Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
53 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Which of the following is considered the preferred source for blood specimens obtained for clinical examination?
1. Venipuncture 2. Finger puncture 3. Arterial puncture 4. Antecubital puncture |
For most clinical laboratory tests requiring a blood specimen, venous blood obtained by venipuncture is preferred.
|
|
|
When performing a finger puncture, the first drop should be wiped away to avoid which of the following conditions?
1. Bacterial contamination 2. Clotting at the puncture site 3. Dilution of the specimen with alcohol 4. Dilution of the specimen with tissue fluids |
Wipe away the first drop of blood with a sterile 2 x 2 gauze. This prevents contamination of the specimen with excess tissue fluid.
|
|
|
How far above the intended phlebotomy site should the tourniquet be placed?
1. Directly above site 2. 1-2 inches above the site 3. 2-3 inches above the site 4. 3-4 inches above the site |
Apply tourniquet around the arm approximately 3 to 4 inches above the intended venipuncture site, usually the antecubital fossa.
|
|
|
The correct needle position for venipuncture is (a) what degree angle and (b) with the bevel in what position?
1. (a) 15-30 (b) up 2. (a) 20-40 (b) down 3. (a) 15-30 (b) down 4. (a) 20-40 (b) up |
Using a smooth continuous motion, introduce the needle, bevel side up, into the vein at about a 15 to 30 degree angle with the skin.
|
|
|
A tourniquet is normally applied before to aid in the process of venipuncture. At what point in the venipuncture procedure should the tourniquet be removed?
1. Just before needle insertion 2. Just after needle insertion 3. Once blood flows freely into tubes 4. No longer than two minutes |
The tourniquet should be removed as soon as blood flows freely into the tubes. In some difficult draw situations, the tourniquet is sometimes left on until the last tube is filled. Do not leave the tourniquet on for more than one minute.
|
|
|
When should specimens be labeled?
1. Before collecting samples 2. Before submitting samples to laboratory 3. Before leaving patient 4. Any time after collecting samples |
Specimens are to be labeled immediately after blood collection and never before. The label must be permanently attached to the tube(s) before leaving an inpatient's bedside or dismissing an outpatient.
|
|
|
Which color tube is the best choice for a CBC?
1. Red top 2. Lavender top 3. Gray top 4. Yellow top |
A lavender-top is often used for complete blood counts (CBCs), and a red-top is often used for blood chemistry.
|
|
|
Which color tube is the best choice for routine chemistry tests?
1. Red top 2. Lavender top 3. Gray top 4. Yellow top |
A lavender-top is often used for complete blood counts (CBCs), and a red-top is often used for blood chemistry
|
|
|
The part of the microscope on which the prepared specimen is placed for examination is called the ________ .
1. Arm 2. Base 3. Frame 4. Mechanical stage |
Mechanical (movable) Stage holds the specimen in place and is the means by which the specimen may be moved about on the stage to view the sample.
|
|
|
What objective should be used for a detailed study of stained bacterial smears?
1. Low power 2. Oil immersion 3. High power 4. Either 2 or 3 above |
The oil-immersion objective (100X) is used for detailed study of stained blood and bacterial smears.
|
|
|
A Complete Blood Count includes which of the following?
1. Total RBC count 2. Hematocrit 3. Differential WBC count 4. All of the above |
A complete blood count routinely consists of the following tests:
• Total red blood cell (RBC) count • Hemoglobin determination (Hgb) • Hematocrit calculation (Hct) • Total white blood cell (WBC) count • White Blood Cell Differential count |
|
|
The function of hemoglobin in the body is to?
1. Fight infection 2. Transport oxygen to the tissues 3. Aid in blood clotting 4. Regulate blood chemistry |
The primary function of hemoglobin is delivery and release of oxygen to the tissues and facilitation of carbon dioxide excretion.
|
|
|
Which of the following factors affect the hemoglobin values?
1. Age 2. Sex 3. Altitude 4. All of the above |
Values are affected by age, sex, disease, and altitude. Different situations affect the function of hemoglobin in different ways. For example, iron deficiency anemia may drop hemoglobin from a normal value to a critically low value.
|
|
|
A low RBC count may indicate that the patient has which of the following listed conditions?
1. Leukopenia 2. Anemia 3. Dehydration 4. Uremia |
When hematocrit determinations are below normal, medical conditions such as anemia may be present. Above-normal hematocrit determinations indicate medical conditions like dehydration.
The normal values for hematocrit determinations are: Percentage of blood volume Woman …….. 37 to 47% Men ………... 42 to 52% |
|
|
The normal value for male hemoglobin is?
1. 10-16 2. 12-18 3. 14-18 4. 15-20 |
The normal values for hemoglobin determinations are: Grams per 100 ml blood
Woman …….. 12 to 16 Men ……….... 14 to 18 |
|
|
What is the term used for the volume of erythrocytes expressed as a percentage of the volume of whole blood in a sample?
