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405 Cards in this Set
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- 3rd side (hint)
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A 28 year old chemist presents with MPTP exposure. What NT is depleted?
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Dopamine do it
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An African American male who goes to Africa develops hemolytic anemia after taking malaria prophylaxis. What is the enzyme defficiency?
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Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase culley
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27 year old female with history of psychiatric illness now has urinary retention due to neuroleptic. What do you treat it with?
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"Bethanechol. This drug is a cholinomimetic (direct agonist)
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"Farmer presents with dyspnea
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salivation
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"Patient with recent kidney transplant is on cyclosporine for immunosuppresion
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he requires antifungal agent for candidiasis. What antifungal drug would result in cyclosporine toxicity?"
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"A man on several medications including antidepressants and antihypertensives
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has mydriasis and becomes constipated. What is the cause of his symptoms?"
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55 year old postmenopausal woman on tamoxifen therapy. What is she at increased risk of acquiring?
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"Endometrial carcinoma. Receptor antagonists in breast
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Woman on MAO inhibitor has hypertensive crisis after meal. What did she ingest?
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"Tyramine (wine or cheese). Tyramine can cause the release of stored monoamines
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"After taking clindamycin
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patient develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. What is the mechanism of diarrhea?"
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"Man starts a medication for hyperlipidemia. He then develops rash
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pruritus and GI upset. What drug was it?"
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Patient is on carbamazepine. What routine workup should be done?
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"LFT's. Carbamazepine is an anti-epileptic that causes diplopia
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23 year old female who is on rifampin for TB prophylaxis and on birth control (estrogen) gets pregnant. Why?
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Rifampin augments estrogen metabolism in liver rendering it less effective. Rifampin is an INDUCER of P450s
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Patient develops cough and must discontinue captopril. What is a good replacement drug and why doesn't it have the same side effects?
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"Losartan - an angiotensin II receptor antagonist
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Relates the amount of drug in the body to plasma concentration
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Vd - volume of distribution. This quantity can be altered by liver and kidney disease
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Formula for volume of distribution
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Vd = amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration
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Vd of plasma protein-bound drugs can be altered by what disease?
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Liver and kidney
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Relates the rate of elimination to plasma concentration
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CLEARANCE
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Formula for clearance
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Cl = (rate of elimination of drug) / (plasma drug concentration) = Vd x Ke (elimination constant)
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The time required to change the amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or during constant infusion) is called _
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Half life T1/2
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After 1 half life concentration of drug equals _ %
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50%
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After 2 half lifes concentration of drug equals_
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75%
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A drug infused at constant rate reaches about _ % of steady state after 4 T1/2
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94
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Formula for T1/2
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T1/2 = (0.7 * Vd) / CL
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Loading dose formula
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"Loading dose = (Cp * Vd) / F
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F = bioavailibility"
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Formula for maintenance dose
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"(Cp * CL) / F
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F = bioavailibility"
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"In patients with impaired renal or hepatic function
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does the loading dose decrease
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Maintenance dose?"
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"Loading dose remains unchanged
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Maintenance dose decreases"
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What happens to target plasma concentration?"
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"Zero order elimination
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Target plasma concentration decreases linearly with time"
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"
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"First order elimination
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Cp decreases exponentially with time"
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Give examples of drugs with zero order elimination
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"Ethanol
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Aspirin (at high or toxic concentration)"
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PEA
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"This type of drug is trapped in basic environments
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and overdoses are treated with bicarbonate."
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"This type of drug is trapped in acidic environments
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and overdoses are treated with ammonium chloride."
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"Phase I metabolism (reduction
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oxidation
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What phase of metabolism associated with cytochrome P450?
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Phase I
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What phase of metabolism associated with conjugation?
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Phase II
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"Phase II metabolism (acetylation
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glucoronidation
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Geriatric patients lose which phase of metabolism first?
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Phase I
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"""Is it safe? Pharmacokinetics?"" - which phase of clinical testing of the drug?"
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Phase I
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"""Does it work in patients?"" - which phase of clinical testing of the drug?"
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Phase II
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"""Does it work? Double blind"" - which phase of clinical testing of the drug?"
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Phase III
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What happens in phase IV of clinical testing of the drug
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Postmarketing surveillance
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A competitive antagonist shifts agonist curve where?
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To the right. This decreases potency and increases EC50.
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A noncompetitive antagonist (irreversible) shifts agonist curve where?
