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482 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Arm of the immune system:
Barriers: Anatomic, Physiologic, Phagocytic (monocytes, neutrophils, macrophages), Inflammatory events |
Innate Immune System
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Arm of immune system that present intrinsically, nonspecific, no memory, and limited diversity
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Innate Immune System
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Arm of the immune system:
Lymphocytes (T & B cells) and plasma cells (end cells of B-lymphocyte differentiation); Antigen Presenting Cells (macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells) |
Adaptive Immune System
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Arm of immune system that is inducible, specific, has memory, extensive diversity, self versus non-self distinction, self-limiting
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Adaptive Immune System
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antibodies produced by B lymphocytes bind to pathogens and assit w/ phagocytosis
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Opsonization
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What activates complement
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Antibodies produced by plasma cells bind to pathogen and activation copmlement
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Gram Stain
"Im positively BLUE over you!" |
Gram-positive = BLUE
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Gram Stain
"No (negative) RED commies!!" |
Gram-negative = RED
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6 Classic Gram (+) bacteria
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2 cocci, 4 bacilli
(1) Streptococci (strips) (2) Staphylcocci (clusters) 2 Spore-forming bacilli (3) Bacillus (4) Clostridium 2 Bacilli (5) Corynebacterium (6) Listeria |
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Only Gram (-) cocci
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Neisseria
diplococcus (looks like 2 coffee beans kissing) |
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Only spirial shaped Gram (-) organisms
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Spirochetes: Treponema, Borrelia, Leptospira
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Bacterial organism that does not have a cell wall
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Mycoplasma, have a simple cell membrane
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Gram (+) Organisms with branching filamentous growth
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Actinomyces (anaerobic)
Nocardia (partially acid-fast) |
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Gram (-) Rods
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Enterics (E. coli, Shigella, Salmonella, Yersinia, Klebsiella, Proteus, Enterobacter, Serratia, Vibrio, Campylobacter, Helicobacter, Pseudomonas, Bacteroids)
Haemophilus Bordatella Legionella Yersinia Francisella Brucella Pastuerall Gardenerella |
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Pleomorphic Gram (-) organisms
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Chlamydia
Rickettsiae |
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Gram (+) and Gram (-) Oligate Aerobes
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Use glycolysis, TCA cycle, & electron transport chain w/ O2 as final electron acceptor, have catalase, peroxidase, superoxide dismutase
Gram (+): Nocardia, Bacillus cereus Gram (-): Neisseria, Pseudomonas, Bordetella, Legionalla, Brucella Acid-Fast: Mycobacterium |
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Gram (+) and Gram (-) Facultative Anaerobes
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Aerobic, use O2 as an electron acceptor in their electron transfer chain, have catalase & superoxide dismutase, CAN grow in absence of oxygen using fermentation for energy
Gram (+): Staphylcoccus, Bacillus anthracis, Corynebacterium, Listeria, Actinomyces Gram (-): Most gram (-) rods |
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Gram (+) and Gram (-) Microaerophilic
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Use fermentation as energy & have no electron transport system, can tolerate low levels of O2 b/c they have superoxide dismutase (no catalase)
Gram (+): Streptococcus (some spp are facultative anaerobes) Gram (-): Spirochetes (Treponema, Boerrelia, Leptospira), Campylobacter |
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Gram (+) and Gram (-) Oligate Abaerobes
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Fermentation for energy, no enzymes to break down Oxygen
Gram (+): Clostridium Gram (-): Bacteroides |
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Chemoheterotrophs
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all medically important bacteria, use chemical & organic compounds, such as glucose for energy
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Obligate intracelluar organisms
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not capable of the metabolic pathways for ATP syn & must steal ATP from their host, they live in their host cell & can't survive w/o a host --> Energy Parasites
Ex: Chlamydia, Rickettsia |
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Facultative intracelluar organisms
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bacteria that are phagocytosed by host's macphs & neutrophils & survive w/in the WBCs unharmed, they inhibit phagosome-lysosome fusion, thus escaping hydrogen peroxide & superoxide radicals
Ex: Listeria monocytogenes, Slamonella typhi, Yersinia, Francisella turlarensis, Brucella, Legionella, Mycobacterium |
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Endotoxins are only present in Gram (-) bacteria w/ one exception
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Listeria monocytogenes
Endotoxin is a piece of the outer membrane lipopolysaccharide (LPS), Lipid A |
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Where do all cells from the immune system arise from
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Pluripotent stem cell
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What signal to the pluripotent stem cell causes it to differentiate into the Lymphoid stem cell & what will it make
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IL-7;
Makes NK Cells, B-cells, T-cells Lymphoid cells (except NK cells) are in the adaptive branch) |
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What signal to the pluripotent stem cell causes it to differentiate into the Myeloid stem cell & what will it make
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GM-CSF, IL-3
Makes RBCs, Platelets, Basophils, Mast cells, Eosinophils, Neutrophils, Monocytes, Macrophages, & Dendritic Cells -Myeloid cells are in the innate branch |
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What are the signals for myeloid stem cell to differentiate into Eosinophil progenitor, Megakaryocyte, & Erythroid Progenitor
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Myeloid Progenitor:
IL-5 --> Eosinophil progenitor: IL-5 --> Eosinophil Thrombopoietin --> Megakaryocyte --> IL-11 --> Platelets Erythropoietin --> Erythroid Progenitor --> Erythrocyte |
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What myeloid cell is found in the bloodstrem, kidney bean-shaped nucleus, CD14 (+), is phagocytic & differentiates into tissue macrophages
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Monocyte
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What myeloid cell is found in tissues, has a ruffled membrane, cytoplasm w/ vacuoles & vesicles, CD14 (+), performs phagocytosis & secretes cytokines
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Macrophage
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What myeloid cell is found in the Epithelia & tissues, has long cytoplasmic arms, functions include antigen capture, transport, & presentation
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Dendritic Cell
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What myeloid cell is found in the bloodstrem, has a multi-lobed nucleus & small pink granules, performs phagocytosis & activation of bactericidal mechanisms
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Neutrophil
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What myeloid cell is found in the bloodstrem, bilobed nucleus & large pink granules, & acts to kill antibody-coated parasites
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Eosinophil
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Lymphoid cell found in the bloodstream, lymph nodes, spleen, submucosa & epithelim, large, dark nucles w/ small rim of cytoplasm
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B cells, T cells
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CD19, CD20, CD21 (+) & produces antibody
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B-cells
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CD3, CD4 (+), helps regulate immune responses
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T helper cells
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CD3, CD8 (+), kill altered or infected cells
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Cytotoxic T cells
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Lymphoid cell found in the bloodstream, large cytoplasmic granules, CD16, CD56 (+) & what is it's fcn
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Natural Killer Lymphocyte: kills tumor/virus cell targets or antibody coated target cells
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Lymphoid cell found lymph nodes, spleen, mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues, and bone marrow, small dark nucleus, intensely staining golgi apparatus
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Plasma Cell
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End cell of B-cell differentiationm produce antibody
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Plasma Cell
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Myeloid cell found in the bloodstream, has a bilobed nucleus w/ large blue granules, it is nonphagocytic & releases pharmacologically active substances during allergic responses
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Basophil
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Myeloid cell found in tissues, mucosa, & epithelia, has a small nucleus & cytoplasm is packed with large blue granules, releases granules containing histamine, etc. during allergic responses
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Mast Cell
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When is a mature B lymphocyte classified as a Naive B-cell
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when it has not yet come in contact with antigen
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What are the naive B-cell antigen receptors
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IgM and IgD
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What are the naive T-cell antigen receptors
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T-cell receptor (TCR) made of alpha and beta chains
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What makes up the antigen receptor of the B lymphocyte
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Membrane-bound Immunoglobulin, has a 4-chain glycoprotein molecule that serves as the basic monomeric unit for each of the distinct Ab molecules, has two identical halves, each componsed of a long, Heavy chain (mu for IgM, delta for IgD) & a shorter, light chain (kappa or lambda), a "hinge" region joins the heavy chains
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What does the variable region on the N-terminus of heavy and light chains determine
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Idiotype = antigen specificity
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What does the constant region on the C-terminus of heavy and light chains determine
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Isotype = class of Ig which determines what you are going to do w/ the Ag bound in terms of function and biological effects
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What lymphocyte cells recognize unprocessed antigens & which cell recognizes cell-bound peptides
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B-Cell: unprocessed antigens
T-Cell: cell-bound peptides |
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What is the B-cell signal transduction complex composed of
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Heterodimer of Ig-alpha & Ig-beta on each side of the receptor, and CD19 & CD21 co-receptors (lower threshold of Ags)
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What is the T-cell signal transduction complex composed of
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multichain structure called CD3
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Membrane Marker for B-cells
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CD19, CD20, CD21
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membran marker for T-cells (T helper & cytotoxic T cells)
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CD3
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How are heavy chain variable domains of antigen receptors produced
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B-lymphocyte progenitors select randomly & in the absence of stimulating antigen to recombine 3 gene segments, designated variable (V), diversity (D), & joining (J) to produce unique sequences of amino acids in the variable domains (VDJ recombination)