1. Hematocrit 2. Hemoglobin 3. Red Blood Count 4. Complete Blood Count |
The hematocrit, or packed RBC volume, is the ratio of the volume of RBCs to the volume of whole blood. It is usually expressed as a percentage. The normal values for hematocrit determinations are:
Percentage of blood volume Woman …….. 37 to 47% Men ………... 42 to 52% |
|
|
Hematocrit for a normal, healthy female is within what range?
1. 30-40 percent 2. 37-47 percent 3. 42-50 percent 4. 44-52 percent |
Percentage of blood volume
Woman …….. 37 to 47% Men ………... 42 to 52% |
|
|
Select the term used to describe an abnormally high WBC count.
1. Leukocytosis 2. Erythrocytosis 3. Leukopenia 4. Pancytopenia |
When the WBC rises above normal values, the condition is referred to as leukocytosis.
|
|
|
Which of the following conditions may cause leukopenia?
1. Radiation 2. Psittacosis 3. Anaphylactic shock 4. Each of the above |
Each of the above
|
|
|
Which study within a CBC often provides the most helpful information in determining the severity and type of infection?
1. Red Cell count 2. White Cell count 3. Hemoglobin 4. WBC differential |
WHITE BLOOD CELL DIFFERENTIAL COUNT
|
|
|
What is the function of leukocytes?
1. To carry oxygen through the blood 2. To control various disease conditions 3. To aid in clotting blood 4. Each of the above |
To control various disease conditions
|
|
|
What type of leukocyte compromises the largest percentage of cells in the circulating blood?
1. Lymphocyte 2. Neutrophil 3. Erythrocyte 4. Thrombocyte |
NEUTROPHILS.—account for the largest percentage of leukocytes found in a normal blood sample, and function by ingesting invading bacteria.
|
|
|
Which leukocyte functions by ingesting invading bacteria?
1. Neutrophil 2. Eosinophil 3. Lymphocyte 4. Monocyte |
NEUTROPHILS.—account for the largest percentage of leukocytes found in a normal blood sample, and function by ingesting invading bacteria.
|
|
|
Which leukocyte helps respond to parasitic infections?
1. Neutrophil 2. Eosinophil 3. Lymphocyte 4. Monocyte |
EOSINOPHIL.—The function is to destroy parasites and respond in immediate allergic reactions.
|
|
|
When performing a WBC differential, which cell has the large, scattered dark blue granules that are darker than the nucleus?
1. Lymphoctes 2. Monocytes 3. Basophils 4. Neutrophils |
BASOPHIL.—A rise in basophils is associated with inflammatory disorders and certain leukemias. Scattered deep bluish-purple granules that are darker than the nucleus, characterize the cell as a basophil. Granules may overlay the nucleus as well as the cytoplasm.
|
|
|
Which leukocyte fights viral infection?
1. Neutrophil 2. Eosinophil 3. Lymphocyte 4. Monocyte |
LYMPHOCYTE.—The function is associated with immune response and the body's defense against viral infection.
|
|
|
The largest of the normal WBCs is the?
1. Monocyte 2. Lymphocyte 3. Eosinophil 4. Basophil |
MONOCYTE.—The largest of the normal white blood cells, controls microbial and fungal infections, and removes damaged cells from the body. The monocyte has an indented nucleus and an abundant pale bluish-gray cytoplasm
|
|
|
What is the term used for bacteria that cause disease?
1. Pathogen 2. Virus 3. Non-pathogen 4. Flora |
The disease-producing ability of bacteria is referred to as either pathogenic or nonpathogenic. Pathogens are bacteria that cause diseases, and nonpathogens are harmless bacteria.
|
|
|
The difference between anaerobes and aerobes is that anaerobes need oxygen to reproduce.
1. True 2. False |
False Aerobes are organisms that reproduce in the presence of oxygen. Anaerobes are organisms that do not reproduce in the presence of oxygen. Other bacteria have varying oxygen requirements.
|
|
|
What is the term used to define bacteria that are round in shape?
1. Strep 2. Cocci 3. Rods 4. Bacillus |
Coccus (pl. cocci) spherical, appears
singly, in pairs, chains, clusters, or packets |
|
|
In the Gram’s stain, what is the primary
stain? 1. Crystal violet 2. Gram’s Iodine 3. Acetone 4. Safranin |
Crystal violet
|
|
|
Gram positive bacteria stain what color?
1. Green 2. Pink 3. Red 4. Deep blue or purple |
Deep blue or purple
|
|
|
Which bacteria causes strep throat?
1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes 3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 4. Clostridium tetani |
Streptococcus pyogenes
|
|
|
Which bacteria causes gonorrhea?
1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes 3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 4. Clostridium tetani |
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
|
|
|
Which bacteria causes tetanus?