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Downward. This decreases efficacy.
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Name antibiotics that block cell wall synthesis by inhibition of peptidoglycan cross linking
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"Penicillin
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Cephalosporins"
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A CAP TIP
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Name antibiotics that block peptidoglycan synthesis
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"Bacitracin
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Cycloserine"
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Vanco Blocks Cynthesis
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Name antibiotics that block protein synthesis at 50S ribosomal unit
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"Chloramphenicol
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Streptogramins (quinupristin
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dalfopristin)
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Linezolid"
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C CELLS
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Name antibiotics that block protein synthesis at 30S ribosomal unit
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"Aminoglycosides
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Tetracyclines"
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TA ta!
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Name antibiotics that block nucleotide synthesis
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"Sulfonamides
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Trimethoprim"
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Try Stopping
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Name antibiotics that block DNA topoisomerase
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Quinolones
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Name antibiotic that blocks mRNA synthesis
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Rifampin
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Name bactericidal antibiotics
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"Penicillin
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Metronidazole"
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Name drugs that disrupt bacterial/fungal cell membrane
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Polymyxins
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Name drugs that disrupt fungal cell membranes
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"Amphotericin B
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Flucoconazole/azoles"
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IV form?"
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"Penicillin V
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Penicillin G"
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Mechanism of penicillin
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"- Binds penicillin binding proteins
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- Activates autolytic enzymes"
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"This antibiotic is bactericidal for gram positive cocci
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gram positive rods
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Toxicity of penicillin
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"Hypersensitivity reactions
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Hemolytic anemia"
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"Methicillin
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nafcillin
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Penicillinase resistant or not?"
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"Same as penicillin
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Penicillinase resistant because of bulkier R groups"
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"Methcillin
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nafcillin and dicloxacillin are clinically used for treatment of what bug?"
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Methicillin toxicity
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Interstitial nephritis
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"Methcillin
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nafcillin
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"Ampicillin
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Amoxicillin- mechanism of action
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Spectrum narrow or wide?"
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"SAME AS PENICILLIN
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Penicillinase sensitive"
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"Ampicillin
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amoxicillin can be combined with _ to enhance spectrum"
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Which has greater oral bioavailibility - amoxicillin or ampicillin
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AmOxicillin has greater Oral bioavailibility
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Name rods"
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"HELPS kill enterococci - H influenzae
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Ampicillin
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amoxicillin"
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Toxicity for ampicillin and amoxicillin
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"Hypersensitivity reactions
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"Mechanism for carbenicillin
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pipercillin
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Spectrum?"
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"Same as penicillin
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"Name penicillins used for treatment of Pseudomonas
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and gram negative rods
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Can it be used with clavulinic acid"
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"Carbencillin
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"Toxicity for carbencillin
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piperacillin
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"Beta lactam drugs that inhibit cell wall synthesis but are less susceptible to penicillinases
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bactericidal"
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"Which cephalosporins target gram positive cocci + Proteus
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E. coli
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"Which cephalosporins target gram positive cocci + H. flu
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Enterobacter
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"Which cephalosporins target serious gram negative infections resitant to other beta lactams
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meningitis (most penetrate BBB) - give examples"
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3d generation cephalosporin used for treatment of Pseudomonas
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Ceftazidime
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3d generation cephalosporin used for treatment of gonorrhea
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Ceftriaxone
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Which cephalosporins have increased activity agains Psedudomonas and gram positive organisms
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4th generation
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Is there cross hypersensitivity between cephalosporins and penicillin
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"Yes
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Toxicity for cephalosporins
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"Hypersensitivity reactions
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"A monobactam resistant to beta lactamases. Inhibits cell wall synthesis (binds to PBP3)
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synergistic with aminoglycosides
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"This antibiotic is used for Gram negative rods (Klebsiella
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Pseudomonas
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Is there any toxicity associated with AZTREONAM
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"Usually nontoxic
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Broad spectrum beta lactamase resistant carbapenem
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Imipenem
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WHY?"
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"CILASTATIN
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"Drug of choice for Enterobacter
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also active against gram positive cocci
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Toxicity associated with Imipenem/cilastatin
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"GI distress
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Inhibits cell wall mucopeptide formation by binding D ala D ala portion of cell wall precursors. Resistance occurs with amino acid change of D ala D ala to D ala D lac
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VANCOMYCIN
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"This antibiotic is used for serious gram positive multi drug resistant organisms
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including S aureus
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"Diffuse flushing (""red man syndrome"") associated with vancomycin can be largely prevented by?"
