Coa Chapter 12 - Ophthalmic Patient Services And Education

Front 1

A Patient who has an upper blepharoplasty has been treated for?

Back 1

Dermatochalasis

Front 2

Ptosis surgery is done to repair which of the following

Back 2

Dropping upper lid

Front 3

The procedure for removing a growth from the eyelid is

Back 3

Excision

Front 4

The most common surgical treatment for a chalaza on is

Back 4

Incise and drain

Front 5

A patient wants to have an upper blepharoplasty to improve his looks. This type of surgery is termed

Back 5

Cosmetic

Front 6

The main purpose of a biopsy is to?

Back 6

Determine the expected outcome of surgery

Front 7

The surgical procedure where skin or other tissue is transplanted from one part of the body to another is a(n)?

Back 7

Graft

Front 8

The surgery to fix an in-turned eyelid is?

Back 8

Entropion repair

Front 9

The surgery to fix an out-turned eyelid is?

Back 9

Ectropion repair

Front 10

When repairing a lower lid laceration in the area of the punctuation, tissue alignment is especially critical because?

Back 10

The lacrimal drainage system is involved

Front 11

An infant with a blocked nasolacrumal duct might initially need which of the following procedures?

Back 11

Probe and irrigation

Front 12

A patient with dry eyes might have which of the following procedures?

Back 12

Punctal occlusion

Front 13

The grafting of corneal tissue from one human eye to another is a(n)?

Back 13

Keratoplasty

Front 14

Each of the following might be associated with a corneal transplant except?

Back 14

Follow-up radiation treatment

Front 15

Which of the following might need to be surgically removed because it is growing across the cornea?

Back 15

Pterygium

Front 16

Recurrent corneal erosion might be treated by?

Back 16

Corneal scraping

Front 17

Surgery that is performed in order to correct hyperopia, myopia, and/or astigmatism is classified as?

Back 17

Refractive surgery

Front 18

A popular technique for correcting refractive errors using laser technology is?

Back 18

LASIK (laser-associated in situ keratomileusis)

Front 19

Which refractive surgeries does NOT involve creating a corneal flap?

Back 19

PRK (photorefractive keratecomy)

Front 20

Which laser is most commonly used in refractive surgery?

Back 20

Excimer

Front 21

Anesthesia for laser refractive surgery is usually?

Back 21

Topical

Front 22

A person with esotropia night have what kind of surgery?

Back 22

Recession and resection

Front 23

The purpose of extraocular muscle (EMO) surgery as a child might include all of the following except?

Back 23

Correction of anisometropia

Front 24

A cataract is a?

Back 24

Growth of the lens

Front 25

Symptoms of cataract include?

Back 25

Halos, becoming more nearsighted, ghost image, change in color vision, looking through a fog.

Front 26

The most common cause of cataract is?

Back 26

Aging

Front 27

Cataracts can be caused by all of the following except?

Back 27

Open-angle glaucoma

Front 28

A cataract that occurs due to some other condition or medication is known as?

Back 28

Secondary

Front 29

Current, accepted treatment of a cataract is?

Back 29

Surgical extraction

Front 30

Your patient says his neighbor had her cataracts removed with laser and wants to know if his will be taken off in the same way. You tell him?

Back 30

"No, she's probably referring to the way we use ultrasound to break the cataract into tiny pieces. It's not actually a laser."

Front 31

The vision a patient may have after cataract surgery can be estimated with?

Back 31

PAM (Potential acuity meter; Marco technologies Inc, Jacksonville, FL)

Front 32

Postoperative cataract surgery vision might not be substantial improved in a patient with?

Back 32

Macular degeneration

Front 33

A preoperative B-scan might be required in which cataract patient?

Back 33

Extremely dense cataract

Front 34

Prior to cataract surgery, an A-scan is used to?

Back 34

Measure the length of the eye

Front 35

Specular microscopy ("cell count") might be needed prior to cataract surgery if the patient has?

Back 35

Corneal dystrophy

Front 36

Which gives the most accurate idea of a cataract patient's visual disability?

Back 36

BAT (Brightness acuity test)

Front 37

A cataract is often removed when?

Back 37

The patient notes impairment of daily living

Front 38

Preoperative cataract surgery measurement of a patient's corneal curvature is known as?

Back 38

Keratometry ("K reading")

Front 39

Medications of concern for the preoperative cataract patient include all of the following except?

Back 39

Estrogen-based hormones

Front 40

Each of the following is used in intraocular lens implant (IOL) calculation except?

Back 40

Intraocular pressure

Front 41

Your patent wants to know if she will have stitches in her eye after cataract surgery. You tell her?

Back 41

"No, unless something changes during surgery"

Front 42

Currently, the most commonly used type of anesthesia for cataract surgery is?

Back 42

Topical

Front 43

Reducing a cataract into small pieces by use of ultrasonic energy is termed?

Back 43

Phacoemulsification

Front 44

Your patient asks if he will still need glasses after cataract surgery. You tell him?

Back 44

"Probably, just to fine-tune either distance of near vision."

Front 45

Which of the following are general restrictions immediately following cataract surgery?

Back 45

Do not bend over or lift anything heavy.

Front 46

Symptoms of a posterior subcapsular opacity?

Back 46

Mimic those of a cataract

Front 47

The term "secondary cataract" is a misnormer because?

