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151 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
MSA agar
-selective ingredient? -differential ingredient? |
-7.5% salt
-mannitol |
|
Mannitol Salt Agar: Differential/Selective?
Organisms that grow: |
both
halophiles |
|
MacConkey Agar:
Differential/ Selective? Organisms tha grow: |
both
Gram negative |
|
Eosin-Methylene Blue Agar:
Differential/Selective? Organisms that grow: |
both
Gram negative (best) Gram positive (poorly) |
|
Phenylethyl Alcohol Agar:
Differential/ Selective? Organisms that grow: |
Selective
Gram positive (best) Gram negative (poorly) |
|
Blood Agar:
Differential/Selective? Organisms that grow: |
Differential
Most Bacteria, esp. Streptococci |
|
MacConkey Agar:
Selective ingredient? Differential ingredient? |
crystal violet
lactose |
|
Eosin-Methylene Blue Agar:
Selective Ingredient? Differential ingredient? |
eosin and methylene blue
lactose |
|
PEA Agar:
Selective ingredient? Differential ingredient? |
Phenylethyl Alcohol
n/a |
|
Blood Agar:
Selective ingredient? differential ingredient? |
none
red blood cells |
|
Tube 1 is:
|
obligated aerobes
|
|
tube 2 is:
|
obligated anaerobe
|
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tube 3 is:
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facultative anaerobe
|
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tube 4 is:
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microaerophile
|
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tube 5 is:
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aerotolarant anaerobe
|
|
What is it?
asexual/sexual? |
yeast
asexual |
|
What is it?
Asexual/Sexual? |
basidiospore
sexual |
|
what is it?
asexual/sexual? Transmission? |
canidiospores
asexual inhalation of conidia |
|
what is it?
asexual/sexual? Transmission? |
mold
asexual inhalation of sporangiospores |
|
What is it?
asexual/sexual? transmission? |
mold- zygospore
sexual inhalation of sporangiospores |
|
What is it?
asexual/sexual? transmission? |
mold
asexual inhalation of canidia |
|
Plasmodiam Vivax: Malaria: the first stage is called?
|
merozoite
|
|
Plasmodiam Vivax: This stage is called?
|
signet ring
|
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Plasmodiam Vivax: This stage is called?
|
trophozoite
|
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Plasmodiam Vivax: this stage is called?
|
early schizont
|
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Plasmodiam Vivax: this stage is called?
|
late schizont
|
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Toxoplasma Gondii:
What stage? transmission by? |
trophozoite
contaminated water, food & milk |
|
Tapeworms are _____heltminthes.
The 4 body parts are: |
platyhelminthes
rostelum w/ hooks, suckers, neck and proglottids |
|
this is a _____helminthe.
It is called: |
platyhelminthes
liver fluke |
|
this is a _____helminthe.
it is called a: gender: |
platyhelminthe
blood fluke male |
|
this is a _____helminthe.
it is called a: gender: |
nemahelminthe
pinworm male |
|
this is a _____helminthe
it is called a: gender: |
nemahelminthe
pinworm female |
|
this is a ______helminthe.
it is called a: gender: |
nemathlminthe
hookworm female |
|
this is a _______helminth.
it is called a: gender: |
nemathelminth
hookworm male |
|
test name?
breakdown of _____ to ______. reagent: positive color: |
indole test
tryptophane to indole kovac's reagent red |
|
test name?
breakdown of _____ to ______ reagent: positive color: |
simmons citrate agar
citrate to sodium bicarbonate brom-thymol blue |
|
IMViC
test name? breakdown of ____ to produce _____ reagent: positive color: |
Methyl Red Test
glucose to acid Mehyl Red red |
|
IMViC
test name? breakdown of _____ to produce _______ reagent: positive color: |
Voges-Proskauer Test
glucose to produce non-acidi/alkaline/neutral end product barritt's reagent-B (potassium hydroxide) & barritt's reagent-A (alpha-napthol) burgundy/mahogany red |
|
test name?
3 media tubes are: red color indicates: yellow color indicates: |
carbohydate fermentation test
phenol red (lactose/glucose/sucrose) broth alkaline acid |
|
test name?
media name and content? |
triple sugar iron test
glucose, sucrose, lactose, amino acid (cysteine and cystene) or sodium-thiosulfate |
|
Triple sugar iron test is a medium used for the identification of gram ______ ____ _______. Acid production only at butt of tube indicate ______ ______.
