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42 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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29yo woman is infected simultatnously with T.Pallidum, N. Gonhorrhea, C. Trachomatus. Which of the following would be most effective for all 3 of these ST Microbes?
a-amoxicillin b-cefaclor c-doxycycline d-fluconazole e-gentomycin |
Doxycycline
(final q) |
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28yo M is diagnosed with Testicular Cancer. Which of the following drugs is used to treat this type of cancer and is LEAST likely to cause myelosuppression
a-vinblastine b-etoposide C-cisplatin d-methotrexate e-cyclophosphomide |
Cisplatin
(SE are renal toxicity and aucustic nerve damage) (final Q) |
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Drugs that induce CYP3A may cause this drug to be ineffective
A-acyclovir b-zidovudine c-ribavarin d-ganciclovir e-saqunavir |
A-acyclovir (excreted in kidneys)
b-zidovudine (liver met. don't combine with benzos) c-ribavarin (Aerosol) d-ganciclovir (not sure) e-saqunavir (correct. Not familiar with this drug) |
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a 34 yo woman is being treated chronically for a viral illness. Which of the following drugs cannot be used in pregnancy?
Acyclovir Zidovudine Ribavirin Lemivudine Saquinivir |
Ribivirin is class X
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29yo woman recieved a pancreas transplant 1 year ago. She wishes to become pregnant. Which of the following anti-rejection meds would NOT be used in this woman
Cyclosporine Tacrolimus Predinosne Mycophenilate Mofitil Azathrioprine |
Azathrioprine (highly teratogenic)
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Correct statement about the use of drugs in pregnancy
A- drugs act to produce fetal malformations only in the first trimester B- category A drugs are considered safe for use in pregnancy C- Teratogenic effects awlays are evident within one mo of birth D- The effect of a drug on the fetus is always the same as the mother E- category x drugs are considered safe for use in pregnancy |
A- drugs can have malformations whenever in pregnancy
BCORRECT C- Teratogenic effects can manifest many years after a child is born D- Drug effects on fetus are often different than mother E- x is NOT safe |
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Which is the correct statement regarding acyclovir?
A- It is the DOC for HepB B- Too toxic for systemic use C- Selective inhibitor of DNA polymerase D- Little toxicity b/c it selectively concentrates in virally infected cells E- Frequently causes peripheral neuropathy |
D
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Pt with HIV is being treated with Zodovudine, Lamivudine, Efavirens, Saquinavir. He develops CMV retinitis, which mus be treated with IV ganciclovir. What is the most likely SE of this combinatino of drugs?
Somnolence and lethargy Peripheral neuropathy pancreatitits Neutropenia Stevens-johnson |
Neutropenia
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A pt treated for HIV develops truncal obesity, hyperglycemia and hyperlipidema. Which of the following drugs is the culprit?
Zidovudine Valgancyclovir Lamivudine Efavirenz Saquinavir |
Sasquatchinovir
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A pt with HIV and chronic HEPB comes to your office for tx. Wich of the following would be a logical component of his tx regimen given the activity against both viruses?
Valgancyclovire lamivudien zidovudine Ribavirin saquinavir |
Lamivudine
Blocks HBV polymerase and RT |
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Pt tx for chronic viral illness develops depression and anemia. Which drug is most likely responsible for these side effects?
Valgancyclovir Ribavirin/Interferon alpha2b Zidovudine Lamivudine Acyclovir |
Ribavirin Interferon a2b
BOTH OF THESE have SE of depression/etc |
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non-nucleotide reverse transcirptase inhibitor that is the DOC in its class for the TX of HIV , unless the pt is pregnant is?