1. Staphylococcus aureus 2. Streptococcus pyogenes 3. Neisseria gonorrhoeae 4. Clostridium tetani |
Clostridium tetani
|
|
|
What is the term used for a substance that, when introduced into an individual’s body, is recognized as foreign to the body, and causes a detectable reaction?
1. Pathogen 2. Antigen 3. Reagin 4. Antibody |
An antigen is a substance that, when introduced into an individual’s body is recognized as foreign by an individual’s immune system and causes a detectable reaction.
|
|
|
The RPR is a specific test to diagnose syphilis.
1. True 2. False |
The RPR Card test is a non-specific, easily performed screening test for syphilis.
|
|
|
The RPR test to screen for syphilis is best used with what type of specimen?
1. Serum 2. Plasma 3. Whole blood 4. Either serum or plasma |
Serum In the RPR Card test method of syphilis detection, a specific antigen (carbon-particle
cardiolipin) detects "reagin," a substance present in the serum of persons who are infected with syphilis or suffering from similar tissue damage. Reagin is usually developed 1 - 4 weeks after the |
|
|
If the monospot is negative, the patient does not have infectious mononucleosis.
1. True 2. False |
True When serum, plasma, or whole blood is mixed with these antigens on the slide, the test result for infectious mononucleosis will be positive or negative.
|
|
|
Which of the following chemical preparations is frequently used to detect fungi?
1. Hydrogen sulfoxide 2. Hydrogen peroxide 3. Potassium hydroxide 4. Potassium sulfate |
A simple and frequently used method of detecting fungi is the potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation.
|
|
|
The best urine specimen for screening purposes is that taken during which of the following times?
1. First morning 2. Random 3. Fasting 4. 24 hour |
First Morning Urine Specimen is the first
urine voided upon rising. It is the ideal screening specimen, because it is usually concentrated and more likely to reveal abnormalities. |
|
|
What is the desired urine sample volume for routine testing?
1. 10 ml 2. 20 ml 3. 15 ml 4. 12 ml |
A sample for urinalysis (routine and microscopic) should be at least 12 ml in volume (adult), and either a random or first morning specimen. Children may only be able to provide a small volume, but 10-15 ml is preferred.
|
|
|
Which of the following colors would be considered abnormal in a urine sample?
1. Colorless 2. Amber 3. Straw 4. Red |
Red, abnormal color
|
|
|
Which urine color is most related with the presence of blood?
1. Dark orange 2. Red 3. Yellow 4. Olive green |
Red, abnormal color
|
|
|
Which urine color is most related with the presence of bile?
1. Dark orange 2. Red 3. Yellow or brown 4. Olive green |
Yellow or brown (turning greenish with yellow foam when shaken) - caused by the presence of bile
|
|
|
Which urine color is most related with a patient being treated with Pyridium®?
1. Dark orange 2. Red 3. Yellow 4. Olive green |
Dark orange - caused by Pyridium® (a topical analgesic used in the treatment of urinary tract infections)
|
|
|
A report on urine clarity is valid regardless of standing time.
1. True 2. False |
After standing, all urine becomes cloudy because of decomposition, salts, and the action of bacteria.
|
|
|
The specific gravity of a liquid is the weight of the substance as compared to an equal volume of _____ .
1. Ethanol 2. Methanol 3. Distilled water 4. Saline |
Specific gravity is defined as the density of a solution compared to an equal volume of distilled water
|
|
|
Normal specific gravity for routine urinalysis is within what range?
1. 1.010 - 1.030 2. 1.001 - 1.015 3. 1.020 - 1.030 4. 1.015 - 1.030 |
The specific gravity varies directly with the amount of solids dissolved in the urine, and normally ranges from 1.015 to 1.030 during a 24-hour period.
|
|
|
The addition of one drop of 2 percent acetic acid to urine sediment will disintegrate which cell?
1. White blood cells 2. Mucous threads 3. Casts 4. Red blood cells |
One drop of 2% acetic acid added to the urine sediment disintegrates any red cells, but it does not affect the white
|
|
|
What cell is not normally found in urine?
1. White Blood Cell 2. Red Blood Cell 3. Epithelial Cell 4. All of the above |
Epithelial Cells.—It is not unusual to find epithelial cells in the urine as they are derived from the linings of the genitourinary system.
|
|
|
Which critical result is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes?
1. Hemoglobin below 7 2. Hematocrit below 20 3. White blood cells in urine 4. Glucose and ketones both present in urine |
Glucose and ketones both positive onthe urine reagent strip may indicate uncontrolled diabetes
|
|
|
What operational program may be used on some operational platforms to treat critical patients in a mass casualty situation when delay of blood products would cause a critical delay?
1. MEDEVAC 2. WBB 3. CASEVAC 4. Frozen Blood program |
Walking Blood Bank (WBB)
|