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Pretreatment with antihistamines and slow infusion rate
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Toxicity for Vancomycin
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"Nephrotoxicity
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"Gentamicin
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neomycin
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"Bactericidal
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inhibit formation of initiation complex and cause misreading of mRNA. Require O2 for uptake
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Which aminoglycoside is used for bowel surgery
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Neomycin
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Aminoglycosides are ______ with beta lactams
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Synergistic
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Aminoglycosides are clinically used for treatment of _______
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Severe gram negative rod infections
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Toxicity of aminoglycosides
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"Nephrotoxicity (especially with cephalosporins)
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"Doxycycline
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demeclocycline
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"Bacteriostatic
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bind to 30S and prevent attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA
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Which tetracycline is fecally eliminated and can be used in patients with renal failure
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Doxycycline
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Why?"
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"Milk
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Clinical use of tetracyclines
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"Vibrio cholerae
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Toxicity of tetracyclines
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"GI distress
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"Erythromycin
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azithromycin
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"Inhibit protein synthesis by blocking translocation - bind to 23S rRNA of 50S ribosomall subunit
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bacteriostatic"
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Clinical use macrolides
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"URI
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gram positive cocci (streptococcal infections in patients allergic to penicillin)
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Mycoplasma
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Toxicity macrolids
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"GI discomfort
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Patient on antibiotic therapy develops acute cholestatic hepatitis - which clas of drug?
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Macrolides
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Most common cause of non compliance with macrolides
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GI discomfort
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"Inhibits 50S peptidyltransferase
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bacteriostatic"
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"This drug is used for treatment of meningitis (H flu
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N meningitidis
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Toxicities with chloramphenicol
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"Anemia (dose dependent)
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Which drug causes gray baby syndrome and why
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Chloramphenicol - premature infants because they lack liver UDP-glucuronyl transferase)
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"Blocks peptide bond formation at 50S ribosomal subunit
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bacteriostatic"
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"Which antibiotic is used to treat anaerobic infections (Bacteroides fragilis
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Clostridium perfringens)"
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Toxicity associated with clindamycin
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"Pseudomembranous colitis (C. difficile overgrowth)
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"PABA antimetabolites inhibit dehydropteorate synthase
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bacteriostatic"
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Which sulfonamides are used for treatment of simple UTI
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Triple sulfas or SMX
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Clinical use of sulfonamides
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"Gram positive
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Toxicity with sulfonamides
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"Hypersensitivity reactions
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Antibiotic inhibits dihydropteorate synthase
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Sulfonamides
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Antibiotic inhibits dihydrofolate reductase
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"Trimethoprim
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"Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductse
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bacteriostatic"
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This drug is used in combination with sulfonamides causing sequential block of folate synthesis
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Trimethoprim
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"This drug is used for recurrent UTI's
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Shigella
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Toxicity of trimethoprim
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"Megaloblastic anemia
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Toxicity connected with trimethoprim can be alleviated by _
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Supplemental folinic acid
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"Ciprofloxacin
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norfloxacin
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"Antibiotics inhibit DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II)
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bactericidal"
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"Used clinically for treatment of gram negative rods of urinary and GI tracts (including Pseudomonas)
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Neisseria
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Are fluoroquinolones safe in pregnant women
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Contraindicated in pregnant women and in children because animal studies show damage to cartilage.
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Fluoroquinolones toxicity
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"Tendonitis and tendon rupture in adults
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"Forms toxic metabolites in bacterial cells
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bactericidal"
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"Antiprotozoal
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Giardia
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"This drug is used with bismuth and amoxicillin (or tetracycline) for ""triple therapy"" against H pylori"
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Metronidazole
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Anaerobic infections below diaphragm?"
