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205 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is innate resistance?
(also called natural or native immunity)

includes natural barriers (physical, mechanical, and biochemical) and inflammation
What is the first line of defense?
(1) Physical Barriers
(2) Mechanical Barriers
(3) Biochemical Barriers
What is the second line of defense?
Inflammation
What is the third line of defense?
Adaptive (acquired) immunity
List the physical barriers of the first line of defense.
(1) tightly associated epithelial cells of the skin and of the membranes of the gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract
List some mechanical barriers of the first line of defense.
(1) pathogens sloughed off with dead skin cells as they are routinely replaced
(2) pathogens expelled by coughing or sneezing
(3) pathogens vomited from the stomach
(4) pathogens flushed from the urinary tract by urine
(5) epithelial cells of the respiratory tract also produce mucus and have hairlike cilia that trap and move pathogens upward to be expelled by coughing or sneezing
(6) low temperature on the body's surface generally inhibits microorganisms, most of which routinely require temperatures near 37*C (98.6*F) for efficient growth
List some biochemical barriers of the first line of defense.
(1) mucus
(2) perspiration
(3) saliva
(4) tears
(5) earwax
(6) sebaceous glands in the skin secrete fatty acids and lactic acid that kill bacteria and fungi
(7) epithelial cells secrete antimicrobial peptides, that are toxic to certain bacteria, fungi, and viruses
(8) normal bacterial flora on body's surfaces produce chemicals (such as ammonia, phenols, indols, and other toxic chemicals) that inhibit colonization by pathogenic organisms
What do perspiration, tears, and saliva contain and what does this molecule do?
they contain an enzyme (lysozyme) that attacks the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria
What do the sebaceous glands in the skin secrete?
fatty acids and lactic acid that kill bacteria and fungi
What do epithelial cells secrete that are toxic to certain bacteria, fungi, and viruses?
antimicrobial peptides
What is the normal bacterial flora and where does it reside?
a spectrum of nonpathogenic bacteria that resides on the body's surfaces
How do the microorganisms that colonize the lower gut help us?
(1) help digest fatty acids, large polysaccharides, and other dietary substances
(2) produce vitamin K
(3) assist in the absorption of various ions, such as calcium, iron, and magnesium
(4) also produce chemicals (ammonia, phenols, indols, and other toxic substances) that inhibit colonization by pathogenic microorganisms
What can prolonged antibiotic treatment do to the body?
it can alter the normal intestinal flora, decreasing its protective activity, and lead to an overgrowth of pathogenic microorganisms, such as the yeast Candida albicans or the bacteria Clostridium difficile
What is the bacterium Lactobacillus? What does it produce? What can diminished colonization by this bacteria cause?
(1) The bacterium Lactobacillus is a major constituent of the normal vaginal flora in healthy women.
(2) It produces chemical (hydrogen peroxide, lactic acid, and other molecules) that help prevent infections of the vagina and urinary tract by other bacteria and yeast.
(3) Diminished colonization by this bacteria (such as, as a result of prolonged antibiotic treatment) increases the risk for urologic or vaginal infections, such as vaginosis.
List the classic symptoms of inflammation.
(1) Redness
(2) Swelling
(3) heat
(4) pain
(5) loss of function
What are the characteristic microscopic changes of inflammation?
(1) vasodilation
(2) increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid out of the vessel, causing swelling (edema)
(3) white blood cell adherence to the inner walls of vessels and their migration through enlarged junctions between the endothelial cells lining the vessels into the surrounding tissue
What does vasodilation cause?
It increases the size of the blood vessels, which cuases slower blood velocity and increases blood flow to the injured site.
What do increased vascular permeability and leakage of fluid out of the vessel cause?
As plasma moves outward, blood in the microcirculation becomes more viscous and flows more slowly, and the increased blood flow and increasing concentration of red cells at the site of inflammation cuase locally increased warmth and redness.
What do the vascular changes associated with inflammation do?
Deliver leukocytes, plasma proteins, and other biochemical mediators to the site of injury, where they act in concert.
List the benefits of inflammation.
(1) Limits and controls tissue damage through the influx of plasma protein systems (e.g., clotting system) and white blood cells (e.g., eosinophils) that prevent the inflammatory response from spreading to areas of healthy tissue