Back 47

once removed, a cataract cannot grow back

Front 48

A posterior capsule opacity is treated by performing a?

Back 48

Laser capsulotomy

Front 49

Insertion of a phakic IOL would be done for the purpose of?

Back 49

Correction of refractive error

Front 50

In which of the following surgical procedures might a drainage implant be placed in the eye?

Back 50

Glaucoma surgery

Front 51

The aim of most types of glaucoma surgery is to?

Back 51

Increase aqueous outflow

Front 52

Laser treatment for primary/chronic open-angle glaucoma is a(n)?

Back 52

Sebaceous cyst

Front 53

A surgically created, conjunctiva-covered, external opening through which aqueous can drain is a?

Back 53

Bleb

Front 54

Angle-closure glaucoma is most often treated by performing a?

Back 54

Laser iridotomy

Front 55

The removal of the jelly-like substance in the back of the eye is a(n)?

Back 55

Vitectomy

Front 56

Laser photocoagulation might commonly be used to treat all of the following except?

Back 56

Hyphema

Front 57

Laser, scleral buckle, and intravitreal gas or air bubble are all treatments for?

Back 57

Retinal detachment

Front 58

The intent behind intravitreal injections for macular degeneration is to?

Back 58

Inhibit the growth of new abnormal retinal blood vessels

Front 59

Removal of the entire eyeball is an?

Back 59

Enucleation

Front 60

In the event that the eyeball is removed, an implant is placed into the orbit. The purpose of this implant is to?

Back 60

Maintain the shape of the orbit

Front 61

Diabetes is a condition resulting from

Back 61

an imbalance in the insulin-glucose levels of the body.

Front 62

When seeing a diabetic patient for a routine eye exam, it is important to k now how stable her sugar level has been recently because fluctuations?

Back 62

Can change the refractometric measurement

Front 63

The hallmark of proliferative diabetic retinopathy is?

Back 63

Growth of new retinal blood vessels

Front 64

Diabetic retinopathy is currently treated with?

Back 64

Laser

Front 65

Hypertension mainly affects which eye structure?

Back 65

Retina would be affected

Front 66

Hypertension is when, most of the time, the blood pressure is equal to or greater than?

Back 66

140 systolic and/or 90 diastolic

Front 67

Which of the following is most commonly used to treatment of retinal disease caused by hypertension?

Back 67

Laser surgery

Front 68

The main ocular concern in a patient with cancer is?

Back 68

Spread of cancer to the eye's tissues

Front 69

Atherosclerosis is characterized by fatty deposits along the walls of the?

Back 69

Arteries

Front 70

Which of the following can occur in the eye as a result of atherosclerosis?

Back 70

Central retinal artery occlusion

Front 71

Leukemia and sickle cell disease both produce abnormal blood cells. These cells can?

Back 71

Clump together and clog retinal blood vessels

Front 72

All of the following are infections that can be presents at birth except?

Back 72

Siderosis

Front 73

Shingles is a systemic infection that can also affect the eye and is caused by?

Back 73

Herpes zoster

Front 74

Herpes zoster occurs in patients

Back 74

Who have had chicken pox

Front 75

One of the more common viruses seen in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) patient is?

Back 75

Herpes simplex

Front 76

All of the following are often seen in the patient with AIDS except?

Back 76

Xanthelasma

Front 77

The most likely route of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection from patient to ophthalmic medical personnel would be?

Back 77

Needle stick during minor surgery

Front 78

Which of the following systemic disorders is most commonly associated with dry eye?

Back 78

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 79

Which of the following might be done on a patient with thyroid eye disease?

Back 79

Exophthalmometry

Front 80

Smoking can cause all of the following except?

Back 80

Ptosis, trichiasis, and retinoblastoma

Front 81

All of the following are usually noncancerous skin and lid growths except?

Back 81

Basal cell tumors

Front 82

Sagging and eversion of the lower eyelid is termed?

Back 82

Ectropion

Front 83

Entropion is defined as?

Back 83

Lids that turn inward

Front 84

Infection of the lash follicle is a?

Back 84

Hordeolum

Front 85

A condition in which eyelashes grow inward, toward the eye is?

Back 85

Trichiasis

Front 86

An infected meibomian gland causes a(n)?

Back 86

Chalazion

Front 87

Blepharitis is a common?

Back 87

Lid infection

Front 88

Which of the following refers to a drooped upper lid?

Back 88

Ptosis

Front 89

Redundant skin of the lids is referred to as?

Back 89

Dermatochalasis

Front 90

Infection of the lacrimal sac is termed?

Back 90

Dacryocystitis

Front 91

The condition where the lacrimal gland slips down under the conjunctiva is known as a(n)?

Back 91

Prolapse

Front 92

Which of the following is not a symptom of dry eye?

Back 92

Extreme itching

Front 93

The standard test for diagnosis of dry eye is?

Back 93

Schirmer's test

Front 94

A blockage of the nasolacrimal duct might result in any of the following except?

Back 94

Recurrent erosion syndrome

Front 95

Your physician has told the patient that she has a subconjunctival hemorrhage (SCH) and has left you to educate the patient. You should?

Back 95

Reassure her that it will dissipate in 1 to 3 weeks

Front 96

Slit-lamp examination of your patient reveals a yellowish nodule on the conjunctiva just nasal of the cornea. Most likely this is a(n)?

Back 96

Pinguecula

Front 97

All of the following are common indications of viral conjunctivitis except?

