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204 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Which of the following is necessary for the use of enteral nutrition? |
a functional GI tract |
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A general-purpose enteral formula that contains intact proteins in a |
standard formula |
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A characteristic of en elemental formula is that it |
may be lower in fat or contain MCT |
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Most enteral formulas have energy density of _____ calories per milliliter of fluid |
1.0 to 2.0 |
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Which feeding tube placement may require a surgical procedure? |
enterostomy |
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Which of the following feeding sites is most appropriate for clients requiring long-term nutrition support? |
enterostomy |
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Which of the following is associated with the lowest risk of aspiration? |
jejunostomy |
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A "6 French" feeding tube has a _____ diameter |
2 mm |
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Health care facilities have protocols for handling food products and formulas based on the potential hazards and critical control points in food preparation are called |
HACCP systems |
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Which of the following is a characteristic of an open feeding system? |
The formula must be transferred from its original container? |
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Open containers of formula that are unused should be disposed of within |
24-48 hours |
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Which of the following tube feeding delivery methods is done every 3-4 hours using a syringe? |
bolus feeding |
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Mrs. Smith, a client with congestive heart failure, requires 2000 kcal/day. She is receiving a formula with 2 kcal/mL by continuous drip. How many milliliters of formula will be given each hour? |
42 |
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Mr. Simpson is receiving formula intermittently 6 times a day. He needs 1500 mL each 24 hours. How many milliliters of formula is Mr. Simpson receiving at each feeding? |
250 |
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Sarah has been receiving enteral nutrition support for the past 4 days. Sh has developed diarrhea. What is the most likely culprit? |
medication |
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The patient should be eating enough by mouth to provide about _____ of their estimated nutrition needs before the tube feeding is discontinued |
2/3 |
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The only current treatment for phenylketonuria (PKU) is a diet that: |
supplies tyrosine and restricts phenylalanine |
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Kristina is a 4 year old with galactosemia. Which nutrient should he caregivers ensure adequate intake of? |
calcium |
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A client receiving greater than 2000 kcalories per day via parenteral nutrition should |
be given nutrition by the central venous route |
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Which of the following forms of glucose is available in parenteral solutions? |
dextrose |
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How much energy does dextrose provide? |
3.4 kcal/g |
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A physician writes an order for Mrs. Wilson to receive parenteral lipids twice a week. The purpose of this order is to |
provide essential fatty acids |
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A 20% IV fat emulsion provides how many kcalories per mL? |
2.0 |
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Suppose a person is receiving 2000 milliliters of a 10% amino acid solution. What is the amount of acids provided? |
200 grams |
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Refeeding syndrome is associated with dangerous fluctuations in |
serum electrolytes |
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When dysphagia impress the passage of solid foods but not liquids, the cause is usually |
an obstruction of the esophagus |
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A degenerative nerve condition affecting the esophagus, characterized by impaired peristalsis and incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter when swallowing, is: |
achalasia |
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Which of the following beverages is most appropriate for a client with dysphagia with an order for nectar-like liquids? |
tomato juice |
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Brandi is a 93 year old with high blood pressure and diabetes. She is newly diagnosed with severe dysphagia. Which diet is most appropriate for Brandi? |
4 g NA, no concentrated sweets, dysphagia level 1 |
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The main barrier to gastric reflux is the |
lower esophageal sphincter |
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Interventions that can help eliminate distress from GERD include |
small, frequent feedings |
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Nickie is eating thickened applesauce. What type of consistency does it most likely have? |
spoon-thick |
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Pain, bloating or discomfort in the upper abdominal area is termed |
dyspepsia |
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The primary cause of peptic ulcers is: |
helicobacter pylori infection |
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________ refers to a group of symptoms that results form abnormally rapid gastric emptying and is a common complication of both gastrectomy and gastric bypass surgery |
dumping syndrome |
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Which of the following meet the guidelines for a post-gastrectomy diet? |
small, frequent meals |
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An obese individual is considered to be a candidate for bariatric surgery if he or she has a BMI greater than ______, regardless of whether they have any serious obesity-associated problems |
40 |
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After a gastric bypass operation, the patient should be monitored for all of the following conditions except: |
hiatal hernia |
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Oral rehydration solutions used in the treatment of diarrhea contain |
electrolytes |
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MCT oil is commonly used in malabsorption syndromes because |
it does not require bile absorption |