(2) Prevents infection by contaminating microorganisms through the influx of fluid to dilute toxins produced by bacteria, the influx and acntivation of plasma protein systems that help destroy and contain bacteria (e.g., compelement system, clotting system), and the influx of white blood cells (e.g., neutrophils, macrophages) that "eat" and destroy infectious agents
(3) initiates the adaptive immune response through the influx of macrophages and lymphocytes and drainage of microbial antigens by lymphatic vessels to the lymph nodes, where they activate lymphocytes
(4) initiates healing through removal of bacterial products, dead cells, and other products of inflammation (e.g., by way of channels through the epithelium or drainage by lymphatic vessels) and activate mechanisms of repair
What 3 phases can inflammation be divided into?
(1) Acute
(2) Chronic
(3) Granulomatosus
What cell is the most important activator of the inflammatory response?
the Mast Cell
What are mast cells filled with?
filled with granules
Where are mast cells located?
in loose connective tissues close to blood vessels near the body's outer surfaces (i.e., in the skin and lining the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts)
Where are basophils found and what is their function?
Basophils are found in the blood and probably function in the same way as tissue mast cells.
What is the role of cells and proteins that move into an area of inflammation?
(1) limit tissue damage
(2) prevent infection
(3) control blood loss
What causes mast cell degranulation?
Mast cell degranulation is caused by a stimulus that activates mast cells to release potent soluble inducers of inflammation.
A great number of stimuli activate mast cells to release potent soluble inducers of inflammation. How are these released?
(1) degranulation (the release of the contents of mast cell granules)
(2) synthesis (the new production and release of mediators in response to a stimulus)
What are the preformed vasoactive amines and chemotactic factors that are released from mast cells?
(1) vasoactive amines: histamine and serotonin
(2) chemotactic factors: neutrophil chemotactic factor and eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis
What is histamine?
a small molecular weight molecule with potent effects on many other cells, particularly those that control the circulation
What is histamine, along with serotonin, referred to as?
a vasoactive amine
What does histamine cause?
(1) temporary, rapid constriction of smooth muscle and dilation of the postcapillary venules, which results in increased blood flow into the microcirculation
(2) also causes increased vascular permeability resulting from retraction of endothelial cells lining the capillaries and increased adherence of leukocytes to endothelial cells
How does histamine affect cells?
by binding to histamine H1 and H2 receptors on the target cell surface
What are antihistamines?
Drugs that block the binding of histamine to its receptors, resulting in decreased inflammation
What do chemotactic factors do?
They diffuse from a site of inflammation forming a gradient and causing directional movemement (chemotaxis) of cells toward inflammation
What are neutrophils?
the predominant cell needed to kill bacteria in the early stages of inflammation
What are eosinophils?
cells that help regulate the inflammatory response, releases toxic proteins, and acts directly on parasites.
What factors can cause mast cell degranulation?
(1) mechanical injuries
(2) chemicals
(3) IgE binding in response to allergens
(4) activated complement
Activated mast cells begin new synthesis of other mediators of inflammation, which are released later than those in the granules. List the mediators that are synthesized by the mast cells.
(1) Leukotrienes (slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis [SRS-A])
(2) Prostaglandins
(3) Platelet-activating factor
What are leukotrienes?
sulfur-containing lipids that produce histamine-like effects: smooth muscle contraction and increased vascular permeability.
Why are leukotrienes important in the later stages of the inflammatory response?
because they stimulate slower and more prolonged responses than do histamines
What do prostaglandins cause?
(1) increased vascular permeability
(2) neutrophil chemotaxis
(3) pain by direct effects on nerves
What are prostaglandins?
long-chain, unsaturated fatty acids
What are prostaglandins produced by?
arachidonic acid production leads to the synthesis of prostaglandin precursors via the action of the cyclooxgenase enzymes. These precursors are then modified into several types of active prostaglandins (E2, A2, F2, D2, I2, B2)
What are prostaglandins classified into?
They are classified into groups (E, D, A, F, and B) according to their structure
What do prostaglandins E1 and E2 cause?
(1) increased vascular permeability
(2) smooth muscle contraction
Which drugs block the synthesis of prostaglandins of the E series and other arachidonic acid derivatives, thereby inhibiting inflammation?
(1) aspirin
(2) some other NSAIDS (nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
What is platelet-activating factor produced by?
made directly from membrane phospholipids