Back 97

Yellow crusting

Front 98

All of the following are true regarding epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC) except?

Back 98

It is caused by a bacterium

Front 99

The type of conjunctivitis caused by constant irriatation (such as a contact lens) is?

Back 99

Giant papillary

Front 100

An inflammation of the white of the eye that can be very painful is?

Back 100

Scleritis

Front 101

Protrusion of the eyeball is known as?

Back 101

Exophthalmos

Front 102

A cream-colored arc in the cornea at the limbus that may be related to cholesterol is?

Back 102

Arcus

Front 103

Neovascularization of the cornea is generally related to?

Back 103

Lack of oxygen

Front 104

Trachoma, a leading cause of world blindness, is seen in populations with poor diet and hygiene. This devastating disease causes?

Back 104

Scarrring of lids, conjunctiva, and cornea

Front 105

On slit-lamp examination, a corneal lesion caused by herpes simplex typically appears?

Back 105

As a branched-looking erosion

Front 106

Slit-lamp examination of your patient reveals bulging, centrally thinned corneas. Refractometry shows an increase in astigmatism. The patient probably has?

Back 106

Keratoconus

Front 107

Your patient has an abrasion of the corneal epithelium. All of the following are true except?

Back 107

There will likely be a corneal scar

Front 108

When asked about previous eye surgery, your patient says that she once had "a piece of skin removed that was growing onto the clear part of my eye." Most likely she is describing a?

Back 108

Pterygium

Front 109

You are eliciting the patient's chief complaint, and he says, "I wake up in the middle of the night, and my right eyelid seems stuck shut. Then, when i get it open, it's like it pulled part of my eye with it. My eye hurts, and I can hardly stand the light." An ocular condition that can cause these types of symptoms is?

Back 109

Recurrent erosion syndrome

Front 110

Blood in the anterior change (AC) of the eye is a(n)?

Back 110

Hyphema

Front 111

Which of the following refers to a layer of inflammatory cells/pus in the AC?

Back 111

Hypopyon

Front 112

Prior to dilating a patient, one should evaluate?

Back 112

The iridocorneal angle

Front 113

An inflammation of the iris (only) is termed?

Back 113

Iritis

Front 114

Which of the following indicates a risk for open-angle glaucoma?

Back 114

A family history of Glaucoma

Front 115

Glaucoma is classically characterized by increased intraocular pressure, visual field loss, and?

Back 115

Optic nerve head damage

Front 116

Because of elevated intraocular pressure, a child born with glaucoma has?

Back 116

Bulphthalmos

Front 117

What are the symptoms of angle-closure glaucoma?

Back 117

Redness, pain, blurred vision, and halos around lights

Front 118

Symptoms and signs for acute angle-closure glaucoma include all of the following except?

Back 118

Miotic pupil

Front 119

Secondary glaucoma can be caused by all of the following except?

Back 119

Strabismus

Front 120

Risk factors for glaucoma include all of the following except?

Back 120

Rheumatoid arthritis

Front 121

All of the following are problems common to public glaucoma screening programs except?

Back 121

It generates public interest in the disorder and its treatment

Front 122

The most common type of glaucoma?

Back 122

Open-angle

Front 123

The diagnosis of glaucoma may be based on which set of the following tests?

Back 123

Tonometry, perimetry, ophthalmoscopy, central corneal thickness

Front 124

Vision lost by glaucoma damage?

Back 124

generally cannot be recovered

Front 125

The appearance of halos around lights during an attack of angle-closure glaucoma is due to?

Back 125

Corneal edema

Front 126

All of the following are true regarding open-angle glaucoma except?

Back 126

It can be cured

Front 127

The dangerous element of open-angle glaucoma is?

Back 127

Lack of symptoms

Front 128

In open-angle glaucoma?

Back 128

The angle looks normal

Front 129

A patient known to have open-angle glaucoma?

Back 129

Needs annual dilation, gonioscopy, and formal visual fields

Front 130

A patient in the end stages of open-angle glaucoma?

Back 130

May have a small temporal island of vision

Front 131

A patient with open-angle glaucoma has missed an appointment for a pressure check. The practice should?

Back 131

Contact the patient to reschedule, emphasizing the importance of IOP checks

Front 132

The total absence of a crystalline lens is termed?

Back 132

Aphakia

Front 133

A dislocation of the crystalline lens is termed

Back 133

Luxated

Front 134

Signs and symptoms of uveitis include all of the following except?

Back 134

Dizziness and nausea

Front 135

Spontaneous retinal detachments are more common in patients with?

Back 135

Myopia

Front 136

Usual symptoms of retinal detachment include all of the following except?

Back 136

Pain

Front 137

Most cases of floaters and flashes are caused by?

Back 137

PVD (posterior vitreous detachment)

Front 138

A progressive breakdown of the macular tissue usually associated with age is?

Back 138

Macular degeneration

Front 139

The physician has asked you to educate a patient with macular degeneration regarding home care. This will most likely include?

Back 139

Amsler grid, UV protection, and vitamin therapy

Front 140

Intravitreal injections and laser treatments may sometimes be used in which type of macular degeneration?

Back 140

Wet Age-Related Macular Degeneration

Front 141

A patient has had a sudden, painless loss of vision. She should be seen immediately as an emergency because theses are symptoms of a(n)?

