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113 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What happens to CO, BP and GFR in pregnancy
CO: increase

BP: decrease then normalizes

GFR: increase
TX for the following:

Trypanosoma:
Leishmania:
Entamoeba:
Toxoplasma:
Trypanosoma: Nifurtimox
Leishmania: sodium stiboglugonate
Entamoeba: Met
Toxoplasma: Sulfdiazine Pyrimethamine
what nerve is responsible for erection
pelvic

remember this is parasympathetic

Pelivic, Parasymp, Point
what nerve is responsible for emission?

what about ejac?
emission: hypogastric

ejac: pudendal

both are sympathetic
what structure in the seminiferous tubule secretes androgen binding protein, anti-mullerian hormone, and inhibin?

what hormone activates these
Sertoli cell

makes the blood testis barrier

support sperm synthesis

FSH
what cell in men secretes testosterone

what hormone activates these cells
leydig

LH
what accumulates if you have a failure of Meiosis I? II?
I: primary spermatocytes

II: secondary spermatocytes
MOA of flutamide?

Use?
competitive inhibitor of androgens at the testosterone receptor

prostate cancer
T/F with BPH you have hypertrophy of the prostate
FALSE

Hyperplasia
alpha 1 antagonist used to treat BPH?
Tamsulosin

hits the alpha 1AD receptor specific to prostate
what BPH drugs work fastest? Which will lower your PSA
fastest: alpha blockers

lower PSA: 5alpha reductase inhibitors
what will happen with PSA in prostate cancer
decreased fraction of free PSA
What consideration must you make when evaluating prostatitis
<35 --> Gonorrhea/ Chlamydia cause

>35-->UTI bugs
malignant, painless testicular enlargement with fried egg appearance
Seminoma
Schiller Duval bodies
Yolk Sac

young kids (3 y)
Reinke crystals, androgen producing, gynecomatia in men, precocious puberty in boys...
Leydig cell tumor
Old man with tumor on the ball
testicular lymphoma
what testicular tumor fits the following

composed of cytotrophoblasts and synctiotrophoblasts:

histologic appearance similar to kiolocytes:
histologically may have alveolar or tubular appearance sometimes with papillary convolutions:
composed of cytotrophoblasts and synctiotrophoblasts: choriocarcinoma

histologic appearance similar to kiolocytes: seminoma

histologically may have alveolar or tubular appearance sometimes with papillary convolutions: Embryonal
55 yo man on tx for BPH has increased testosterone and decreased DHT as well as gynecomastia and edema...medication?
Finasteride
infertile pt with bag of worms
varicocele

vericose vein of the balls
what is the MOA of clomiphene

use?
partial agonist at pituitary estrogen receptor in the hypothalamus

ends up preventing normal feedback inhibition

leads to increased release of LH and FSH which stimulates ovulation

used to tx infertility and PCOS
what is the male homologue of the following female structure:

Vestibular bulbs:
labia minora:
bartholin glands:
Vestibular bulbs: corpus spongiosum
labia minora: ventral shaft of penis
bartholin glands: bulbourethral
Furosemide and thiazides can cause what problem
gout
corticosteroids and heparin can cause what
Osteoprosis
what drugs are assoc with SJS
Seizure
Sulfa
-cillin drugs
Expired tetracyclines can lead to what problem
Fanconi syndrome

peeing out stuff you shouldn't (glucose, phos, etc)

Heavy metals and Wilson's can do this too
Methicillin, NSAIDs, and furosemide can cause what
interstitial nephritis
nephrogenic Diabetes insipidus can be caused by what
Lithium (demeclocycline too)
what anti-depressant lowers the seizure threshold
Buproprion

smoking cessation
what TB drug has an increased risk of seizure?
Isoniazid
what drugs tend to cause tardive dyskinesia
Typical antipsychotics
pt with tinnitus, dizziness, headaches, and GI distress. What drug caused this
Quinine

Quinadine
most common herediatry bleeding disorder
vWillebrand disease
HLA b27 associations
PAIR

Psoriasis
Ankylosing sponylitis
IBD (ulcerative colitis)
Reiters
HLA DR3/4
DM 1
RA
SLE
holosystolic murmur
VSD, tricuspid regurg, mitral rgurg
most common cause of secondary HTN
Renal dz

chronic kidney dz or renal a. stenosis
young female with HTN
OCPs
infection secondary to blood transfusion
hepatitis C
what is eisenmenger's syndrome
late cyanotic shunt (uncorrected L->R becomes R->L)
malignancy associated with noninfectious fever
Hodgkins
most common malignant skin tumor
Basal Cell
Most common causes of MR
FAS
Downs
F X
mets to bone
PT barnum loves kids

Prostate
thyroid
Testes
Breast
Lung
Kidney
mets to brain
Lung
Breast
Skin
kidney
GI
most common cause of mitral valve stenosis
Rheumatic heart dz
mixed UMN/LMN dz
ALS
most common cause of myocarditis?
Coxsackie B

or echovirus
most common neoplasm in kids?
1. ALL
2. cerebellar astrocytoma
most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in kids? adults?
kid: MC

Adults: Membranous
which ER is associated with synthesis of secretory proteins, and thus are found in mucus secreting goblet cells and antibody secreting cells?