by removal of a fatty acid chain from the plasma membrane phospholipid by phospholipase A2.
What cells are the major source of PAF?
mast cells, but they can also be produced during inflammation by neutrophils, monocytes, endothelial cells, and platelets.
The biologic activity of PAF is virtually identical to what other molecule?
Leukotrienes
List the functions of PAF.
(1) cause endothelial cell retraction to increase vascular permeability
(2) leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells
(3) platelet activation to stop bleeding
(4) vasoconstriction
(5) bronchoconstriction
At the site of tissue damage all the hallmarks of inflammation are caused by ______________.
mast cell products
What are the 3 key plasma protein systems?
(1) Complement system
(2) Clotting (Coagulation) system
(3) Kinin system
List the similarities of the 3 plasma protein systems.
(1) each system consists of multiple proteins in the blood
(2) to prevent activation in unnecessary situations, each protein is normally in an inactive form.
(3) several of the proteins are enzymes that circulate in inactive forms called proenzymes
(4) each systems contains a few proteins that can be activated by products of tissue damage or infection
(5) activation of the first component results in sequential activation of the first components of the system, leading to a biologic function that helps protect the individual. This sequential activation is referred to as a cascade.
(6) in some cases, activation of a protein may require that it be enzymatically cut into two pieces of different size. Usually the larger fragment continues the cascade by activating the next component. The smaller fragment frequently has potent biologica activities to promote inflammation.
What does the complement system consist of?
a large number of proteins (sometimes called complement components) that together constitute about 10% of the total circulating serum protein.
Why is the complement system important?
because activated components can destroy pathogens directly and can activate or collaborate with virtually every other component of the inflammatory response. For these reasons, proteins of the complement system are among the body's most important defenders against bacterial infection.
What is the most important portion of the complement cascade?
activation of C3 adn C5
What does the activation of C3 and C5 result in?
a variety of subunits that are (1) opsonins
(2) chemotactic factors
(3) anaphylatoxins
What are opsonins?
Molecules that coat bacteria and increase their susceptibility to being eaten and killed by inflammatory cells, such as neutrophils and macrophages
What are anaphylatoxins?
Molecules that induce rapid degranulation of mast cells, thus increasing inflammation.
What are the most potent complement products?
(1) C3b (opsonin)
(2) C3a (anaphylatoxin)
(3) C5a (anaphylatoxin, chemotactic factor)
What does opsonization mean?
Means that complement C3b and C5b (along with antibodies) make it easier for phagocytes to ingest bacteria, especially those organisms that have capsules that make them difficult to phagocytose. Phagocytes have receptors on their surfaces for complement and antibodies and can thus "grab" onto the bacteria and pull them into the cell to be destroyed.
What is chemotaxis?
describes the chemical signaling that causes leukocytes to move toward an area of inflammation.

C3a and C5a are the complement components most involved in chemotaxis
Which complement components induce mast cell degranulation (anaphylatoxins)?
C3a and C5a, which cause mast cells to release vasoactive chemicals such as histamine and serotonin, which cause hyperemia and fluid exudation
Which complement componenets make up the membrane attack complex?
C5-C9
What is the membrane attack complex?
a group of complement components (C5-C9) that bind to the lipid bilayer of cell membranes, forming cylindrical pores (channels). These pores in the membrane of target cells allow water to pour in, leading to cell lysis and cell death.
What are the 3 ways that complement activation can be accomplished?
(1) Classical pathway
(2) Lectin Pathway
(3) Alternative pathway
What activates the classical pathway?
proteins of the acquired immune system (antibodies)
What activates the lectin pathway?
certain bacterial carbohydrates
What activates the alternative pathway?
gram-negative bacteril and fungal cell wall polysaccharides
Describe the classical pathway.
It is primarily activated by proteins of the acquired immune system, antibodies. Antibody must first bind with their targets, called antigens.

