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169 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What are the symptoms of a lacunar stroke?
Pure motor hemiparesis
Pure sensory
Ataxic hemiparesis
Sensory motor
Dysarthria clumsy hand syndrome
What medications and interventions are used in the tx of cerebral palsy to alleviate contractures and improve function?
Dantrolene – muscle relaxer
Baclofen – muscle relaxer
Benzodiazepines
Botox
What is the ACLS tx for ventricular fibrillation?
CPR
Defibrillate at 360 joules,
Epinephrine or vasopressin
Which vasopressor matches the following statement?
High doses optimize the α-1 vasoconstriction
Epinephrine
Which vasopressor matches the following statement?
Best choice for septic shock
Norepinephrine
Which vasopressor matches the following statement?
Causes vasoconstriction but with bradycardia
Phenylephrine
What is the next step in the evaluation of penetrating injuries to the different zones of the neck?
Zone 1 → CT angiogram (4-vessel arteriogram)

Zone 2 → Surgical exploration

Zone 3 → CT angiogram, triple endoscopy
What EKG finding is seen in pts with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome? What causes WPW?
EKG: delta wave prior to QRS complex
Cause: reentry thru accessory conduction pathway
What is the next step in the management of an AGUS pap smear?
Colposcopy & Endocervical curettage
What is the differential diagnosis for fetal tachycardia?
Maternal fever/ infection/ dehydration
Fetal anemia
Fetal tachyarrhythmias (HR > 200)
Fetal immaturity
Chorioamnionitis
Maternal thyrotoxicosis
Drugs or medications (Terbutaline, atropine)
Fetal hypoxia
What type of fetal surveillance strategy is typical for high-risk pregnancies?
Biophysical profile or NST
What are the first steps in the management of non-reassuring fetal heart tones during labor?
Place maternal O2 + turn off Pitocin (remove cervidil) + turn mom to left side
Correct hyperstimulation if needed with terbutaline 0.25mg SubQ
Correct any maternal hypotension (often a/w epidural). IVF bolus if needed
SVE and place FSE (check for cord prolapse)
Consider need for intervention such as amnioinfusion or C-section
One hour into the active stage of labor, a fetus’s heart tones become nonreassuring. What actions are taken immediately?
Maternal O2
Turn off oxytocin
Turn mother in LLD position
What would be some contraindications to fetal scalp electrode placement?
Breech presentation
< 36wks gestation
Worry of maternal viral infection
HYQ: What defines prolonged latent phase and prolonged active phase of labor dystocia?
Prolonged latent phase: does not progress from latent ot active phase for >20hours in nulliparous pts or >14 hrs in multiparous pts

