Mcq-Tortora

Front 1

1. The three major parts of the cell are the , , and
.

Back 1

cytoplasm, nucleus, plasma membrane

Front 2

2. Cell death that is genetically programmed is known as ,
while cell death which is due to tissue injury is known as .

Back 2

apoptosis, necrosis

Front 3

3. _____ are special DNA sequences located at the ends of chromosomes
and whose erosion contributes to cellular aging and death.

Back 3

telomeres

Front 4

4. The mRNA base sequence that is complementary to the DNA base
sequence ATC would be .

Back 4

UAG

Front 5

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
5. A small membrane surface area will increase the rate of diffusion
across the cell membrane.
6. The cells created during meiosis are genetically different from the
original cell.
7. An important and abundant active mechanism that helps maintain
cellular tonicity is the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

Back 5

5F, 6T, 7T

Front 6

8. If the concentration of solutes in the ECF and ICFs are equal, the
cell is in a(n) solution.
(a) hypertonic (b) hydrophobic (c) saturated
(d) hypotonic (e) isotonic

Back 6

e

Front 7

9. Which membrane protein is incorrectly matched with its function?
(a) receptor: allows recognition of specific molecules
(b) ion channel: allows passage of specific ions through the membrane
(c) carrier: allows cells to recognize each other and foreign cells
(d) linker: allows binding of one cell to another and provides stability
and shape to a cell
(e) enzyme: catalyzes cellular reaction

Back 7

c

Front 8

11. Which of the following organelles function primarily in decomposition
reactions? (1) ribosomes, (2) proteasomes, (3) lysosomes,
(4) centrosomes, (5) peroxisomes
(a) 2, 3, and 5 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 2, 4, and 5
(d) 1 and 4 (e) 2 and 5

Back 8

a

Front 9

12. Which of the following statements regarding the nucleus are
true? (1) Nucleoli within the nucleus are the sites of ribosome
synthesis. (2) The nucleus contains the cell's hereditary units.
(3) The nuclear membrane is a solid, impermeable membrane.
(4) Protein synthesis occurs within the nucleus. (5) In nondividing
cells, DNA is found in the nucleus in the form of chromatin.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 1, 2, and 4 (c) 1, 2, and 5
(d) 2, 4, and 5 (e) 2, 3, and 4

Back 9

c

Front 10

1. The four types of tissues are , , , and .

Back 10

Epithelial, Connective, Muscular, Nervous

Front 11

2. Epithelial tissue tends to be classified according to two criteria:
and .

Back 11

arrangement of cells in layers, and cell shape (flat, cuboid, columnar, etc)

Front 12

T/F? Epithelial tissue cells have an apical surface at the top and are attached
to a basement membrane at the bottom.

Back 12

T

Front 13

T/F? 4. Connective tissue fibers that are arranged in bundles and lend
strength and flexibility to a tissue are collagen fibers.

Back 13

T

Front 14

Which of the following muscle tissues can be voluntarily controlled?
(1) cardiac, (2), smooth, (3) skeletal.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 (c) 1
(d) 1 and 3 (e) 3

Back 14

e

Front 15

6. Which of the following tissues is avascular?
(a) cardiac muscle (b) stratified squamous epithelial
(c) compact bone (d) skeletal muscle
(e) adipose

Back 15

b

Front 16

7. If the lining of an organ produces and releases mucus, which of
the following cells would likely be found in the tissue lining the
organ?
(a) goblet cells (b) mast cells (c) macrophages
(d) osteoblasts (e) fibroblasts

Back 16

a

Front 17

8. Why does damaged cartilage heal slowly?
(a) Damaged cartilage undergoes fibrosis, which interferes with
the movement of materials needed for repair.
(b) Cartilage does not contain fibroblasts, which are needed to produce
the fibers in cartilage tissue.
(c) Cartilage is avascular, so materials needed for repair must diffuse
from surrounding tissue.
(d) Chondrocytes cannot be replaced once they are damaged.
(e) Chondrocytes undergo mitosis slowly, which delays healing.