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"Above - clindamycin
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Toxicity of metronidazole
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"Disulfiram like reaction with alcohol
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"Bind to cell membranes of bacteria and disrupt their osmotic properties
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cationic
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Toxicity for polymyxins
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"Neurotoxicity
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Name anti TB drugs
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"RESPIre
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2nd line therapy for TB
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Cycloserine
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All anti TB drugs have same toxicity - name it
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liver toxicity
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Anti TB drug - decreases synthesis of mycolic acids
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Isoniazid
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The only agent used as solo prophylaxis against TB
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Isoniazid
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Toxicity for INH (Isoniazid)
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"Hemolysis if G6PD defficient
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______ can prevent neurotoxicity caused by isoniazid
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Pyridoxine (B6)
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Which anti TB drug has different half lifes in fast vs slow acetylators
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Isoniazid
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Anti TB drug - inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase
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Rifampin
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Delays resistance to dapsone when used for leprosy
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Rifampin
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Used for meningococcal prophylaxis and chemoprophylaxis in contacts of children with H influenzae type B
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Rifampin
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Rifampin toxicity
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Minor hepatoxicity and drug interactions (increases P450)
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Rifampin 4 R's
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"RNA polymerase inhibitos
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Beta lactamase cleavage of beta lactam drug is a resistance mechanism against which drugs
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Penicillins and cephalosporins
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"Modification via acetylation
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adenylation
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"Terminal D ala component of cell wall replaced with D lac
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decreases affinity - resistance mechanism against which drug"
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Modification via acetylation - resistance mechanism against which drug
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Chloramphenicol
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Decreased uptake or increased transport out of cell is resistance mechanism against which drugs
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Tetracyclines
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"Altered enzyme (bacterial dihdropteorate synthetase)
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decreased uptake or increased PABA synthesis is resistance against which drugs"
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Alternative?"
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"Rifampin
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Prophylaxis of gonorrhea
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Ceftriaxone
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Prophylaxis of syphillis
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Benzathine penicillin G
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Prophylaxis in patients with history of recurrent UTI
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TMP-SMX
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Alternative"
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"TMP-SMX
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"Binds ergosterol (unique to fungi)
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forms membrane pores that allow leakage of electrolytes and disrupt homeostasis"
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"Used for wide spectrum of systemic mycoses (Cryptococcus
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Blastomyces
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Toxicity of Amphotericin B
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"NEPHROTOXICITY
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"Binds to ergosterol
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disrupting fungal membranes
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Inhibit fungal steroid (ergosterol) synthesis
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AZOLES
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Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS patients and candidal infections of all types (i.e yeast infections)
|
FLuconazole
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"Drug of choice for Blastomyces
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Coccidioides
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Toxicity of azoles
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"Hormone synthesis inhibition (gynecomastia)
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Fever
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chills"
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"Inhibits DNA synthesis by conversion to fluorouracil which competes with uracil
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used in systemic fungal infections (Candida
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"Antifungal medication
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inhibits cell wall synthesis
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"Antifungal
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inhibits fungal enzyme squalene epoxidase
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"Anti fungal
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interferes with microtubule function
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Toxicity Griseofulvin
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"Teratogenic
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Antiviral drug used for prophylaxis for influenza A and treatment of Parkinsons
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Amantadine
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Derivative of Amantadine with fewer CNS side effects
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Rimantidine
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"Anti viral medication
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blocks biral penetration/uncoating
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Toxicity of amantadine
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"Ataxia + dizziness+ slurred speech
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"Two antiviral medications that inhibits influenza neuraminidase
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both used for influenza A and B"
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"Antiviral - inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides by competitively inhibiting IMP dehydrogenase
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used for treatment of RSV and chronic hep C"
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Toxicity for Ribavirin
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"Severe teratogen
|
|
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THis antiviral medication preferentially inhibits viral DNA polymerase when phosphorylated by viral thymidine kinase
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Acyclovir
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"Antiviral medication used for treatment of VZV
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HSV
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Toxicity for acyclovir
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"Delirium
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"Antiviral drug - works by phosphorylation viral kinase
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preferentially inhibits CMV DNA polymerase
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Which drug is more toxic - acyclovir or ganciclovir to host enzymes
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Ganciclovir
|
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Ganciclovir toxicity
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"Leukopenia
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Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor that binds to the pyrophosphate binding site of the enzyme. Does not require activation by viral kinase
|
FOSCARNET = pyroFOSphate analog
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Antiviral drug used for treatment of CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients when ganciclovir fails
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FOSCARNET
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"Patient is on foscarnet for CMV retinitis
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which toxicity could be suspected?"
|
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|
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"Saquinavir
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ritonavir
|
|
|
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"HIV patient is taking anti HIV drugs
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develops GI intolerance - nausea
|
|
|
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"Zidovudine (AZT)
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didanosine
|
|
|
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Name non-nucleosides reverse transcriptase inhibitors
|
"Nevirapine
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|
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Toxicity associated with reverse transcriptase inhibitors
|
"Bone marrow suppression (neutropenia
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|
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|
Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) generally entails combination of?