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How are light chain variable domains of antigen receptors produced
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B-lymphocyte progenitor preforms random rearrangement of two types of gene segments (V & J) to encode the variable dome of LC
-mRNA molecules are created which joins this variable domain sequence to mu or delta constant domains |
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What is the fcn of terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (Tdt)
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while HC segments are undergoing recombination, this enzyme randomly inserts bases (w/o a template on the complementary strand) at the jcns of V, D, & J segments)
-not active during light chain rearrangement |
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What is N-nucleotide addition
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When Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (Tdt) enzyme randomly inserts bases (w/o a template on the complementary strand) at the jcns of V, D, & J segments)
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How many chances does a cell have to produce a functional heavy (or beta) chain
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Two
(1) VJD rearrangments (2) rearranging gene segments of the homologous chromosome -if it fails to make a functional protein from the rearrangement of segments on either chrom the cell undergoes apoptosis |
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Allelic Exclusion
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Once a functional product has been acheived by one of these rearrangements the cell shuts off the rearrangement and expression of the other allele on the homologous chromosome
--> process ensures that B & T lymphocytes synthesize only one specific antigen-receptor per cell |
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What is used as a marker for early stage T- & B- cell development in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
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Tdt
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What is the first set of constant domains for the heavy chain of Ig that is transcribed
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IgM, then IgD
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Omenn Syndrome (clinical outcome of failed gene rearrangment)
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AR, missense mutation in rag genes, causing rag enzymes to only have partial activity
-Lack of B cells (below limits of detection) -Marked decrease in T cells -Characterized by early onset, failure to thrive, red rash (generalized), diarrhea, & severe immune deficiency |
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Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID), (clinical outcome of failed gene rearrangment)
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AR, Nill mutations in rag1 or rag2 genes, no rag enzyme activity
-Total lack of B and T cells -Total defects in humoral & cell-mediated immunity |
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What and where are the primary lymphoid organs
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Sites of lymphoid-cell development (lymphopoieisis)
-Bone Marrow -Thymus |
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What and where are the seconary lymphoid organs
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Sites of antigen exposure
-Spleen -Lymph nodes -Mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues |
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What do cells whose idiotype has too great an affinity for normal cellular molecules undergo in the bone marrow and the peripherhy
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Bone marrow: Clonal Deltion
Peripherhy: Clonal Anergy |
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What T-cells are allowed to leave the bone marrow
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T-cells that are selectively unresponsive to self-antigens (tolerant)
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What does the outer cortex & Inner medulla of the thymus contain
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Outer cortex: packed with immature T-cells
Inner medulla: where T-cells pass into as they mature -both are laced w/ a network of epithelial cells, dendritic cells, & macphages, which interact physically with the developing thymocytes |
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Where are MHC antigens expressed & what are their gene products
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Expressed at high density on the surface of cells of the thymic stroma
Class I: HLA-A, -B, -C Class II: HLA-DP, -DQ, -DR |
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alpha chain plus beta-2 microglobulin, codominantly expressed, expressed on all nucleated cells of the body, CD8 cells
What Antigen Class? |
MHC-Class I
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Alpha and Beta chains, expressed codominantly, present on APC's, CD4 cells
What Antigen Class? |
MHC-Class II
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Positive Selection
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TCRs capable of binding with low affinity; cells with "good" receptors
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Failure of Positive Selection
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those that fail to recognize self-MHC at all; cells with "useless" receptors
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Negative Selection
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those that bind to strongly to self MHC molecules will be induced to undergo apoptosis; cells with "bad" receptors
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"helper" T cells (TH)
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CD4+ cells that recognize class II MHC
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Cytotoxic T cells (CTLs)
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CD8+ cells that recognize class I MHC
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What secondary lymphoid organ is designed to initate immune responses to tissue-borne antigens
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Lymph nodes (small nodular aggregates found along lymphatic channels of body)
-filters tissue fluid -Outer cortex Follicles = B-cell areas -Paracortex = T-cell area -Inner Medulla = Macrophages |
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What secondary lymphoid organ is designed to initate immune responses to blood-borne antigens
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Spleen (filters blood)
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What is the pathway of lymphatic circulation
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Each LN is surrounded by a fibrous capsule punctured by an afferent lymphatic --> bring lymph into subcapsular sinus --> fluid percolates thru outter cortex (B-cell area) --> paracortex (T-cell area) --> inner medulla (macph) --> medullary sinus --> efferent lymphatic (memory cells exit) --> thoracic duct --> vena cava --> circulate
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What is the pathway of circulation through the spleen
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Splenic artery --> Arterioles surrounded by Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath, PALS (T-cell areas), Lymphoid follicles surrounded by rim of lymphocytes & macph attached nearby (B-cell areas) --> vascular sinusoids (Red pulp) --> splenic vein --> Portal circ
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How to lymphocytes leave the bloodstream to enter lymph nodes?
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High endothelial venules (HEVs)
-L-selectins on lymphocytes bind to addressins on the HEV, & chemokine receptors mediate the homing of specific cells to specific areas -Naive T cells home to LN paracortex or splenic PALS -Naive B cells migrate into LN follicles, & in spleen create a corona outisde the T-cell area |
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For a molelcule to be an immunogen/antigen, what 3 basic critera must it meet
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-It must be recognized as foreign
-Must have a certain degree of chemical complexity -Must have a molecular weight of at least 5,000 to 10,000 Kd |
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Portion of the Antigen that has 3-D complementarity with the idotype of a B-cell receptor or a TCR
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Epitope/Antigenic Determinent of the Antigen
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What is a Haptan
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Single Antigenic Determinants
-they are to small to be recognized by the immune system to elicit an immune response -however, they can become conjugated to body proteins (the carrier, i.e. RBCs) & the hapten-carrier conjugate serves as the immunogen for the ensuing allergic response |
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What is the first response to invasion
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Acute Inflammatory Response, represents the response of the innate immune system
-First step is to activate the vascular endothemium in the breached epithelium barrier -Cytokines & other inflam mediators are released to induce expression of selectin-type adhesion molecules |
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What is the first to bind to inflamed endothelium in acute inflammatory response
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Neutrophils, they peak at about 6 hours
-Monocytes, macphs, & even eosinophils may arrive 5-6 hours later in response to neutrophil-released mediators |
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What are 4 sequential steps required for Extravasation of Phagocytes
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(1) Rolling: Phagocytes (mucin-like adhesion mol) attach loosely to E-selectin on endothelium (force of bf in area causes cell to detach & reattach repeatedly --> rolling)
(2) Activatipn by Chemoattractants: Chemokines (i.e. IL-8, C5a, N-formyl peptides) bind R on phagocyte surface & trigger G-protein mediated activating signal --> induce confirmational change in integrins on phagocyte to inc affinity for Ig adhesion molecules on endothelium (3) Arrest & Adhesion: Interaction b/w Integrins & Ig-CAMS mediates tight binding (4) Transendothelial Migration: phagocyte extends pseudopodia thru vessel wall & extravasates into tissues & exhibit chemotaxis |
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Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
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rare AR w/ absence of CD18 (common Beta-2 chain of integrin molecules)
-an inability of their leukocytes to undergo adhesion-dependent migration into sites of inflam -1st Indication: Omphalitis (swelling & reddening around stalk of umbilical cord) -suffer recurrent, chronic bacterial infections, have abnormally high # of granulocytes in their circ (cant migrate --> abscess & pus formation dont occur) |
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Method of Diagonising Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency
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Evaluating expression (or lack) of the beta chain (CD18) of the integrin by flow cytometry
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Substances that are chemoattractive to neutrophils
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IL-8, complement split product C5a, Leukotriene B4, Formyl methionyl peptides
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Process of Phagocytosis involves
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(1) Extension of pseudopodia to engulf attached material
(2) Fusion of pseudopodia to trap the material in a phagosome (3) Fusion of phagosome w/ a lysosome to create a phagolysosome (4) Digestion (5) Exocytosis of digested contents |
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Opsonization is enhancement of phagocytosis with
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Opsonins:
-IgG -C3b |
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How Staphylococcus aureus impede opsonization
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Protein A of S. aureus impededs opsonization by binding to Fc component of IgG
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What is respiratory burst
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During phagocytosis, this metabolic process activates a membrane bound oxidase that generates oxygen metabolites which are toxic to ingested microorganisms
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What reduces oxygen to superoxide anion, which generates hydroxyl radicals and hydrogen peroxide, which are microbicidal
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NADPH oxidase
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What is in the lysosome that acts on hydrogen peroxide & chloride ions to produce hypochlorite (active ingredient in household bleach), which is microbicidal
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Myeloperoxidase
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What are the lysosomal contents of phagocytes that contain oxygen-independent degradative materials
