Hematology Final (Clsc)

Front 1

The anticoagulant most often used for cell counting is

Back 1

EDTA ( Lavender top)

Front 2

The anticoagulant most often used for coagulation testing is

Back 2

Sodium Citrate ( Light Blue)

Front 3

The main site of hematopoiesis in the fetus from the second to the seventh month is the:

Back 3

Liver
The fetal liver assumes responsibility for hematopoiesis during the second month, with the yolk sac nucleated RBCs migrating to the liver and remaining in the liver until the seventh month. From the third to the sixth month, splenic hematopoiesis also occurs. At 7 months of fetal life it shifts from the liver to the bone marrow, which then becomes the major site in the fetus.

Front 4

In adulthood, the main site of hematopoiesis is in the:

Back 4

Flat bones and the proximal ends of long bones are were hematopoiesis takes place. This includes pelvis, sternum, ribs, and skull.

Front 5

The hematopoietic marrow of the bone is

Back 5

Red marrow

Front 6

The main function of the marrow is to:

Back 6

Is to supply mature hematopoietic cells into the peripheral blood in a steady state condition as well as to respond to increased demands.

Front 7

The site most often used for bone marrow biopsy and aspiration in adults is the:

Back 7

Iliac crest

Front 8

A bone biopsy is needed when:

Back 8

Diagnosis and staging of hematologic disease is needed.

Front 9

Marrow cellularity is determined by comparing:

Back 9

The percentage of marrow space occupied by hematopoietic cells to the percentage of marrow space occupied by fat.

Front 10

The M:E ratio is determined by dividing the number of:

Back 10

Nucleated RBCs into the sum of all cells belonging to the granulocytic series.

Front 11

The normal M: E ratio in adults is:

Back 11

3:1

Front 12

The RBC membrane is a (n):

Back 12

The structure that regulates volume and shape

Front 13

The main integral (extrinsic) protein in the RBC is:

Back 13

Glycophorin

Front 14

The main peripheral (intrinsic) protein in the RBC is:

Back 14

Spectrin

Front 15

The average life span of a normal RBC is__ days.

Back 15

120

Front 16

Spherocytes and bite cells are evidence of:

Back 16

Membrane loss, G6PD deficiency

Front 17

The purpose of the cationic pumps in the RBC are to:

Back 17

Maintenance of cell volume and shape by pumping Na+ out of cell and K+ into cell

Front 18

The carrier protein that delivers iron to the RBC membrane is:

Back 18

Transferrin

Front 19

If one of the normal enzymatic steps in heme synthesis is blocked of deficient, the resultant disorders are called:

Back 19

Porphrias

Front 20

The globin chains that are usually present only during embryonic development are:

Back 20

Epsilon and Zeta

Front 21

All normal adult hemoglobins contain a dinner of which chain?

Back 21

Alpha

Front 22

The RBC organic phosphate 2, 3-DPG:

Back 22

• Is one of the most important controls of hemoglobin affinity of oxygen
• Is an inverse relationship between amount of 2, 3-DPG available for binding by Hgb and the affinity for Hgb for O2
• Produced via anaerobic glycolytic pathway (Embden- Meyerhof pathway)
• When Hgb bind 2, 3-DPG, O2 decreases
• When plasma level of 2, 3-DPG decreases, Hgb 2, 3-DPG is released, and Hgb affinity of O2 increases
• Adequate tissue oxygenation requires adequate supplies of 2, 3-DPG to encourage Hgb to release O2 to tissue

Front 23

The hemoglobin pigment that cannot be converted to oxyhemoglobin is:

Back 23

Sulfhemoglobin

Front 24

Ninety percent of the ATP required for RBC energy is produced by the:

Back 24

Embden-Meyerhof glycolytic pathway

Front 25

A deficiency in the hexose monophosphate shunt results in:

Back 25

Heinz bodies
The amount of reduced glutathione becomes insufficient to neutralize intracellular oxidants. This results in globin denaturation and precipitation as aggregates (Heinz bodies).