|
Protease inhibitors + reverse transcriptase inhibitors
|
|
|
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Which antiretroviral drug is used during pregnancy to reduce risk of fetal transmission
|
AZT
|
|
|
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Patient on anti HIV therapy develops megaloblastic anemia - which drug most likely caused it
|
AZT
|
|
|
|
When is HAART initiated?
|
When patients have low CD4 counts (<500 cell/mm3) or high viral load
|
|
|
|
"Glycoproteins from human leukocytes that block various stages of viral RNA and DNA synthesis
|
used for treatment of chronic hep B and C
|
|
|
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Name drug and what toxicity associated with it"
|
"Interferons
|
|
|
|
Antiparasitic drug from onchocerciasis
|
Ivermectin (rIVER blindness treated with IVERmectin)
|
|
|
|
"Antiparasitic drug used to treat nematode/roundworm (pinworm
|
whipworm) infections"
|
|
|
|
"Antiparasitic drugs used to treat gian roundowrm (ascaris)
|
hookworm (Necator/Ancylostoma) and pinworm (Enterobius)"
|
|
|
|
"Antiparasitic used to treat trematode/fluke (shistosomes
|
Paragonimus
|
|
|
|
Niclosamide is used to treat?
|
Cestode/tapeworm infections except cysticercosis
|
|
|
|
Drug of choice for leishmaniasis
|
Pentavalent antimony
|
|
|
|
Name anti malaria drugs
|
"Chloroquine
|
|
|
|
"Name drug used for treatment of latent hypnozoite (liver) forms of malaria (Plasmodium vivax
|
P.ovale)"
|
|
|
|
"Drug of choice agains giardiasis
|
amebic dysentery
|
|
|
|
"Drug of choice for Chagas disease
|
American trypanosomiasis (trypanosoma cruzi)"
|
|
|
|
Drug of choice for African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)
|
Suramin
|
|
|
|
Cholinomimetic used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention - activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle
|
BETHANECHOL
|
|
|
|
"Direct agonist
|
cholinomimetic used for treatment of glaucoma
|
|
|
|
"Anticholinesterase
|
used in treatment of postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention
|
|
|
|
"Anticholinesterase used in treatment of myasthenia gravis - increases endogenous Ach
|
increases strength"
|
|
|
|
"This anticholinesterase is used for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting)
|
increases endogenous Ach"
|
|
|
|
"Anticholinesterase
|
used in treatment of glaucoma (crosses BBB to CNS) and atropine overdose
|
|
|
|
"Anticholinergic
|
used for treatment of glaucoma
|
|
|
|
Name symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
|
"DUMBBELSS
|
|
|
|
Salivation (also abdominal cramping)"
|
|
|
|
|
Name substances that can lead to cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
|
Parathion and other organophosphates
|
|
|
|
Antidote used in treatment of organophosphate poisoning
|
Atropine (muscarinic antagonist) plus pralidoxime (chemical antagonist used to regenerate active cholinesterase)
|
|
|
|
What is the equation for Therapeutic Index?
|
"TI = LD50 / ED 50
|
|
|
|
Safter drugs have higher TI values"
|
TILE
|
|
|
|
___________ Ach receptors are ligand-gated Na/K channels.
|
Nicotinic
|
|
|
|
_____________Ach receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that act through 2nd messengers.
|
Muscarinic
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor increases vascular smooth muscle contraction.
|
alpha-1
|
|
|
|
"This G-protein linked receptor decreases sympathetic outflow
|
and decreases insulin release"
|
|
|
|
"This G-protein linked receptor increases heart rate
|
contractility
|
|
|
|
"This G-protein linked receptor causes vasodilation
|
bronchodilation
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor has major CNS and enteric nervous system effects
|
M1
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor decreases heart rate and contractility
|
M2
|
|
|
|
"This G-protein linked receptor increases exocrine gland secretions
|
increases gut peristalisis and increases bladder contraction"
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle
|
D1
|
|
|
|
"This G-protein linked receptor modulates transmitter release
|
especially in the brain"
|
|
|
|
" This G-protein linked receptor increases nasal and bronchial mucus production
|
contraction of bronchioloes
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor increases gastric acid secretion
|
H2
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor increases vascular smooth muscle contraction.