|
negative enteric rods
glucose utilization |
|
triple sugar iron test:
all yellow - ______ all red - ______ black percipitate- _____ red slant only - ____ |
all sugars fermentation
peptone breakdown H2S production Peptone aerobically |
|
Nitrate Reduction test:
turned red after adding solution A and B indicate ______ nitrate reduction and presence of _____ as end product. |
positive
nitrite |
|
Nitrate Reduction test:
turned red after the addition of zinc powder indicates ______ nitrate reduction. |
negative
|
|
Nitrate Reduction test:
remain clear after addition of all three agents indicates ______ nitrate reduction but ______ and _____ ______ as it's end products. |
positive
ammonia; molecular nitrogen |
|
Most fungi live off of decaying organic material and are termed:
|
saprophytes
|
|
For yeast fragile branching filaments are called:
|
pseudohyphae
|
|
Dealing with respiration, yeast are ______ ________.
|
facultative anaerobes
|
|
Yeast Candida: Asexual spores are called:
|
blastospores
|
|
candida: thick-walled survival spores are called:
|
chlamydospores
|
|
molds are ____nucleated
|
multi
|
|
mold: portion that produces asexual reproductive spores is termed:
|
aerial mycelium
|
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conidiospores of penicillium are produced in chains on finger-like projections called:
|
sterigmata
|
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aspergillus are produced in chains on the surface of a ball-like structure called a :
|
vesicle
|
|
the ______ are a group of molds that cause superficial mycoses.
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dermatophytes
|
|
protozoans are a _____karyotic, mostly _____celled and ___robic and made up of two major parts ______ and _____.
|
eurkaryotic
single aerobic nucleus and cytoplasm |
|
sarcodina, mastigophora, ciliophora and sporozoa are categories (phylum) for :
|
protozoans
|
|
protozoa: locomotion:
sarcodina- _______ mastigophora - _______ ciliophora - _______ sporozoa - _______ |
pseudopodia
flagella cilia none |
|
sporozoans are _______ intracellular parasites.
|
obligated
|
|
______ sporozoa - toxoplasma gondii
______ sporozoa - plasmodium vivax |
intestinal
blood |
|
reagent used to view protozoans;
|
methyl cellulose
|
|
fission, budding and parthenogenesis are ________ reproduction of helminthes.
|
asexual
|
|
tapeworms have no _____ tract.
|
digestive
|
|
tapeworms invade the ______ wall and migrate to the ______ muscles.
|
intestinal
striated |
|
roundworms have well developed ____ and _____ systems
|
digestive
reproductive |
|
a process in which female gamete or gametangium is developed without the involvement of male gamete or gamtangium is called:
|
parthenogenesis
|
|
antibiotics that kill OTHER organisms is called _____ and inhibits growth of OTHER organisms _______.
|
microbicidal
microbistatic |
|
antimicrobial agents that inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis results in :
|
osmotic lysis
|
|
vancomycin produced by bacterium ______ is effective against gram _____ bacteria.
|
streptomyces
positive |
|
antimicrobial aminoglycosides inhibit ______ synthesis.
|
protein
|
|
antimicrobial sulfanomides and trimethoprim inhibit _____ synthesis.
|
DNA
|
|
disk diffusion technique test uses _____ agar and reagent _____ ______
|
muller-hinton
ethyl alcohol |
|
antimicrobial, disinfectants, sporicides, sanitizers and sterilants are all:
|
chemical germicides
|
|
Three general categories of chemical germicides are:
_____ eliminate all microbial life. ______ are applied to the living tissue. ________ kill or inhibit microbes on inanimate objects. |
sterilants, antiseptics and disinfectants .
|
|
transformation, conjugation, transduction are all methods that result in the transfer of DNA from a donor bacterium to a recipient bacterium. The donor DNA is subsequently _______ by _______.
|
integrated
recombination |
|
a microorganism which lacks the ability to syntheisze one or more essential growth factors is called:
|
an auxotroph
|
|
a microorganism that requires the same nutrients as the majority of naturally occurring members of it's species is called:
|
a prototroph
|
|
enterobacteriaceae are gram______ bacteria that grow in the ______ _____ of humans and other animals.
|
negative
intestinal tract |
|
The indole test uses _____ agar deep tube, which is a mult-test of 3 items:
|
SIM
hydrogen sulfide (H2S) gas indole production motility |
|
MR-VP media contains _____ and _____.
all enteric bacteria ____ glucose for energy |
glucose
peptone oxidize |
|
citrate test determines bacteria that have two enzymes:
|
citrate permease
citrase |
|
In the VP test, a light pink color appears and intensifies when the reagents react with _______.
|
acetoin
|
|
_____ traits such as colony shape, size and color are also utilized to make a tentative identification of bacterial species.
|
macroscopic
|
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anaerobic process: in fermentation, the final electron acceptor is an ______ molecule.
|
organic
|
|
gelatin is an incomplete protein, it lacks ______ and is produced by the hydrolysis of ______.