Front 26

The majority of senescent RBC’s are removed from the body by______ hemolysis (catabolism).

Back 26

Extravascular hemolysis

Front 27

The growth factor responsible for regulation of RBC production is?

Back 27

Erythropoietin

Front 28

The RBC precursor that is most plentiful in an aspiration from the normal adult marrow is the:

Back 28

Rubricyte

Front 29

Reticulocytes may be seen in Wright’s stained smears as:

Back 29

Reticulocytes appear blue-gray on the Wright. They are referred to as polychromatophic.

Front 30

The normal mature RBC is a:

Back 30

round, biconcave disc-shaped, anuclear cells measuring approximately 7-8 microns in diameter with an internal volume of 80-100 fL.

Front 31

Iron found in the bone marrow stores is in the form of:

Back 31

Hemosedrin

Front 32

The packed cell volume is also known as the:

Back 32

Hematocrit

Front 33

The normal hemoglobin level for people living at high altitudes would be:

Back 33

Higher than the normal given range

Front 34

Approximately ____ percent of RBC’s are replaced daily in the adult

Back 34

1%

Front 35

The “rule of three” suggests that:

Back 35

RBC x 3 = HgB x 3 = Hct

Front 36

The anemia of a patient who’s MCV=65.1 fL, MHC=22.2 pg, and MCHC=0.295 g/L is termed:

Back 36

Microcytic hypochromic

Front 37

recommended method for hemoglobin measurement is spectrophotometric absorbance reading of:

Back 37

540 nm wave length

Front 38

Reticulocytes are:

Back 38

Are immature red blood cells, typically composing about 1% of the red cells in the human body. Reticulocytes develop and mature in the red bone marrow and then circulate for about a day in the blood stream before developing into mature red blood cells. Like mature red blood cells, reticulocytes do not have a cell nucleus. They are called reticulocytes because of a reticular network of ribosomal RNA that becomes visible under a microscope with certain stains such as new methylene blue.

Front 39

Body stores of iron are most closely paralleled by serum levels of:

Back 39

Ferritin

Front 40

Porphyrias are disorders of:

Back 40

That involve a block in porphyrin synthesis that is due to a defect in the enzymes in the pathway of heme synthesis.

Front 41

The hematologic parameter that is most sensitive to macrocytosis is:

Back 41

Hematocrit

Front 42

When reticulocytes are stained with supravital stains, the substance that stains is:

Back 42

RNA

Front 43

Hemoglobin in the ferric (Fe 3+) state is called:

Back 43

Methemoglobin
globin + heme (Fe3+) = methemoglobin
Methemoglobin, which is inactive -Because this form is useless to the body, an enzyme, called diaphorase is used to reduce the methemoglobin back to normal ferrous (Fe2+) hemoglobin that can carry O2.The Fe2+ version of heme is called ferroheme; ferroheme is the active, O2 binding form of the heme group toward oxygen transfer. globin + heme (Fe2+) = hemoglobin (ferroheme)

Front 44

The most common adult hemoglobin is:

Back 44

Hgb A

Front 45

The RBC histogram below is indicative of:

Back 45

Normal

Front 46

A variation in size of RBCs is termed:

Back 46

Anisocytosis

Front 47

A variation of shape of RBCs is termed;

Back 47

Poikilocytosis

Front 48

Macrocytes can be defined as RBC’s with a:

Back 48

MCV>100fL
The term macrocytosis refers to a blood condition in which red blood cells (RBC) are larger than normal. Macrocytosis is reported in terms of mean corpuscular volume (MCV) larger than 100fL

Front 49

Macrocytosis can be caused by:

Back 49

• Megaloblastic anemias
• Shift reticulocytes (Hemolysis)
• Anemia of Liver Disease

Front 50

Microcytes can be caused by:

Back 50

• Iron-related disorders
• Sideroblastic anemias
• Anemia of Chronic Disorders
• Thalassemias
o Beta-Thalassemia Major
o Beta-Thalassemia Minor
o Alpha Thalassemia (Hemoglobin H Disease)
o Alpha Thalassemia (Hydrops Fetalis)
• Lead poisoning

Front 51

Any RBC having an increased central area of pallor is said to have:

Back 51

Hypochromia/hypochromic as Central pallor > 1/3

Front 52

A Wright’s stained smear of a patient with an elevated reticulocyte count will show:

Back 52

• With Wright’s stain, reticulocytes stain a slight blue-purple.
• Higher amounts of retics will be presented (equal or greater than 4% of the Total RBC Count) due to attempted compensation for anemias.

Front 53

Cells that are more often artifactual than a true result of a disease process are:

Back 53

• Infected with parasites that are outside the norm of a normal histological examination. These artifacts interfere with the normal histological processes of the body and can change tissue appearances/structures.
• Examples are:
o Malaria (Ringed forms, Schizonts & Gametocytes)
 Plasmodium vivax
 P. falciparum¬
 P. ovale
 P. malariae
o Babesiosis (Multiple ringed forms)
 Blue, ring-shaped parasite with a dark-straining minute chromatin dot.
o Bartonellosis
 Organism adheres to RBCs and are gram-negative rods (acute phase) and as cocci in recovery phase
o Clostridium perfringens
 Refer to PowerPoint, will provide a better answer soon.

Front 54

Cells that occur as a result of a decreased oxygen environment are:

Back 54

Reticulocytes
• Anemic - A reduction in the hemoglobin of red blood cells with consequent deficiency of oxygen in the blood, leading to weakness and pallor. (Actual answer I believe)
• Hypoxic – Sudden change in attitude (High to low, mountain to sea levels, reversed scenarios as well). Examples include Altitude sickness, Chronic Mountain Sickness, Polycythemia, Polycythemia Vera.
• Proliferated – Stimulated by EPO in respond to the body’s need for new RBCs leading to increased erythropoiesis.

Front 55

The morphologic difference between acanthocytes and burr cell is evident in the:
a.
b.

Back 55

a.Echinocyte
NL Size
NL MCHC
Oval shape
Even projections
b.Acanthocyte
Small Size
Increase MCHC
Spheroid
Uneven spicules

Front 56

An aid for dealing with RBC agglutination in a laboratory specimen is to:

Back 56

Heat up the specimen to body temperature

Front 57

An aid for dealing with rouleaux in a laboratory specimen is to:

Back 57

Change the plasma for saline to get rid of the rouleaux

Front 58

A stain used to confirm the presence of precipitated iron in the RBCs is:

Back 58

Prussian Blue- Siderotic Granules

Front 59

A patient with lead intoxication typically has numerous RBCs with:

Back 59

Basophilic Stippling

Front 60

Cells that have decreased tolerance to swelling and are less deformable than normal are:

Back 60

Spherocytes

Front 61

The RBC with a slit like central pallor is called a

Back 61

stomatocyte

Front 62

Heinz bodies are:

Back 62

Hgb

Front 63

Heinz bodies can be seen only with which stain

Back 63

Crystal violet

Front 64

Disorders involving any component of hemoglobin synthesis usually result in RBCs that are:

Back 64

normocytic, normochromic. There is microcytosis and hypochromia in some variants (HbE).Abnormal red cell morphology may or may not be seen in the blood smear and reticulocytes often are elevated.

Front 65

In the body, iron primarily acts as a(n):

Back 65

of oxygen and carbon dioxide and their transport to and from tissues of the body.

Front 66

The majority of iron in the body is found in the:

Back 66

the hemoglobin iron (2/3), rest is found as tissue iron.

Front 67

Eating food high in vitamin C along with iron-rich foods will cause iron absorption to be:

Back 67

Enhanced.

Front 68

Pappenheimer bodies are also known as:

Back 68

Iron-containing or siderotic granules.