Back 141

Retinal Artery occlusion

Front 142

All of the following are true regarding a retinal vein occlusion accept?

Back 142

The symptoms are easily distinguished from a retinal artery occlusion.

Front 143

Toxoplasmosis is a protozoan-caused infection that can damage the choroid and retina. It is often passed to humans by means of:

Back 143

Cat feces

Front 144

Histoplasmosis is a fungus-caused infection that can attack the choroid. A human gets histoplasmosis by:

Back 144

Inhaling the spores

Front 145

Which of the following is commonly seen in open-angle glaucoma?

Back 145

Optic nerve cupping

Front 146

An infection of the internal tissues occurring after surgery or penetrating injury is:

Back 146

Endophthalmitis

Front 147

A rare condition in which one eye is injured and the fellow, non-injured eye develops inflammation that can destroy the eye is:

Back 147

Sympathetic Ophthalmia

Front 148

Treatment for sympathetic ophthalmia is?

Back 148

Enucleation of the injured eye

Front 149

All of the following are hereditary except?

Back 149

Trachoma

Front 150

Which blood cells carries oxygen in the blood?

Back 150

Red Blood Cells

Front 151

Which order represents human circulation?

Back 151

Capillaries, veins, heart, lungs, heart, arteries, capillaries

Front 152

Human respiration follows which order.

Back 152

Trachea, bronchus/bronchioles, alveoli, capillaries

Front 153

What occurs as a result of respiration?

Back 153

The blood gives up carbon dioxide and takes on oxygen.

Front 154

Endocrine glands synthesize and release chemicals known as?

Back 154

Hormones

Front 155

Chemicals from the endocrine glands travel to the target organ through the?

Back 155

Bloodstream

Front 156

Nerve cells release chemicals known as?

Back 156

Neurotransmitters

Front 157

A predictable, involuntary motor response to a specific stimulus is a(n)?

Back 157

Reflex

Front 158

The human nervous system is divided into which two structural parts?

Back 158

Central and peripheral

Front 159

The human nervous system is divided into which two functional parts?

Back 159

Sensory and motor

Front 160

The primary goal of the eye's components is to?

Back 160

Focus incoming light onto the retina

Front 161

The term for the eye socket, which consists of parts of seven bones, is?

Back 161

Orbit

Front 162

Most of the blood supply directly to the eye is supplied by the?

Back 162

Ophthalmic artery

Front 163

How many extraocular muscles are attached to each eye?

Back 163

6 (six)

Front 164

The "plate" of connective tissue that serves as the underlying structure of the eyelids is the?

Back 164

Tarsus

Front 165

Asians and some children have a small vertical fold of skin nasally between the upper and lower lids. This is call a(n)?

Back 165

Epicanthal fold

Front 166

The main lacrimal (tear) glad is located?

Back 166

Under the brow

Front 167

Which of the following is not a component of the tear film layer?

Back 167

Plasma

Front 168

Which organs and/or tissues are located in the Cardiovascular?

Back 168

Auricles, ventricles, carotid artery, aorta, capillaries, veins

Front 169

Which organs and/or tissues are located in the Respiratory?

Back 169

Lungs, Alveoli, Bronchi, Trachea

Front 170

Which organs and/or tissues are located in the Endocrine?

Back 170

Pancreas, Pituitary gland, Parathyroid, Thyroid

Front 171

Which organs and/or tissues are located in the Nervous?

Back 171

Brain, spinal cord, neuron, cerebellum, cranial nerves I to XII

Front 172

Which is the correct route of tears as they are drained off the eye?

Back 172

Punctum, canaliculi, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct

Front 173

Which tear film layer acts to prevent or retard evaporation of tears from the eye?

Back 173

Lipid (oily) layer

Front 174

The ocular media consists of?

Back 174

The tear film, cornea, aqueous, vitreous, and lens

Front 175

Which of the following is not a part of the optical media?

Back 175

Retina

Front 176

Which ocular structure refracts light the most?

Back 176

Cornea

Front 177

The average adult corneal diameter, in millimeters, is?

Back 177

12mm

Front 178

Which corneal layer generally regenerates rapidly without scarring?

Back 178

Epithelium

Front 179

Which corneal layer acts to limit corneal hydration (edema)?

Back 179

Endothelium

Front 180

How many muscles make up the iris?

Back 180

2 (two)

Front 181

Which of the following structure is responsible for aqueous production?

Back 181

Ciliary body

Front 182

The hard, central core (nucleus) of the crystalline lens?

Back 182

is formed as lens fiber layers are produced and compacted together

Front 183

Which of the following is not true regarding the crystalline lens?

Back 183

It lies in the anterior chamber

Front 184

The physiological process by which one focuses on a near object is:

Back 184

accommodation

Front 185

Which of the following does not automatically occur when a patient focuses on a close-up object?

Back 185

Narrowing of the Palpebral fissures

Front 186

When a person looks at a near object:

Back 186

The ciliary muscle contracts, causing the zonules to relax, causing the lens to thicken.

Front 187

Which of the following is not a part of the uvea?

Back 187

Retina

Front 188

The major function of the choroid is:

Back 188

blood supply to the retina

Front 189

The retinal photoreceptor cells is/are known as:

Back 189

rods and cones

Front 190

Which of the following is not true regarding cone cells?

Back 190

They outnumber the rods to 1

Front 191

Fibers from the retina travel through the optic chiasm in the following manner?