Prolonged active phase:
Active phase > 12 hrs or
Nulliparous < 1.2 cm/hr dilation
Multiparous < 1.5 cm/hr dilation
What is the definition of arrest of descent? In general, how is it managed?
Arrest of descent occurs when the cervix does not continue to dilate during the active phase of >2 hrs in multips and >3hrs in primips
Management:
Reassess the 3 Ps
Placement of IUPC to better assess “power” (>200 MVU/10min)
Augmentation with oxytocin to augment “power”
C-section if power, passenger and passage are unable to be further augmented
What is the definition of uterine hyperstimulation? What adrenergic antagonist is particularly helpful in reversing uterine hyperstimulation?
Uterine hyperstimulation is defined by one of the following:
>5 contractions over 10min with duration > 60secs
significant fetal heart rate decelerations
Terbutaline 0.25mg Sub-Q if often used as a tocolytic to stop uterine contractions
What defines prolonged latent phase of labor? Prolonged active phase?
>20 hrs nulliparous
14 hrs in multiparous
12 hrs or <1.2cm per hour nulliparous
< 1.5 cm/hr multiparous
By how much can an epidural lengthen stage 2 of labor?
About 1 hour
What are some of the methods that can be used for induction of labor?
Rupture of membrane
Oxytocin
Other less common options
What are some of the contraindications to breastfeeding?
What is the treatment or mastitis in a postpartum female?
What are the treatment options for uterine atony/ postpartum hemorrhage?
Uterine massage
Oxytocin 10 units IM x1
Methergine (methylergonovine) 0.2 mg IM (ergot agent that is contraindicated if HTN)
Hemabate (PGF2-α) 0.25mg IM of intra-uterine (contraindicated if asthma)
Surgical options: uterine artery ligation, internal iliac artery ligation, selective arterial embolization, or hysterectomy
What are the characteristic features of postpartum endometritis?
What is the treatment for postpartum endometritis?
What are the indications for a vertical incision vs low transverse incision for a caesarean section?
Transverse lie
Adhesions or fibroids
Hysterectomy planned
Cervical cancer
Postmortem delivery
What potential adverse events can occur during a VBAC?
Uterine rupture (1/100)
Catastrophic event (1/1000)
A woman that is postpartum day 2, s/p C-section develops a temperature of 101°F, uterine tenderness, and foul lochia. Her urine urinalysis is normal & her incision is clean, dry and intact. What does this patient likely have and what is the treatment?
Dx: post-partum endometritis
Tx:
Clindamycin + ampicillin + gentamicin
Ceftriaxone + clindamycin
Ampicillin/sulbactam (Unasyn) + doxycycline
Cefoxitin + doxycycline
What is the treatment for a woman that does not wish to breastfeed postpartum?
1st line: Icepacks, tight bras, avoid stimulation, analgesia
2nd line: Oral contraceptives
3rd line: Bromocriptine
What medications can be used to control postpartum hemorrhage?
1st line: Uterine massage
Then: Oxytocin
Other less common options
What is the definition of arrest of descent?
(With epidural)
multiparous stage 2 for more than 2 hrs
nulliparous stage 2 for more than 3 hrs
if you don’t have an epidural, then subtract 1 hour
What are the first steps in the management of uterine hyperstimulation (or non-reassuring fetal heart tones)?
Oxygen
Remove uterine stimulant
Position in LLD
Giver terbutaline
Increase monitoring
When is a normal child’s weight regained, doubled, tripled, and quadrupled in terms of their birth weight?
Regain weight in 2 weeks
Double weight in 4 months
Triple weight in 12 months
Quadruple weight in 24 months
Define failure to thrive (FTT)
<5% on a growth chart
cross 2 or more lines in weight on the growth chart
How do you distinguish between Type I and Type 2 diabetes in a child?
Type 1 – skinny, anti-islet antibodies
When does a normal child’s height increase by 50%, double, and triple?
Height ↑ by 50% by age 1
Height doubled by age 4
Height tripled by age 13
How many blocks can a child put in a tower at these ages: 12 months, 18months, 2 yrs, 3yrs?
12 months → 2 blocks
18 months → 4 blocks
2 years → 6 blocks
3 years → 9 blocks
An infant that has any remaining primitive reflexes after what age needs a work-up for CNS pathology?
6 months of age
What is the first solid food parents should give their child?
Iron-fortified cereal
Why should cow’s milk not be given before 1 year of age?
Risk of allergy
Hemorrhaging in gut
Iron deficiency anemia
Car Seats:
< 1 year and <20 lbs → infant in back seat, facing backwards
1 – 4 years and > 20 lbs → in back seat but still in car seat, now have option of facing forward
Once forward-facing car seat is outgrown (4 years and 40 lbs) → booster seat in back
Keep in booster seat until the belt fits correctly (usually 4’9’’ and 8-12 years) → then belted with a lap/shoulder belt in the back seat until 13 years of age
How many calories are present in an ounce of breast milk? How many calories are present in an ounce of formula?
20 kilocalories/ounce in both breast milk and formula
What are the caloric needs for an infant younger than 6 mos?
100-120 calories/kg/day
What work-up should be performed on a newborn with a single umbilical artery?
Occurs in ~0.5% of births and 20-30% of these infants have major structural anomalies
Obtain renal sonagram as 7% will have clinically significant renal symptomatic anomalies
What are the most common problems that arise in premature infants?
Respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycemia, persistent PDA, infection/sepsis, retinopathy of prematurity, intraventricular hemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis
What is the difference between caput succedaneum and cephalohematoma?
Caput → diffuse swelling or edema of the scalp, edema crosses suture lines, resolves within a few days
Cephalohematoma → subperiosteal hemorrhage, does NOT cross suture lines, resolves in weeks to months
What is the next step in the management of a newborn female with bloody vaginal discharge in the first week of life?
Nothing (withdrawal from hormones)
is this benign?
Yes - Cutis marmorata: spider webbing/ marbling of the skin. Non-concerning

a normal reticulated mottling of the skin caused by vascular response to cold.
Is this benign?
Erythema toxicum neonatorum: 2-3 mm, yellow pustule with red base (similar appearance to white-head) arising in the first 24-72 hours, microscopic examination of the pustular contents (not necessary for diagnosis) reveals numerous eosinophils, usually gone by 3 weeks, tell parents to leave alone