Antigens can be proteins or carbohydrates from bacteria or other infectious agents.

(1) the classic pathway of complement activation involves the binding of the Fc portions of antibodies to activated C1, which results in the complement molecule transforming into its subcomponents C2, C4, and C3.
(2) C3 is subsequently divided into 2 components, C3a and C3b
(3) C3b is then transformed to C5, which is subsequently divided into 2 subcomponents, C5a and C5b
(4) Finally, C5b is transformed to C5b plus C6, C7, C8, and C9, which form the membrane attack complex (MAC)
List the 3 major groups of active complement components and what they do.
(1) C3a and C3b: chemotaxis and degranulate mast cells (anaphylatoxins)
(2) C3b and C5b:opsonize encapsulated bacteria
(3) C5-C9: form the membrane attack complex (MAC)
How does opsonization work?
C3b and C5b bind to the surface of encapsulated bacteria (along with antibodies).

Phagocytes have complement receptors on their surfaces that allow them to "grab onto" the bacterium and ingest it.
What is the result of the anaphylatoxin role of C3a and C5a?
Mast cell degranulation results in release of the preformed vascular mediators histamine and serotonin, leading to hyperemia and fluid exudation

chemotactic factors are released that bring inflammatory cells to the area of injury

rapidly formed production of arachidonate metabolism (prostaglandins and leukotrienes) contribute to the inflammatory response.
What does MAC do?
C5 through C9 bind to membranes of target cells and create pores into the cells, leading to cell lysis and death
Describe the alternative pathway.
activated by several substances found on the surface of infectious organisms (e.g., lipopolysaccharides [endotoxin] on bacterial surface or yeast cell wall carbohydrates [zymosan]).

this pathway uses unique proteins (factor B, factor D, and properdin) to form a complex that activates C3.

C3 activation leads to C5 activation and convergence with the classical pathway.

Thus, the complement system can be directly activated by certain infectious organisms without antibody being present.
Describe the lectin pathway.
similar to the classic pathway but is independent of antibody.

it is activated by a plasma protein called mannose-binding lectin (MBL).

MBL is similar to C1 and binds to bacterial polysaccharides containing the carbohydrate mannose.

Thus, infectious agents that do not activate the alternative pathway may be susceptible to complement through the lectin pathway.
What is the clotting system?
a group of plasma proteins that, when activated sequentially, form a fibrinous meshwork at an injured or inflamed site.
What are the functions of the coagulation (clotting) system?
(1) forms a clot that stops bleeding
(2) traps infectious organisms and prevents their spread to adjacent tissues
(3) keeps microorganisms and foreign bodies at the site of greatest inflammatory cell activity
(4) provides a framework for future repair and healing
What is the main substance in the fibrinous mesh produced by the clotting system?
fibrin, an insoluble protein produced by the coagulation cascade
Where does the coagulation cascade converge?
at factor X, from that point on a common pathway results in fibrin formation.
What can activate the coagulation cascade?
many substances released during tissue destruction and infection, such as bacterial products (e.g., endotoxin), collagen, and cellular proteases
What are released when fibrinogen is activated to produce fibrin?
two low-molecular-weight peptides (fibrinopeptides A and B).

these two fibrinopeptides are chemotactic for neutrophils and increase vascular permeability
Describe the kinin system.
interacts closely with the coagulation system

both the clotting system and kinin system are activated trhough activated factor XII (factor XIIa).