|
V1
|
|
|
|
This G-protein linked receptor increases water permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney
|
V2
|
|
|
|
What is the mnemonic to remember the G-protein class for all of the G-protein linked receptors.?
|
"""Qiss (kiss) and qiq (kick) till you're siq (sick) of sqs (sex)""
|
|
|
|
alpha-1 (q)
|
alpha-2 (i)
|
|
|
|
What direct acting cholinergic agonist is used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention.
|
Bethanechol
|
|
|
|
"This direct acting cholinergic agonist activates bowel and bladder smoth muscle
|
and is resistant to AChE"
|
|
|
|
"The direc tacting cholinergic agonist is used for gluacoma
|
pupillary contraction
|
|
|
|
"This direct acting cholinergic agonist is a potent stimulator of sweat
|
tears
|
|
|
|
"This direct acting cholinergic agonist contracts the ciliary muscle of the eye (open angle)
|
pupillary sphincter (narrow angle); and is resistant to AChE"
|
|
|
|
This direct acting cholinergic agonist is used as a challenge test of the diagnosis of asthma.
|
Methacholine
|
|
|
|
This direct acting cholinergic agonist stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled.
|
Methacholine
|
|
|
|
"This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention
|
myasthenia gravis
|
|
|
|
This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) increases endogenous Ach; and has no CNS penetration
|
Neostigmine
|
|
|
|
This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to treat myasthenia gravis (long acting); and does not penetrate the CNS
|
"Pyridostigmine
|
|
|
|
Increase in endogenous Ach; increase strength"
|
|
|
|
|
This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to diagnose myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting)
|
Edrophonium
|
|
|
|
This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to treat glaucoma (crosses blood-brain barrier --> CNS) and atropine overdose
|
Physostigmine
|
|
|
|
This indirect acting (anticholinesterase) is used to treat glaucoma
|
Echothiophate
|
|
|
|
What are the symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning? (9)
|
"Diarrhea
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning?
|
Atropine plus pralidoxime
|
|
|
|
What muscarinic antagonist is used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease?
|
Benzotropine
|
|
|
|
What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat motion sickness?
|
Scopolamine
|
|
|
|
What muscarinic antagonist is used to treat asthma and COPD?
|
Ipratropium
|
|
|
|
What muscarinic antagonists (3) are used to reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms?
|
"Methscopolamine
|
|
|
|
What muscarinic antagonists (2) are used to treat peptic ulcers?
|
"Pirenzepine
|
|
|
|
This glaucoma drug is an alpha agonis that decreases aqueous humor synthesis due to vasoconstriction. It causes mydriasis and stinging. DO NOT use in closed-angle glaucoma.
|
Epinephrine
|
|
|
|
This glaucoma drug is an alpha agonist that decreases aqueous humor synthesis. It causes no pupillary or vision changes
|
Brimonidine
|
|
|
|
These glaucoma drugs (3) are beta blockers that decrease aqueous humor secretion. They cause no pupillary or vision changes.
|
"Timolol
|
|
|
|
This glaucoma drug is a diuretic that decreases aqueous humor secretion due to decreased bicarb (via inhibition of carbonic anhydrase). It causes no pupillary or vision changes.
|
Acetazolamide
|
|
|
|
These glaucoma drugs (4) are cholinomimetics that increase the outflow of aqueous humor; contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork. The cause miosis and cyclospasm.
|
"Pilocarpine
|
|
|
|
This glaucoma drug is a prostaglandin that increases the outflow of aqueous humor. It also darkens the color of the iris (browning).
|
Latanoprost (PGF2alpha)
|
|
|
|
What are the side effects of atropine?
|
"Increase pupil dilation
|
|
|
|
Increased body temperature
|
rapid pulse
|
|
|
|
What can atropine cause in th elderly? Men with BPH? Infants?
|
"Elderly - acute narrow-closure glaucoma
|
|
|
|
Infants - hyperthermia"
|
|
|
|
|
What is hexamethonium?