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Symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome most often include: |
constipation and/or diarrhea and flatulence |
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Stress management is part of the treatment of which disease? |
irritable bowel syndrome |
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Which of the following is true of Crohn's disease? |
fistulas are common |
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A patient with Crohn's disease may develop all of the following nutrition problems, except: |
dumping syndrome |
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Ulcerative colitis may afflict which region of the digestive tract? |
rectum and colon |
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Dietary recommendations for a person with diverticulosis include a |
high-fiber diet |
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Patients with ileostomies are at risk for developing obstructions. A patient can reduce her risk for this complication by: |
chewing food thoroughly |
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A surgical procedure that creates a stoma from the final segment of the colon that remains after a colectomy is a |
colostomy |
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Intestinal bacteria can benefit out health by |
stimulating the immune system |
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Much of the research investigating probiotics and intestinal illness has focused on the prevention and treatment of |
infectious diarrhea |
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malabsorption of fat results in |
steatorrhea |
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Malabsorption of ______ often occurs as a consequence of fat malabsorption |
calcium and magnesium |
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For patients with fat malabsorption problems, dietary fat is better tolerated if it is ______________ |
provided in small portions |
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Acute pancreatitis can be caused by all of these conditions except |
stress |
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Nutrition deficiencies may occur with chronic pancreatitis due to __________ |
malabsorption and alcohol abuse |
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What would you recommend for a patient with cystic fibrosis who experiences persistent steatorrhea, gas and abdominal distention? |
an increase in pancreatic enzyme replacements |
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Nutritional therapy for cystic fibrosis includes all of these recommendations except |
a low-protein diet |
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The type of anemia associated with vitamin B12 and folate deficiency is called |
macrocytic anemia |
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Elevated levels of ____________ are indicative of iron deficiency |
serum transferrin |
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In cases unrelated to alcohol, the primary cause of fatty liver is _______ |
insulin resistance |
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The most common cause of hepatitis A virus infection is _________ |
fecal-oral contamination |
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Which condition is caused by bilirubin accumulation in the bloodstream? |
jaundice |
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Which condition is not a consequence of cirrhosis? |
disorientation |
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What is ascites? |
fluid accumulation in the abdomen |
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In liver disease, blood ammonia levels rise because the liver cannot convert the ammonia to
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sodium |
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Patients with cirrhosis require _______ in order to prevent wasting |
adequate kcalories |
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The daily protein intake for a patient with cirrhosis is _______ grams/kg dry body weight |
1.0-1.5 |
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If the patient with cirrhosis develops fat malabsorption and requires extra kcalories, these should be provided by _________ |
MCT oil |
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Which individual is at highest risk of developing gallstones? |
a menopausal woman who uses estrogen replacement therapy |
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Which factor does not increase the risk of developing gallstones? |
youth |
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Excessive urine production is called |
polyuria |
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Type 2 diabetes is associated with |
insulin resistance |
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Type 2 diabetics who develop a serious illness or infection that worsens elevated glucose concentrations are prone to developing |
hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome |
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A major cause of disability among people with diabetes is |
foot amputation |
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A major cause of death in people with diabetes is |
cardiovascular disease |
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In non-diabetes, glycated hemoglobin values are typically |
<6% |
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The HcA1C test is used to determine the |
glycemic control for the proceeding 2-3 months |
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Which food would have the least effect on blood glucose levels? |
whole-grain cereal |
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Protein needs for people with diabetes are estimated using the DRI for adults, which is ______ g/kg |
0.8 |
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Consistent carbohydrate intake is required for patients who are _________ |
using the basic carbohydrate-counting method |
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A patient with diabetes is allowed 60 grams of carbohydrate for lunch. This equals _____ portions of carbohydrate-contianing foods |
4 |
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All of these food portions represent 1 portion of a carbohydrate-containing food except |
1 cup cooked pasta |
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A patient's diabetic diet prescription is for 1800 kcal with 50% of kcal from carbohydrates. How many carbohydrate portions is the patient allowed each day? |
15 |
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The Somogyi effect is also known as |
rebound hyperglycemia |