Back 17

c

Front 18

9. Which of the following is true concerning serous membranes?
(a) A serous membrane lines a body part that opens directly to the
body's exterior.
(b) The parietal portion of a serous membrane attaches to the
organ.
(c) The visceral portion of a serous membrane attaches to a body
cavity wall.
(d) The serous membrane covering the heart is known as the peritoneum.
(e) The serous membrane covering the lungs is known as the
pleura.

Back 18

e

Front 19

10. The type of exocrine gland that forms its secretory product and
simply releases it from the cell by exocytosis is the
(a) apocrine gland (b) merocrine gland (c) holocrine gland
(d) endocrine gland (e) tubular gland.

Back 19

b

Front 20

11. Tissue changes that occur with aging can be due to (1) cross-links
forming between glucose and proteins, (2) a decrease in the
amount of collagen fibers, (3) a decreased blood supply, (4) improper
nutrition, (5) a higher cellular metabolic rate.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 3, and 4 (e) 1, 2, and 3

Back 20

d

Front 21

12. What type of cell junction would be required for cells to communicate
with one another?
(a) adherens junction (b) desmosome (c) gap junction
(d) tight junction (e) hemidesmosome

Back 21

c

Front 22

The most common sweat glands that release a watery secretion are
______sweat glands; modified sweat glands in the ear are _______
glands; sweat glands located in the axillae, groin, areolae, and
beards of males and that release a slightly viscous, lipid-rich secretion
are _____sweat glands.

Back 22

eccrine, ceruminous, apocrine

Front 23

The layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells undergoing mitosis
is the
(a) stratum corneum. (b) stratum lucidum.
(c) stratum basale. (d) stratum spinosum.
(e) stratum granulosum.

Back 23

c

Front 24

6. The substance that helps promote mitosis in epidermal skin cells is
(a) keratohyalin. (b) melanin. (c) carotene.
(d) collagen. (e) epidermal growth factor.

Back 24

e

Front 25

7. Which of the following is not a function of skin?
(a) calcium production (b) vitamin D synthesis
(c) protection (d) excretion of wastes
(e) temperature regulation

Back 25

a

Front 26

8. To expose underlying tissues in the bottom of the foot, a foot
surgeon must first cut through the skin. Place the following layers
in the order that the scalpel would cut. (1) stratum lucidum,
(2) stratum corneum, (3) stratum basale, (4) stratum granulosum,
(5) stratum spinosum.
(a) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2 (b) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3 (c) 2, 1, 4, 5, 3
(d) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2 (e) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2

Back 26

c

Front 27

9. Aging of the skin can result in
(a) an increase in collagen and elastic fibers.
(b) a decrease in the activity of sebaceous glands.
(c) a thickening of the skin.
(d) an increased blood flow to the skin.
(e) an increase in toenail growth.

Back 27

b

Front 28

10. Which of the following is not true?
(a) Albinism is an inherited inability of melanocytes to produce
melanin.
(b) Striae occurs when the dermis is overstretched to the point of
tearing.
(c) In order to prevent excessive scarring, surgeons should cut parallel
to the lines of cleavage.
(d) The papillary layer of the dermis is responsible for fingerprints.
(e) Much of the body’s fat is located in the dermis of the skin.

Back 28

e

Front 29

11. A patient is brought into the emergency room suffering from a
burn. The patient does not feel any pain at the burn site. Using a
gentle pull on a hair, the examining physician can remove entire
hair follicles from the patient’s arm. This patient is suffering from
what type of burn?
(a) third degree (b) second degree (c) first degree
(d) partial-thickness (e) localized

Back 29

a

Front 30

Bone growth in length is called ____ growth, and bone growth in
diameter (thickness) is called _____ growth.

Back 30

length = epiphyseal interstitial growth, thickness = appositional growth

Front 31

2. The crystallized inorganic mineral salts in bone contribute to
bone’s ____, while the collagen fibers and other organic molecules
provide bone with ____.

Back 31

hardness, tensdile strength

Front 32

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
3. Bone resorption involves increased activity of osteoclasts.
4. The formation of bone from cartilage is known as endochondral
ossification.
5. The growth of bone is controlled primarily by hormones.