Saquinavir Nevirapine Zidovudine Enfavirenz Enfuviritide |
Efavirenz is the DOC unless they are pregnant, in which case you defer to Nevirapine in the NNRTIs
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this drug blocks the fusion of HIV with cell membrane, preventing entry into the cell
Saquinavir Nevirapine Zidovudine Enfavirenz Enfuviritide |
Enfuvirtide binds Gp41 of viral envelope.
is a Fusion blocker along with maraviroc (CCR5) Rock out to CCR5 (creedence clearwater revival!) |
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Useful tx c influenza bc it prevens release of virus from infected cell, but it may cause nausea and vomiting
Valgancyclovir Nevirapine Amantadine Oseltamvir Enfuviritide |
Oseltamvir- does just that
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Muromonab CD3 (orthoclone)
-inhibits an established immune response in B and T lymphocytes that have undergone differentiation and division - increases release of interleukin-2 by stimulating CD3, causing activation of T cells - Binds to CD3 protein, removing T cells from circulation -inhibits funcitno of calcineurin, causing CD3 protein to internalize - is a humanized monoclonal Ab to the CD28 receptor that is unlikely to cause SE |
Binds to CD3 protein, removing T cells from circulation
murmonamb NABs the Tcells from circulation |
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used to prevent the devlopment of an immune response; likelihood of cytokine release syndrome is low becused it is a humanized monoclonal ab
- Lymphocyte Immune Globulin -interleukin 2 - Daclizumab -muromonab CD3 -Azathioprine |
Daclizumab
IZ part human |
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A pt tx c tacrolumus will be monitored for the development of
Bone marrow suppression Hemorrhagic cystitis Renal toxicity and HTN Hepatotoxicity Skin rash |
Tacrolimus and Cyclosporine have pretty much identical SEs just at a lower level.
Renal toxicity and HTn is the big ones but Tac also can cause skin cancer which is dumb |
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Dose must be modified if given with allopurinol
Tacrolimus Mycophelylate mofetil Azathioprine Muromonab Daclizumab |
Azathioprine is metabolized by xanthine oxidase, which also metabolizes uric acid. This can compete and cause hyperuricemia and gout. You must decrease the dose if it gets to the point that your pt has hyperuricemia.
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Pt c liver transplant develops rapid increase in hepatic enzymes suggestive of rejection. He is give rx which is known to inhibit B and T lymphocytes that have undergone differentiation and division, and thus can rescue an established immune respons. wich of the following drugs is this most likely to be?
Mycophelylate mofeti azathioprine interferon alpha Cyclophosphamide Cyclosporine |
cyclophosphamide: Organ Transplant RESCUE.
can cause hemorrhagic cystitis |
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A 22 yo woman comes to your office. She is taking acyclovir chronically but hopes to become pregs in the next few mos. Acyclovir is cat B. What does that mean?
What are the other categories? |
Cat B is that; It is unlikely that this drug will casue fetal damage, although well controlled human studies may be lacking, or there have been adverse effects in animals, but not in humans
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Causes a relatively selective inhibition of T-cell activation through inhibition of calcineurin
Prednisone Tracrolimus Mycophenylate mofetil Azathioprine Cyclophosphamide |
Tacrolimus and Cyclosporine both have the mechanism of Calcineurin hinhibition.
Prevents the activation of NFAT and IL-2 production |
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Which of the following is active against esophageal candidiasis and other serious infections?
isoniazid Amikacin telithormycin amoxicillin anidalafungin |
Anidalafungin i
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Which of the following is the best choice to treat a pt suffereing from a severe malarial infection complicatied by shocK?
Primaquine choroquine Quinidine plus doxycycline mefloquine halofantrine |
QUinidine plus doxycycline is DOC for unconscious pt with severe (resistant) malarial infection
Shock= unconscious due to hypoperfusion? |
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Why is primaquine NOT used for prophylaxis against malarial infection?
ineffective at preventing initial infection long terminal half-life requires frequent dosing High toxicity with chronic use Not effective against tissue schizonts |
Primequine has high toxicity with chronic use
Not used for prophylaxis unless you really need to. CI in G6PD deficiency |
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Choose the correct use and toxicity pair for atovaquone and proguanil
-uncomplicated infection with chloroqine-resistant pmalaria/ transient elevation of liver enzymes - pneumocysitis jovireci/retinal and corneal toxicity -unconcsious pt infected with chloroquine resistant P. Falciparum/ hypoglycemia - Giardia lamblia/ ataxia Toxoplasmosis/cytopenia |
Uncomplicated infection with chloroquine-resistant malaria
causes transient eleveation of liver enzymes |
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Which drug is efficacious as a tissue schizonticiede and with kill liver forms of P. Viviax?