Another name for factor XIIa is prekallikrein activator because it enzymatically activates the first component of the kinin system, prekallikrein.

the final product of the kinin system is a small-molecular-weight molecule, bradykinin, which is produced from a large precursor molecule, kininogen.
What is bradykinin produced from?
a large precursor molecule called kininogen
What does bradykinin cause at low doses?
(1) dilation of blood vessels
(2) acts with prostaglandins to produce pain
(3) causes smooth muscle cell contraction
(4) increases vascular permeability
What are the two pathways of activation of the coagulation cascade?
a. Extrinsic pathway--causes blood clotting in response to factors released from damaged tissue

b. Intrinsic pathway--causes blood clotting in response to contact with a foreign substance

c. Injured cells, bacterial products, and exposed collagen can begin the cascade of events leading to the production of a fibrin clot.
Why is control of the plasma protein systems essential?
a. Because it would be detrimental to the person if the systems continued producing potent proinflammatory molecules indefinitely.
What are some of the important control systems for inflammation?
(1) during clot formation the enzyme plasmin is produced from plasminogen. Plasmin limits clot formation by degrading fibrin and fibrinogen and also can activate the complement cascade through components C1, C3, and C5.

(2) anaphylatoxic activities of C3a and C5a are inactivate by the plasma enzyme carboxypeptidase.

(3) C1 esterase inhibitor binds to C1 to inhibit further activation of the classical pathway. It also binds to elements of the kinin and clotting systems to prevent or limit their activation.
26. What is an example of a disease caused by inadequate controls of plasma inflammatory systems?
Hereditary angioneurotic edema is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor.

In individuals with this disease, emotional stress and other stimuli often cause recurrent edema in the GI tract, respiratory tract, and skin, with swelling around the larynx sometimes causing death.

The mechanism appears to be episodic, uncontrolled activation of plasmin, resulting in Hageman factor (XII) activation, bradykinin production, and C1 activation.
What are the primary circulating white blood cells?
granulocytes
List the granulocytes.
(1) neutrophils
(2) basophils
(3) eosinophils
List other blood components.
(1) platelets
(2) monocytes/macrophages
(3) various forms of lymphocytes
(4) natural killer cells
27. What are the primary mechanisms by which phagocytes arrive at the area of injury?
Biochemical mediators produced by mast cells or from activation of plasma protein systems or are released from dying cells
28. How do neutrophils and macrophages differ with respect to their roles in inflammation?
a. Primary roles of the neutrophil are removal of debris and dead cells in sterile lesions, such as burns, and phagocytosis of bacteria in nonsterile lesions. It is incapable of division and sensitive to acidic environments, it is short lived at the inflammatory site.

(b) Macrophages are better suited than neutrophils to long-term defense against infectious agents because macrophages can survive and divide in the acidic inflammatory site.
Endothelial cells release nitric oxide, which has at least two effects on inflammation. List them.
(1) NO causes vasodilation by inducing relaxation of vascular smooth muscle, a response that is local and short-lived.

(2) NO may suppress mast cell release of inflammatory molecules and decrease platelet adhesion and aggregation.
What are neutrophils?
a member of the granulocyte series of white blood cells and is named for the characteristic staining pattern of its granules as well as its multilobed nucleus
What are the predominant phagocytes in the early inflammatory site? When do they arrive?
(1) neutrophils

(2) arrive within 6 to 12 hours after the initial injury
Which inflammatory mediators specifically and rapidly attract neutrophils from the circulation and activate them?
some bacterial proteins

complement fragments C3a and C5a

mast cell neutrophil chemotactic factor
Why is the neutrophil short-lived at the inflammatory site?
because it is a mature cell that is incapable of division and sensitive to acidic environments

it becomes a component of the purulent exudate, or pus, which is removed from the body through the epithelium or via the lymphatic system
List the primary roles of the neutrophil.
(1) removal of debris and dead cells in sterile lesions, such as burns