Back 32

3T, 4T, 5T

Front 33

Choose the one best answer to the following questions.
6. Place in order the steps involved in intramembranous ossification.
(1) Bony matrices fuse to form trabeculae. (2) Clusters of osteoblasts
form a center of ossification that secretes the organic extracellular
matrix. (3) Spongy bone is replaced with compact bone
on the bone’s surface. (4) Periosteum develops on the bone’s periphery.
(5) The extracellular matrix hardens by deposition of calcium
and mineral salts.
(a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 (b) 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 (c) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
(d) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 (e) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

Back 33

d

Front 34

7. Place in order the steps involved in endochondral ossification. (1)
Nutrient artery invades the perichondrium. (2) Osteoclasts create a
marrow cavity. (3) Chondrocytes enlarge and calcify. (4)
Secondary ossification centers appear at epiphyses. (5) Osteoblasts
become active in the primary ossification center.
(a) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 (b) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2 (c) 1, 3, 5, 2, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 (e) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1

Back 34

a

Front 35

8. Spongy bone differs from compact bone because spongy bone
(a) is composed of numerous osteons (haversian systems).
(b) is found primarily in the diaphyses of long bones, and compact
bone is found primarily in the epiphyses of long bones.
(c) contains osteons all aligned in the same direction along lines of
stress.
(d) does not contain osteocytes contained in lacunae.
(e) is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of
stress.

Back 35

e

Front 36

9. A primary effect of weight-bearing exercise on bones is to
(a) provide oxygen for bone development.
(b) increase the demineralization of bone.
(c) maintain and increase bone mass.
(d) stimulate the release of sex hormones for bone growth.
(e) utilize the stored triglycerides from the yellow bone marrow.

Back 36

c

Front 37

10. Place in order the steps involved in the repair of a bone fracture.
(1) Osteoblast production of trabeculae and bony callus formation;
(2) formation of a hematoma at the site of fracture; (3) resorption
of remaining bone fragments and remodeling of bone; (4) migration
of fibroblasts to the fracture site; (5) bridging of broken ends
of bones by a fibrocartilaginous callus.
(a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3 (b) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 (c) 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
(d) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4 (e) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3

Back 37

a

Front 38

Match the following:
(a) decreases blood calcium levels
by accelerating calcium deposition
in bones and inhibiting
osteoclasts
(b) required for collagen synthesis
(c) during childhood, it promotes
growth at epiphyseal plate;
production stimulated by
human growth hormone
(d) involved in bone growth by
increasing osteoblast activity;
causes long bones to stop
growing in length
(e) required for protein synthesis
(f) active form of vitamin D;
raises blood calcium levels by
increasing absorption of
calcium from digestive tract
(g) raises blood calcium levels by
increasing bone resorption
WITH
(1) PTH from parathyroid glands
(2) CT (calcitonin) from thyroid gland
(3) calcitriol
(4) insulinlike
growth factors
(5) sex hormones
(6) vitamin C
(7) vitamin K

Back 38

a2, b6, c4, d5, e7, f3, g1

Front 39

Membrane-filled spaces between cranial bones that enable the fetal
skull to modify its size and shape for passage through the birth
canal are called _____.

Back 39

fontanels

Front 40

2. The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
contains the _____.

Back 40

pituitary gland

Front 41

3. The regions of the vertebral column that consist of fused vertebrae
are the ____ and the ____.

Back 41

sacrum, occyx

Front 42

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
4. The atlanto-occipital joints allow you to rotate the head, as in signifying
“no.”
5. Ribs that are not attached to the sternum are known as the true
ribs.

Back 42

4F, 5F

Front 43

Choose the one best answer to the following questions.
6. In which of the following bones are paranasal sinuses not found?
(a) frontal bone (b) sphenoid bone (c) lacrimal bones
(d) ethmoid bone (e) maxillae

Back 43

c

Front 44

7. Which of the following pairs are mismatched?
(a) mandible: only movable bone in the skull.
(b) hyoid: bone that does not articulate with any other bone.
(c) sacrum: supports lower back.
(d) thoracic vertebrae: articulate with thoracic ribs posteriorly.
(e) inferior nasal conchae: classified as facial bones.