Front 69

The most common cause of iron deficiency in America women of childbearing years is:

Back 69

Menstrual bleeding.

Front 70

The most common cause of iron deficiency in adult men is:

Back 70

GI bleeding.

Front 71

During treatment for iron deficiency anemia, recovery is fist seen in peripheral blood as:

Back 71

Sudden increase of RDW

Front 72

The clinical manifestation that distinguishes pernicious anemia from folic acid deficiency is:

Back 72

Neuropathies in pernicious anemia.
Although neuropathy is mainly characteristic of vitamin B12 deficiency, several cases of neurologic abnormalities associated with folic acid deficiency have been reported.

Front 73

When the maturation rates of nuclear and cytoplasmic development of hematopoietic cells differ, it is called:

Back 73

Nuclear-cytoplasmic asynchrony

Front 74

In megaloblastic anemias, the M:E ratio of the bone marrow is often:

Back 74

Low – May be as low as 1:1 to 1:3

Front 75

A major cause of non-megaloblastic macrocytosis is:

Back 75

Alcoholism and chronic liver disease

Front 76

A chemistry test that is often elevated in patients with megaloblastic anemia is:

Back 76

Type of Megaloblastic Anemia-Chemistry Test
B12 Deficiency-Elevated Homocysteine and Methylmalonic Acid (MMA)
Folate Deficiency-Elevated Homocysteine
Pernicious Anemia-Elevated Homocysteine and Methylmalonic Acid (MMA)

Front 77

Following correct diagnosis and treatment of a megaloblastic anemia, the patient’s complete blood count (CBC) returns to normal in approximately:

Back 77

3 to 6 weeks based on severity of the disease

Front 78

Aplastic anemia manisfets as a decreased production of:

Back 78

Erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets.
Characterized by cellular depletion in hematopoietic precursors with fatty replacement of the bone marrow

Front 79

One of the more common causes of aplastic anemia is:

Back 79

Idiopathic

Front 80

A drug that frequently causes aplastic anemia is:

Back 80

Chloramphenicol or phenylbutazone (benzene)

Front 81

An infectious state that is occasionally associated with bone marrow suppression is:

Back 81

Hepatitis

Front 82

Clinical manifestations of aplastic anemia are the result of:

Back 82

Insidious process owing to the gradual decrease in bone marrow production of all cells (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets)

Front 83

Peripheral blood cell morphology in aplastic anemia is most often:

Back 83

Normochromic, normocytic anemia with little or no evidence of regeneration such as polychromatophillic cells, basophilic stippling, or nucleated red cells seen.

Front 84

The reticulocyte count of a patient with aplastic anemia is usually:

Back 84

Decreased (pancytopenia)
A reticulocyte percentage of 0.5 percent to zero is strongly indicative of aplastic anemia, reflecting the lack of bone marrow regenerative activity

Front 85

In aplastic anemia, an abnormality that may be noted in the WBC differential is:

Back 85

A WBC differential usually shows a relative lymphocytosis of 70 – 90%, reflecting decreased numbers of myeloid and monocytic cells.
• Total leukocyte count ≤ 1.5 x 109/L
• Leads to pancytopenia

Front 86

In aplastic anemia, a bone marrow biopsy commonly reveals a marrow that is:

Back 86

Hypocellular in nature. Most of the blood stem cells are gone and replaced by fat (yellow marrow).

Front 87

In left untreated, most patients with aplastic anemia will:

Back 87

Patients will undergo progressive decreases in blood counts and subsequent lethal infection or bleeding.

Front 88

For children and young adults with severe aplastic anemia, the preferred treatment is:

Back 88

Allogeneic bone marrow marrow or peripheral stem transplantation.