Back 191

Nasal fibers cross, temporal fiber do not cross

Front 192

Because of the crossing of the retinal fibers after leaving the optic nerve, an object in the patient's right field of view?

Back 192

Is projected to the left optic tract

Front 193

Your patient complains that he cannot see objects on his left with his left eye. Confrontation visual fields confirms this. You suspect a retinal detachment. What part of the retina would be affected if you are correct?

Back 193

Left eye, nasal side

Front 194

The head of the optic nerve, visible with the ophthalmoscope, is called the?

Back 194

Optic disc

Front 195

The group that accredits standards in safety glasses and lenses is the?

Back 195

American National Standards Institute (ANSI)

Front 196

The main features of safety frames include all of the following except?

Back 196

Do not conduct electricity

Front 197

Standard safety glasses are intended to be used?

Back 197

On the job and on the street

Front 198

Which of the following should always be prescribed safety lenses?

Back 198

Children and monocular patients

Front 199

The key feature of safety lenses is that they are?

Back 199

Shatter-resistant

Front 200

The thinnest allowable width for a general wear, impact-resistant glass safety lens is?

Back 200

2.2 mm

Front 201

The standard spectacle lens material used for safety in streetwear is?

Back 201

Polycarbonate

Front 202

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) standards require that a health care employer provide safety glasses and/or face shields for employees at risk for biological or chemical splashes. These safety glasses fall under the category of?

Back 202

Personal protective equipment

Front 203

Welders must wear safety glasses or shields that will protect them from?

Back 203

Ultraviolet radiation burns

Front 204

To reduce systemic absorption of an eye drop, the patient should be instructed to?

Back 204

Put pressure over the punctum after instilling the drops.

Front 205

The patient should be told that the first step in applying any type of topical medications is to?

Back 205

Wash the hands

Front 206

Ophthalmic ointment is usually applied?

Back 206

The lower cul de sac

Front 207

When using eye drops, the patient should do the following except?

Back 207

Use 2 drops at a time to ensure effectiveness.

Front 208

If someone else is to instill eye drops for the patient, he can be told it is easiest to instill eye drops if the patient will?

Back 208

Open both eyes and look up.

Front 209

A glare test might be indicated in a patient with?

Back 209

Posterior Capsular Cataracts

Front 210

Your patient is a 10-yr-old boy whose mother thinks he is having a problem with color vision. You evaluate him with the Ishihara pseudoisochromatic plates, which test for?

Back 210

Red/green color vision defects

Front 211

Your patient complains that he cannot see anything to his left. Which test will give the most detailed analysis of this problem?

Back 211

Automated visual field

Front 212

Your patient sees 20/20, yet complains of "not being able to see." Which test might help in documenting the problem?

Back 212

Contrast sensitivity

Front 213

A test done to estimate how much of a vision loss is due to cataracts and how much to retinal disease is?

Back 213

Potential acuity testing

Front 214

Exophthalmometry reveals that your patient has bulging eyes. What is the eye practitioner probably going to want the patient to be tested for?

Back 214

Thyroid Function

Front 215

Your diabetic patient has decreased vision, but says he or she does not want to be dilated. You tell the patient that you will not do anything he or she does not want you to, but..?

Back 215

It is the best way for the doctor to get a good look at the back of the eye

Front 216

How would you explain a Schirmer's test to a patient?

Back 216

"This will help us learn what is causing your eyes to feel gritty."

Front 217

A "dye test" to evaluate the retina's blood vessels is?

Back 217

Fluorescein angiography

Front 218

You are about to perform an A-scan on a patient with a suspected intraocular foreign body. You explain to the patient that?

Back 218

the test uses ultrasound waves

Front 219

The doctor has asked you to measure a patient's central corneal thickness. You might explain this to the patient using any of the following except?

Back 219

"This measurement is essential in fitting you contact lenses."

Front 220

The physician has ordered an OCT and left you in the room to explain the procedure to the patient. You tell her that the test?

Back 220

shoes the layers of the retina

Front 221

Your patient complains of a FB sensation. Which of the following would be most useful?

Back 221

Topical fluorescein

Front 222

Which of the following helps determine the cause of an eye infection?

Back 222

Culture

Front 223

An established patient returns every 6 months or so complaining of decreasing vision. Refractometry has shown a gradual increase in astigmatism. The most helpful test to determine the cause of this would be a(n)?

Back 223

Corneal topography

Front 224

A patient returns for a 2-year exam, and her vision today with her glasses is 20/70. Two years ago, she was 20/25 - with the same prescription. You perform a pinhole test, which improves her vision to 20/50+. This most likely indicates?

Back 224

There is some type of ocular pathology present

Front 225

Each of the following tests is standard in determining the cause of a red painful eye except?

Back 225

Pachymetry

Front 226

Your patient had 20/20 vision OD 9 months ago. Today, it is 20/60, without pinhole improvement. In the absence of obvious pathology, the eye care provider may want which of the following tests to help diagnose the problem?

Back 226

OCT of macula

Front 227

A patient complaining of floaters and flashes will need which of the following?

Back 227

Dilated fundus exam

Front 228

A procedure done to help alleviate dry eye by keeping the tears on the eye is?

Back 228

Punctal occlusion

Front 229

The eye care provider has determined that an infant's nasolacrimal duct is blocked. The procedure to rectify this problem is?