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The treatment of type 2 diabetes stresses ________ because of its beneficial effects on improving blood glucose control and blood lipids and reducing blood pressure |
physical activity |
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Which group of symptoms is characteristic of the metabolic syndrome? |
abdominal obesity, reduced HDL, cholesterol levels, hyperglycemia |
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Prediabetes is diagnosed when a person has a fasting blood glucose level that falls between 100 and 125 mg/dL |
true |
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The primary defect in type 2 diabetes is autoimmune destruction of the pancreatic beta cells |
false |
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Acetone breath is a characteristic of hypoglycemia |
false |
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In people with diabetes, claudication may be due to polyuria |
false |
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Types of formulas that contain intact proteins are called _______________ |
standard formulas |
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The protein content of most standard formulas ranges from ______ of total kcalories |
12-20% |
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Enteral formulas may be used orally to supplement a patient's diet. When this occurs, _________ becomes an important consideration |
taste |
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Which feeding tube placement site would be most appropriate for a patient who is expected to be on a tube feeding for less than 4 weeks? |
nasogastric |
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Aspirations associated with gastric feedings can lead to damage to the ___________ |
lungs |
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The outer diameter of a feeding tube is measured in _________ |
French units |
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The advantage of a closed feeding system include ___________ |
less likeliness of contamination |
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To minimize the risk of aspiration of formula in tube-fed patients, the head of the patient's bed should be elevated ___________ |
during and for 30 min. after administration of the feeding |
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To ensure that the stomach is emptying properly, the nurse may measure ____________ |
gastric residual volume |
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An adult's daily water requirement is about ______ milliliters of water per kg body weight |
30-40 |
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Dextrose monohydrate provides ______ kcal/g |
3.4 |
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A 5% dextrose solution contains __________ |
5 grams of dextrose monohydrate per 100 mL |
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A parenteral solution containing 500 mL of a 10% lipid emulsion would provide _______ kcalories |
550 |
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To prevent refeeding syndrome in a severely stressed individual, you would _________ |
start feeding at a slow rate |
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Lifelong adherence to dietary restrictions is recommended for individuals with PKU in order to protect _______ function |
brain |
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Diets containing foods that are modified in texture or consistency are prescribed to treat disorders or conditions that primarily affect the ____________ |
upper gastrointestinal tract |
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What criteria are factored when determining whether a particular food is allowed on a clear-liquid diet? |
a) transparency, b) amount of digestion required, c) amount of residue left in the colon and d) that liquid is at room temperature |
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A condition in which a portion of the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm is called a _____________ |
hiatal hernia |
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Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) often develops as a consequence of __________ |
pregnancy |
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The most effective medications for suppressing gastric acid secretion are ___________ |
proton-pump inhibitors |
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One of the most common causes of acute gastritis is ______________ |
repeated use of NSAIDS |
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What is the primary treatment of ulcers? |
drug therapy |
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Liquids are restricted following a gastrectomy because they __________ |
can speed up the emptying rate of the stomach
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Rapid weight loss following bariatric surgery increases risk of developing __________ |
gallbladder disease |
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Patents who have had gastric bypass surgery require additional supplementation of __________ |
vitamin B12 and calcium |
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Constipation may be caused by which factors? |
a) a low-fiber diet, b) physical inactivity, c) medications, and d) inadequate fluid intake |
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Which active ingredient is found in the bulk-forming fiber supplement Metamucil? |
psyllium |
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Inflammation that may extend deeply into intestinal tissue and be accompanied by ulcerations, fissures and fistulas is characteristic of ___________ |
Crohn's disease |
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Mr. Taylor seeks medical treatment for frequent, urgent bowel movements streaked with mucus and blood, and tests reveal a large, continuous area of inflammation affecting the first 2 layers of tissue in his rectum. What is Mr. Taylor's likely diagnosis? |
ulcerative colitis |
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During an exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease, the patient should be placed on small, frequent meals of _________ to minimize stool output and reduce symptoms of malabsorption |
a low-fat, low-fiber diet |
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The most common complication of diverticulosis is ____________ |
diverticulitis |
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The primary purpose of a low-fiber diet for osmotic patients is to __________ |
decrease stool output |
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In order for probiotic microbes to have health benefits, they must __________ |
alter the intestinal environment in a beneficial way |