(2) phagocytosis of bacteria in nonsterile lesions
What are monocytes?
the immature form of this white blood cell in the blood
What are macrophages?
the mature form of this white blood cell in tissues
How are monocytes and macrophages different from the granulocytes?
they have fewer and larger lysosomes in their cytoplasm than do granulocytes
What are the largest normal blood cells and have a nucleus that is often indented or horseshoe shaped?
monocytes
Where are monocytes produced?
in the bone marrow, where they then enter the circulation, migrate to the inflammatory site, and develop into macrophages
What are the macrophages of the liver called?
Kupffer's cells
What are the macrophages of the brain called?
microglia
What are the macrophages of the lungs called?
alveolar macrophages
When do macrophages enter the site of inflammation?
ater 24 hours or later, and gradually replace neutrophils
Why do macrophages migrate to the area of inflammation after neutrophils?
because they move more sluggishly and because many of the chemotactic factors that attract them, such as macrophage chemotactic factor, must first be released by neutrophils
Why are macrophages better suited than neutrophils to long-term defense against infectious agents?
because macrophages can survive and divide in the acidic inflammatory site
What organisms can avoid being killed inside macrophages and why?
a. Several bacteria are resistant to killing by granulocytes and can even survive inside macrophages:
(1) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (tuberculosis)
(2)Mycobacterium leprae (leprosy)
(3) Salmonella typhi (typhoid fever)
(4)Brucella abortus (brucellosis)
(5) Listeria monocytogenes (lysteriosis)

b. They can remain dormant or multiply inside the phagolysosomes of macrophages

c. For macrophages to kill certain infectious agents most effectively, they require activation by lymphokines produced from T helper cells, especially interferon. These lymphokines make the macrophage increase in size, have more phagocytic activity, and increase the number of lysosomes. When there is immune dysfunction such that the T helper cells do not secrete adequate lymphokines, certain infections may persist within macrophages for long periods of time (latency) without being killed. The organism may be contained for long periods by the formation of a granuloma.
What are the functions of macrophages in the inflammatory response?
(1) provide prolonged phagocytosis at the site of inflammation

(2) process and present antigens to the immune system

(3) release numerous cytokines that promote healing, including growth factors and angiogenesis factors (promote new blood vessel formation)
What are the 2 specific functions of eosinophils?
(1) serve as the body's primary defense against parasites

(2) help regulate vascular mediators released from mast cells
What attracts eosinophils to the site of inflammation?
eosinophil chemotactic factor-A produced by mast cells
What do eosinophil lysosomes contain?
several enzymes that degrade vasoactive molecules, thereby controlling the vascular effects of inflammation

these enzymes include histaminase, which mediates the degradation of histamine, and arlysulfatase B, which degrades some of the lipid-derived mediators produced by mast cells
What are the roles of natural killer cells and platelets in inflammation?
a. Natural killer cells--recognize and eliminate cells infected with viruses and abnormal host cells, specifically cancer cells

Platelets--activated after injury, which results in (1) their interaction with components of the coagulation cascade to stop bleeding and (2) degranulation, releasing biochemical mediators such as serotonin, which has vascular effects similar to those of histamine
What is the main function of natural killer cells? How do these cells recognize target cells?
to recognize and eliminate cells infected with viruses and abnormal host cells, specifically cancer cells.

Along with Toll-like receptors, NK cells have additional inhibitory and activating receptors that allow them to recognize differences between infected or tumor cells and normal cells. If the NK cell binds to a target cell through activating receptors, it produces several cytokines and toxic molecules that can kill the target.
How do eosinophils contribute to tissue damage?
through the release of toxic substances, such as major basic protein and eosinophil cationic protein
How are eosinophils activated in allergies and asthma?
by interleukin-5 produced by T helper 2 cells.
How do eosinophils and their release to toxic substances contribute to acute allergic and asthmatic response?
by denuding epithelial membranes and making them more vulnerable to noxious stimuli.