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-Lysozyme (digests bacterial cell walls by cleaving peptidoglycan)
-Defensins (circular peptides that form channels in bacterial cell membranes) -Lactogerrin (chelates iron) -Hydrolytic enzymes |
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Intracellular Killing Mechanisms include:
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Oxygen-Dependent Killing:
-Toxic Oxygen Metabolites (NADPH oxidase) -Toxic Halide Radicals (Myeloperoxidase) Oxygen-Independent Killing -Lysosomal Contents -->Lysozyme -->Defensins -->Lactogerrin -->Hydrolytic enzymes |
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Inherited deficiency in the production of one of several subunits of NADPH oxidase that eliminates the phagocyte's ability to produce many critical O2-dependent intracellular metabolites
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Chronic Granulomatous Disease: sufferent from chronic, recurrent infections w/ catalase (+) organisms (Staph, Klebsiella, Serratia, Aspergillus)
-Myeloperoxidase & Lysosomal content killing mech remain intact & they can fight over catalase (-) organisms |
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Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) reduction test or Neutrophil oxidative index can be used for what
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Failures of phagocytic cells to generate oxygen radicals
--> used in Chronic Granulomatous Disease |
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4 bacteria that produce exotoxins that increase levels of cAMP (cAMP mnemonic)
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c = cholera (Vibrio cholera)
A = anthrax (Bacillus anthracis) M = Monteczuma's revenge (popular name for enterotoxigenic E. coli) P = Pertussis (Bordetella pertussis) |
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How is the MHC I molecule loaded with peptides
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Endogenous Pathway (i.e. Obligate IC pathogens, viral proteins)
-Proteins synthesized in cytosol are degraded in proteasomes into peptides -Peptides are transported thru a peptide transporter, TAP complex into ER -Bind to freshly syn MHC class I proteins -Exocytosed & Transported to cell memb & presented to CD8+ |
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How is the MHC II molecule loaded with peptides
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Exogenous Pathway (i.e. EC
pathogens, Bacteria) -Taken up into cell by APC's (small bacterial peptides w/in a vesicle) -MHC II in ER are plugged w/ invarient chain, leave ER through exocytosis -MHC II & nacterial vesicle fuse --> phagolysosome -Dec acidity & component of phagolysosome cause invarient chain to degrade & opens up peptide binding groove -Peptides in the vesicle are then loaded into the MHC II groove -transported to cell surface of APC to be presented CD4+ |
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What is the invarient chain
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it is located on MHC class II molecules, blocks the peptide-binding groove so no normal cellular peptides can accidently be attracted there
-macph has both class I and class II binding sites since it is nucleated & an APC |
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What 3 signals are needed for T-cell activation
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(1) Binding of TCR to MHC II/peptide commplex
(2) Costimulatory Molecules -CD4 binds MHC II -CD8 binds MHC I -LFA-1 binds ICAM-1 -CD2 binds LFA-3 -CD28 binds B7 (3) Cytokines -IL-2, IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alpha |
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How do CD4 & CD8 act as costimulatory molecules
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the coreceptors for MHC classes II and I), tranduces activating signals to the T cells
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How do Integrins on T-cells (LFA-1) & IgCAMs on APCs (ICAM-1) act as costimulatory molecules
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they increase cell-cell adherence, so the cytokines can go back and forth
-also done by IgCAMs on T cells (CD2) binding to Integrins (LFA-3) on APCs |
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What triggers the upregulation of B7
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Pathogen binding to innate receptors (e.g. TLR molecules) along w/ antigen recognition
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What does CD28 on T cells binding to B7 on APC trigger
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the transcription of several cytokines
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What is the most important growth factor for T cells, that stimulates the proliferation of clones of T cells specific to that antigen
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IL-2
-the proliferation of naive T cells in response to antigen recognition is mediated by an autocrine growth pathway, the responding T cell secretes its own growth-promoting cytokine, IL-2, & also expresses the receptor molecules for it |
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What are the effector mechanisms controlled by Th cells
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-Antibody synthesis (Th2)
-Macrophage Activation (Th1) -Cytotoxic T-cell kills (Th1) -NK cell killing |
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What cytokine causes macrophages to become activated
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IFN-gamma
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What are superantigens
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Viral or bacterial proteins that cross-link the variable Beta domain of a TCR to an alpha chain of MHC II
-Cross-linkage provides an activating signal that induces T-cell activation & proliferation in absence of Ag-specific recognition of peptides in MHC II groove Ex: Staphylococcal enterotoxins, Toxic-Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSST-1), Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins |
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Where do superantigens bind on the TCR/MHC II complex and what are the consequences of this
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They bind outside the Ag-binding cleft, they activate any clones of T cells expressing a particular variable Beta sequence & thus cause polyclonal activation of T cells resulting in overproduction of IFN-gamma
--> IFN-gamma activates macphs --> overexpression of proinflam cytokines (IL-1, IL-6, TNF-alapha) --> systemtic toxicity |
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What are the 2 major & 2 minor classes of Th cells that can arise from the naive T lymphocyte (Th0)
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Th2: promote humoral immunity
Th1: promote CMI Treg: regulate T cell activity Th17: tissue damage assoc w/ autoimmune disease |
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What stimulates the differentiation of Th0 into Th1 cells
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By microbes that stimulate a strong initial innate immune response w/ resultant production of IL-2, IFN-gamma, & TNF-beta
Caused by Intracellular Pathogens, Bacteria (i.e. Listeria, mycobacteria), & some parasites (i.e. Leishmania) |
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What stimulates the differentiation of Th0 into Th2 cells
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Absence of innate immune stimuli, caused by Extracellular pathogens (i.e. Bacteria, helminths, response to allergens)
-promote humoral immunity, help make Abs, & help w/ class switching -produced IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, IL-10, IL-13, TGF-beta |
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What is the role of IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10 in the Th2 response to Extracellular Pathogens
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IL-4: Promotes class-switching to IgG & IgE, inhibits Th1 pathway to prevent differentiation to cause activated macphs
IL-5: promotes class-switching to IgA IL-10: inhibits Th1 pathway to prevent differentiation to cause activated macphs |
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What is the role of IL-2 & IFN-gamma in the Th1 response to Intracellular Pathogens
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IL-2: required for CTL to become cytotoxic
IFN-gamma: Activate macrophages & shuts down Ab response from Th2 |
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What is the role of Treg cells produced from differentiation of Th0 cells
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Regulate (inhibit) T cell fcn
-ID'd by constitutive expression of CD25 on surface & expression of TF FoxP3 -secrete inflammaiton inhibiting cytokines, IL-10, & are ciritical for the prevention of autoimmunity |
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What is the role of TH17 cells produced from differentiation of Th0 cells
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believed to play a role in the tissue damage assoc w/ some autoimmune diseases
-ID'd by expression of TH RORgammat & production of pro-inflam cytokine IL-17 |
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What type of leprosy has a strong Th1 response which is capable of eradicating the intracellular pathogens by granuloma formation
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Tuberculoid Leprosy
-there is some damage to skin & peripheral nerves, but disease progresses slowly, if at all, & the pt survives |
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What type of leprosy has a strong Th2 response
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Lepromatous Leprosy
-Th2 response is turned on, & because of reciprocal inhibition, the cell-mediated response is depressed -pts develop Abs to the pathogen that are not protective & mycobacteria multiply inside macphs -few macular lesions w/ multiple nodular lesions from bacterial overgrowth in tissues causing loss of sensation -Hypergammaglobulinemia may occurs |
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What mediates humoral immunity
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Antibodies syn by B lymphocytes & secreted by their fully differentiated end cell, the plasma cell
-directed toward the defense against EC microbes or toxins |
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What is needed for B-cell contact w/ Th cells (B lymphocyte activation)
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-MHC II/peptide presentation
-Costimulatory Molecules (B7 is upregulated on the B lymphocytem making them effective presenters of Ag to Th cells in the area --> form a conjugate --> Th cell is activated & induced to a Th2 cell) -CD40/CD40L binding (CD40L on surface of Th2 cell is upregulated & it interacts w/ CD40 on B cells) |
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What are the 3 signals needed for B cell activation
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(1) MHC II/peptide presentation (Ag entering 2' lymphoid organs binds to & cross-links the idiotypes of these memb-R)
(2) CD40/CD40L binding (CD40L on surface of Th2 cell is upregulated & it interacts w/ CD40 on B cells) (3) Release of Th2 cytokines |
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Th2 cytokines induce B-cell
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-Differentiation into Ab secreting cells
-Memory cells -Class Switching |
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Thymus Independent Antigens
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-Contain no peptides (can't be recognized by T-cells)
--> i.e. Lipopolysaccharide from cell envelop of Gram (-) bacteria & polycapsular antigens -Stimulate only IgM -Create no memory --> Response is generally weaker than the response to other classes of antigen |
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What are B-cell mitogens
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Directly cause mitosis regardless of the cell's antigenic specificity
-Mitogens activate many clones of B cells & are used clinically to assess lymphocyte fcn |
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What is isotype switching
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The progression of new antibody isotypes produced by B cells is defined by the sequence of constant domain coding in the B-lymphocute DNA & each isotype immunoglobulin is designed w/ a different effector fcn in mind (dictate effector fcn of Ab molecule)
-directed by Th2 cells |
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What occurs if an Ab molecule is digested with Papain
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Cleavage occurs above the disulfide bonds that hold the heavy chains together
-generates 3 seperate fragments --> 2 are called Fab (Fragment Antigen Binding), monovalent & capable of binding --> 1 is Fc (Fragment Cystallizable) |
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What occurs if an Ab molecule is digested with Pepsin
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Generates 1 large fragment called F(ab')2 & a digested Fc fragmet
--> F(ab')2 is divalent & is capable of binding & bridging |
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What is the bridging of Ags by Ab molecules required for
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-Agglutinatinon of particulate antigens (RBCs and latex beads) or
-The precipitation of soluble antigens --> IgG and F(ab')2 fragments both have a valence of 2 and can bridge b/w antigens |
