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151 Cards in this Set

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MSA agar
-selective ingredient?
-differential ingredient?
-7.5% salt
-mannitol
Mannitol Salt Agar: Differential/Selective?
Organisms that grow:
both
halophiles
MacConkey Agar:
Differential/ Selective?
Organisms tha grow:
both
Gram negative
Eosin-Methylene Blue Agar:
Differential/Selective?
Organisms that grow:
both
Gram negative (best)
Gram positive (poorly)
Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar:
Differential/ Selective?
Organisms that grow:
Selective
Gram positive (best)
Gram negative (poorly)
Blood Agar:
Differential/Selective?
Organisms that grow:
Differential
Most Bacteria, esp. Streptococci
MacConkey Agar:
Selective ingredient?
Differential ingredient?
crystal violet
lactose
Eosin-Methylene Blue Agar:
Selective Ingredient?
Differential ingredient?
eosin and methylene blue
lactose
PEA Agar:
Selective ingredient?
Differential ingredient?
Phenylethyl Alcohol
n/a
Blood Agar:
Selective ingredient?
differential ingredient?
none
red blood cells
Tube 1 is:
obligated aerobes
tube 2 is:
obligated anaerobe
tube 3 is:
facultative anaerobe
tube 4 is:
microaerophile
tube 5 is:
aerotolarant anaerobe
What is it?
asexual/sexual?
yeast
asexual
What is it?
Asexual/Sexual?
basidiospore
sexual
what is it?
asexual/sexual?
Transmission?
canidiospores
asexual
inhalation of conidia
what is it?
asexual/sexual?
Transmission?
mold
asexual
inhalation of sporangiospores
What is it?
asexual/sexual?
transmission?
mold- zygospore
sexual
inhalation of sporangiospores
What is it?
asexual/sexual?
transmission?
mold
asexual
inhalation of canidia
Plasmodiam Vivax: Malaria: the first stage is called?
merozoite
Plasmodiam Vivax: This stage is called?
signet ring
Plasmodiam Vivax: This stage is called?
trophozoite
Plasmodiam Vivax: this stage is called?
early schizont
Plasmodiam Vivax: this stage is called?
late schizont
Toxoplasma Gondii:
What stage?
transmission by?
trophozoite
contaminated water, food & milk
Tapeworms are _____heltminthes.
The 4 body parts are:
platyhelminthes
rostelum w/ hooks, suckers, neck and proglottids
this is a _____helminthe.
It is called:
platyhelminthes
liver fluke
this is a _____helminthe.
it is called a:
gender:
platyhelminthe
blood fluke
male
this is a _____helminthe.
it is called a:
gender:
nemahelminthe
pinworm
male
this is a _____helminthe
it is called a:
gender:
nemahelminthe
pinworm
female
this is a ______helminthe.
it is called a:
gender:
nemathlminthe
hookworm
female
this is a _______helminth.
it is called a:
gender:
nemathelminth
hookworm
male
test name?
breakdown of _____ to ______.
reagent:
positive color:
indole test
tryptophane to indole
kovac's reagent
red
test name?
breakdown of _____ to ______
reagent:
positive color:
simmons citrate agar
citrate to sodium bicarbonate
brom-thymol
blue
IMViC
test name?
breakdown of ____ to produce _____
reagent:
positive color:
Methyl Red Test
glucose to acid
Mehyl Red
red
IMViC
test name?
breakdown of _____ to produce _______
reagent:
positive color:
Voges-Proskauer Test
glucose to produce non-acidi/alkaline/neutral end product
barritt's reagent-B (potassium hydroxide) & barritt's reagent-A (alpha-napthol)
burgundy/mahogany red
test name?
3 media tubes are:
red color indicates:
yellow color indicates:
carbohydate fermentation test
phenol red (lactose/glucose/sucrose) broth
alkaline
acid
test name?
media name and content?
triple sugar iron test
glucose, sucrose, lactose, amino acid (cysteine and cystene) or sodium-thiosulfate
Triple sugar iron test is a medium used for the identification of gram ______ ____ _______. Acid production only at butt of tube indicate ______ ______.
negative enteric rods
glucose utilization
triple sugar iron test:
all yellow - ______
all red - ______
black percipitate- _____
red slant only - ____
all sugars fermentation
peptone breakdown
H2S production
Peptone aerobically
Nitrate Reduction test:
turned red after adding solution A and B indicate ______ nitrate reduction and presence of _____ as end product.
positive
nitrite
Nitrate Reduction test:
turned red after the addition of zinc powder indicates ______ nitrate reduction.
negative
Nitrate Reduction test:
remain clear after addition of all three agents indicates ______ nitrate reduction but ______ and _____ ______ as it's end products.
positive
ammonia; molecular nitrogen
Most fungi live off of decaying organic material and are termed:
saprophytes
For yeast fragile branching filaments are called:
pseudohyphae
Dealing with respiration, yeast are ______ ________.
facultative anaerobes
Yeast Candida: Asexual spores are called:
blastospores
candida: thick-walled survival spores are called:
chlamydospores
molds are ____nucleated
multi
mold: portion that produces asexual reproductive spores is termed:
aerial mycelium
conidiospores of penicillium are produced in chains on finger-like projections called:
sterigmata
aspergillus are produced in chains on the surface of a ball-like structure called a :
vesicle
the ______ are a group of molds that cause superficial mycoses.