Chloroquine Quinine Mefloquine Pyrimethamine + sulfadoxine primaquine |
Chloroquine- not for vivax
Quinine- good for vivax but is just cidal (not tissue) Mefloquine- same as chloroquine- for Chloroquine resistant falciparum Pyrimeth blah blah Primaquine- is the right answer |
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What is the DOC for G Lamblia?
Metronidazole Paramomycin Quinacrine Pentamidine Atovaquone |
Metronidazole, duh, eveyone knows that.
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With of the following DOC for pinworm infection?
Mebendazole Thiabendazole Niclosamide Praziquantel Ivermectin |
Round-worms= mabendazole
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A 25 yo filed worker presents with a mixed infecition of Schistosoma mansoni and Taenia Solioum. Which woudl be the best drug to tx this pt?
Mebendazole Thiabendazole Niclosamide Praziquantel Ivermectin |
Praziquantel is DOC for tapeworms/Schistosomes
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Which of the following can cause seizures and should not be used in pts with a history of mental illness or epilepsy?
Chloroquine Mefloquine Primaquine Quinine/Quinidine Pyrimethamine+ sulfadoxine |
Mefloquine. It is DOC for chloroquine resistant Falciparum
It Meff's with your mind, maaaan. |
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Wich of the following is the best choice for treating a schistosome infection?
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Just asked that. What is it?
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Which of the following is best choice for treating an intestinal tape worm infection?
What drug is it? |
look it up I don't know.
Niclosimide |
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Which of the following effectively treats nematode infections and are purchased over the counter?
mebendazole Pyrantel pamoate niclosamide praziqunatel pentamidine |
Pyrantel pamoate (Antiminth)
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Which of the follwoing is effective in the tx of many solid tumors. It is combined iwth many other drugs bc it causes little myelosuppresion but can cause ototoxicity?
mechlorethamine cisplatin busulfan cyclophosphamide piclitaxel |
Cisplatin
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Wich of the following is the dose-limiting toxicity of the use of vincristine?
myelosuppression nephrotoxicity neurotoxicity pulmonary fibrosis cardiotoxicity |
Neruotoxicity
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Which of the following is most likely to casue burns in tissue prevously exposed to radiation treatment?
methotrexate Cisplatin Busulfan Prednisone Dactinomycin |
Dactinomycin was re-dacted due to issues in pt that have undergone radiation therapy
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the efficacy and toxicity of mercaptopurine are greatly increased by which of the following?
MESNA Allopurinol Leucovorin Dexrazaoxane Odansetron |
Allopurinol
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With of the following arrests mitosis by stabilizing microtubules and inhibiiting their disassembly?
Mechlorethamine Paclitaxel Fluorouracil Bleomycin Trastuzumab |
Paclitaxel.
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The combination of which of these two drugs is likely to incerease the likelihood of peripheral neuropathy.
Zidovudine/loamivudine Didanizone/stavudine Acyclovir/zidovudine Valgancyclovir/tacrolimus saquinavir/efavirenz |
Didanisone/ stavudine
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Select the INCORRECT drug-adverse effect pair
Isoniazid- neurotoxicity rifampin- enzyme induction ethambutol- nephrotoxicity pyrazinamide- hepatic dysfunction streptomycin- ototoxicity |
ethambutol does not cause ototoxicity.
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A pt being treated for viral illness develops neutropenai. What drug could be used to treat this condition and what is a common SE?
Cyclosporine/renal toxicity Zidovudine/ somnolence Granulocyte colony stimulating factor/ bone pain Interleukin-2/ cytokine release syndrome |
Granulocyte colony stimulating factor causes bone pain
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Metronidazoel is known to cause which of the following sets fo adverse effects?
- Gi discomfort and teratogenicity - hypotension, arrhytmias, hypoglycemia - GI upset, ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity - skin reactions, thryoid enlargement, headache, diarrhea - GI irritation, metallic taste, disulfiram like effect |
Metronidazole causes GI irritation, metallic taste, and a disulfaram like effect
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