Back 229

Probe and Irrigate

Front 230

Which of the following is used to remove an embedded metallic corneal foreign body?

Back 230

Spud or drill

Front 231

Botulinum toxin injection, or Botox, is used to relieve?

Back 231

Blepharospasms

Front 232

Removal of an eyelash is called?

Back 232

Trichiasis

Front 233

A procedure done to resolve angle-closure glaucoma is?

Back 233

Laser iridotomy

Front 234

A procedure performed to clear a posterior capsule opacity is?

Back 234

Laser capsulotomy

Front 235

Treatment of wet macular degeneration includes?

Back 235

Retinal tissue transplant

Front 236

The post-surgical patient should be told to report the following symptoms, which may indicate would infection?

Back 236

Redness, swelling and pain

Front 237

All of the following are true regarding care of skin sutures except?

Back 237

All sutures are absorbable and do not need to be removed

Front 238

If the patient is to use warm compresses, she should be told to?

Back 238

Test the compress for excessive heat before applying

Front 239

A hot compress is generally used to?

Back 239

Increase circulation to the area

Front 240

An ice pack is generally used to?

Back 240

Decrease bruising and swelling

Front 241

The basic treatment for blepharitis is?

Back 241

Antibiotic ointment and lid scrubs

Front 242

A patient with which of the following might be taught how to perform lid scrubs?

Back 242

Blepharitis

Front 243

A patient with dry eye syndrome needs to be made aware that?

Back 243

The condition will require indefinite treatment

Front 244

A patient whose infant probably has a nasolacrimal duct obstruction shoul.d be told to?

Back 244

Massage the nasolacrimal duct area several times a day

Front 245

Standard instructions for a patient with conjunctivitis include all of the following except?

Back 245

If another family member develops symptoms, give him/her your eye drops

Front 246

A patient who has had a corneal foreign body removed in the office should be told to?

Back 246

Expect a foreign body sensation for the rest of the day

Front 247

After removal of a corneal foreign body, the patient should be warned that the eye may again have a foreign body sensation once the topical anesthetic wears off. This is because?

Back 247

There is an abrasion at the removal site

Front 248

A postoperative cataract patient is told to?

Back 248

Avoid heavy lifting

Front 249

The postoperative cataract surgery patient is generally sent home with?

Back 249

An eye shield

Front 250

A post operative cataract patient should be warned that?

Back 250

the membrane behind the IOL can get cloudy

Front 251

Following cataract surgery, the patient may notice?

Back 251

Vision has a bluish tinge

Front 252

Following cataract surgery, the final refraction will usually take place?

Back 252

4 to 6 weeks after surgery

Front 253

The parent of a child who is being patched for amblyopia asks how the patch is going to help. You respond?

Back 253

The strong eye is patched to force the weaker eye to work harder

Front 254

A patient _______ might be taught how to do "pencil push-up" eye exercises?

Back 254

Convergence insufficiency

Front 255

Your patient is given an Amsler grid for home use. She would be told all of the following except?

Back 255

Post the Amsler grid on the wall, and stand 10 feet away

Front 256

A patient using an Amsler grid at home should be told to contact the office if?

Back 256

There is any change in the way the Amsler grid looks

Front 257

A properly applied pressure patch should?

Back 257

Prevent the patient from opening their eye

Front 258

To secure a pressure patch, it may be necessary to?

Back 258

Shave the patient's facial hair

Front 259

When a pressure patch is properly applied, the tape?

Back 259

Will angle away from the edge of the mouth

Front 260

If the tape of the pressure patch will not stick because the patient's skin is oily, the assistant may?

Back 260

Cleanse the skin with alcohol

Front 261

Use of a pressure patch in superficial corneal defects is generally indicated beacuse

Back 261

It helps create a smooth surface for healing

Front 262

The patient should be told all of the following after application of a pressure patch except?

Back 262

To remove the patch if it is uncomfortably tight

Front 263

An eye patch is commonly used after ocular surgery for all of the following except?

Back 263

To improve visual acuity

Front 264

The edges of an eye shield should?

Back 264

Rest on the bones surrounding the eye

Front 265

The purpose of the eye shield is?

Back 265

To protect the eye from physical injury

Front 266

A good rule of thumb when accompanying a patient with a physical disability is to?

Back 266

Ask if he/she wants or needs your assistance first

Front 267

A patient can often be transferred from the wheelchair to the exam chair most easily by?

Back 267

Removing the arms of both chairs so the patient can slide from one to the other

Front 268

To best assist a blind patient in the office, the assistant should

Back 268

Off his/her arm, and move slightly ahead of the patient

Front 269

When speaking to a blind patient, one should do all of the following except?

Back 269

Speak in a louder voice

Front 270

You patient has a guide dog. You should guide the patient by

Back 270

Requesting that the patient and dog follow you

Front 271

Patient flow can be expedited by all of the following except?

Back 271

Scheduling fewer patients

Front 272

The act of briefly assessing a patients injury or illness in order to determine the urgency of treatment is?

Back 272

Triage

Front 273

In the case that there is more than one patient needing attention, triage enables the screener to?

Back 273

Determine the order in which the patients need care

Front 274

Which of the following is not one of the 3 highly emergent ocular situations that requires treatment within minutes?

Back 274

Corneal transplant patient with symptoms of rejection

Front 275

Urgent ocular situations generally need to be seen?