|
What is the first immunoglobulin that can be produced by a B cell w/ or w/o T-cell help & why
|
IgM
Coding for the constant domains of the heavy chain IgM (mu chains) are the 1st sequences downstream from the coding for the idiotype of the molecule |
|
How does IgM exist on the surface of a B cell vs IgM secreted by plasma cells
|
Surface: Monomer
Secreted: Pentamer, help together in an extremely compact form by a J chain |
|
Ig that has a plasma valence of 10, fcns in trapping of free antigen, and has the highest avidity of all Ig's
|
IgM
|
|
What Ig has the highest affinity
|
IgG
-interaction b/w the variable regions (Fab region) and the Antigen |
|
What Ig is the most efficient at activating complement, is not an opsonin, and does not mediate ADCC
|
IgM
|
|
What is used as a measure of primary response (acute infection)
|
IgM
|
|
What will convalescent serum consist of
|
Mostly IgG's w/ subthreshold levels of IgM
|
|
What is needed for class-switching to take place
|
T-cell
CD40L Cytokines |
|
When and where does class-switching occur
|
Occurs during the immune response & occurs in the germinal centers (only formed during an immune response)
|
|
How is isotype-switching induced
|
B lymphocyte receives cytokine signals from the activated Th2 cells in the secondary lymphoid organs
|
|
What is isotype switching & how does it occur
|
It is the changing of the Hc constant domains to classes of Ab w/ new & different effector fcns
-by rearranging the DNA encoding the constant regions of Hc by activating switch regions that cause the intervening DNA to be looped out, excised, & degraded -idiotype is then joined to a new constant region domain coding, & an Ab w/ identical Ag specificity but a new effector fcn is produced |
|
What are the clones of proliferating antigen-specific B cells
|
Germinal centers in the follicles of the lymph nodes & spleen
|
|
What is it called when during intense proliferative response of the B cell, randome mutations in the coding of variable domain region may occur which can create a single point mutation in the Ab idiotype
|
Somatic Hypermutation
|
|
Clonal Selection
|
overtime clones of cells w/ high receptor affinity will begin to predominate in the germinal center and causes affinity maturation
|
|
Affinity Maturation
|
Predominance of clonses capable of producing Ab's w/ increasing affinity for the antigen
--> Although isotype switching will necessarily dec the avidity of the preponderance of Ab molecules as the immune response evolves, it will be substituded by an inc in Ab affinity over time |
|
X-linked Hyper-IgM Syndrome
|
Characterized by deficiency of IgG, IgA, & IgE, and elevated levels of IgM
-Peripheral blood of infected pts has high #'s of IgM-secreting plasma cells, as well as autoantibodies to neutrophils, platelets, & RBCs -they fail to make germinal centers during a humoral immune response -defect is in gene encoding CD40L --> no CD40L expressed on Th cells --> o costimulatory signal for B-cell response to T-dependent Ags & only IgM is produced |
|
Children with what condition suffer recurrent respiratory infections, esp those caused by Pneumocystis jiroveci
|
X-linked Hyper-IgM Syndrome
|
|
Major Ab produced after IgM, exists in 4 subisotypes, activates complement, opsonizes, & mediates ADCC, & actively transported across the placenta
|
IgG
|
|
Most is produced in the submucosa, dimer w/ a J chain, inhibits binding of adhesive substances to mucosal surfaces, important component of breast milk
|
IgA
|
|
What cytokines cause isotype switching to IgA
|
IL-5 & TGF-beta
|
|
What contains Th2 cells that assists in IgA production
|
MALT (mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues)
-the homing of specific memory cells to epithelial & mucosal surfaces leads to the production of these specialized lymphoid aggregations along these barriers |
|
Where is MALT located
|
Tonsils, Peyer's patches, & numerous less well-organized lymphoid accumulations in the Lamina Propria
|
|
What receptor does IgA bind to so it is able to get into the submucosa
|
Poly Ig Receptor on the basolateral side of the epithelium
-it binds specifically to the J chain & transports the dimer across the cell & dumps it out into the mucosa |
|
Secretory Component Function
|
When IgA is released into the mucosa, it steals the Poly Ig Receptor & that becomes the secretory component
Functions: -Transepithelial Transport -Protection from proteolytic cleavage |
|
What cytokines cause isotype switching to IgE
|
IL-4 and IL-13
|
|
Ig that is the so-called homocytotrophic Ab b/c it binds directly to FcSigma receptors present on mast cells & basophils (w/o binding Ag)
|
IgE
|
|
Mediates immediate type I allergic reactions & protects against parasites
|
IgE
|
|
What is the Ig that match the heavy chains
Mu Gamma Alpha Delta Sigma |
Mu: IgM
Gamma: IgG Alpha: IgA Delta: IgD Sigma: IgE |
|
Order of abundance of serum IgG
|
IgG (650-1,500) > IgA (75-390) > IgM (40-345) > IgD & IgE (trace)
|
|
Complement activation of classic pathway Ig
|
IgM, IgG
|
|
Opsonization Ig
|
IgG
|
|
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
|
IgG
|
|
Placental Transport Ig
|
IgG
|
|
Naive B-cell Antigen receptor
|
IgM, IgD
|
|
Memory B-cell antigen receptor (only one can be present)
|
IgG, IgA, IgE
|
|
Triggers mast cell granule release
|
IgE
|
|
In what type of deficiency do patients usually present w/ recurrent pyogenic infections w/ extracellular pathogens, absence of Ig's for opsonization & have a major problem w/ complement activation
|
Immunodeficiencies involving B Lymphocytes
-The T-cell Immune System is intact, & T-cell activies against IC pathogens, delayed-type hypersensitivity & tumor rejection are normal |
|
Has two pathways of activation, enhances inflammation, enhances phagocytosis, & causes lysis
|
The Complement System
|
|
Anaphylatoxins
|
C3a, C4a, C5a
-C3a & C5a can bind directly to mast cells & basophils causing degranulation & release of Histamine |
|
Main chemotactic complement protein
|
C5a
|
|
Main complement protein opsonin & Ab opsonin
|
C3b and IgG
|
|
What complement protein is responsible for clearance of immune complexes
|
C3b
|
|
How is the Alternative Complement Pathway initiated
|
By simple attraction of the early factors to the surface of microbes
-Bacterial polysaccharides & LPS of the cell envelope of Gram (-) bacteria |
|
How is the Classical Complement Pathway initiated
|
Activated by Antigen-Antibody complexes
-Both IgG & IgM, but IgM is most efficient |
|
Physiologic control on classical complement activation at the level of
|
C1, C3, & C5
|
|
Physiologic control on alternative complement activation at the level of
|
C3, C5
|
|
Deficiencies in membrane attack complex results in recurrent infections of
|
Neisseria
|
|
Uncontrolled complement activation at the mucosa surfaces cause edema & pain
|
Hereditary angioedema, deficiency of complement regulatory components
|
|
The absence of regulatory proteins causes paroxysms of hemolysis of RBCs and the resultant hemoglobinuria
|
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria, deficiency of complement regulatory components
|
|
What removed activated T cells after the Primary Immune Response
|
Activation-Induced Cell Death (AICD)
|
|
What type of B Lymphocytes have the highest affinity of Ig
|
Memory Lymphocytes: Highest affinity
Activated/Effector Lymphocytes: Increasing affinity Naïve Lymphocytes: Low affinity |
|
What type of T Lymphocytes have the highest amount of IL-2 Receptor Expressed
|
Activated/Effector Lymphocytes have the highest amount
Naïve & Memory Lymphocytes have the lowest amounts |
|
Where do Memory Lymphocytes tend to home too
|
Home in a tissue-specific fashion, presumably returning to the type of tissue in which they first encountered Antigen
|
|
Where do Activated/Effector Lymphocytes tend to home too
|
Areas of active inflammation b/c of their expression of cell adhesion molecules such as LFA-1
|
|
Where do Naïve Lymphocytes tend to home too
|
Regions of secondary lymphoid organs specific for their cell type
Ex: T cells to paracortical areas |
|
What mediates Activation-Induced Cell Death (AICD)
|
Mediated thru the Fas pathway
-Trimerization of the Fas molecule expressed on the surface of activated T cells w/ the Fas ligand molecule on neighboring cells initiates a signal-transduction cascade that leads to apoptosis of the Fas-bearing cell |
|
As pathogens are eliminated by effector mechanisms & the system is slowly returning to its baseline quiescent state what is generated?
|
Immunologic memory, important b/c:
-avoids expending E on the generation of cells & molecules no longer needed & that may be potentially harmful in absence of invading stimulus -“resets” the baseline homeostatic function of immunologic organs |
|
How is B cell activity stopped after the Primary Immune Response
|
B lymphocyte differentiation into plasma cells is antigen-dependent, & as Ag disappears, the stimulus for differentiation is removed. Plasma cells only live 2 weeks & when they die they are not replaced from the differentiation B-cell pool, the response wanes
|
|
How do Memory B lymphocytes differ from Naïve B Lymphocytes
|
They have undergone isotype switching, & will have surface IgG, IgA, or IgE isotype & enter a resting stage of the cell cycle
|
|
What is the time lag after immunization & the peak response for a Primary Response vs a Secondary Response
|
Primary Response: 5-10 days, small peak
Secondary Response: 1-3 days, large peak |
|
What is the passive means of Natural Immunity
|
Placental IgG transport, colostrum
|
|
What is the goal of passive immunization
|
Elicitation of protective immunity and immunologic memory
|
|
What is the goal of passive immunization
|
Transient protection or alleviation of existing condition
|
|
What is the immunization protocol for a Primary Response vs a Secondary Response
|
Primary Response: high dose of antigen (often w/ adjuvant)
Secondary Response: low dose of antigen (often w/o adjuvant) |
|
What is the inducing agent for a Primary Response vs a Secondary Response
|
Primary Response: All immunogens
Secondary Response: Protein Antigens |
|
What is the Antibody Isotype & Antibody Affinity for a Primary Response vs a Secondary Response
|
Primary Response: IgM, then IgG, variable to low antibody affinity
Secondary Response: Increasing IgG, IgA, or IgE, high Ab affinity (affinity maturation) |
|
What is the morphology of Naïve Lymphocytes, Activated/Effector Lymphocytes, Memory Lymphocytes
|
Naïve Lymphocytes: Small, little cytoplasm
Activated/Effector Lymphocytes: Large, more cytoplasm Memory Lymphocytes: Small |
|
What is the active means of Natural Immunity
|
Recovery from infection
|
|
What is the passive means of Artificial Immunity
|
Horse antivenin against black widow spider bite, snake bite
Horse antitoxin against botulism, diphtheria Pooled human immune globulin versus hepatitis A & B, measles, rabies, varicella zoster, or tetanus “Humanized” monoclonal antibodies versus RSV |
|
Recommended age for Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine, DTaP
|
15-18 months, 4-6 years
|
|
Recommended age for Varicella vaccine, Varicella series
|
Varicella: 12-15 months, 4-6 years
Varicella Series: 7-18 years |
|
Recommended age for Measles, Mumps, Rubella vaccine, MMR, MMR series
|
MMR: 12-15 months, 4-6 years
MMR series: 7-18 years |
|
Recommended age for Influenza vaccine
|
6 months on, yearly
|
|
Recommended age for Inactivated polio vaccine, IPV, IPV series
|
IPV: 6-18 months, 4-6 years
IPV series: 7-18 years |
|
Recommended age for Pneumococcal vaccine, PCV
|
12-15 months, 2-6 years at high-risk
|
|
Recommended age for Haemophilus influenza type B, Hib
|
12-15 months
|
|
What is the active means of Artificial Immunity
|
Hepatitis B component vaccine
Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis toxoid vaccine Haemophilus capsular vaccine Polio live or inactivated vaccine Measles, mumps, rubella attenuated vaccine Varicella attenuated vaccine |
|
Recommended age for Hepatitis B vaccine, HepB, HepB series
|
Hep B: 1-2 months, 6-18 months
HepB Series: 7-18 years |
|
What are the risks associated with passive immunotherapy
|
From induction of antibodies from other species:
-IgE production (can cause systemic anaphylaxis) -Type III Hypersensitivity (generate IgG or IgM anti-isotype Ab’s which form complement-activating immune complexes From induction of antibodies from humans: -Anti-allotype Antibodies (elicit response against minor Ig polymorphisms, allotypes) |
|
What is the vaccine & vaccine type for B. pertussis
|
DTP, DTaP, Toxoid plus filamentous hemagglutinin
|
|
What viral vaccines can cause infections in immunocompromised host
|
Attenuated (Live): sometimes
Killed: no Component: no |
|
What viral vaccines can revert to a pathogenic form
|
Attenuated (Live): possibly
Killed: no Component: no |
|
What is the vaccine & vaccine type for N. meningitidis
|
MCV, 4 capsular serotypes (Y, W-135, C, A)
|
|
What is the vaccine & vaccine type for S. pneumoniae
|
Pediatric: PCV, 7 capsular serotypes & protein
Adult: PPV, 23 capsular serotypes |
|
What is the vaccine & vaccine type for H. influenzae
|
Hib, Capsular polysaccharide and protein
|
|
What is the vaccine & vaccine type for C. tetani
|
DTP, toxoid
|
|
Recommended age for Hepatitis A vaccine, HepA & HepA series
|
HepA (2 doses) 12-23 months
HepA series 2-18 years |
|
What is the vaccine & vaccine type for C. diphtheriae
|
DTP, toxoid
|
|
Recommended age for Meningococcal vaccine
|
2-18 years (high risk 2-10 years)
|
|
What viral vaccines have potential for contamination with other viruses
|
Attenuated (Live): yes, high
Killed: reduced Component: no |
|
Why are live attenuated viruses only given after 12 months of age?