dermatophytes
protozoans are a _____karyotic, mostly _____celled and ___robic and made up of two major parts ______ and _____.
eurkaryotic
single
aerobic
nucleus and cytoplasm
sarcodina, mastigophora, ciliophora and sporozoa are categories (phylum) for :
protozoans
protozoa: locomotion:
sarcodina- _______
mastigophora - _______
ciliophora - _______
sporozoa - _______
pseudopodia
flagella
cilia
none
sporozoans are _______ intracellular parasites.
obligated
______ sporozoa - toxoplasma gondii
______ sporozoa - plasmodium vivax
intestinal
blood
reagent used to view protozoans;
methyl cellulose
fission, budding and parthenogenesis are ________ reproduction of helminthes.
asexual
tapeworms have no _____ tract.
digestive
tapeworms invade the ______ wall and migrate to the ______ muscles.
intestinal
striated
roundworms have well developed ____ and _____ systems
digestive
reproductive
a process in which female gamete or gametangium is developed without the involvement of male gamete or gamtangium is called:
parthenogenesis
antibiotics that kill OTHER organisms is called _____ and inhibits growth of OTHER organisms _______.
microbicidal
microbistatic
antimicrobial agents that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis results in :
osmotic lysis
vancomycin produced by bacterium ______ is effective against gram _____ bacteria.
streptomyces
positive
antimicrobial aminoglycosides inhibit ______ synthesis.
protein
antimicrobial sulfanomides and trimethoprim inhibit _____ synthesis.
DNA
disk diffusion technique test uses _____ agar and reagent _____ ______
muller-hinton
ethyl alcohol
antimicrobial, disinfectants, sporicides, sanitizers and sterilants are all:
chemical germicides
Three general categories of chemical germicides are:
_____ eliminate all microbial life.
______ are applied to the living tissue.
________ kill or inhibit microbes on inanimate objects.
sterilants, antiseptics and disinfectants .
transformation, conjugation, transduction are all methods that result in the transfer of DNA from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. The donor DNA is subsequently _______ by _______.
integrated
recombination
a microorganism which lacks the ability to syntheisze one or more essential growth factors is called:
an auxotroph
a microorganism that requires the same nutrients as the majority of naturally occurring members of it's species is called:
a prototroph
enterobacteriaceae are gram______ bacteria that grow in the ______ _____ of humans and other animals.
negative
intestinal tract
The indole test uses _____ agar deep tube, which is a mult-test of 3 items:
SIM
hydrogen sulfide (H2S) gas
indole production
motility
MR-VP media contains _____ and _____.
all enteric bacteria ____ glucose for energy
glucose
peptone
oxidize
citrate test determines bacteria that have two enzymes:
citrate permease
citrase
In the VP test, a light pink color appears and intensifies when the reagents react with _______.
acetoin
_____ traits such as colony shape, size and color are also utilized to make a tentative identification of bacterial species.
macroscopic
anaerobic process: in fermentation, the final electron acceptor is an ______ molecule.
organic
gelatin is an incomplete protein, it lacks ______ and is produced by the hydrolysis of ______.
tryptophane
collagen
amylase breaks the _____ bonds in polysaccharides.
glycosidic
amylase breaks down starch into _____ and ____.
gelatinase breaks down gelatin into ______ then into ____.
casease breaks down large casein molecules into ____.
small oligosaccharides; free glucose
polypeptides; smaller amino acids
smaller polypeptides
agglutination with erythrocytes is termed:
hemagglutination
the nitrate medium contains 0.1% ______ ______ as the substrate.
potassium nitrate
the normal flora excrete vitamins ___ and ___.
k
b12
normal flora stimulate the development of certain tissues like ______, _____ and _____.
cecum
lymphatic
peyer's patch
normal flora stimulate the production of cross-_____ antibodies.
reactive
sebaceous glands secrete _____ acids and ____ acids.
lactic
fatty
normal flora test:
blood agar for _____ococci and mannitol agar for ____ococci.
streptococci
staphylococci
3 factors that influence enzymatic activity are:
temperature
pH
substrate concentration
the sum of all chemical reactions in the organism or its energy balancing act is:
metabolism
______ reactions are considered to be reactions- water is used when bonds are broken
Catabolic
____ reactions involve dehydration synthesis- water is released when bonds are made.
Anabolic
Catabolic reactions are ____ - they release energy (break bonds= energy production)
exergonic
Anabolic reactions are _____- they have to consume energy to make bonds
endergonic
_______ is the loss of electron(s) from a molecule or atom
Oxidation
_______ is the acceptance of electron(s)
Reduction
alternatives to glycolysis are:
Pentose Phosphate Pathway aka hexose monophosphate shunt
Entner- Doudoroff Pathway
2 molecules NADPH and 1 molecule of ATP per glucose
oxidizes glucose
Generally not seen in gram positive bacteria
Useful in identifying Pseudomonas