Back 275

within 24 to 48 hours

Front 276

Which of the following is an example of an emergent condition?

Back 276

Globe perforation

Front 277

Which of the following is an emergency?

Back 277

A construction worker with a foreign body sensation

Front 278

Which of the following constitutes the most emergent complaint?

Back 278

Sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye

Front 279

All could be considered elective except?

Back 279

Foreign body

Front 280

A patient phones in with a loss of vision. Which are the most important set of questions from a triage point of view?

Back 280

One eye or both? Was this sudden or gradual? is there any pain?

Front 281

Which of the following is most likely to have a disastrous visual outcome if not treated immediately?

Back 281

Subconjunctival hemorrhage

Front 282

A patient phones in complaining of red eye. From a triage standpoint, which is the most important question?

Back 282

Is there any pain?

Front 283

All of the following can cause a painful red eye, except?

Back 283

Open-angle glaucoma

Front 284

Symptoms and signs for acute angle-closure glaucoma may include all of the following, except?

Back 284

Miotic Pupil

Front 285

All of the following may trigger an angle-closure glaucoma attack, except?

Back 285

Sudden exposure to bright light

Front 286

In angle-closure glaucoma?

Back 286

The iris closes off the anterior chamber angle

Front 287

Which of the following conditions gives a higher risk for developing an angle-closure glaucoma attack?

Back 287

High Hyperopia

Front 288

The appearance of halos around lights during an attack of angle-closure glaucoma is due to?

Back 288

Corneal edema

Front 289

Emergency treatment during an angle-closure glaucoma attack includes pressure-lowering medications and?

Back 289

Miotics

Front 290

In examining the pupil of a painful red eye, which would most likely be seen in iritis?

Back 290

The affected eye would have a smaller pupil

Front 291

A 60-yr-old patient calls with flashes and floaters in one eye, which started 2 days ago. You should?

Back 291

Schedule him/her for an urgent visit right away

Front 292

Which of the following symptoms could indicate a retinal detachment?

Back 292

Curtain or veil over part of the vision

Front 293

The classic symptoms for posterior vitreous detachment are?

Back 293

Flashes and floaters

Front 294

Any eye injury is considered?

Back 294

vision-threatening until proven otherwise

Front 295

A patient comes to the office after getting chemicals in his eye. The first step is to?

Back 295

Irrigate

Front 296

What can causes the most severe chemical injury?

Back 296

Ammonia

Front 297

Before any treatment is started on a patient who presents with a foreign body in the eye, the most important question to ask is?

Back 297

What were you doing when this happened?

Front 298

What best indicates the severity of a deep, penetrating injury?

Back 298

The ophthalmoscopic evaluation

Front 299

If a patient has a perforated globe, the technician must?

Back 299

cover lightly and inform the physician

Front 300

Your patient complains of a FB sensation about an hour after grinding metal at work. The physician is in surgery and will not be available for over an hour. You should

Back 300

Cover lightly

Front 301

It is best to remove a metallic corneal FB during the first 6 to 8 hours to prevent?

Back 301

Formation of a rust ring

Front 302

Painful corneal burns due to ultraviolet light might occur (if one fails to protect the eyes) in all of the following situation except?

Back 302

Direct viewing of a lunar eclipse

Front 303

A patient has been hit in the eye with a tennis ball. Your best action is to?

Back 303

Ask him to come right in before the eye swells shut

Front 304

All of the following can result from blunt trauma to the eye except?

Back 304

Trachoma

Front 305

A blow out fracture involves?

Back 305

Bones of the orbit and sinuses

Front 306

A hemorrhage in the anterior chamber is?

Back 306

A hyphema

Front 307

Which of the following is the wrong thing to say to an injured patient?

Back 307

"I am sure you will be just fine."

Front 308

The organization involved with ensuring employee health and safety is?

Back 308

OSHA (occupational safety and health administration)

Front 309

The "OSHA poster" must be displayed in the workplace and explains

Back 309

Employee rights to a safe workplace and how to report problems

Front 310

An employer's written plan regarding employee exposure to bloodborne pathogens is a(n)?

Back 310

Exposure Control Plan

Front 311

You are concerned about the possible toxicity of the lens cleaner you use. Where can you look for information?

Back 311

MSDS, the office's "Material Safety Data Sheet" file

Front 312

An employer's written plan detailing expectations and procedures for the clinic would be the office's?

Back 312

Standard Operating Procedures

Front 313

A patient falls in your clinic. The practice will fill out a(n)?

Back 313

Incident Report

Front 314

An assessment that makes a statement about a patient's ability/inability to perform tasks that he/she needs and wants to do is an evaluation of?

Back 314

Disability

Front 315

A medical report of a patient's ophthalmic status (including vision assessment and documentation of ocular diseases/disorders) is an evaluation of that patient's?

Back 315

Impairment

Front 316

The purpose of government-required forms regarding ocular health is generally to?

Back 316

Determine eligibility

Front 317

Inaccuracy or errors made on a form for government benefits and services may?

Back 317

Deprive the patient of services he/she is actually qualified for

Front 318

In order to qualify for many governmental benefits, acuity testing for the visually impaired commonly includes?

Back 318

Uncorrected and best-corrected vision

Front 319

A person with 20/20 acuity in both eyes and normal visual fields?

Back 319

May still be visually disabled

Front 320

Your patient hands you a form to qualify him for a commercial drivers license (CDL). The main visual components in such an exam generally include?