Erythema toxicum neonatorum can result in a “flea-bitten” appearance.
what is this?
Transient neonatal pustular melanosis: superficial pustules overlying hyperpigmented macules. Tell parents to leave alone

Transient neonatal pustular melanosis is a vesiculopustular rash that occurs in 5 percent of black newborns, but in less than 1 percent of white newborns.6,9 In contrast with erythema toxicum neonatorum, the lesions of transient neonatal pustular melanosis lack surrounding erythema. In addition, these lesions rupture easily, leaving a collarette of scale and a pigmented macule that fades over three to four weeks. All areas of the body may be affected, including palms and soles.
what is this?
Neonatal acne (acne neonatorum): seen in 20% of infants, due to maternal hormone stimulation of sebaceous glands, usual age of onset is 3 weeks old. There is no increased risk of acne in adolescence. Mild lesions should be left alone and will resolve in 4 months. Severe inflammation can be managed with benzoyl peroxide or topical retinoids

It typically consists of closed comedones on the forehead, nose, and cheeks, although other locations are possible. Open comedones, inflammatory papules, and pustules can also develop.
What is this?
Milia (Miliaria): due to accumulation of sweat beneath eccrine sweat ducts that are obstructed by keratin at the stratum corneum usually develops in 1st week after birth, a/w excess warmth (incubator, excess clothes, fever). No treatment is needed except possibly to reduce sweating with loose clothing and cool baths

Miliaria crystallina is caused by superficial eccrine duct closure. It consists of 1- to 2-mm vesicles without surrounding erythema, most commonly on the head, neck, and trunk (Figure 5). Each vesicle evolves, with rupture followed by desquamation, and may persist for hours to days.
What is this?
Harlequin color change: intense reddening of gravity dependent side and blanching of the nondependent side with a line of demarcation between the two, lasts a few sec-min, affects 10% of newborns (more common in newborns), most common in the first few days of life, may be due to immaturity of autonomic innervation to skin vessels. Completely benign and will resolve in days- 3 weeks.
What is this?
Macular stains (Stork bites): permanent vascular malformations most commonly occurring on the nape of the neck, but also upper eyelids and middle of forehead. Benign but persist throughout life
What is this?
Mongolian spot: bluish discoloration over buttocks and base of spine, probably present on at least one of the parents. Benign and will usually fade in 1-2 years. Document to avoid later confusion with bruises
What is this?
Infantile Acne: different than neonatal acne, onset usually at 3-4 months of age, yellow papules around nose & cheeks, usually clears by age one but may persist until age 3. Severe inflammation can be managed with benzoyl peroxide or topical retinoids
Who under the age of 11-12 should receive an MCV4 meningococcal vaccine?
Moving to endemic area
Children > age 2 with functional true asplenia
When can a child switch to a front-facing car seat? A booster seat in the back seat?
Forward facing → > 2 years
Booster seat → until 4 ft 9 in & btw 8-12 years
How many kilocalories are in an ounce of breast milk? Formula?
20 kcal/ounce
Cephalohematoma increases the likelihood of what?
Jaundice
Note: more common with vacuum-assisted deliveries
A 2-day old baby boy presents with 2-3mm yellow pustules with red bases. What are these likely to be and what is the prognosis?
Erythema toxicum neonatorum
Why is it important to document Mongolian spots?
Prevent false accusations of abuse
What are some risk factors for SIDS?
2-3 months old
While infant is sleeping
Low SES
Maternal age < 20
Drugs/ cigarettes in pregnancy
Prior sibling with SIDS
Prone sleeping position
Sleeping on soft surface
Overheating
What medications can be used to treat thrush in an infant?
Nystatin oral suspension
What are the risk factors for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)?
When would you expect the anterior fontanelle to close in a child? What would you suspect if it did not close in the expected time frame?
- Closed in 1% by age 3 months, 38% by 12 months, and 96% by 24 months
- If delayed consider: Down syndrome, achondroplasia, Rickets, congenital hypothyroidism, ↑ intracranial pressure
- If closure < 3 months, carefully monitor head circumference for craniosynostosis (premature closure of cranial sutures)
- Craniotabes (soft occipital bone, like ping-pong ball) from 3 – 12 months is highly suspicious for Rickets
What are the signs of severe dehydration in a child?
What mnemonic can you use for the questions you should ask during an annual adolescent exam?
“HEADSSS”
Home environment
Employment/ Education
Activities
Drugs
Sex. Suicide, Safety
What are the clinical features of measles infection (rubeola)?
Prodrome for 2-3 days: fever, malaise, anorexia, and 3 “Cs” (Cough, Coryza, Conjunctivitis)