They also participate in chronic inflammatory changes that can lead to fibrosis and permanent changes in tissues.
What are platelets?
cytoplasmic fragments formed from megakaryocytes
Platelets circulate in the bloodstream until vascular injury occurs. What happens after an injury?
platelets are activated by many products of tissue destruction and inflammation, including collagen, thrombin, and platelet-activating factor.
What does the activation of platelets result in?
(1) their interaction with components the coagulation cascade to stop bleeding

(2) degranulation, releasing biochemical mediators such as serotonin, which has vascular effects similar to those of histamine
What is phagocytosis?
the process by which a cell ingests and disposes of foreign material, including microorganisms
What are the two most important phagocytes?
(1) neutrophils

(2) macrophages
What are the steps involved in phagocytosis?
a. Adherence of the phagocyte to its target

b. Engulfment (endocytosis)

c. Formation of a phagosome

d. Fusion of the phagosome with lysosomal granules within the phagocyte

e. Destruction of the target
What is meant by pattern-recognition receptors?
Groups of innate receptors that bind to unique molecular "patterns" on infectious agents or their products or products of cellular damage
What is meant by margination, or pavementing?
a process by which leukocytes adhere to the endothelial cells on the walls of capillaries and venules
What is diapedesis?
emigration of leukocytes through the endothelial junctions that have retracted in response to inflammatory mediators
Once inside the tissues, leukocytes are attracted to the inflammatory site by chemotactic factors. List them.
(1) many bacterial products

(2) neutrophil chemotactic factor from mast cells

(3) complement fragments C3a and C5a

(4) products of the clotting and kinin systems
Most phagocytes can trap and engulf bacteria that have not been coated with an opsonin. How does adherence occur in this situation?
through groups of innate receptors, pattern recognition receptors (PRRs), that bind to unique molecular "patterns" on infectious agents or their products (pathogen-associated molcular patterns [PAMPs]) or products of cellular damage.
What are Toll-like receptors?
a set of pattern recognition receptors expressed on the surface of phagocytes as well as many cells that have direct contact with potential pathogenic microorganisms.

These include mucosal epithelial cells, mast cells, neutrophils, macrophages, and some subpopulations of lymphocytes.
What do Toll-like receptors do?
recognize a large variety of chemicals located on the microorganism's cell wall or surface (e.g., bacterial lipopolysaccharide [LPS], peptidoglycans, lipoproteins, yeast zymosan, and viral coat proteins) and on other surface structures (e.g., bacterial flagellin)
Phagocytosis using innate receptors is a relatively slow process. What enhances adherence by acting as a glue to tighten the affinity of adherences between the phagocyte and the target cell?
opsonization
What are the most efficient opsonins?
antibody and C3b produced by the complement system
The surface of phagocytes contains a variety of specific receptors that will strongly bind to opsonins. What do these include?
(1) complement receptors that bind to C3b

(2) Fc receptors that bind to a site on antibody molecules
How is engulfment (endocytosis) carried out?
by small pseudopods that extend from the plasma membrane and surround the adherent microorganism forming an intracellular phagocytic vacuole, or phagosome.

After the formation of the phagosome, lysosomes converge, fuse with the phagosome, and discharge their contents, creating a phagolysosome.

Destruction of the bacterium takes place within the phagolysosome and is accomplished by both oxygen-dependent and oxygen-independent mechanisms.
Describe the oxygen-dependent killing mechanisms.
result from the production of toxic oxygen species.

phagocytosis is accompanied by a burst of oxygen uptake by the phagocyte; this is termed the respiratory burst and results from a shift in much of the cell's glucose metabolism to the hexose-monophosphate shunt, which produces nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH).

A membrane-associated enzyme, NADPH oxidase uses NADPH to generate superoxide, hydrogen peroxide, and other reactive oxygen species that can be highly damaging to bacteria.