|
Residual maternal antibodies would inhibit replication & the vaccine would fail
|
|
What vaccines are contraindicated in pt’s with egg allergies
|
Influenza
MMR Yellow Fever |
|
What vaccines are contraindicated in pregnancy
|
Rubella (MMR)
|
|
What are the component vaccines of active immunization
|
Hepatitis B
HPV |
|
What are the live viral vaccines of active immunization
|
Mrr. V.Z. Mapsy
-Mumps -Rotavirus -Rubella -Varicella Zoster -Measles -Adenovirus (pathogenic [not attenuated] respiratory strains given in enteric coated capsule -Polio (Sabin) -Small Pox -Yellow Fever (all by adenovirus is attenuated) |
|
What are the killed viral vaccines of active immunization
|
RIP-A (Rest In Peace Always – the killed viral vaccines)
-Rabies (killed human diploid cell vaccine) -Influenza -Polio (Salk) -A Hepatitis |
|
What viral vaccines have immunogenicity
|
Attenuated (Live): High (CMI & HMI)
Killed: Lower (HMI) Component: Middle |
|
What viral vaccines have special storage
|
Attenuated (Live): yes, viable organisms
Killed: no Component: no |
|
In cases where children are at exceptionally high risk exposure to a pathogen, they are sometimes given earlier than 6-9 months of age, what is most often needed in these cases
|
The need for repeated booster inoculations
|
|
What is colostrum so important
|
Infant only has 20% of adult IgA at 12 months
|
|
What is the only isotype useful in diagonising infections in an neonate
|
IgM
|
|
Why do normal infants have few infections during the 1st few months
|
Maternal IgG
|
|
When do children w/ immune deficiencies become ill
|
When maternal IgG is low
|
|
What do vaccines need to elicit in order for an immune response to display immunogenic memory
|
Th cells
-live viral vaccines elicit CMI & HMI -killed viral vaccine elicit antibodies |
|
What type of vaccine is generally required for enveloped viruses
|
Live vaccines
-Killed vaccines are generally sufficient for naked viruses |
|
What two vaccines are examples of Recombinant antigen vaccines
|
Hepatitis B & HPV
-Hep B: the gene coding for HBsAg is inserted into yeast cells, which then release this molecule into the culture medium, the molecule is then purified & used as the immunogen in the vaccine |
|
What substances increase the immunogenicity of an antigen when administered with it
|
Adjuvants
|
|
What effects can adjuvants exert
|
Prolonging antigen persistance (Aluminum potassium sulfate)
Enhancing costimulatory signals (muramyl dipeptide) Inducing granuloma formation Inducing nonspecific lymphocyte proliferation (LPS & synthetic polyribonucleotides) |
|
What is an allotype
|
Minor amino-acid sequence variations in rgw constant domains of Hc and Lc Ig's
There expression is genetically determined, & repeated exposure to a foreign allotype can cause production of antibodies which recognize these sequence variations |
|
Th1 cells primed in the lymph nodes and spleen serve to provide the cytokine stimuli to activate 3 potential effector cells to destroy infected or altered cells
|
Macrophages
CTLs NK cells |
|
What arm of the immune response is designed to identify and eradicate antigenic stimuli that arise from inside the cells of the body
|
Cell-mediated Immune response
|
|
Kill intracellularly, killing is enhanced by IFN-gamma, TNF-alpha, and TNF-beta, cause granulomas & necrosis of surrounding tissues
|
Macrophages
|
|
When Th1 cells activate macrophages and cause tissue damage, the result is
|
Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH)
|
|
What assay is often used to measure the pts ability to mount a CMI response
|
DTH skin testing, i.e. Mantoux test, Lepromin Test
|
|
What does CTL stimulation require
|
-Non-self peptide/class I MHC
-IL-2 (secreted by Th1 cell to enhance differentiation & cloning) -IFNs increase MHC expression (make targets more susceptible to killing) |
|
What is the process by which CTLs kill their target in the Degranulation pathway
|
(1) Attachment to the target (mediated by TCR, CD8, LFA-1 integrin)
(2) Activation (cytoskeletal rearrangment to concentrate granules against attached targets) (3) Exocytosis of granule contents (perforin & granzymes) (4) Detachment from the targets |
|
CTLs kill by
|
-Perforins
-Cytokines (TNF) -Granzymes |
|
What are two mechanisms by which CTL killing can occur
|
(1) Degranulation with perforin & granzymes
(2) TNF/TNF receptor interaction (FasL on CTL binding to Fas on target cells) |
|
kill tumor cells & virus infected cells, kill by granzymes and perforin, enhanced by IFN-alpha, IFN-beta, and IL-12, inhibited by MHC class I, counted with CD16 & CD56
|
NK cells
|
|
NK cell markers
|
CD16 and CD56
|
|
NK cells (#1), macrophages, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, target recognition via IgG, killing by lytic enzymes, TNF, perforin
|
Antibody-Dependent Cell-mediated Cytotoxicity (ADCC)
|
|
What are the 2 mechanisms NK cells kill in CMI
|
(1) cells that do not have class I MHC
(2) Target recognition via IgG (ADCC) |
|
What is the special case where IgE (not IgG) can mediate ADCC
|
When the target is a parasitic worm
|
|
Effector cells in CMI CD markers
CTL NK cell Macrohphage |
CTL: TCR, CD3, CD8, CD2
NK cell: CD16, CD56, CD2 Macrohphage: CD14 |
|
Effector cells in CMI, Antigen Recognition
CTL NK cell Macrohphage |
CTL: Specific, TCR
NK cell: ADCC (specific for IgG), otherwise recognizes lectins Macrohphage: nonspecific |
|
Effector cells in CMI, MHC recognition required for killing
CTL NK cell Macrohphage |
CTL: Yes, class I MHC
NK cell: No, MHC I recognition inhibits Macrohphage: No |
|
Effector cells in CMI, effector molecoles
CTL NK cell Macrohphage |
CTL: Perforin, Granzymes, Cytokines (TNF-beta, IFN-gamma)
NK cell: Perforin, Granzymes, Cytokines (TNF-beta, IFN-gamma) Macrohphage:TNF-alpha (IL-1, IL-6), Enzymes (NADPH oxidase, myeloperoxidase), NO, oxygen radicals |
|
What virus downregulates class I MHC & also produces a "decoy" MHC class I molecule
|
CMV
|
|
Deficiency in NADPH oxidase, failure to generate superoxide anion & other O2 radicals, recurrent infection w/ catalase-positive bacteria & fungi
|
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
|
|
Absence of CD18, recurrent & chronic infections, failure to form pus, & do not reject umbilical cord stump, often have a lot of gingivostomatitic
|
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency
|
|
Granule structural defect, recurrent infection w/ bacteria, chemotactic & degranulation defects; absent NK activity, partial albinism
|
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
|
|
Pt w/ albinism & an immune deficiency
|
Chediak-Higashi syndrome
|
|
Deficiency of essential enzyme in hexose monophosphate shunt, same Sx as CDG with assoc anemia
|
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
|
|
Granule enzyme deficency with mild or no Sx, cell is unable to generate hypochlorite
|
Myeloperoxidase defiency
|
|
Th1 cells can't make IFN-gamma, neutrophils dont respond to chemotactic stimuli, coarse facies, cold abscesses, retained primary teeth, increased IGE, eczema
|
Job's Syndrome
|
|
Deficiency of BTK, blocks B-cell maturation, low Ig's of all classes, no circulating B cells, B-cell maturation in bone marrow stopped at pre-B stage, normal CMI; Tx w/ monthly gamma globulin replacments, ABX for infection
|
Bruton X-linked Hypogammaglobulinemia
|
|
Deficiency of CD40L on activated T cells, high serum titers of IgM w/o other isotypes, normal B & T-cell numbers, susceptibility to EC bacteria & oppurtunists, Tx w/ ABX & gammaglobulins
|
X-linked Hyper-IgM syndrome
|
|
Deficiency of IgA, repeated sinopulmonary & GI infections, Tx w/ ABX not Ig's
|
Selective IgA deficiency (most common)
|
|
Molecular defect is unknown, onset in late teens to early 20's, B cells present in peripheral blood, Ig levels dec w/ time, inc autoimmunity, inc atopy, Tx w/ ABX
|
Common Variable Immunodeficiency
|
|
Delayed onset of normal IgG syn, detected in 5th to 6th month of life; resolves by 16-30 months; susceptibility to pyogenic bacteria; Tx w/ ABX & in severe cases gammaglobulin replacement
|
Transient Hypogammaglobulinemia of Infance
|
|
What is the normal immunologic event that does not occur in pts w/ X-linked Hyper-IgM syndrome
|
Isotype Class switching
|
|
Deficiency in Classic Pathway, marked inc in immune complex diseases, increased infections w/ pyogenic bacteria
|
Deficiency in C1q, C1r, C1s, C4, C2,
|
|
Deficiency in both complement pathways, very severe recurrent bacterial infections & immune complex disease
|
Deficiency in C3,
|
|
Defiency in both complement pathways, recurrent meningococcal & gonococcal infections
|
Deficiency in C5, C6, C7, or C8
|
|
Deficiency in complement regulatory proteins, overuse of C1, C4, or C2, with edema at mucosal surfaces
|
Deficency in C1- inhibitor --> Hereditary Angioedema
|
|
What are the Selective T-cell deficiencies
|
DiGeorge Syndrome
MHC class I Deficiency Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome (MHC class II Deficiency) |
|
Failure of formation of 3rd & 4th pharyngeal pouches, thymic aplasia, Facial abnormalities, hypoPT, cardiac malformations, depression of T-cell #'s & absence of T-cell responses
|
DiGeorge Syndrome
|
|
Failure of TAP 1 molecules to transport peptides to ER, CD8+ T cells deficient, CD4+ T cells normal, recurrent viral infections, normal DTH, normal Ab production
|
MHC class I Deficiency
|
|
Failure of MHC class II expression, defects in transcription factors, T cells present & responsive to nonspecific mitogens, no GVDD, deficient in CD4+ T cells, hypogammaglobulinemia
|
Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome (MHC class II Deficiency)
|
|
What is the only Ab Isotype present in DiGeorge Syndrome
|
IgM
-T-cells are needed for IgG, IgA, and IgE Ab production |
|
What are the combined partial B- and T-cell deficiencies
|
Wiskott-Aldrich Sydrome
AtaxiaTelangiectasia |
|
Defect in cytoskeletal glycoprotein, X-linked, defective responses to bacterial polysaccharides & depressed IgM, gradual loss of humoral & cellular responses, thrombocytopenia, & eczema
|
Wiskott-Aldrich Sydrome
|
|
Defect in kinase involved in cell cycle, ataxia, telangiectasia (capillary distortions in eye), Deficiency of IgA & IgE production
|
AtaxiaTelangiectasia
|
|
Present with Triad of Sx: Immunodeficiency, Eczema, Thrombocytopenia
|
Wiskott-Aldrich Sydrome
|
|
What is the complete functional B- and T-cell deficiency and what are the subtypes
|
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)
-Defects in common gamma chain IL-2 receptor (present in IL-4,IL-7, IL-9, IL-15), X-linked -Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency (results in toxic metabolic products in cells) -rag1 or rag2 gene nonsense mutations |
|
What Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) subtype has total absence of B and T cells
|
rag1 or rag2 gene nonsense mutations
|
|
Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID) subtype that present with chronic diarrhea; skin, mouth, and throat lesions; opportunisitc (fungal) infections; low levels of circulating lymphocytes; cells unresponsive to mitogens
|
-Defects in common gamma chain IL-2 receptor (present in IL-4,IL-7, IL-9, IL-15), X-linked
-Adenosine Deaminase Deficiency |
|
Early in HIV infection where does the virus bind
|
-D-type retrovirus attaches to CD4 receptors on host cells (Th cells, macphs, microglial)
-CCR5 chemokine receptor on the macrophage |
|
Late in HIV infection where does the virus bind
|
CXCR4 chemokine receptor on the T-cells
|
|
What gene is responsible for HIV virulence by making infected cells less susceptible to CTL killing
|
Nef gene product, downregulates class I MHC expression
|
|
What HIV characteristic is responsible for eliminating cell- and antibody-mediated immunity
|
Direct cytopathic effect on lymphocytes & macrophages
|
|
What HIV characterisitic inhibits cytokine syn in both infected & uninfected cells
|
Tat gene product
|
|
What does Immune deviation toward the Th2 in HIV cause?