is the:
Entner- Doudoroff Pathway
Breakdown glucose and pentose (five-carbon sugars)
It produces intermediate pentoses used in the synthesis of nucleic acids, glucose from carbon dioxide and photosynthesis, and certain amino acids
Produces NADPH from NADP+ (reduction reaction)
1 molecule of ATP per glucose

is the:
Pentose Phosphate Pathway aka hexose monophosphate shunt
______ and ______ are two types of microorganisms that are prokaryotes.
bacteria
archea
Methanogens

Extreme halophiles

Extreme thermophiles

are main groups of :
archaea
Unicellular or multicellular organisms
Cell walls of chitin
are characteristics of:
fungi
______- cold-loving
________- moderate- temperature loving
_______- heat- loving
Psychrophile
Mesophiles
Thermophiles
Buffers such as phosphate ____, _____and ____ ___ neutralize the acid produced by bacteria
salts
peptones
amino acids
aerotolarant anaerobes use ______ ____ to partially neutralize oxygen.
superoxide dismutase
______ and _______ anaerobes use catalase and superoxide dismutase to neutralize toxic forms of oxygen.
obligated aerobes
facultative anaerobes
for ________ low oxygen concentration is allowed for growth only
microaerohiles
in eukaryotes transcription occurs in the ________ and _______ undergoes processing prior to leaving there.
nucleus
RNA
_______ remove the introns and splice the exons intact.
small nuclear ribonucloprteins (snRNPs)
introns can remove themselves by acting as ______.
ribozymes
mature ________ moves into cytoplasm prior to translation.
mRNA
2 control mechanisms that regulate how mRNA and ultimately proteins will be made are:
Repression and Induction
________- decrease the rate of enzyme synthesis, so those enzymes cannot play a role in the reactions that make the proteins
Repression
______ -Turn on genes or transcription of genes via inducers
induction
Enzymes that are made in the presence of inducers are ______ enzymes
inducible
The level of glucose can alter the lactose ______ , by controlling the levels of ____ _____… it comes from ATP
operon
cyclic AMP (cAMP)
Without glucose, cAMP accumulates, binds to the ______ site of catabolic activator protein (CAP). cAMP is the alarm or alarmone.
CAP then binds to the lac ________ and makes it easy for RNA ______ to bind to it.
allosteric
promoter
polymerase
In positive regulation: C_____ activates C______
cAMP
CAP
____ mutations are silent or neutral; a change in DNA does not change the product
Simple
_______ or ______ mutations-single base at one point in the DNA sequence, so you essentially have a new base pair.
Base substitutions or point
If a different amino acid is made as a result, this is a _____ mutations
missense
_____ mutations one or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted into the DNA. Everything gets shifted in the “traditional reading frame”
Frameshift
______ mutations- frameshift or substitutions than occur in the absence of mutagens
Spontaneous
_____- agents that can physically or chemically react with DNA, causing potential harm
Mutagens
_______- light- repair enzymes, uses the energy from visible light to separate the dimers
Photolyases
____ _____ repair- able to repair any mutations, not limited to UV. Enzymes remove and repair the synthesized complementary strand
Nucleotide excision
______- add a methyl group to selected bases after DNA is replicated, the repair endonucleases remove the non-tagged strand.
Methylase
______- small segments of DNA (700- 40,000 base pairs) that move from one region of DNA to another.They can be carried via ____ and ____, and be spread between organisms and species
Transposons
viruses or plasmids
Characteristics of Fungi: ______- cells involved catabolism and growth
Vegetative
Plankton
Free- floating
Cellulose in the plasma membrane
Can produce neurotoxins (saxitoxins)
Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning
Red tide
ciguatera