Back 44

c

Front 45

8. Which of the following bones are not paired?
(a) vomer (b) palatine (c) lacrimal
(d) maxilla (e) nasal

Back 45

a

Front 46

9. The suture located between a parietal and temporal bone is the
(a) lambdoid. (b) sagittal. (c) coronal.
(d) anterolateral. (e) squamous

Back 46

e

Front 47

10. The primary vertebral curves that appear during fetal development
are the (1) cervical curve, (2) thoracic curve, (3) lumbar curve,
(4) coccyx curve, (5) sacral curve.
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 5 (e) 1 and 3

Back 47

d

Front 48

11. Which of the following are functions of the cranial bones? (1)
protection of the brain; (2) attachment of muscles that move the
head; (3) protection of the special sense organs; (4) attachment to
the meninges; (5) attachment of muscles that produce facial expressions.
(a) 1, 2, and 5 (b) 1, 2, 4, and 5 (c) 2 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 5 (e) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Back 48

e

Front 49

The bones that comprise the palm are the ______.

Back 49

metacarpals

Front 50

2. List the three bones that fuse to form a hip (coxal) bone: ,

Back 50

ilium, ischium, pubis, .

Front 51

3. The portion of the bony pelvis that is inferior to the pelvic brim is
the _____ pelvis; the portion that is superior to the pelvic brim is
the ______ pelvis.

Back 51

true (lesser), false (greater)

Front 52

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
4. The largest carpal bone is the lunate.
5. The anterior joint formed by the two coxal (hip) bones is the pubic
symphysis.

Back 52

4F, 5T

Front 53

Choose the one best answer to the following questions.
6. Which of the following statements are true? (1) The pectoral girdle
consists of the scapula, the clavicle, and the sternum. (2) Although the
joints of the pectoral girdle are not very stable, they allow free movement
in many directions. (3) The anterior component of the pectoral
girdle is the scapula. (4) The pectoral girdle articulates directly with
the vertebral column. (5) The posterior component of the pectoral girdle
is the sternum.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 5 (e) 3, 4, and 5

Back 53

b

Front 54

7. Which of the following are true concerning the elbow joint?
(1) When the forearm is extended, the olecranon fossa receives the
olecranon. (2) When the forearm is flexed, the radial fossa receives the
coronoid process. (3) The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum.
(4) The trochlea articulates with the trochlear notch. (5) The
head of the ulna articulates with the ulnar notch of the radius.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (b) 1, 3, and 4 (c) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (e) 2, 3, and 4

Back 54

c

Front 55

8. Which of the following is the most superior of the tarsals and
articulates with the distal end of the tibia?
(a) calcaneus (b) navicular (c) cuboid
(d) cuneiform (e) talus

Back 55

e

Front 56

9. Which is (are) not true concerning the scapula? (1) The lateral border
is also known as the axillary border. (2) The scapular notch accommodates
the head of the humerus. (3) The scapula is also known as
the collarbone. (4) The acromion process articulates with the clavicle.
(5) The coracoid process is utilized for muscle attachment.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4 (e) 2, 3, and 5

Back 56

c

Front 57

10. Which of the following is false?
(a) A decrease in the height of the medial longitudinal arch creates
a condition known as clawfoot.
(b) The transverse arch is formed by the navicular, cuneiforms,
and bases of the five metatarsals.
(c) The longitudinal arch has medial and lateral parts, both of
which originate at the calcaneus.
(d) Arches help to absorb shocks.
(e) Arches enable the foot to support the body’s weight.

Back 57

a

Front 58

11. Which of the following are involved in the knee joint?
(a) fibular notch of tibia (b) lateral condyle of tibia
(c) head of fibula (d) greater trochanter of femur
(e) medial condyle of femur

Back 58

b

Front 59

12. The greater sciatic notch is located on the
(a) ilium (b) ischium (c) femur
(d) pubis (e) sacrum

Back 59

a

Front 60

A point of contact between two bones, between bone and cartilage,
or between bone and teeth is called a(n) _____.

Back 60

joint, articulation, arthrosis

Front 61

2. The surgical procedure in which a severely damaged joint is
replaced with an artificial joint is known as ____.

Back 61

arthroplasty

Front 62

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
3. Menisci are fluid-filled sacs located outside of the joint cavity to
ease friction between bones and softer tissue.
4. Shrugging your shoulders involves flexion and extension.
5. Synovial fluid becomes more viscous (thicker) as movement at the
joint increases.