Koplik spots on buccal mucosa after 1-2 days (white-gray spots with a red base) → occur 48hrs prior to rash. Pathognomonic for measles

Rash 5 days after prodrome onset: erythematous, maculopapular starting at the head then spreading to the feet → lasts 4 -5 days → resolves from head down
What is the treatment for measles?
Supportive therapy (antipyretics, fluids)
Monitoring & treating bacterial superinfections such as pneumonia or otitis media
Vit A
100,000 IU PO x1 in 6 – 12 mo olds, 200,000 IU PO x1 if older than 12 months
WHO recommends vit A to all children with measles in areas where vitamin A def is prevalent and measles mortality exceeds 1%
AAP recommends vit A given as above to children 6mos—12 years hospitalized for measles or its complications or if immunodeficient or high likelihood of vitamin A deficiency (ophthalmologic evidence, intestinal malabsorption, malnutrition, or recent immigration from an area with high measles mortality)
Ribavirin is not yet well studied and not currently standard of care for measles despite that it harms measles virus in vitro
What are the classic features of rubella virus (German measles)?
Low grade fever, lymphadenopathy, and rash
Prodromal malaise, fever, anorexia for 1-5 days prior to rash
Lymphadenopathy – suboccipital & posterior cervical
Erythematous, tender maculopapular rash that starts at the face then generalizes
Rash persists 5 days and does not darken as does the rash of measles
Polyarthritis may be seen up to a month in women and adolescents
What are the characteristic features of Coxsackie hand, foot, and mouth disease?
Constitutional fever & anorexia
Oral vesicle on the buccal mucosa and tongue
Small, tender, maculopapular/vesicular rash on the hands, feet and sometimes buttocks
Duration is typically 3-5 days without complications
What are the signs and symptoms or scarlet fever caused by Streptococcus pyogenes?
Rash that is coarse (“sandpaper-like”), erythematous and blanching (“sunburn-like”)
Rash starts on the trunk that generalizes, but spares palms & soles
Rash is most prominent in skin creases of axilla and groin (Pastia’s lines/sign)
Strawberry tongue, beefy-red pharynx, cervical LAD
Fever/chills
Later desquamation of hands & feet (addn ddx Kawasaki disease, Toxic Shock Sydrome, acrodynia or mercury poisoning)
(+) throat culture or rapid strep test
What are the characteristic symptoms of roseola infantum (HHV-6)?
Sudden, high fever (exceeding 102°F) for 3-4 days
Child has no other signs of infection and often acts/plays normally
Rash that appears when fever dissipates and starts on the trunk then spreads over entire body & lasts 24 hours
Other common findings: erythematous papules on soft palate & uvula, mild cervical LAD, edematous eyelids, bulging anterior fontanel in infants
Commonly misdiagnosed as acute otitis media and subsequent antibiotic allergy!
What is the treatment for roseola infantum?
Antipyretics as needed
What is the differential diagnosis for cervical lymphadenopathy in a child?
What is PFAPA syndrome?
Benign 4-5 day syndrome consisting of Periodic Fever, Aphthous ulcers, Pharyngitits, and Adenitis
Occurs monthly (q 28 days)
Exclusion criteria include neutropenia, cough, coryza, diarrhea, severe abdominal pain, rash, arthritis, and neuro defects
Usually affects preschool-aged children (2-5 yr olds)
Benign, self-limiting disease