|
"Hexamethonium is a nicotinic antagonist that functions as a ganglionic blocker. It is used in experimental models to PREVENT VAGAL RESPONSES to changes in blood pressure - eg
|
|
|
|
At toxic doses
|
it can cause severe orthostatic hypotension
|
|
|
|
"This drug is an alpha-1
|
alpha-2
|
|
|
|
It is used for anaphylaxis
|
glaucoma (open angle)
|
|
|
|
"This drug is an alpha-1
|
alpha-2 > beta-1 agonist. It is used to treat hypotension
|
|
|
|
This drug is a non-selective beta agonist
|
Isoproterenol
|
|
|
|
"This drug is a sympathomimetic: D1=D2 > beta > alpha. It has inotropic and chronotropic properties
|
and it is used in shock and heart failure. It INCREASES renal perfusion."
|
|
|
|
"This drug is a sympathomimetic: B1>B2. It as inotropic
|
but no chronotropic properties. It is used to treat shock
|
|
|
|
"This drug is a sympathomimetic: alpha-1 > alpha-2. It causes pupillary dilation
|
vasoconstriction
|
|
|
|
These drugs (2) are sympathomimetics: B2 > B1
|
"Albuterol for acute asthma
|
|
|
|
Terbutaline reduces premature uterine contractions"
|
|
|
|
|
This drug is a selective beta-2 agonist. It is used to reduce premature uterine contractions.
|
Ritodrine
|
|
|
|
"These drugs (2) are sympathoplegics that are centraly acting alpha-2 agonists
|
and they result in decreased central adrenergic outflow. They are used to treat hypertension
|
|
|
|
What are the 4 selective beta-2 agonists?
|
"Metaproterenol
|
|
|
|
The non-selective alpha blocker is irreversible and is given to patients before the removal of pheochromocytoma before removing the tumor. It can cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia.
|
Phenoxybenzamine
|
|
|
|
This non-selective alpha blocker is reversible and is given to patients w/ pheochromocytoma
|
Phentolamine
|
|
|
|
"Name 3 alpha-1 selective blockers used to treat hypertension and urinary retention to do BPH. The first dose can cause orthostatic hypotension
|
dizziness
|
|
|
|
"This selective alpha-2 blocker is used to treat depression. It causes sedation
|
increased serum cholesterol
|
|
|
|
What do beta blockers do it cardiac output and renin secretion?
|
"Decrease cardiac output
|
|
|
|
Decrease renin secretion"
|
|
|
|
|
What do beta blockers do in angina pectoris?
|
"Decrease heart rate and contractility
|
|
|
|
"
|
|
|
|
|
What do beta blockers do for MI?
|
Beta blockers DECREASE mortality in MI
|
|
|
|
"What do beta blockers do for SVT (propanolol
|
esmolol)?"
|
|
|
|
What do beta blockers do for CHF?
|
Beta blockers slow progression of chronic heart failure
|
|
|
|
What do beta blockers do for glaucoma?
|
Beta blockers decrease secretion of aqueous humor
|
|
|
|
What are some of the side effects of beta blockers?
|
"Impotence
|
|
|
|
Which 5 beta-blockers are nonselective?
|
"Proranolol
|
|
|
|
Labetalol"
|
|
|
|
|
Which 5 beta-blockers are beta-1 selective?
|
"Acebutolol
|
|
|
|
Metoprolol"
|
A BEAM of beta-1 blockers
|
|
|
|
What are the 2 nonselective alpha and beta antagonists?
|
"carvedilol
|
|
|
|
labetalol"
|
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity?
|
N-acetylcysteine
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for salicylate toxicity?
|
"NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine)
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for amphetamine toxicity?
|
NH4Cl (acidify urine)
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for anticholinesterase/ organophosphate toxicity?
|
"Atropine
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for antimuscarinic/ anticholinergic agents?
|
Physostigmine salicylate
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote beta-blockers?
|
glucagon
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for digitalis toxicity?
|
"Stop dig
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for iron toxicity?
|
Deferoxamine
|
|
|
|
What is the antidote for lead toxicity?
|
"CaEDTA
|
|
|
|
"What is the antidote for arsenic
|
mercury
|
|
|
|
test
|
response
|
|
|
|
Lexical test
|
A report of how a word is actually used. For example, about 80% of people in a recent survey said that the word man means male while the other 20% said that it meant human..
|
|
|
|
What does Deductive means?
|
If premises are true it is impossible for the conclusion to be false
|
|
|
|
Definition by Genus and Difference
|
The GENUS states a general class to which the object belongs and the DIFFERENCE how the object differs from others in the group. For example, a human is a rational animal (Aristotle). Humans are animals (genus) who are (different from other animals by being) rational.