Back 62

3F, 4F, 5F

Front 63

Choose the one best answer to the following questions.
6. Which of the following are structural classifications of joints?
(1) amphiarthrosis, (2) cartilaginous, (3) synovial, (4) synarthrosis,
(5) fibrous.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (b) 2 and 5 (c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 4, and 5 (e) 2, 3, and 5

Back 63

e

Front 64

7. Which of the following joints could be classified functionally
as synarthroses? (1) syndesmosis, (2) symphysis, (3) synovial,
(4) gomphosis, (5) suture.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 5 (c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 4 and 5 (e) 5 only

Back 64

d

Front 65

8. The most common degenerative joint disease in the elderly, often
caused by wear-and-tear, is
(a) rheumatoid arthritis. (b) osteoarthritis. (c) rheumatism.
(d) gouty arthritis. (e) ankylosing spondylitis.

Back 65

b

Front 66

9. Chewing your food involves (1) flexion, (2) extension, (3) hyperextension,
(4) elevation, (5) depression.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 4 and 5
(d) 3 and 5 (e) 1 and 4

Back 66

c

Front 67

10. Synovial fluid functions to (1) absorb shocks at joints, (2) lubricate
joints, (3) form a blood clot in a joint injury, (4) supply oxygen
and nutrients to chondrocytes, (5) provide phagocytes to remove
debris from joints.
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (c) 1, 2, and 4
(d) 3 and 4 (e) 2, 4, and 5

Back 67

a

Front 68

11. Which of the following statements are true concerning a synovial
joint? (1) The bones at a synovial joint are covered by a mucous
membrane. (2) The articular capsule surrounds a synovial joint,
encloses the synovial cavity, and unites the articulating bones.
(3) The fibrous membrane of the articular capsule permits considerable
movement at a joint. (4) The tensile strength of the fibrous
membrane helps prevent bones from disarticulating. (5) All synovial
joints contain a fibrous membrane.
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, and 5 (c) 2, 3, and 4
(d) 1, 2, and 3 (e) 2, 4, and 5

Back 68

c

Front 69

12. Which of the following keep the articular surfaces of synovial
joints in contact and affect range of motion? (1) structure or shape
of the articulating bones, (2) strength and tension of the joint ligaments,
(3) arrangement and tension of muscles, (4) lack of use,
(5) contact of soft parts.
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 5 (b) 2, 3, 4, and 5 (c) 1, 3, 4, and 5
(d) 1, 3, and 5 (e) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Back 69

e

Front 70

Fill in the blanks in the following statements.
1. A single somatic motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it stimulates
is known as a _______.

Back 70

motor unit

Front 71

2. The wasting away of muscle due to lack of use is known as _____
while the replacement of skeletal muscle fibers with scar tissue is
known as _____.

Back 71

muscular atrophy, fibrosis

Front 72

3. The synaptic end bulbs of somatic motor neurons contain synaptic
vesicles filled with the neurotransmitter ______.
Indicate whether the following statements are tr

Back 72

acetylcholine

Front 73

True or false.
4. The ability of muscle cells to respond to stimuli and produce electrical
signals is known as excitability.
5. The sequence of events resulting in skeletal muscle contraction are
(a) generation of a nerve impulse;
(b) release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine;
(c) generation of a muscle action potential;
(d) release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum;
(e) calcium ion binding to troponin;
(f) power stroke with actin and myosin binding and release.

Back 73

4T, 5T

Front 74

Choose the one best answer to the following questions.
6. In muscle physiology, the latent period refers to
(a) the period of lost excitability that occurs when two stimuli are
applied immediately one after the other.
(b) the brief contraction of a motor unit.
(c) the period of elevated oxygen use after exercise.
(d) an inability of a muscle to contract forcefully after prolonged
activity.
(e) a brief delay that occurs between application of a stimulus and
the beginning of contraction.

Back 74

e

Front 75

7. Which of the following muscle proteins and their descriptions are
mismatched?
(a) titin: regulatory protein that holds troponin in place
(b) myosin: contractile motor protein
(c) tropomyosin: regulatory protein that blocks myosin-binding
sites
(d) actin: contractile protein that contains myosin-binding sites
(e) calsequestrin: calcium-binding protein.