Front 89

Anemia of chronic disease (inflammation) is usually:

Back 89

Normocytic, Normochromic- but as the condition progresses, it becomes hypochromic and microcytic. (This is all I could find, I’m not sure what the choices may be)

Front 90

Anemia of chronic disease (inflammation) may be confused initially with iron deficiency anemia because both disorder exhibit

Back 90

Low serum iron levels

Front 91

In inflammation, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate is often:

Back 91

Increased, due to c-reactive proteins increase

Front 92

The primary cause of anemia of chronic renal disease is:

Back 92

Deficiency of erythropoietin by damage to the kidneys leading to decrease of erythrocytes.

Front 93

When RBCs from a healthy donor are transfused into a patient with an extracoupuscular RBC defect, the life span of the donor cells will be:

Back 93

Destroyed

Front 94

Hemoglobinenia, hemoglobinuria, and hemosiderinuria are good indicators of:

Back 94

Chronic intravascular hemolysis

Front 95

Cells that have a decreased osmotic fragility and are less deformable than normal are:

Back 95

Xerocytosis

Front 96

Hereditary spherocytosis is considered a disorder of the:

Back 96

Membrane, due to deficiency in spectrin

Front 97

A common treatment for hereditary spherocytosis is:

Back 97

Splenectomy is funtionally curative in the majority of patients with this disease

Front 98

The osmotic fragility in most patients with hereditary elliptocytosis is:

Back 98

Normal

Front 99

The disorder in which RBCs exhibit thermal instability in hereditary;

Back 99

Hereditary pyropoikilicytosis leads to thermal instability and extreme morphologic abnormalities

Front 100

The most commonly encountered anemia is the congenital non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia is caused by a deficiency of:

Back 100

G6PD, PK, enzyme deficiency in the ebden myerhof pathway

Front 101

G6PD is found in the:

Back 101

X chromosome (Xq28)

Front 102

The hemolytic episodes in G6PD deficient patients are self-limiting because:

Back 102

RBCs fail to maintain adequate levels of GSH

Front 103

An osmotic fragility performed on fresh blood from a patient with PK deficiency will be:

Back 103

Osmotic fragility test is normal

Front 104

Favism may be associated with:

Back 104

G6PD deficiency

Front 105

PNH is a disorder that is:

Back 105

-Acquired hemolytic anemia associated with cellular membrane abnormalities
-Lack of GPI-anchored proteins on the erythrocyte membrane

Front 106

The classic presentation of a patient with PNH includes:

Back 106

The classic description of the manifestations of PNH is the presence of dark urine during the night with partial clearing during the day; however, hemoglobinuria may occur every day in severe cases, more frequently in episodes lasting 3-10 days, or, in some cases, not at all. Thrombosis of the veins usually manifests as a sudden catastrophic complication, with severe abdominal pain and rapidly enlarging liver and ascites (Budd-Chiari syndrome). This thrombosis is secondary to a lack of CD59 on platelet membranes that induces platelet aggregation and is highly thrombogenic, particularly in the venous system. Deficient hematopoiesis may occur due to diminished blood cell production with a hypoplastic bone marrow; thus, patients have a 10-20% chance of developing aplastic anemia in their course, and patients known to have aplastic anemia eventually develop PNH in 5% of cases. The nature of the pathogenetic link between these two diseases still is unknown.

Front 107

A disorder that may be confused with PNH because both produce positive acidified serum lysis (Ham’s) result is:

Back 107

CDA

Front 108

Polychromasia may be seen on the Wright’s stained smear of a patient with PNH due to an elevation of:

Back 108

Reticulocytes

Front 109

The RBC enzyme whose level corresponds to the acuity of PNH is:

Back 109

phosphatidylinositol glycan A (PIGA)

Front 110

A screening test for PNH is the:

Back 110

sugar water test (sucrose hemolysis)

Front 111

The confirmatory test for PNH is the:

Back 111

Hams test (acidified serum lysis test)

Front 112

Fresh normal serum is required for the acidified serum lysis (Ham’s) test to ensure the presence of:

Back 112

Hemolysis

Front 113

A valuable test for evaluating suspected hemogobinopathies is:

Back 113

CBC with manual morphology

Front 114

Hemoglobinopathy may be defined as:

Back 114

Group of diseases caused by or associated with the presence of one or several forms of abnormal hemoglobins in the blood

Front 115

The hemoglobin of sickle cell disease may be designated as:

Back 115

-The abnormal form of hemoglobin that creates sickle cell disease is Hemoglobin S. It is formed by a genetic mutation in which one amino acid replaces another (valine replaces glutamic acid)

Front 116

When the bone marrow temporarily ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient, a (n) _________ crisis has occurred.