Back 320

Visual acuity, visual fields, and color vision

Front 321

A patient usually presents with a form for a vision test related to obtaining a driver's license when?

Back 321

Failing the acuity test at the license bureau

Front 322

As a result of vision testing, the eye care practitioner has written "daytime driving only" on the patient's drivers license form. This is an example of a(n)?

Back 322

Restriction

Front 323

Insurance that covers an employee who is injured on the job or develops a job-related illness is?

Back 323

Workers' Compensation

Front 324

A Workers' Compensation form for a patient with a job-related eye injury will probably include?

Back 324

Nature and length of any disability

Front 325

Which of the following might be covered under Workers' Compensation?

Back 325

An eye injury sustained while on the job

Front 326

The United States government's health insurance plan for citizens over the age of 65 is?

Back 326

Medicare

Front 327

A refraction is usually ruled by Medicare as?

Back 327

A noncovered procedure

Front 328

In order to be able to file Medicare for a patient, the patient must sign a(n)?

Back 328

Assignment of benefits

Front 329

Federal and state supported health insurance for those who cannot afford insurance is?

Back 329

Medicaid

Front 330

A federal law that includes a patient's right to protection of his/her personal health information is?

Back 330

HIPAA

Front 331

Patient forms pertaining to HIPAA would include?

Back 331

Assignment of benefits and financial statement

Front 332

The group of tests collectively known as "vital signs" include?

Back 332

Temperature, blood pressure, pulse, and respirations

Front 333

Which of the following is considered the "normal" human body temperature?

Back 333

98.6* F

Front 334

If taking an oral temperature, accuracy depends upon?

Back 334

When the patient last had something warm or cool in his/her mouth

Front 335

Before taking an oral temperature with a standard (nonelectronic) thermometer, one must first?

Back 335

Shake the mercury down into the bulb

Front 336

When checking temperature with a standard oral thermometer, the probe tip is placed?

Back 336

Under the tongue

Front 337

When using a standard oral thermometer, how long is the thermometer left in place before taking the reading?

Back 337

3 to 4 minutes

Front 338

A temperature that is above normal generally indicates the presence of a(n)?

Back 338

Infectious process somewhere in the body

Front 339

When checking pulse, one should?

Back 339

Apply gentle pressure with the thumbn

Front 340

Heart rate is generally recorded as?

Back 340

Beats per minute

Front 341

Average heart rate in a human adult is?

Back 341

72 beats per minute

Front 342

Pulse can additionally be evaluated by noting?

Back 342

Any irregularities in beat or strength

Front 343

The average adult human respiration rate is?

Back 343

18 breaths per minute

Front 344

The best way to check respiration rate is to?

Back 344

Covertly evaluate it after the pulse has been checked

Front 345

Respiration can additionally be evaluated by noting?

Back 345

Any unusual sounds or irregularities

Front 346

In a blood pressure of 120/80, the number 80 is?

Back 346

The diastolic pressure

Front 347

The best time to take the patient's blood pressure is?

Back 347

A few minutes after he/she has been seated

Front 348

Blood pressure (BP) is measure using a(n)?

Back 348

Sphygmomanometer

Front 349

The BP cuff is positioned?

Back 349

Above the elbow

Front 350

When checking BP with a manual (nonelectronic) sphygmomanometer, the examiner holds the membrane of the stethoscope?

Back 350

Against the skin and inside the elbow

Front 351

The bulb of the sphygmomanometer is used to?

Back 351

Pump air into the cuff

Front 352

Air is released from the cuff by?

Back 352

Barely turning the screw on the bulb

Front 353

As the cuff initially deflates, the examiner must note the?

Back 353

Gauge reading when the heartbeat is first heard

Front 354

The BP cuff continues to deflate, and the heartbeat sound is lost. At this point, the examiner notes the?

Back 354

Gauge reading when the heartbeat fades

Front 355

In addition to the numeric measurement of BP, one also documents?

Back 355

Which arm was used

Front 356

Normal BPs fall into which range?

Back 356

110 to 140 systolic, 70 to 90 diastolic

Front 357

BP might be especially important in each of the following patients except?

Back 357

The patient with a catarct

Front 358

a BP of 120 to 139 systolic and 80 to 89 diastolic is considered?

Back 358

Prehypertensive

Front 359

Which group is at most risk for developing cardiopulmonary arrest?

Back 359

Those with cardiovascular problems

Front 360

If breathing and pulse are not present, brain death will usually occur?

Back 360

In 4 to 6 minutes

Front 361

The most common airway obstruction in an unconscious adult is?

Back 361

The tongue

Front 362

How many people survive cardiac arrest if someone performs chest compressions or CPR?

Back 362

1 in 10

Front 363

What is the first step in the rescue/CPR process?

Back 363

Asses responsiveness

Front 364

The correct rescuer position for performing chest compressions on an adult is

Back 364

At the victim's side, hands interlaced, elbows straight

Front 365

The correct depth for chest compressions in an adult is?

Back 365

At least 2 inches

Front 366

"Hands-only" CPR has been introduced to the public because?

Back 366

Bystanders are reluctant to administer mouth-to-mouth breathing

Front 367

The rate of compressions in hands-only CPR is?

Back 367

30 per minute

Front 368

All of the following are true regarding automated external defibrillators except?

Back 368

They can be used by any bystander