|
Inhibits potentially protective CMI responses and produces Abs that can mediate ADCC, resulting in further elimination of TH cells
|
|
What results from the antigenic drift of gp120
|
Evades antibody mediated effector mechanisms and exhausts individuals immune capacity
|
|
What results from the heavy glycosylation of gp120
|
Hides potentially protective epitopes from immune recognition
|
|
What is the reservoir for HIV infection
|
Macrophage
|
|
If you have pt that has known sexual encounters w/ HIV (+) individuals, uses no protection or prophylaxis and has never been HIV (+), what molecule is responsible for this
|
CCR5 mutation
-Homozygous = immune -Heterozygous = slows clinical course |
|
What is caused by excessive responses to foreign antigens, or failure of self-tolerance (autoimmunity)
|
Hypersensitivity disease
|
|
What do all hypsensitivity reactions have in common
|
-The first exposure to the antigen "sensitizes" the lymphocyes
-Subsequent exposures elicit a damaging rxn -The response is specific to a particular antigen or a cross-reacting substance |
|
IgE mediated, protective response to helminth, atopic/allergic individuals develop this response to inappropriate stimuli
|
Type I (immediate) Hypersensitivities
|
|
Primary mediators of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Mediators that are already made & stored in the granule
-Histamine -Heparin -Eosinophil chemotactic Factor A (multiple chemokines) |
|
Histamine of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Smooth muscle contraction; inc vasc permeability
|
|
Heparin of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Anticoagulant
|
|
Eosinophil chemotactic Factor A of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Chemotactic
|
|
Secondary mediators of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Newly synthesized from Arachidonic Acid
-Prostaglandin D2, E2, F2alpha -Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4 (lipoxygenase pathway) -Leukotriene B4 |
|
Prostaglandin D2, E2, F2alpha
of Type I hypersensitivity |
Inc Smooth muscle contraction & vasc permeability
|
|
Leukotrienes C4, D4, E4 of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Inc Smooth muscle contraction & vasc permeability
|
|
Leukotriene B4 of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Chemotactic for neutrophils
|
|
What is responsible for the late-phase rxn of Type I hypersensitivity
|
Arachidonic Acid cascade --> breakdown of phospholipids in membrane that get shuttled through this pathway
|
|
Allergens: Trees, grasses, dust, cats, dogs, mites
Clinical Findings: Edema, Irritation, mucus in nasal mucosa |
Allergic rhinitis (Hay Fever), Type I hypersensitivity
|
|
Allergens: Insect stings, drug reactions
Clinical Findings: Bronchial & tracheal constriction, complete vasodilation & death |
Systemic Anaphylaxis, Type I hypersensitivity
|
|
Allergens: Milk, eggs, fish, cereals, grains
Clinical Findings: Hives & GI problems |
Food allergies, Type I hypersensitivity
|
|
Allergens: In vivo skin testing for allergies, insect bites
Clinical Findings: local skin edema, reddening, vasodilation of vessels |
Wheal & Flare, Type I hypersensitivity
|
|
Allergens: Inhaled materials
Clinical Findings: Bronchial & tracheal constriction, edema, mucus production, massive inflammation |
Asthma, Type I hypersensitivity
|
|
What is the development of Immediate-Hypersensitivity Reaction
|
(1) First exposure to allergen
(2) Th2 release of IL-4 & IL-13 stimulates B cells to produce IgE; class switching occurs (3) B cell produces IgE immunoglobulin; it attaches to Fc receptor on mast cell (4) Second Exposure to allergen (5) Allergen cross-links several IgE molecules on mast cell & cell degranulates releasing powerful chemicals |
|
Type I Effector Cells
|
Mast Cells
Basophils Eosinophils |
|
Activated Mast Cell (or basophil) effects:
Biogenic amines (histamine) Lipid Mediators (PAF, PGD2, LTC4) Cytokines (TNF) Enzymes (trypase) |
Biogenic amines (histamine): Vascular leakage, bronchoconstriction
Lipid Mediators (PAF, PGD2, LTC4): Bronchoconstriction, intestinal hypermotility, inflammation, tissue damage Cytokines (TNF): Inflammation Enzymes (trypase): Tissue damage |
|
Eosinophil Effects:
Cationic granule proteins (major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein) Enzymes (eosinophil peroxidase) |
Cationic granule proteins (major basic protein, eosinophil cationic protein): kill of parasites & host cells
Enzymes (eosinophil peroxidase): tissue remodeling, kill of parasites & host cells |
|
How antibodies in Type II Hypsensitivities cause tissue damage
|
(1) May opsonize or activate the copmlement system
(2) May recruit neutrophils and macrophages that cause tissue damage (3) May bind to normal cellular receptors and interfere with their fcn |
|
Tissue-specificc autoantibodies, opsonize or activate copmlement, recruit inflammatory cells, interfere with cellular fcn
|
Type II Hypsensitivities
|
|
What are the types of Cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivities
|
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (HDNB)
Acute Rheumatic Fever Goodpasture System Transfusion Reaction Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic purpura |
|
Ab to RBC membrane proteins (Rh, I, Ags) --> Opsonization, phagocytosis, & complement-mediated destruction of RBCs --> Hemolytic anemia
|
Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia (HDNB), Cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against stretococcal cell-well Ag; Ab cross-reacts w/ myocardial Ag --> inflammation, macrophage activation --> myocarditis arthritis
|
Acute Rheumatic Fever, Cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against type IV collage in basement membrane of kidney glomeruli & lung alveoli --> complement- & Fc-receptor mediated inflammation --> Nephritis, lung hemorrhage, linear Ab depositons on IF
|
Goodpasture System, Cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against ABO blood glycoproteins --> IgM isohemagglutinins formed naturally in response to normal bacterial flora cause opsonization + complement activation --> hemolysis
|
Transfusion Reaction, Cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against platelet membrane proteins --> Ab-mediated platelet destruction through opsonization & complement activation --> bleeding
|
Autoimmune Thrombocytopenic purpura, Cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
What are the types of Non-cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivities
|
Myasthenia Gravis
Graves disease Type II (non-insulin dependent diabetes) Pernicious Anemia |
|
Ab against ACh receptor --> Ab inhibits ACh binds, downmodulates receptors --> Muscle weakness, paralysis
|
Myasthenia Gravis, Non-cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against TSH receptor --> Ab-mediated stimulation of TSH receptors --> Hyperthyroidism followed by Hypothyroidism
|
Graves disease, Non-cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against Insulin receptor --> Ab inhibits binding of insulin --> Hyperglycemia
|
Type II (non-insulin dependent diabetes), Non-cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
Ab against instrinsic factor of gastric parietal cells --> Neutralization of intrinsic factor, decreased absorption of Vit B12 --> abnormal erythropoiesis, anemia
|
Pernicious Anemia, Non-cytotoxic Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
How is Type II Hypsensitivity different from Type III Hypsensitivity
|
In Type II Hypsensitivity as the disease progresses, complexes of Antigen & antibody may cause localized damage, but these complexes do not circulate so the damage is localized to the specific tissue
|
|
Anti-RhD + IgG, formed in Rh- mother carrying an Rh+ child, first preganancy sensitizes, Ab crosses placenta and injures subsequent fetuses, prevent w/ RhoGAM
|
Hemolytic disease of the Newborn (HDNB) a.k.a. Erythroblastosis fetalis, Type II Hypsensitivity
|
|
What is RhoGAM and when is it used
|