|
tryptophane
collagen |
|
amylase breaks the _____ bonds in polysaccharides.
|
glycosidic
|
|
amylase breaks down starch into _____ and ____.
gelatinase breaks down gelatin into ______ then into ____. casease breaks down large casein molecules into ____. |
small oligosaccharides; free glucose
polypeptides; smaller amino acids smaller polypeptides |
|
agglutination with erythrocytes is termed:
|
hemagglutination
|
|
the nitrate medium contains 0.1% ______ ______ as the substrate.
|
potassium nitrate
|
|
the normal flora excrete vitamins ___ and ___.
|
k
b12 |
|
normal flora stimulate the development of certain tissues like ______, _____ and _____.
|
cecum
lymphatic peyer's patch |
|
normal flora stimulate the production of cross-_____ antibodies.
|
reactive
|
|
sebaceous glands secrete _____ acids and ____ acids.
|
lactic
fatty |
|
normal flora test:
blood agar for _____ococci and mannitol agar for ____ococci. |
streptococci
staphylococci |
|
3 factors that influence enzymatic activity are:
|
temperature
pH substrate concentration |
|
the sum of all chemical reactions in the organism or its energy balancing act is:
|
metabolism
|
|
______ reactions are considered to be reactions- water is used when bonds are broken
|
Catabolic
|
|
____ reactions involve dehydration synthesis- water is released when bonds are made.
|
Anabolic
|
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Catabolic reactions are ____ - they release energy (break bonds= energy production)
|
exergonic
|
|
Anabolic reactions are _____- they have to consume energy to make bonds
|
endergonic
|
|
_______ is the loss of electron(s) from a molecule or atom
|
Oxidation
|
|
_______ is the acceptance of electron(s)
|
Reduction
|
|
alternatives to glycolysis are:
|
Pentose Phosphate Pathway aka hexose monophosphate shunt
Entner- Doudoroff Pathway |
|
2 molecules NADPH and 1 molecule of ATP per glucose
oxidizes glucose Generally not seen in gram positive bacteria Useful in identifying Pseudomonas is the: |
Entner- Doudoroff Pathway
|
|
Breakdown glucose and pentose (five-carbon sugars)
It produces intermediate pentoses used in the synthesis of nucleic acids, glucose from carbon dioxide and photosynthesis, and certain amino acids Produces NADPH from NADP+ (reduction reaction) 1 molecule of ATP per glucose is the: |
Pentose Phosphate Pathway aka hexose monophosphate shunt
|
|
______ and ______ are two types of microorganisms that are prokaryotes.
|
bacteria
archea |
|
Methanogens
Extreme halophiles Extreme thermophiles are main groups of : |
archaea
|
|
Unicellular or multicellular organisms
Cell walls of chitin are characteristics of: |
fungi
|
|
______- cold-loving
________- moderate- temperature loving _______- heat- loving |
Psychrophile
Mesophiles Thermophiles |
|
Buffers such as phosphate ____, _____and ____ ___ neutralize the acid produced by bacteria
|
salts
peptones amino acids |
|
aerotolarant anaerobes use ______ ____ to partially neutralize oxygen.
|
superoxide dismutase
|
|
______ and _______ anaerobes use catalase and superoxide dismutase to neutralize toxic forms of oxygen.
|
obligated aerobes
facultative anaerobes |
|
for ________ low oxygen concentration is allowed for growth only
|
microaerohiles
|
|
in eukaryotes transcription occurs in the ________ and _______ undergoes processing prior to leaving there.
|
nucleus
RNA |
|
_______ remove the introns and splice the exons intact.
|
small nuclear ribonucloprteins (snRNPs)
|
|
introns can remove themselves by acting as ______.
|
ribozymes
|
|
mature ________ moves into cytoplasm prior to translation.
|
mRNA
|
|
2 control mechanisms that regulate how mRNA and ultimately proteins will be made are:
|
Repression and Induction
|
|
________- decrease the rate of enzyme synthesis, so those enzymes cannot play a role in the reactions that make the proteins
|
Repression
|
|
______ -Turn on genes or transcription of genes via inducers
|
induction
|
|
Enzymes that are made in the presence of inducers are ______ enzymes
|
inducible
|
|
The level of glucose can alter the lactose ______ , by controlling the levels of ____ _____… it comes from ATP
|
operon
cyclic AMP (cAMP) |
|
Without glucose, cAMP accumulates, binds to the ______ site of catabolic activator protein (CAP). cAMP is the alarm or alarmone.