Back 116

-Aplastic

Front 117

The most severe anemia results from which of the following hemoglobinopahies?

Back 117

-Both Alpha Thalassemia major (this autosomal recessive trait results in fetal death) and Beta Thalassemia major (Cooley’s anemia)

Front 118

The presence of HbF causes the severity of sickling in sickle cell disease to:

Back 118

Decrease

Front 119

Hemoglobins that denature and precipitate within RBCs as Heinz bodies are:

Back 119

-Intracellular inclusions called Hemoglobin Köln and Hemoglobin Zurich.

Front 120

The majority of hemoglobinopathies are caused by?

Back 120

-The majority of hemoglobinopathies result from B chain abnormalities. Although they may arise from a single amino acid substitution.

Front 121

Alpha-thalassemia is usually manisfested:

Back 121

Fatigue, Weakness, Shortness of breath, Pale appearance, Irritability, Yellow discoloration of skin (jaundice), Facial bone deformities, Slow growth, Abdominal swelling, Dark urine

Front 122

Alpha- thalassemia are characterizes by increases in hemoglobins:

Back 122

Decreased or absent alpha chain production will result in excess gamma chains during fetal life and at birth and in excess of beta chains later on. This causes formation of stable tetramers such as:
• Hgb H & Hemoglobin Barts

Front 123

After incubation with brilliant cresyl blue, RBCs containing hemoglobin H will:

Back 123

• Hemoglobin H Inclusions - alpha thalassemia, greenish-blue inclusion bodies appear in many erythrocytes after four drops of blood is incubated with 0.5mL of Brilliant cresyl blue for 20 minutes at 37°C.

Front 124

The characteristic that allows hemoglobin F to be studied is its:

Back 124

• Fetal Hemoglobin is more resistant than adult hemoglobin to elution at acid pH and can be demonstrated on a peripheral smear by the acid elution test Klehauer and Betke.( Im not sure about this answer I couldn’t find better info than this, please let me know if you guys find anything more accurate than this answer)

Front 125

The thalassemia syndromes are morphologically described as:

Back 125

• Microcytic, Hypochromic

Front 126

In general, thalassemias are characterized by a (n):

Back 126

• decreased rate of globin synthesis

Front 127

The Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test demonstrates hemoglobin:

Back 127

the most appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin F.

Front 128

A2 2%, F Even, Sickle solubility Negative

Back 128

B-thalassemia

Front 129

A2 1%, F Negative, Sickle solubility Positive

Back 129

Sickle cell trait

Front 130

A2 1.5%, F Negative, Sickle solubility Negative

Back 130

Normal

Front 131

A positive direct antiglobulin test is one indication of:

Back 131

C. Acquired hemolytic anemia (positive DAT)

Front 132

A delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs within_______ post transfusion.

Back 132

3-7 days

Front 133

The system most commonly associated with immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction is:

Back 133

ABO

Front 134

The fetomaternal incompatibility most commonly associated with HDN is:

Back 134

fetomaternal alloimmune thromocytopenia

Front 135

In hemolytic disease of the newborn, if intervention therapy is necessary and the fetus is too premature for delivery, the therapy of choice is:

Back 135

if delivery is planned prior to 34 weeks' gestation, maternal steroid administration to enhance fetal lung maturity is indicated.

