ____________________
|
type I astrocyte progenitor
oligodendrocyte/type II astrocyte precursor radial glia progenitor |
|
whereas all other cell types persist into adulthood, radial glial cells in most regions of the brain appear to be converted to ________________________
|
astrocytes
ependymal cells tanycytes |
|
two notable exceptions where radial glia cells retain most of their features in adulthood are the _________________ in the cerebellum, and the _________________ in the retina
|
Bergmann glial cells
Muller cells |
|
gray matter of the spinal cord is butterfly shaped with _______________________________ horns
|
anterior (ventral)
posterior (dorsal) lateral - at only some levels |
|
spinal cord develops from caudal portions of the neural tube, where the neural canal becomes ___________________________
|
the central canal of the spinal cord
|
|
neuroblasts that give rise to spinal cord neurons migrate peripherally to form four longitudinal ___________ which become the gray matter of the spinal cord
|
plates
anterior two - basal plate posterior two - alar plate |
|
the basal and alar plates on each side are separated by a longitudinal groove called the __________________ in the lateral wall of the central canal
|
sulcus limitans
|
|
the _________ plate develops into the anterior (ventral) horn of the spinal cord and the ____________ plate develops into the posterior (dorsal) horn.
|
basal
alar |
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as each somite develops, it subdivides into a _____________, a _______________, and a _______________
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sclerotome - forms vertebrae
dermatome - forms skin and dermis myotome - forms muscles |
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the posterior (sensory) and anterior (motor) roots of the spinal cord join at about the level of the future _________________ to form the _________________
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intervertebral foramina
spinal nerves |
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vertebrae develop between the spinal nerves and are thus __________________ in position, even though they originate from the segmental sclerotomes
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intersegmental
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by the end of the _________________ the spinal cord, its meningeal coverings, and the surrounding vertebral arches are fully formed
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first trimester
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why is the spinal cord shorter than the vertebral column?
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the vertebral column grows slightly faster than does the spinal cord
cord seems to be drawn rostrally by its attachment to the brain |
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the brainstem consists of:
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myeloencephalon (medulla oblongata)
pons (part of the metencephalon) mesencephalon (midbrain) |
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although developmentally the cerebellum is a part of the metencephalon, it is considered a "________________" structure and not a part of the brainstem
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suprasegmental
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the caudal part of the brainstem is the ______________________
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medulla oblongata
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the __________________ nucleus forms a continuous cell column from the cord-medulla junction to midpontine levels
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spinal trigeminal nucleus
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motor neurons in the brainstem originate from the ____________ plate
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basal
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the rostral-caudal segmentation of the developing rhombencephalon divides it into ________________
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rhombomeres
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rhombomeres are sites of _________________ gene expression
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homeobox (hox)
master switches that control formation of large blocks of tissue |
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the cerebellum arises from the ________________, an alar plate structure that forms part of the wall of the fourth ventricle
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rhombic lip
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the rostral part of the rhombic lip forms the _______________, whereas the caudal part forms the _____________, _______________, and ______________ nuclei
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cerebellum
inferior olivary cochlear pontine |
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the cerebral cortex is develloped using an ___________________ pattern of development, in which the neurons take up positions close to the ventricular surface and subsequent ones move progressively closer to the pial surface
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inside-out
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by the end of the _________________, the longitudinal cerebral, sylvian, and transverse cerebral fissures are recognizable
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first trimester
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a condition in which the cerebral cortex has a smooth surface, caused by a failure of gyri to form is known as _________________________
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lissencephaly
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a condition in which gyri are unusually large is called _________________
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pachygyria
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a condition in which gyri are unusually small is called _________________
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microgyria
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the term _______________ is used to describe the defect in which the migration of immature neurons from the ventricular surface is disrupted
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heterotopia
mature neurons take up residence in the intermediate zones |
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_____________________ is a condition in which there are unilateral or bilateral clefts in the cerebral hemispheres
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schizencephaly
|
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three important parameters in brain organization are:
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1. density of neurons
2. pattern of axon and dendrite branching 3. pattern of synaptic contacts (begin to develop at the sixth month of gestation - end of the peak period of neuronal migration) |
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embryogenesis produces__________________ neurons than are present in the mature brain; they are almost all produced before week 24 and then begin to die selectively
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1.5 to 2 times more
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genetically programmed cell death is called ______________
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apoptosis
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nerve growth factor, brain-derived neurotrophic factor, and fibroblast growth factor are know to limit cell death by _______________________________
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interrupting the normal process of apoptosis
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_______________ guide a cell toward a particular target
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tropic factors
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_______________ maintain the metabolism of a cell or its processes
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trophic factors
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after neuroblasts complete their final cell division and migrate to their final location, they begin to extend a single axon with one or more distal elaborations known as ____________
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growth cones
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once an axonal growth cone arrives at its site of termination, it undergoes biochemical and morphologic changes to become a ___________________
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presynaptic terminal
|
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a synapse that forms will persist only if it exchanges the right cues with the target cell, so only a subset of the large number formed are retained; this concept is known as _______________
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synaptic stabilization
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synaptic stabilization requires:
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1. a signal generated by the presynaptic cell (e.g. neurotransmitter)
2. a means for the postsynaptic cell to respond 3. a retrograde signal from the post- to pre-synaptic cell to say contact should remain into maturity |
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the developing brain is not as vulnerable to injury as is the mature brain; this concept is known as _________________
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plasticity
infants with significant cortical injury prenatally or early postnatally can show surprising functional recovery |
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the period of time during which plastic changes can occur in the innervation (such as the input from the eyes) is called the __________________
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critical period
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the condition in which the visual cortex responds only to inputs from a "good" eye (ignores inputs from the other eye) is called _______________
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amblyopia
|
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synaptic development occurs _____________ with cellular proliferation and migration
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in parallel
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many children with mental retardation, including those with ___________________, have fewer and less complex axonal and dendritic amplifications and fewer dendritic spines than in normal children
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Down syndrome
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____________________ myelinate neuronal axons in the CNS
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oligodendrocytes
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myelination begins at about the ______________ of development
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sixth month
peaks between birth and first year of life, but continues into adulthood |
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what is the hierarchy in the regional maturation of myelin formation?
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motor and sensory tracts first
association tracts later |