Treatments
Glucocorticoids relieve symptoms in a matter of hours
Cimetidine may be used for prevention of episodes but is of questionable efficacy
Average duration of recurring symptoms is 4.5 years
What are the classic symptoms of pertussis?
Incubation 7 – 10 days
Catarrhal stage (1 – 6 weeks): paroxysms of cough with inspiratory whoop that is worse at night & often with post-tussive emesis and exhaustion
Often confused with acute bronchitis
Convalescent stage (2 – 3 weeks): waning of symptoms
What is the treatment for pertussis?
What additional workup, if any, is needed in a child diagnosed with a UTI?
Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) and Renal U/S if:
Child 2 months – 2 years of age (AAP)
Male of any age
Girl < 3 years (or unable to verbalize urinary symptoms
Febrile UTI or recurrent UTI
Other red flags: abnormal voiding pattern, poor growth, FHx of renal disease, hypertension, abnormalities of the urinary tract
What is the mnemonic for questions you should ask while examining adolescents?
“HEADSSS”
Home environment
Employment/ Education
Activities
Drugs
Sex. Suicide, Safety
In addition to MCV4, what other vaccines should asplenic pediatric patients >2 years receive?
HIB & pneumococcal
What are the 3 C’s of the prodrome of rubeola?
Coryza, Cough, Conjunctivitis
What are some causes of desquamation of the hands & feet?
Scarlet fever
Kawasaki Disease
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Acrodynia
Steven-Johnson Syndrome
How long is the incubation period for pertussis? What is the treatment?
Incubation: 7-10 days
Treatment: macrolide
Which viral infection is characterized by sudden high fevers for 3-4 days but is otherwise asymptomatic? A rash will often appear when the fever dissipates
Roseola Infection (HHV 6)
Intense reddening of gravity dependent side and blanching of the non-dependent side with a line of demarcation between the two, lasts a few sec-min
Harlequin Color Change
Due to accumulation of sweat beneath eccrine sweat ducts that are obstructed by keratin at the stratum corneum
Milia
HYQ: If a patient with measles required treatment with medication, what medication would you use?
Vitamin A
What is the treatment for roseola infantum?
Generally no treatment except antipyretics
What are some common causes of delayed closure of the anterior fontanelle?
Rickets
Down syndrome
Achondroplasia
Congenital hypothyroidism
Elevated Intracranial pressure
When do children first exhibit stranger anxiety?
6 – 9 months
When is gender identity typically formed?
2 – 3 years
When can children begin to eat solid foods?
4 – 6 months
When can children drink cow’s milk?
1 year
What interventions have been shown to ↓ incidence of SIDS?
Back to bed
Pacifier
Fan on in room
No smoking in house
No pillows/ toys in bed
How many total doses of the DTaP vaccine should a 6yo have received?
5 doses
At what age is the meningococcal vaccine indicated?
11 years
How would you expect weight to increase in the first 2yrs?
Double newborn weight – 4 mos
Triple newborn weight – 12 mos
Quadruple newborn weight – 24 mos
Bruton’s Agammaglobulinemia
X-linked (Boys)
B-cell deficiency → defective tyrosine kinase gene → low levels of ALL immunoglobulins
Recurrent Bacterial infections after 6 months
No B-cells on peripheral smear
Thymic aplasia (DiGeorge Syndrome)
3rd & 4th brachial pouches fail to develop