Which is used for steroid synth and detoxification of drugs/poison
secretory: Rough

Detox: Smooth (seen in liver and adrenal cortex)
what three amino acids are used in the golgi
SAT

serine
asparagine
threonine
coarse facial features, clouded corneas, restricted joint movement due to failure of addition of mannose-6-phosphate
I-cell dz

will see Inclusion bodies
COPI vs COPII with respect to the Golgi
COPI: Golgi --> ER (retrograde)

COPII: RER-->cis-Golgi (anteriograde)
what protein is involved in transporting an endocytosed vesicle from the plasma membrane to the endosome?
Clathrin
what molecule targets proteins in the ER for lysosomes? What does failure of this process lead to?
Mannose-6-phosphate

failure of addition leads to I cell dz
immotile cilia due to a dynein arm defect. Results in male and female infertility, bronchiectasis, and reucrrent sinusitis. What does this pt have? what else might you see
Kartagener's syndrome (primary cilliary diskinesia)

Situs inversus

the kindergarten cop hit you so hard your organs are reversed
microtubule polymerization defect resulting in decreased phagocytosis. Pt will have pyogenic infections, partial albinism, and peripheral neuropathy
Chediak Higashi syndrome
what cell membrane lipid is converted to arachidonic acid by phospholipase A2
Phosphatidylinostitol
what enzyme do corticosteroids inhibit that prevents the formation of arachidonic acid?
Phospholipase A2
MOA of Zileuton
inhibits lipoxygenase from making leukotrienes
MOA of Zafrilukast and montelukast
inhibit leukotrienes from causing bronchoconstriction
COX will lead to the formation of endoperoxides which can then lead to 3 things, one of them is the following. What does it do:

Prostacyclin (PGI2)
decrease platelet aggregation

vasodilation

decrease uterine tone
COX will lead to the formation of endoperoxides which can then lead to 3 things, one of them is the following. What does it do:

Prostaglandins (PGE2)
decrease vascular tone
increase pain
Increase uterine tone
increase temp
COX will lead to the formation of endoperoxides which can then lead to 3 things, one of them is the following. What does it do:

Thromboxane (TXA2)
increase platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction
arachadonic acid is made into what from COX and LPO (immediate step after)
LPO: Hydroperoxides

COX: Endoperoxides
What hormones use cAMP
FLAT CHAMP

FSH
LH
ACTH
TSH
CRH
hCG
ADH
MSH
PTH
what uses cGMP as secondary signal
vasodilators

ANP, NO
what uses IP3 as secondary messanger
posterior pituitary stuff

GnRH, Oxytocin, ADH, TRH
IGF, FGF, and PDGF use what 2ndary messenger? what else uses this
intrinsic tyrosine kindase

Insulin
what type of collagen are the following--

tendon
skin:
cartilage:
uterus:
nucleus pulposis:
bone:
granulation tissue:
basement membrane:
fetal tissue:
tendon: 1
skin: 1/3
cartilage:2
uterus: 3
nucleus pulposis: 2
bone: 1
granulation tissue:3
basement membrane: 4
fetal tissue: 3
hydroxylation of specific proline and lysine residues requires what in order to synthesize collagen
Vitamin C
what inhibits collagen synthesis
glucocorticoids

this is why you can use them to tx keloids
what type of collagen is affected in Ehlers-Danlos
Type III
male with hearing problem and visual disturbances is peeing blood. collagen effected?
Type IV

Alports
what normally inhibits elastase
alpha-1-antitrypsin
what is a cysteine protease the cleaves after aspartic residues (and executes apoptosis)
Caspase
which of the following is associ w/ extrinsic or intrinsic apoptosis

Mitochondrial:
Ligand:
utilizes caspase:
utilizes bcl and bax:
Mitochondrial: Intrinsic
Ligand: Extrinsic
utilizes caspase: Extrinsic
utilizes bcl and bax: Intrinsic
post surgical why do you keep bandages on for 24 hours
to let epithelialization occur (heal the skin)
What are 2 important supplements for wound healing
Zinc

Vitamin C
compare trasudate vs exudate in the following manners--

Protein:

Due to hydrostatic pressure

Due to lymph obstruction
Protein:
Transudate: low protein
Exudate: high protein

Due to hydrostatic pressure: Transudate

Due to lymph obstruction: Exudate
What are the 3 major things you should think of when you see apple green birefringence?
Restrictive cardiomyopathy
Alzheimers
Multiple Myeloma

all amyloid
Which arachidonic acid product causes the following effect

Increased bronchial tone:
decreased bronchial tone:
increased platelet agg:
decreased platelet agg:
increased uterine tone:
decreased uterine tone:
increased vascular tone:
decreased vascular tone:
Increased bronchial tone: leukotrienes
decreased bronchial tone: PGE2
increased platelet agg: thromboxane
decreased platelet agg: PGI
increased uterine tone: PGE2
decreased uterine tone: PGI
increased vascular tone: Thromboxane
decreased vascular tone: Cyclin/glandin
what is responsible for rolling, tight binding and diapedis
rolling: selectins
Tight bind: integrins:
diapedis: PECAM
GFAP is a marker for what
Glioblastoma
in the CNS, what cells fuse to form multinucleated giant cells in an HIV pt
Microglia
what neural cell looks like fried eggs on HE
oligodendroglia
what cells are destroyed in Guillain barre syndrome and NF2
schwann cells
what nervous system cell matches the following:

damaged in MS

macrophages of the CNS

Form multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected with HIV
damaged in MS:

macrophages of the CNS: microglia

Form multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected with HIV: Microglia
What type of sensory corpuscle does the following---

Position sense, static touch, adapts slow:

Position sense, dynamic fine touch, adapts quick:

vibration and pressure:

pain and temp:
Position sense, static touch, adapts slow: Merkel

Position sense, dynamic fine touch, adapts quick: Meissner's

vibration and pressure: Pacinian

pain and temp: Free nerve endings
muscle length monitoring:

muscle tension:
length: spindle

tension: golgi
what pathway do you target when treating for psychosis with drugs? (positive sx)
mesolimbic pathway
what 2 things are needed to make GABA
Glutamate and B6
what hypothalamic nuclei are responsible for the following:

Hunger:
Satiety:
Cooling/Parasympathetic:
Heating, sympathetic:
Circadian rhythm:
Hunger: Lateral area
Satiety: Ventromedial
Cooling/Parasympathetic: Anterior
Heating, sympathetic: Posterior (her hot posterior makes me wanna shoot my load)
Circadian rhythm: Suprachiasmatic
what are the motor nuclei of the thalamus
VA/VL
a cerebellar lesion will affect what side of the body
ipsilateral
which portion of the cerebellum is associated w/ voluntary movements of extremities?

balance?
voluntary move: Lateral

balance: medial
what happens with activation of the substantia nigra pars compacta
activates the direct pathway

which inhibits GPi

which then allows for movement (inhibit the inhibitory path)
what happens in the indirect pathway
inhibits GPe (which was inhibiting the GPi)

this leads to activation of the GPi which then inhibits movement

INDIRECT INHIBITS MOVEMENT
what effect does the subthalamic nucleus have on movement
inhibits it

(by activating GPi, which inhibits movement)
the lenticulostriate arteries (which come from the middle cerebral a.) supply what
the basal ganglia
pt has a stroke and then has sudden wild flailing of the left arm

what is this and where is the lesion
Hemiballismus

right subthalamic nucleus
motor and sensor loss to the legs...what artery
ant cerebral
motor and sensory loss to the face...what artery
middle cerebral a
vision...what artery
posterior cerebral a
a lesion where would cause the following:

can't write, calculate or distinguish L/R:

reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness:

Wernicke Koraskoff:
can't write, calculate or distinguish L/R: left parietal lobe

reduced levels of arousal and wakefulness: reticular activating system

Wernicke Koraskoff:: mammillary bodies
pt is hypovolemic. He is given an IV and then gets acute paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, and diplopia. What happened?
Central pontine myelinolysis

caused by rapid correction of hyponatremia
what supplies both wernikie and broacas area
middle cerebral
where is the lesion

agraphia and acalculia

eyes look away from side of lesion

Dysarthria

Intention tremor
agraphia and acalculia: left parietal

eyes look away from side of lesion: PPRF

Dysarthria: cerebellar vermis

Intention tremor: cerebellar hemisphere
child with hydrocephalus, what 2 tumors could it be? what distinguishes
Medulloblastoma: Homer wright rosettes

Ependymoma: Perivascular pseudorosettes
bitemporal hemianopia in a child...supratentorial
Craniopharyngioma

calcification is common
what primary brain tumor fits the following description:

polycythemia
a/w VHL
foamy cells high vascularity
Hemangioblastoma
what primary brain tumor fits the following description:

Pseudopalisading necrosis

(what else has this appearance)
Glioblastoma multiforme

(basal cell ca)