Back 75

a

Front 76

8. During muscle contraction all of the following occur except
(a) crossbridges are formed when the energized myosin head
attaches to actin's myosin-binding site.
(b) ATP undergoes hydrolysis.
(c) the thick filaments slide inward toward the M line.
(d) calcium concentration in the cytosol increases.
(e) the Z discs are drawn toward each other.

Back 76

c

Front 77

9. Which of the following is not true concerning sarcomeres (before
contraction begins) and muscle fiber length–tension relationships?
(a) If sarcomeres are stretched, the tension in the fiber decreases.
(b) If a muscle cell is stretched so that there is no overlap of the filaments,
no tension is generated.
(c) Extremely compressed sarcomeres result in less muscle tension.
(d) Maximum tension occurs when the zone of overlap between a
thick and thin filament extends from the edge of the H zone to
one end of a thick filament.
(e) If sarcomeres shorten, the tension in them increases.

Back 77

e

Front 78

10. Which of the following are sources of ATP for muscle contraction?
(1) creatine phosphate, (2) glycolysis, (3) anaerobic cellular respiration,
(4) aerobic cellular respiration, (5) acetylcholine.
(a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4 (c) 2, 3, and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (e) 2, 3, 4, and 5

Back 78

d

Front 79

11. What would happen if ATP were suddenly unavailable after the
sarcomere had begun to shorten?
(a) Nothing. The contraction would proceed normally.
(b) The myosin heads would be unable to detach from actin.
(c) Troponin would bind with the myosin heads.
(d) Actin and myosin filaments would separate completely and be
unable to recombine.
(e) The myosin heads would detach completely from actin.

Back 79

b

Front 80

Fill in the blanks in the following statements.
1. The muscle that forms the major portion of the cheek is the ______.

Back 80

buccinator

Front 81

2. The three superficial posterior plantar flexors of the leg are the
_____, _____, and ______. All three of these muscles insert on
the ______ by way of the Achilles tendon.

Back 81

gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, calcaneus

Front 82

Indicate whether the following statements are true or false.
3. Longer fibers in a muscle result in a greater range of motion.
4. When flexing the forearm, the biceps brachii acts as the prime
mover and the triceps brachii acts as the antagonist.

Back 82

4T, 5T

Front 83

Choose the one best answer to the following questions.
5. Which of the following muscles does not flex the thigh?
(a) rectus femoris (b) gracilis (c) sartorius
(d) iliacus (e) tensor fascia latae

Back 83

b

Front 84

6. The iliotibial tract is composed of the tendon of the gluteus maximus
muscle, the deep fascia that encircles the thigh, and the tendon
of which of the following muscles?
(a) iliacus (b) gluteus minimus (c) tensor fascia latae
(d) adductor longus (e) vastus lateralis

Back 84

c

Front 85

7. In order for movement to occur, (1) muscles generally need to
cross a joint, (2) contraction of the muscle will pull on the origin,
(3) muscles that move a body part cannot cover the moving part,
(4) muscles need to exert force on tendons that pull on bones, (5)
the insertion must act to stabilize the joint.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3, and 4 (e) 3 and 4

Back 85

d

Front 86

8. Because you did not do well on your recent anatomy and physiology
exam, you leave the classroom pouting. Which one of these
muscles are you using?
(a) mentalis (b) orbicularis oris (c) risorius
(d) levator labii superioris (e) zygomaticus minor

Back 86

a

Front 87

9. The rectus femoris has fascicles arranged on both sides of a centrally
positioned tendon. This pattern of fascicle arrangement is
(a) unipennate. (b) fusiform. (c) multipennate.
(d) parallel. (e) bipennate.

Back 87

e

Front 88

10. Which of the following muscle names and their naming descriptors
are mismatched?
(a) adductor brevis: short muscle that moves a bone closer to the
midline
(b) rectus abdominis: muscle with fibers parallel to the midline of
the abdomen
(c) levator scapula: muscle that raises the scapula
(d) sternohyoid: muscle attached to the sternum and hyoid
(e) serratus anterior: comblike muscle located on the body’s
anterior surface

Back 88

e