CAP then binds to the lac ________ and makes it easy for RNA ______ to bind to it. |
allosteric
promoter polymerase |
|
In positive regulation: C_____ activates C______
|
cAMP
CAP |
|
____ mutations are silent or neutral; a change in DNA does not change the product
|
Simple
|
|
_______ or ______ mutations-single base at one point in the DNA sequence, so you essentially have a new base pair.
|
Base substitutions or point
|
|
If a different amino acid is made as a result, this is a _____ mutations
|
missense
|
|
_____ mutations one or a few nucleotide pairs are deleted or inserted into the DNA. Everything gets shifted in the “traditional reading frame”
|
Frameshift
|
|
______ mutations- frameshift or substitutions than occur in the absence of mutagens
|
Spontaneous
|
|
_____- agents that can physically or chemically react with DNA, causing potential harm
|
Mutagens
|
|
_______- light- repair enzymes, uses the energy from visible light to separate the dimers
|
Photolyases
|
|
____ _____ repair- able to repair any mutations, not limited to UV. Enzymes remove and repair the synthesized complementary strand
|
Nucleotide excision
|
|
______- add a methyl group to selected bases after DNA is replicated, the repair endonucleases remove the non-tagged strand.
|
Methylase
|
|
______- small segments of DNA (700- 40,000 base pairs) that move from one region of DNA to another.They can be carried via ____ and ____, and be spread between organisms and species
|
Transposons
viruses or plasmids |
|
Characteristics of Fungi: ______- cells involved catabolism and growth
|
Vegetative
|
|
Plankton
Free- floating Cellulose in the plasma membrane Can produce neurotoxins (saxitoxins) Paralytic Shellfish Poisoning Red tide ciguatera are: |
Dinoflagellates
|
|
Capsid shapes are determined by the ____ _____ and their mass
Capsid subunits= ______ and are made of proteins which can be uniform or varied. Capsids can have envelopes of ____, ____, _____ Envelopes can be made of the virus’ own ____and part of the host’s ____ _____ |
nucleic acids
capsomeres lipids, proteins, and carbs proteins ; plasma membrane |
|
______ ______
Alternative to using embryos Treat a slice of animal tissue with enzymes to break it down to individual cells Suspend the cells in solution to provide osmotic pressure, nutrients, and growth factors Look for cytopathic effect (CPE) |
cell cultures
|
|
______ cell line also come from tissues, but die quickly
_____ cell lines come from human embryos, last 100 generations, used in human hosts and to make human vaccines _____ cell lines- transformed cells that can last indefinitely (immortal) |
Primary
Diploid Continuous |
|
Re-infect the host
Phage conversion- host cell exhibits new properties Specialized transduction are results of: |
lysogeny
|
|
Pathology- scientific study of disease
______- the cause of disease _______- manner in which disease develops Structural and functional changes brought about by disease and the final effects on the body Infection- invasion or colonization Disease- the resulting change in the state of health |
Etiology
Pathogenesis |
|
Incidence- # of people who develop the disease at a particular time
Prevalence- old and new cases of how many # acquire disease Sporadic- happens occasionally ______- constant Epidemic- many people acquire a disease in a short space of time ______- worldwide epidemic |
Endemic
Pandemic |
|
______ is the science of when and where diseases occur and how they are transmitted in the populations
|
epidemiology
|
|
The adhesins are typically ______ or _______, whereas the receptors are typically sugars
|
glycoproteins or lipoproteins
|
|
_____toxins are fever and shock producing
|
endotoxins
|
|
________- produces heat- resistance and acid- resistance
Found in the cell’s surface or fimbriae; resists phagocytosis by the white blood cells In addition to the fimbriae and M protein, some bacteria make Opa, an outer membrane protein Also, mycolic acid (remember acid- fast) can resist phagocytosis and aid in multiplication in the phagocytes |
M protein
|
|
______- clots the fibrinogen in blood. Fibrinogen is made in the liver and then made into fibrin, which makes threads in the blood
|
Coagulase
|
|
_______- break down fibrin, digesting the clot
_______- hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid, may blacken infected wounds, can help spread microbes… and drugs? _______- breaks down collagen ______- destroys antibodies of the IgA type |
Kinases
Hyaluronidase Collagenase IgA protease |
|
______ Variation- The ability to change the antigens on the pathogen’s own surface
______- component of the host’s cytoskeleton that microbes can use to penetrate the host and spread between hosts _______- proteins that can rearrange actin by “ruffling” the host’s membrane Once in the host, microbes propel themselves by condensing the actin, then use ________ to bridge junctions from cell to cell |
Antigenic
Actin Invasins Cadherin |
|
Wuchereria bancrofti can cause ______
|
elephantitis
|
|
Dinoflagellates, like Alexandrium, make the neurotoxin, ______
|
saxitoxin
|