Front 136

The specificity of the antibody most commonly found in warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is:

Back 136

IgG

Front 137

The antibody screen of a patient with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) will reveal positive results only in the phase associated with:
Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction: acute and delayed

Back 137

• Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn
• Lab results:
IgG antibody
increase Bili
decrease Haptoglobin
DAT +

Front 138

Cold antibodies are usually:

Back 138

IgM
so they do NOT cross the placenta and do NOT cause HDFN; can be non-red cell stimulated; usually only clinically significant if it fixes complement or causes hemolysis; reacts optimally at 4C but can and frequently does react at room temperature.

Front 139

The most common antibody specificity in cold AIHA is:

Back 139

IgM/ Anti-I, Anti-H, Anti-IH specificity

Front 140

The antibody specificity is paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is:

Back 140

IgG antibody, Anti-P specificity

Front 141

The Donath-Landsteiner antibody is associated with:

Back 141

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

Front 142

The most common protozoal infestation that results in anemia is:

Back 142

Malaria

Front 143

A common finding in the peripheral blood of patients with intravascular hemolysis due to mechanical trauma is:

Back 143

schistocytes and other poikilocytes

Front 144

Which of the following factors will result in an immediate increase in oxygen delivery to the tissue?

Back 144

Hypoxia

Front 145

The fish tapeworm Diphyllobothrium latum is associated with the development of

Back 145

vitamin B12 deficiency, pernicious anemia

Front 146

A moderately anemic patient with suspected pernicious anemia (PA) shows intrinsic factor antibodies and a low cobalamin level. Which of the following would NOT support the diagnosis of PA?

Back 146

decrease serum B12 and the presence of the ab to IF are indicative of pernicious anemia

Front 147

The major mechanism responsible for the anemia of chronic disease is

Back 147

chronic states block the transfer of storage iron to maturing erythroid precursors within the bone marrow

Front 148

A “shift to the left”, when used to describe a cell population, refers to

Back 148

Increase in immature blood cells following release of bone marrow pools

Front 149

In children, the most important effect of lead poisoning is on the

Back 149

Neurologic system

Front 150

Which of the following values can be used to indicate the presence of a hemolytic anemia?

Back 150

Reticulocyte count

Front 151

Which of the following does NOT characterize beta-thalassemia major?

Back 151

Decreased alpha chains result in excess beta chains

Front 152

A patient with normocytic normochromic anemia secondary to small cell carcinoma may be exhibiting an anemia designated as

Back 152

Myelophthisic (Anemia in which there is bone marrow failure. Seen in patients who are experiencing bone marrow replacement of normal hematopoietic tissue by metastatic cancer, cell fibrosis or leukemia.

Front 153

Which of the following is a true red blood cell aplasia?

Back 153

Diamond-Blackfan anemia

Front 154

The classic presentation of a patient with PNH includes:

Back 154

Hepatomegaly and ascites in Budd-Chiari syndrome
Splenomegaly if there is splenic vein thrombosis
Absent bowel sounds in bowel necrosis
Papilledema in cerebral vein thrombosis
Skin nodules that are red and painful in dermal vein thrombosis

Front 155

The RBC histogram below is indicative of:

Back 155

Agglutination

Front 156

The RBC histogram below is indicative of:

Back 156

Macrocytic, Elevated RDW

Front 157

The RBC histogram below is indicative of:

Back 157

RBC fragments, Elevated RDW

Front 158

The RBC histogram below is indicative of:

Back 158

Dimorphic population, Elevated RDW

Front 159

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 159

Normal

Front 160

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 160

Sickle Cell Trait

Front 161

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 161

Sickle Cell Disease

Front 162

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 162

Sickle C

Front 163

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 163

Sickle -Thalassemia

Front 164

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 164

Thalasemia Major

Front 165

Interpret the electrophoresis the arrow is pointing at

Back 165

Thalassemia Minor

Front 166

Refer to the following scatterplot, histograms and automated values on a 52-year old woman. What follow up verification procedure is indicated before releasing these results?

Back 166

Warm up at 37 for 15 min

Falsely Elevated MCV, MCH, MCHC
Falsely Decreased RBC count