A preparation of human Anti-RhD IgG antibody, used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn in an Rh- mother
-it is given at 28 weeks gestation & again w/in 72 hours after birth -this Ab effectively eliminates the fetal Rh+ cells before they can generate RhD-specific memory B cells in the mother |
|
Systemic damage, Immune complexes activate complement, self or foreign Antigens
|
Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
What are examples of Type III Hypsensitivities
|
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Rheumatoid Arthritis Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis Serum Sickness Arthus Reaction |
|
Abs against dsDNA, Sm, & other nucleoproteins --> nephritis, arthritis, vasculitis, butterfly facial rash
|
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
Target antigen is Rheumatoid Factor --> joint pain, erosions
|
Rheumatoid Arthritis, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
Target antigen is streptococcal cell wall Ags (may be "planted" in GBM) --> Nephritis, "lumpy-bumpy deposits"
|
Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
Caused by various proteins (i.e. giving immunoglobulins or anti-venom) --> Arthritis, vasculitis, nephritis
|
Serum Sickness, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
Caused by any injection protein --> Localized pain & edema
|
Arthus Reaction, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
What is Rheumatoid Factor
|
Your own IgM against your own IgG that is specific to the Fc portion
|
|
Delayed-type (48-72 hours), CD4+ Th1 cells mediate, activate macrophages, cause inflammation, common in chronic intracellular infections
|
Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
What are examples of Type IV Hypsensitivities
|
Tuberculin test (PPD)
Contact Dermatitis Hashimoto's thyroiditis Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (Type I) Multiple Sclerosis Guillain-Barre Syndrome Celiac Disease |
|
PPD (tuberculin & mycolic acid) --> Indurated skin lesion (granuloma)
|
Tuberculin test (PPD), Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Nickel, poison ivy/oak, catechols, hapten/carrier --> vesicular skin lesions, pruritis, rash
|
Contact Dermatitis, Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Unknown Ag in thyroid --> Hypothyroidism
|
Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Islet-cell antigens, insulin, glutamic acid decarboxylase, etc --> Polydipsia, Polyuria, Polyphagia, Ketoacidosis
|
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (Type I), Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Target antigen is streptococcal cell wall Ags (may be "planted" in GBM) --> Nephritis, "lumpy-bumpy deposits"
|
Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
Caused by various proteins (i.e. giving immunoglobulins or anti-venom) --> Arthritis, vasculitis, nephritis
|
Serum Sickness, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
Caused by any injection protein --> Localized pain & edema
|
Arthus Reaction, Type III Hypsensitivity
|
|
What is Rheumatoid Factor
|
Your own IgM against your own IgG that is specific to the Fc portion
|
|
Delayed-type (48-72 hours), CD4+ Th1 cells mediate, activate macrophages, cause inflammation, common in chronic intracellular infections
|
Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
What are examples of Type IV Hypsensitivities
|
Tuberculin test (PPD)
Contact Dermatitis Hashimoto's thyroiditis Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (Type I) Multiple Sclerosis Guillain-Barre Syndrome Celiac Disease |
|
PPD (tuberculin & mycolic acid) --> Indurated skin lesion (granuloma)
|
Tuberculin test (PPD), Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Nickel, poison ivy/oak, catechols, hapten/carrier --> vesicular skin lesions, pruritis, rash
|
Contact Dermatitis, Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Unknown Ag in thyroid --> Hypothyroidism
|
Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Islet-cell antigens, insulin, glutamic acid decarboxylase, etc --> Polydipsia, Polyuria, Polyphagia, Ketoacidosis
|
Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (Type I), Type IV Hypsensitivity
|
|
Myelin basic protein, proteolipid protein --> progressive demyelination, blurred vision paralysis
|
Multiple Sclerosis, Type IV Hypersensitivity
|
|
Peripheral nerve myelin or ganglioside --> ascending paralysis, peripheral nerve demyelination
|
Guillan-Barre Syndrome, Type IV Hypersensitivity
|
|
Unknown specificity of pathogenic T cells --> Gluten sensitive enteropathy
|
Celiac Disease, Type IV Hypersensitivity
|
|
What is the Ab, complement, and Effector cells of Type I (immediate) Hypersensitivity rxns
|
Ab: IgE
Complement: No Effector Cells: Basophil, mast cell Ex: Hay fever, atopic dermatitis, insect venom sensitivity, anaphylaxis to drugs, some food allergies, allergies to animals & animal products, asthma |
|
What is the Ab, complement, and Effector cells of Type II (cytotoxic) Hypersensitivity rxns
|
Ab: IgG, IgM
Complement: Yes Effector Cells: PMN, macrophages, NK cells Ex: Autoimmune or drug-induced hemolytic anemia, transfusion rxns, HDNB, hyperacture graft rejection, Goodpasture's disease, Rheumatic Fever |
|
What is the Ab, complement, and Effector cells of Type II (non-cytotoxic) Hypersensitivity rxns
|
Ab: IgG
Complement: No Effector Cells: None Ex: Myasthenia gravis, Graves disease, Type 2 DM |
|
What is the Ab, complement, and Effector cells of Type III (Immune Complex) Hypersensitivity rxns
|
Ab: IgG, IgM
Complement: Yes Effector Cells: PMN, macrophages Ex: SLE, RA, polyarteritis nodosa, poststreptococcal GN, Arthus rxn, Serum sickness |
|
What is the Ab, complement, and Effector cells of Type IV (Delayed, DTH) Hypersensitivity rxns
|
Ab: None
Complement: No Effector Cells: CTL, Th1, Macrophages Ex: Tuberculin test, TB, Leprosy, Hashimoto thyroiditis, poison ivy (contact dermatitis), acute graft rejection, GVHD, IDDM |
|
How do you differentiate b/w Multiple Sclerosis and Myasthenia Gravis
|
MS: Spastic paralysis
MG: weakening paralysis |
|
What is a common infection causing Guillain-Barre Syndrome
|
Campylobacter
|
|
Failure of self-tolerance, Genetics (class II MHC), Environment (infections), Hormones
|
Autoimmunity
|
|
What is the key factor in the development of autoimmunity
|
the recognition of self-antigens by autoreactive lymphocytes, which then become activated, proliferate, and differentiate to produce effector cells and cytokines that cause tissue injury
|
|
What is among the strongest genetic associations w/ development of autoimmune disease?
|
class II MHC genes
|
|
HLA allele in Rheumatoid Arthritis
|
DR4
|
|
HLA allele in Insulin-dependent DM (Type I)
|
DR3/DR4
|
|
HLA allele in Multiple Sclerosis, Goodpasture's
|
DR2
|
|
HLA allele in SLE, Psoriasis, IBD, Reiter's syndrome
|
DR2/DR3
|
|
HLA allele in Ankylosing Spondylitis
|
B27
|
|
HLA allele in Celiac Disease
|
DQ2 or DQ8
|
|
HLA allele in Graves disease
|
B8
|
|
Immune responses may recruit leukocytes and increase of expression of costimulators which activate T lymphocytes that are not specific for the infectious pathogen
|
Bystander activation
|
|
Antigens of a microbe cross-react w/ or mimic self antigens
|
Molecular Mimicry
|
|
Can expose self antigens that are normally concealed from immune cells
|
Inflammation and associated damage
|
|
Infections can trigger autoimmunity through
|
-activating bystanders
-molecular mimicry -inflammatory damage |
|
What is the mainstain of therapy for hypersensitivity disease directed at
|
Modification of T-cell function
-inhibit T cell proliferation -inhibit T cell function -kills T cells -antagonize damaging products |
|
What therapy for immune diseases inhibits T cell proliferation
|
Cyclosporine
|
|
What therapy for immune diseases inhibit T cell function
|
Corticosteroids
|
|
What therapy for immune diseases kills T cells
|
Cyclophosphamie
|
|
What therapy for immune diseases are antagonists to proinflammatory cytokines or costimulatory molecules
|
Monoclonals or binding proteins
|
|
How are monoclonal antibodies produced?