are:
Dinoflagellates
Capsid shapes are determined by the ____ _____ and their mass
Capsid subunits= ______ and are made of proteins which can be uniform or varied.
Capsids can have envelopes of ____, ____, _____
Envelopes can be made of the virus’ own ____and part of the host’s ____ _____
nucleic acids
capsomeres
lipids, proteins, and carbs
proteins ; plasma membrane
______ ______
Alternative to using embryos
Treat a slice of animal tissue with enzymes to break it down to individual cells
Suspend the cells in solution to provide osmotic pressure, nutrients, and growth factors
Look for cytopathic effect (CPE)
cell cultures
______ cell line also come from tissues, but die quickly
_____ cell lines come from human embryos, last 100 generations, used in human hosts and to make human vaccines
_____ cell lines- transformed cells that can last indefinitely (immortal)
Primary
Diploid
Continuous
Re-infect the host
Phage conversion- host cell exhibits new properties
Specialized transduction

are results of:
lysogeny
Pathology- scientific study of disease
______- the cause of disease
_______- manner in which disease develops
Structural and functional changes brought about by disease and the final effects on the body
Infection- invasion or colonization
Disease- the resulting change in the state of health
Etiology
Pathogenesis
Incidence- # of people who develop the disease at a particular time
Prevalence- old and new cases of how many # acquire disease
Sporadic- happens occasionally
______- constant
Epidemic- many people acquire a disease in a short space of time
______- worldwide epidemic
Endemic
Pandemic
______ is the science of when and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted in the populations
epidemiology
The adhesins are typically ______ or _______, whereas the receptors are typically sugars
glycoproteins or lipoproteins
_____toxins are fever and shock producing
endotoxins
________- produces heat- resistance and acid- resistance
Found in the cell’s surface or fimbriae; resists phagocytosis by the white blood cells
In addition to the fimbriae and M protein, some bacteria make Opa, an outer membrane protein
Also, mycolic acid (remember acid- fast) can resist phagocytosis and aid in multiplication in the phagocytes
M protein
______- clots the fibrinogen in blood. Fibrinogen is made in the liver and then made into fibrin, which makes threads in the blood
Coagulase
_______- break down fibrin, digesting the clot
_______- hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid, may blacken infected wounds, can help spread microbes… and drugs?
_______- breaks down collagen
______- destroys antibodies of the IgA type
Kinases
Hyaluronidase
Collagenase
IgA protease
______ Variation- The ability to change the antigens on the pathogen’s own surface
______- component of the host’s cytoskeleton that microbes can use to penetrate the host and spread between hosts
_______- proteins that can rearrange actin by “ruffling” the host’s membrane
Once in the host, microbes propel themselves by condensing the actin, then use ________ to bridge junctions from cell to cell
Antigenic
Actin
Invasins
Cadherin
Wuchereria bancrofti can cause ______
elephantitis
Dinoflagellates, like Alexandrium, make the neurotoxin, ______
saxitoxin