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Severe liver disease can lead to fat malabsorption because ___________ |
bile availability is reduced |
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Malabsorption of fat results in ___________ |
steatorrhea |
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Fat malabsorption is associated with deficiencies of _____________ |
fat-soluble vitamins, calcium, magnesium and essential fatty acids |
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Anemia caused by an illness rather than a nutrient deficiency is known as ___________ |
anemia of chronic disease |
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Nutritional therapy for cystic fibrosis includes all of these recommendations except _________ |
a low-protein diet |
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Celiac disease affects intestinal tissue and results in _________ |
a significant reduction in mucosal surface area |
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What conditions leads to the development of anemia? |
a) inadequate production of erythrocytes, b) rapid destruction of red blood cells, c) loss of erythrocytes due to bleeding and d) iron deficiency |
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Deficiencies of ________ most frequently cause anemia |
iron, folate and vitamin B12 |
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The type of anemia associated with vitamin B12 and folate deficiency is called _________ |
macrocytic anemia |
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What is the primary cause of chronic pancreatitis? |
alcohol abuse |
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Most enzyme preparations used to treat pancreatitis are enteric coated to _________ |
resist stomach acidity |
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What clinical procedures evaluate and diagnose malabsorption? |
a) endoscopy, b) stool fat analysis, c) hydrogen breath test, and d) xylose absorption test |
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The most common cause of hepatitis A virus infection is _________ |
fecal-oral contamination |
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Which condition is caused by bilirubin accumulation in the bloodstream? |
jaundice |
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The most appropriate dietary intervention for a malnourished person with cirrhosis is _________ |
adequate energy and protein |
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Albumin is not always a good indicator of nutrition status in patients with liver disease because ___________ |
the damaged liver cannot synthesize adequate plasma proteins |
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Collaterals are ___________ |
blood vessels that enlarge in order to allow an alternate path for blood flow |
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What is ascites? |
fluid accumulation in the abdomen |
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In liver disease, blood ammonia levels rise because the liver cannot convert the ammonia to ________ |
urea |
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Furosemide is a _________ often used to treat the symptoms of cirrhosis |
diuretic |
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To add energy but not protein in the diet, you would add _________ |
butter |
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Patient with ascites generally must restrict their intake of _________ |
sodium |
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To improve the appetite of a patient with cirrhosis, a physician may prescribe _________ |
megestrol acetate |
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What symptoms are associated with the acute complications of diabetes? |
hyperglycemia, dehydration and polyuria |
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Type 2 diabetes often goes undiagnosed in overweight children and teens because ___________ |
there are frequently no symptoms |
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Hypoglycemia is frequently caused by __________ |
poor management of diabetes |
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A major cause of disability among people with diabetes is _________ |
foot amputation |
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A disadvantage of intensive therapy for type 1 diabetes is _________ |
a greater risk of severe hypoglycemia |
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The HbA1C test is used to determine the __________ |
glycemic control for the preceding 2-3 months |
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What are the recommendations for carbohydrate intake for diabetics? |
High--fiber, minimally processed carbohydrates should be emphasized |
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Consistent carbohydrate intake is required for patients who are __________ |
using the basic carbohydrate-counting method |
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A patient with diabetes is allowed 60 grams of carbohydrate for lunch. This equals _______ portions of carbohydrate-containing foods. |
4 |
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A patient's diabetic diet prescription is for 1800 calories with 50% of kcalories from carbohydrate. How many carbohydrate portions is the patient allowed each day? |
15 |
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The treatment of type 2 diabetes stresses _______ because of its beneficial effects of improving blood glucose control and blood lipids and reducing blood pressure |
physical activity |
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A blood glucose level of 121 mg/dL meets the criteria for a diagnosis of __________ |
prediabetes |
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What recommendations would you make to reduce a patient's risk of developing diabetes? |
a) lose weight, b) increase physical activities, c) learn to make better food choices at restaurants and d) cut down on the alcohol consumption |
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A blood glucose level of 140 mg/dL meets the criteria for a diagnosis of _________ |
type 2 diabetes |
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What is the simplest and most flexible approach to use for optimal management of blood glucose levels? |
carbohydrate counting |
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Individuals with hypertriglyceridemia should reduce their intake of ________ |
desserts |
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What group of symptoms is characteristic of the metabolic syndrome? |
abdominal obesity, reduced HDL cholesterol levels and hyperglycemia |
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Atherosclerosis is dangerous to arterial function because __________ |
it narrow the arterial lumen so it is easily obstructed by a clot |