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? Arugments from authority
|
Inductive
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? Since
|
premises
|
|
|
|
Aruguement or Noinferential? Reports
|
Noinferential
|
|
|
|
Improper grammar
|
Definitions which do not use proper grammar are for that reason to be rejected. For example, logic is forms
|
|
|
|
Synonymous definition
|
Defining by stating another word which has the same extension. WARNING: two different words rarely have exactly the same extension so such a definition may also be vague. For example, precise means exact.
|
|
|
|
Stipulative definition
|
Inventing a word or a new use for an old word and stating how it will be used. For example, a niner is a period of 9 days consisting of two weekends and the 5-day work week between them. Most vacations are niners.
|
|
|
|
Precising
|
A definition whose function is to take a general concept and make it more precise. For example, a circle is a round boundary (rather than what is inside of it).
|
|
|
|
Ambiguous definition
|
There is more than one obvious interpretation of what is meant. A definition whose extension includes too much. For example, a word is anything defined in a dictionary.
|
|
|
|
Etymological definition
|
Defining by tracing the origin of a word. For example, logic comes from the Greek word logos one of whose meanings is principle.
|
|
|
|
Failure to state the essential meaning
|
A definition which might enable you to pick out what a word designates but by using properties which in no way enable you to understand anything else about the object. For example, a pencil is a long round yellow object with a rubber knob at one end. What is said here is true but gives no clue as to what a pencil is for.
|
|
|
|
Definition by subclass
|
Defining by stating subclasses (rather than individuals) that a word designates. For example, media are films, television programs, and tapes.
|
|
|
|
Enumerative definition
|
Listing all, or a representative sample of, the items defined by a word. For example, religions are systems of thought and practice such as Judaism, Christianity, Islam, and Hinduism
|
|
|
|
Persuasive definition
|
Using emotionally charged words in a definition. This is usually done to try to persuade the reader to take a particular attitude towards the things denoted by the word being defined. For example, a liberal is an adherent to a failed political policy.
|
|
|
|
Precising definition
|
A definition whose function is to take a general concept and make it more precise. For example, a circle is a round boundary (rather than what is inside of it).
|
|
|
|
Operational definition
|
A definition which specifies directions for finding a thing or for measuring it. For example, red is the color of the top stripe on the U.S. flag.
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? hypothetical syllogisms
|
Deductive
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? disjunctive syllogisms
|
Deductive
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? Predictions
|
Iductive
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? may be inferred from
|
Premises
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? Arguments based on signs
|
Inductive
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? casual inferences
|
inductive
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? Seeing that
|
Premise
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? hence
|
Conclusion
|
|
|
|
Arugument or Noinferential? Warnings
|
Noinferential
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? it follows that
|
Conclusion
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? arguement from analogy
|
Inductive
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? implies that
|
Conclusion
|
|
|
|
Two different kinds of arguements
|
Inductive and Deductive
|
|
|
|
Quanitifiers
|
all,no and some because they specify how much of subject is included in or excluded from the predicate class.
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? Consquently
|
Conclusion
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? arguments based on mathematics
|
Deductive
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? Arguments from Definition
|
Deductive
|
|
|
|
What does inductive means?
|
If Premises are true it is improbale for the conclusion to be false
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? categorical syllogism
|
Deductive
|
|
|
|
Deductive or Inductive? inductive generalization
|
inductive
|
|
|
|
Conclusion or Premises Indicator? as a result
|
Conclusion
|
|
|
|
Aruguement or Noinferential? Advice
|
Noinferential
|
|
|
|
one
|
two
|
|
|
|
shoe
|
horn
|
|
|
|
corn
|
ball
|
|
|
|
tall
|
fish
|
|
|
|
dish
|
round
|
|
|
|
one
|
with
|
hint
|
|
|
two
|
with
|
mit
|
|
|
three
|
with
|
corn
|
|
|
four
|
with
|
horn
|
|
|
five
|
with
|
baseball
|
|
|
one
|
two
|
|
|
|
fe
|
fe
|
|
|
|
testing
|
test
|
|
|
|
test
|
test
|
|
|
|
test
|
test
|
|
|
|
test
|
test
|
|
|
|
2
|
two
|
222
|
|
|
3
|
three
|
333
|
|
|
Question without side 3
|
Answer without side 3
|
|
|
|
2
|
two
|
222
|
|
|
3
|
three
|
333
|
|
|
Question without side 3
|
Answer without side 3
|
|