no thymus → no T cells
no PTHs → low Ca2+ → tetany
congenital defects in heart/ great vessels
recurrent viral, fungal, protozoal infections
90% have a chr 22q11 deletion
Severe Combined ImmunoDeficiency (SCID)
Defect in early stem cell differentiation
Can be caused by at least 7 different gene defects (ie adenosine deaminase deficiency)
Presentation triad:
Severe recurrent infections
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
Fatal or recurrent RSV, VZV< HSV, Measles, Influenza, Parainfluenza
PCP pneumonia
Chronic Diarrhea
Failure to Thrive (FTT)
no thymic shadow on newborn CXR
DO NOT GIVE LIVE VACCINES!!
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
T-cell dysfunction vs C. albicans
Tx: antifungals (ketoconazole, fluconazole)
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome: “WAITER”
Wiskott-Aldrich
Immunodeficiency
Thrombocytopenia
Eczema (of the trunk)
Recurrent pyogenic infections
(A)taxia-Telangiectasia
Ig(A) deficiency
Cerebellar (A)taxia, and poor smooth pursuit of moving target with eyes
Telangiectasias of face > 5 yo
↑ cancer risk: lymphoma & acute leukemias
Radiation sensitivity (try to avoid x-rays)
+/- ↑ AFP in children > 8 months
average age of death ~ 25 years
Selective Immunoglobulin Deficiencies
IgA deficiency is most common
Most appear healthy
Sinus & lung infections
1/600 European descent
a/w atopy, asthma
possible anaphylaxis to blood transfusions and blood products
What is the half-life of the IgG antibodies transferred from mother to infant?
28 days
What is the presentation triad for SCID?
Severe recurrent infections
Chronic diarrhea
Failure to thrive (FTT)
What are the clinical features of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
“WAITER”
Wiskott-Aldrich
Immunodeficiency
Thrombocytopenia
Eczema
Recurrent pyogenic infections
What is the management of chronic granulomatous disease?
Prophylactic TMP-SMX (Bactrim), Interferon-γ
If a female child is in the 80th percentile for height & the 25th percentile for head circumference, what chromosomal abnormality should you suspect?
Turner Syndrome (XO)
What is the most common malformation of the head & neck?
Unilateral cleft lip (multifactorial causes)
What features are characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome?
Facial features:
Short palpebral fissures
Thin upper lip
Smooth philtrum
Flattened midface
Deficient brain growth:
Structural brian abnormalities
< 10th percentile for head circumference
Abnormal neuro exam
Variable mental retardation
Growth retardation:
< 10th percentile for height and weight
Failure to thrive (FTT) despite adequate intake
Disproportional low weight to height
What are the differences in presentation btw branchial cleft cyst and thyroglossal duct cyst?
Brachial cleft: lateral neck
Thyroglossal: (most common = tongue) midline neck, moves with swallowing, most common congenital neck cyst, commonly assoc with ectopic thyroid tissue
What are the common possible presenting features of tuberous sclerosis?
Distinctive brown, fibrous plaque on the forehead seen in infancy
Ash leaf spots (hypopigmented macules) → most easily seen with Wood’s lamp
Shagreen patch (leathery cutaneous thickening usually on the lower trunk)
Facial angiofibromas (AKA adenoma sebaceum)
Seizures
Mental Retardation