|
By fusing antigen-specific spleen cells with myeloma cells --> this causes the production of identical, monospecific Abs b/c they are all produced by a single, cloned, parent cell
|
|
Clinical use of Abciximab
|
Antiplatelet: Antagonist of IIb/IIIa receptors
|
|
Clinical use of Infliximab
|
RA & Crohn's disease: binds TNF
|
|
Clinical use of Trastuzumab
|
Breast CA: antagonists to ERB-B2
|
|
Clinical use of Dacliximab
|
Kidney Transplants: Blocks IL-2 receptors
|
|
Clinical use of Muromonab
|
Kidney Transplant: blocks allograft rejection, blocks CD3
|
|
Clinical use of Palivizumab
|
Respiratory syncytial virus: blocks RSV fusion protein
|
|
Clinical use of Rituximab
|
Non-Hodgkin Lymphoma: binds CD20
|
|
When tissue is moved from one location to another in the same individual
|
Autografts (Autologous grafts)
Ex: Skin grafting in burns or Coronary Artery Replacement with Saphronous veins |
|
Skin grafting in burns or Coronary Artery Replacement with Saphronous veins
|
Autografts
|
|
Transplants b/w genetically identical individuals (monozygotic twins)
|
Isografts (Syngeneic grafts)
|
|
Grafts transplants b/w genetically different members of the same species
|
Allogeneic grafts
Ex: Kidney Transplant |
|
Kidney Transplant
|
Allogeneic grafts
|
|
Grafts transplanted b/w members of a different species
|
Xenogeneic grafts
Ex: Baboon heart into human child |
|
Baboon heart into human child
|
Xenogeneic grafts
|
|
All grafts except what are identified as foreign invading proteins and destroyed by Graft rejection
|
Autografts
|
|
Graft Rejection Effectors
|
CTLs
Macrophages Antibodies |
|
Effector Phase of Rejection
|
Th cytokines play a critical role in stim macph, Cytotoxic T cell, & Ab-mediated killing
-IFNs, TNF-alpha & -beta all inc the expression of class I MHC -IFN-gamma inc the expression of class II MHC, as well as increasing the susceptibility of cells in the graft to MHC-restricted killing |
|
Types of Graft Rejection
|
Hyperacute
Accelerated Acute Chronic |
|
Caused by a bone marrow transplants where grafted T cells attack the host, Sx include Rash, jaundice, diarrhea, GI hemorrhage
|
Graft-verus-Host-Disease (GVHD)
|
|
Tissue Compatibility testins
|
ABO Blood typing
Mixed Lymphocyte reaction (class II) Microtoxicity test (class I) |
|
Routine HLA Typing
|
HLA-A
HLA-B HLA-DR -these are the only loci that appear to predict the likelihood of rejection of the transplantq |
|
Microtoxicity test (class I)
|
Using antisera against specific class I antigens
-Lymphocytes from the donor or recipient are mixed w/ different antisera -If Abs recognize their specific epitope on the cells they will be bound there & addition of complement will result in cell lysis -the lysis of cells is monitored by adding a dye that will penetrate cells whose memb have become leaky from the actions of complement |
|
Mixed Lymphocyte reaction (class II)
|
-Lymphocytes from one individual being tested are irradiated so that they cannot proliferate but will act as stimulator cells for the presentation of MHC antigens
-the other individual's cells are added to the culture & uptake of tritrated thymidine is used as an indicator cell proliferation -if the MHC class II antigens are different, proliferation will occur, if they are the same, no proliferation will occur |
|
Cyclosporin A
|
Prevention of acute allograft rejection
-drug inhibits IL-2 & also IL-2 receptors, thereby effectively preventing lymphocyte proliferation |
|
Capsules:
Some Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules |
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Klebsiella pneumoniae Haemophilus influenza Pseudomonas aeruginosa Neisseria meningitidis Cryptococcus neoformans |
|
Primary mechanism of adherence in most gram (-) cells
|
Pili/fimbriae
|
|
Primary mechanism of adherence in gram (+) cells
|
Teichoic acids
|
|
Cleaves Fc portion may coat bacteria & bind them to cellulara Fc receptors
|
IgA proteases
Destruction of mucosa IgA Ex: Neisseria, Haemophilus, S. pneumoniae |
|
Chelate and import iron
|
Siderophores
|
|
Surface proteins that allow an organism to bind and invade normally non-phagocytic human cells, escaping the immune system
|
Invasin
Ex: Yersinia pseudotuberculosis (organism causing diarrhea) |
|
Tunnel from the bacteria to the host cell (macrophage) that delivers bacterial toxins directly to the host cell
|
Type III Secretion Systems
Ex:E. coli, Salmonella species, Yersinia species, P. aeruginosa, Chlamydia |
|
What is the toxic portion of LPS
|
Lipid A
|
|
What toxins are the inhibitors of protein synthesis
|
Corynebacterium diptheriae (Diphtheria toxin)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (Exotoxin A) Shigella dysenteriae (Shiga toxin) Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (Verotoxin, a shiga-like toxin) |
|
Mode of action of Diphtheria toxin
|
ADP ribosyl transferase; inactivates eEF-2; 1' targets: heart/nerves/ epithelium
--> inhibits eukaryotic cell protein cell synthesis |
|
Mode of action of Exotoxin A (pseudomonas aeruginosa)
|
ADP ribosyl transferase; inactivates eEF-2; 1' target: liver
--> inhibits eukaryotic cell protein cell synthesis |
|
Mode of action of Shiga Toxin (Shigella dysenteriae)
|
Interferes w/ 60S ribosomal subsunit
inhibits protein cell synthesis in eukaryotic cells |
|
Mode of action of Verotoxin (EHCH)
|
Interferes w/ 60S ribosomal subsunit
inhibits protein cell synthesis in eukaryotic cells |
|
What are the neurotoxins
|
Clostridium tetani (Tetanus Toxin)
Clostridium botulinum (Botulinum Toxin) |
|
Mode of action of Tetanus Toxin
|
Blocks release of the inhibitory neurotransmitters glycine & GABA
-inhibits protein syn in euk cells |
|
Mode of action of Botulinum Toxin
|
Blocks release of ACh
-inhibitos cholinergic synapse |
|
What are the superantigens
|
Staphylococcus aureus (TSST-1)
Streptococcus pyogenes (Exotoxin A a.k.a. erythrogenic or pyrogenic toxin) |
|
What are the cAMP inducers
|
Enterotoxigenic E. coli (Heat labile toxin (LT))
Vibrio cholerae (Cholera toxin) Bacillus anthracis (Anthrax toxin) Bordetella pertussis (Pertussis Toxin) |
|
Mode of Action of Heat Labile Toxin (LT, ETEC)
|
LT stim an adenylate cyclase by ADP ribosylation of GTP binding protein
|
|
Mode of Action of Anthrax Toxin
|
EF = edema factor = adenylate cyclase
LF = lethal factor PA = protective antigen |
|
Mode of Action of Pertussis Toxin
|
APD ribosylates Gi, the negative regulator of adenylate cyclase --> inc cAMP
-Histamine-sensitizing Lymphocytosis promoting Islet activating |
|
What are the cytolysins
|
Clostridium perfringens (Alpha toxin)
Staphylcoccus aureus (Alpha toxin) |
|
What is Mode of Action of Alpha toxin in Clostridium perfringens
|
Lecithinase
-damages cell membranes; myonecrosis |
|
What is Mode of Action of Alpha toxin in Staphylcoccus aureus
|
Toxin intercalates forming pores
-cell memb becomes leaky |
|
Outer membrane
|
Gram (-) only
Hydrophobic memb: LSP = endotoxin -Lipid A = toxic moiety -PS = immunogenic portion Outer membrane proteins: attachment, virulence Protein porins: Passive transport |
|
Teichoic acids present in
|
Gram (+) only
-immunogenic, induces TNF-alpha, IL-1, attachment |
|
Mycolic acids present in
|
Acid-fast only
Resistance to drying and chemicals |
|
Periplasmic space present in
|
Gram (-) only
|
|
Endospores present in
|
Gram (+) only
-Keratin coat, calcium dipicolinate Resistance to heat, chemicals, & dehydration |
|
What bacterial growth phase:
Initial phase Detoxifying medium Turning on enzymes to utilizae medium |
Lag Phase
-Number of cells at beginning = number of cells at end of lag phase |
|
What bacterial growth phase:
Rapid exponential growth |
Log Phase
-Generation time = time it takes one cell to dividie into two |
|
What bacterial growth phase:
Nutrients used up Toxic products like acid and alkali begin to accululate |
Stationary Phase
-# of new cells = # of dying cells |
|
Medium that selects for certain bacteria by inclusion of special nutrients &/or ABX
|
Selective medium
|
|
Medium on which different bacteria can be distinguished by differences in colonial morphology or color
|
Differential medium
|
|
Thioglycote Medium
|
Anaerboes
|
|
Loffler's coagulated and serum (S) and Tellurite agar (D)
|
Corynebacterium
|
|
Eosin methylene blue (D) and MacConkeys (D)
|
Enteric Bacterium
|
|
Hektoen enteric agar (D) and Xylose-lysine-deoxychocolate agar
|
Enteric pathogens
|
|
TCBS (Thiosulfite Citrate Bile Salts Sucrose agar) (S)
|
Vibrio cholerae (likes alkaline growth medium)
|
|
Charcoal-yeast extract agar (CYE agar) (S)
|
Legionella
|
|
Lowennstain-Jensen medium (S)
|
Mycobacterium
|
|
Chocolate agar
|
Neiserria from normally sterile sites, Haemophilus
|
|
Thayer-Martin selective medium (S)
|
Neiserria from site with normal floar
|
|
Cholesterol nd purines and pyrimidines growth requirement
|
Mycoplasma
|
|
Cysteine growth requirements
|
Francisella, Brucella, Legionella, Pasteurella
|
|
X (protoporphyrin) and V (NAD)
|
Haemophilus (influenzae and aergypticus require both)
|
|
Require oxygen
Have no fermentative pathways Generally produce superoxide dismutase |
Obligate aerobes
-Mycobacterium -Pseudomonas (Bacillus) |
|
Requires low but not full oxygen tension
|
Microaerophilic
-Campylobacter -Helicobacter |
|
Will respire aerobically until oxygen is depleted and then ferment or respire anaerobically
|
Facultative Anaerobes
-Most bacteria, e.g. Enterobacteriacae |
|
Lack superoxide dismutase
Generally lack catalase Are fermenters Cannot use O2 as terminal electron acceptor |
Obligate Anaerobes
-Actinomyces -Bacteroides -Clostridium |
|
Types of DNA that may be found in bacteria
|
Bacterial DNA
Plasmid DNA Bacteriophage DNA |
|
Where are all essential & nonessential bacterial genes located
|
Essential : bacterial chromosome
Nonessential: bacterial plasmid |
|
Episome
|
subclass of plasmids
may be integrated into the bacterial DNA Have insertion sequences matching those found on bacterial chromosomes |
|
2 processes available to stabilize "new" DNA
|
Homolgous recombination
Site-Specific recombination |
|
mechanism to incorportate short, linear pieces of DNA into the chromosome
must be some sequence homology recombinase A is required there is one-to-one exchange of DNA |
Homolgous recombination
|
|
mechanism used to combine circular pieces of DNA
-Plasmids -Temperate phages -Transposons Requires NO homology No DNA is lost Requires restriction endonucleases |
Site-Specific recombination
|
|
3 major roles of Site-Specific recombination
|
Integration of fertility factor to make an Hfr cell
Integration of temperate phage DNA into a bacterial chromosome to create a prophage Movement and insertion of transposons |
|
DNA can be transferred from bacterium to bacterium by
|
Conjugation
Transformation Transduction |
|
How do you get new genetic combinations in bacteria
|
Gene transfer followed by stabilization of genes (recombination)
|
|
What is competent bacteria
|
capable of binding and importing free DNA from the enivornment
|
|
Requires free DNA
Requires competent cells Captured DNA is incorporated by homologous recombination |
Transformation
|
|
Gene transfer from donor (F+ or Hrf cell) to recipient (F- cell) during cell-to-cell contact
|
Conjugation
|
|
What controls conjugation
|
Fertility factors (in plasmid or episome form)
|
|
oriT (origin of transfer)
|
A single strand break occurs here, this is where transfer of the single strand begins
the other strand remains and it is quickly restored to double strandedness A plasmid must have this region to be transferrable by conjugation |
|
Donor cells in which fertility plasmid is in its free state
|
F+ cells
|
|
Donor cells in which fertility factor has inserted itself into the bacterial chromosome
|
Hfr cells
|
|
F+ x F- cross
|
one strand of the entire plasmid is transferred
it results in a "sex change" of the recipient |
|
Hfr x F- cross
|
Chromosomal genes clostest to oriT are transferred
Transferred genes must be stabilized by homologous recombination No "sex change" occurs as the bridge does not remain long enough to transfer the tra operon |