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The formation of plaque is _________ |
an inflammatory response |
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Low blood HDL levels are _________ |
highly predictive of CHD risk |
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Trans fats ___________ |
are derived from partially hydrogenated vegetable oils |
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To lower LDL cholesterol levels, saturated fatty acids should be restricted to _______ of daily kcalories |
7 |
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The general recommendation for high-risk individuals is a cholesterol intake of less than ______ milligrams per day |
200 |
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Regular aerobic activity can reduce CHD risk by providing all of these benefits except __________ |
lowering HDL levels |
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What substances have been found to be protective against CHD? |
a) eating 2 fatty fish meals per week, b) dietary fiber, c) moderate consumption of alcohol and d) moderate, regular exercise |
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Optimal resting blood pressure for adults is _____ mm Hg systolic over _______ mm Hg diastolic |
<120; <80 |
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Health authorities recommend that individuals with hypertension increase their intake of __________ |
potassium, calcium and magnesium |
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Chronic protein-energy malnutrition that develops as a consequence of heart failure is called __________ |
cardiac cachexia |
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In working with patients with disabilities, a valuable method for assessing current eating behaviors is __________ |
directly observing patients during mealtimes |
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A patient's lipid profile shows elevated total cholesterol and LDL. Which nutrient intervention is recommended? |
consume less saturated fat |
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A patient who takes _______ needs to monitor their vitamin K intake |
warfarin |
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A patient who takes ________ must avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice |
statins |
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Nephrotic syndrome is a result of __________ |
damage to the glomeruli |
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One of the effects of nephrotic syndrome is a loss of vitamin D. This can result in ________ in children. |
rickets |
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About half of patients with acute kidney injury experience oliguria. This means that they produce less than _______ milliliters of urine per day |
400 |
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One of the most common causes of chronic kidney disease is _________ |
diabetes |
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Anorexia is associated with chronic kidney disease may be caused by all of these factors except ___________ |
hypertension |
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A renal patient who shows an increase in weight gain and blood pressure is most likely __________ |
retaining sodium and fluid |
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Patients on a renal diet may want to increase intake of _________ to increase the energy content of meals |
margarine |
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Compared to standard formulas, enteral formulas suitable for chronic kidney disease __________ |
are more calorically dense |
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T or F: predialysis chronic kidney disease patients have higher protein needs than those on hemodialysis |
false |
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T or F: the symptoms associated with the whole-body inflammatory response to sever illness are collectively called the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) |
true |
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T or F: smoking is the primary risk factor in most cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) |
true |
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What substance is derived from dietary fatty acids? |
eicosanoids |
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One of the initial concerns for patients hospitalized with acute stress is to ________ |
restore lost fluids and electrolytes |
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What amino acid may improve infection, muscle mass, and mortality rates in critically ill patients? |
glutamine |
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What nutrient plays a critical role in immunity and would healing? |
zinc |
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What factors cause poor food intake in persons with severed COPD? |
a) medications, b) dyspnea, c) change in taste perception and d) loss of sense of smell |
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When pulmonary edema is present, a patient requires ________ |
fluid restriction |
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T or F: some people with cancer fail to regain lean body mass even when they are receiving adequate nutrients and energy |
true |
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T or F: a buffalo hump and lipomas are common side effects of drug treatments for HIV infection |
true |
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T or F: patients have a right to refuse medical treatment - including nourishment and hydration - even if refusing the treatment could result in death |
true |
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Which nutrition-related factors may increase the risk of developing cancer? |
a) obesity, b) red meat intake, c) intake of salt-preserved foods and d) foods grilled or charred |
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What factor is a major contributor to wasting associated with cancer? |
anorexia |
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What side effects frequently accompany cancer therapies? |
a) altered taste perception, b) mouth sores, c) diarrhea and e) nausea |
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A cancer patient complains that foods just don't taste right. What is an appropriate recommendation to help the patient handle this problem? |
Brush your teeth or use mouthwash before eating |
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A patient with _______ cancer may require long-term tube feeding |
neck |
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Which alternative therapy might worsen HIV infection or AIDS by decreasing the effectiveness of antiviral drugs? |
echinacea |