My notes:
Seizures, shagreen path, sebaceous adenoma, “ash leaf” spots, mental retardation
Hamartomas (mass of tissue in endogenous location) - in CNS, skin, organs
Assoc cancers: “Angie, the astronaut, made a rap (rhabdo) about her heart and kidney” also think – when in space as an astronaut, your heart hurts b/c you miss your family & your kidney hurts cuz its hard to pee”
Cardiac rhabdomyoma
Renal angiomyolipoma
Astrocytoma
Lactic acidosis, hyperlipidemia, hyperuricemia (gout)
Type I
(Von Gierkes Disease)
Diaphragm weakness → respiratory failure
Type II
(Pompe’s Disease)
↑ glycogen in liver, severe fasting hypOglycemia
Type I
(Von Gierkes Disease)
Hepatomegaly, hypOglycemia, hyperlipidemia (normal kidneys, lactate, uric acid)
Type III
Cori Disease
Painful muscle cramps, myoglobinuria with strenuous exercise
Type V
(McArdle’s)
Severe hepatosplenomegaly, enlarged kidneys
Type I
(Von Gierkes Disease)
What malignancy is a/w Down syndome?
Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) – “we ALL fall DOWN”
What GI complications are a/w Down syndrome?
Duodenal atresia
Hirschsprung’s disease
Annular pancreas
Celiac Disease
What is WAGR syndrome?
Wilm’s tumor
Aniridia
Genital abnormalities
Retardation
What is the most common cause of congenital mental retardation in men?
Fragile X Syndrome
A child presents with short palpebral fissures, a thin upper lip, smooth filtrum, and a flattened midface. He is below the 10th percentile for height & weight and his IQ is 65. What is the cause of his abnormalities? What could have been done to prevent them?
Dx: Fetal alcohol syndrome
Prevent – Don’t drink!
Congenital heart defect + low calcium + recurrent infections
DiGeorge Syndrome
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis + chronic diarrhea + FTT
SCID
Thrombocytopenia + eczema + recurrent infections
Wiskott-Aldrich
Poor smooth pursuit of eyes + elevated AFP after 8 months
Ataxia Telangiectasia
Partial albinism + recurrent URIs + neurologic disorders
Chédiak- Higashi Disease
Cleft lip/palate, life expectancy < 1 yr, polydactyly
Trisomy 13
High-pitched cat-like cry
Cri du chat
Elfin facial features, cardiac defects
William Syndrome
Tall, thin male with gynecomastia and testicular atrophy
Klinefelter Syndrome
Obesity & overeating
Prader Willi
Micrognathia, life expectancy < 1 yr, rocker-bottom feet
Trisomy 18
Happy mood, inappropriate laughter, ataxic gait
Angelman syndrome
Large ears, MR, macroorchidism
Fragile X
MR, Simian crease, GI & Cardiac defects
Trisomy 21
Short stature, infertility, coarctation of aorta
Turner Syndrome (XO)
When do infections typically begin in children with immune disorders?
After first 3 months of life
What are the current screening recommendations for breast cancer in average risk women?
- Ages 40-49: Screening mammogram q 1-2 yrs +/- clinical breast exam
- Benefits of screening in this age group are uncertain, but most all expert groups recommend screening of this age group (ACS, AMA, ACOG, AAFP…)
- Every group agrees that at least offering a mammogram and shared decision making for this age range is appropriate
- Ages 50-69: Screening mammogram q1-2 years +/- clinical breast exam
- Proven benefits and all expert groups agree here
- Ages 70+ and life expectancy > 10 years → screening mammogram q 1-2 years +/- clinical breast exam
What is the USPSTF recommendation for hypertension screening?
Every 2 years in normotensive pts, starting at age 18
What is the USPSTF recommendation for cholesterol screening in pts without CAD risk factors?
Start at age 35 in men
Start at age 45 in women
What specific interventions are helpful in smoking cessation?
How often should a normotensive pt get their BP checked?
Every 2 years starting at age 18 years
When should you start screening for high cholesterol in otherwise healthy patients?
Men: after age 35
Women: after age 45
Which medication for smoking cessation carries a black box warning about its side effect of suicidality?
Varencicline (Chantix)
What smoking cessation method doubles the quit rate?
Nicotine replacement therapy
What symptoms of vitamin deficiency do you get if you haven’t have enough folate? Vit A? VIt D? E? B3?
Folate:
Neural tube defects
Megaloblastic anemia
Vit A:
Bitot’s spots
Keratomalacia
Xerothalmia
Vit D: osteomalacia, Rickets
Vit E: ↑ RBC fragility
Vit B3: Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia
What vitamin can be used to treat psoriasis?
Vit D analogs
Which vitamin deficiency:

↑ RBC fragility
Vit E
Which vitamin deficiency:
Dermatitis, cheilosis, glossitis
Iron Def & B2, B3
Which vitamin deficiency:
Peripheral neuropathy, angular cheilosis, glossitis
B12
Which vitamin deficiency:
Hemorrhagic disease
Vit K
Which vitamin deficiency:
Dermatitis, Diarrhea, Dementia
B3 (niacin)
Which vitamin deficiency:
Megaloblastic anemia
Folate/ B12
Which vitamin deficiency:
Pernicious anemia
B12
Which vitamin deficiency:
Bitot’s spots, keratomalacia, xerophthalmia
Vit A
Which vitamin deficiency:
Osteomalacia, Rickets
Vit D
Which vitamin:

Can be used to treat acne & psoriasis
Vit A
Which vitamin:
Involved in the hydroxylation of prolyl residues
Vit C
Which vitamin:
Requires intrinsic factor for absorption
B12 (Cobalamine)
Which vitamin:
Deficiency may result from kidney disease
Vit D
Which vitamin:
Given prophylactically to newborns
Vit K
Which vitamin:
Can be used to elevate HDL and lower LDL
B3 (niacin)
Which vitamin:
Deficiency can be caused by isoniazid use
B6 (pyridoxine)
Which vitamin:
Cobalt is found within this vitamin
B12