Hydrogen peroxide also can collaborate with the lysosomal myeloperoxidase and halide anions (Cl- and Br-) to form acids that can kill bacteria and fungi
Describe the oxygen-independent killing mechanisms.
(1) the acidic pH (3.5 to 4.0) of the phagolysosome
(2) cationic proteins that bind to and damage target cell membranes
(3) enzyme attack of the microorganism's cell wall by lysozyme and other enzymes
(4) inhibition of bacterial growth by lactoferrin binding of iron
When a phagocyte dies at an inflammatory site, it frequently lyses and releases its cytoplasmic contents, including the lysosomal enzymes, into the tissue. What does this do to the tissues?
These enzymes can digest the connective tissue matrix, causing much of the tissue destruction associated with inflammation.
How are the destructive effects of many enzymes released by dying phagocytes minimized?
by natural inhibitors found in the blood, such as alpha1-antitrypsin, a plasma protein produced by the liver.
What does an inherited deficiency of alpha1-antitrypsin lead to?
chronic lung damage and emphysema as a result of inflammation
How do released lysosomal products also contribute to inflammation?
(1) increasing vascular permeability
(2) attracting additional monocytes
(3) activating the complement and kinin systems
What are the shared characteristics of inflammatory cytokines?
a. Inflammatory cytokines are produced by the cells of inflammation (as well as some lymphocytes) and provide rapid and nonspecific responses to invaders. 

• Most cytokines enhance inflammation (proinflammatory) (TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6, interferons).

• A few are anti-inflammatory (IL-10).

• Most cytokines act on the cells and tissues in their immediate vicinity.

• When a significant inflammatory response is initiated, these cytokines may spill into the bloodstream and cause systemic manifestation such as fever (TNF-alpha, IL-1).

• Cytokines bind to receptors on inflammatory cells.

• Cytokine activity may vary depending on the target cell and its receptors.

• Cytokines may act synergistically or antagonistically.

• Some cytokines are more active in some stages of inflammation than others.
For inflammation to occur, many different kinds of cells must cooperate. That cooperation is achieved by the secretion of a variety of proteins that affect other cells. What are these factors referred to as?
cytokines and chemokines
What are the majority of important cytokines classified as?
as interleukins or interferons
What is the major role of interleukin-1 (IL-1)?
a. Fever-causing cytokine (endogenous pyrogen); reacts with receptors on cells of the hypothalamus and affects the body's thermostat resulting in fever.

b. It also activates phagocytes and lymphocytes, thereby also enhancing both the innate and acquired immunity, and acts as a growth factor for many cells.

c. Has several affects on neutrophils, inlcuding induction of proliferation (resulting in an increase in the number of circulating neutrophils), chemotaxis, increased cellular respiration, and increased lysosomal enzyme activity.
What are interleukins produced predominantly by?
macrophages and lymphocytes in response to their recognition of a pathogen or stimulation by other products of inflammation
What is interleukin-1 produced primarily by?
macrophages
What is the main function of interleukin-1?
as an endogenous pyrogen that reacts with receptors on cells of the hypothalamus and affects the body's thermostat resulting in fever.

It also activates phagocytes and lymphocytes, thereby enhancing both the innate and acquired immunity, and acts as a growth factor for many cells
What are the effects of interleukin-1 on neutrophils?
(1) induction of proliferation
(2) chemotaxis
(3) increased cellular respiration
(4) increased lysosomal enzyme activity
What is the major role of interleukin-6 (IL-6)?
a. Directly induces hepatocytes to produce many of the proteins needed in inflammation (acute-phase reactants).

b. Also stimulates growth and differentiation of precursors of blood cells in the bone marrow and the growth of fibroblasts.

c. Produced by macrophages and lymphocytes.
What is interleukin-6 produced by?
macrophages

lymphocytes

fibroblasts

other cells
What does interleukin-6 do?
directly induces hepatocytes (liver cells) to produce many of the proteins needed in inflammation (acute phase reactants)

also stimulates the growth and differentiation of precursors of blood cells in the bone marrow and the growth of fibroblasts
Which interleukin is an example of an anti-inflammatory cytokine?
interleukin-10
What is the major role of interleukin-10 (IL-10)?
a. Anti-inflammatory cytokine primarily produced by lymphocytes to down-regulate both the inflammatory response and acquired immune response.

b. Suppresses growth of lymphocytes and the production of proinflammatory cytokines by macrophages.
What is interleukin-10 primarily produced by?
lymphocytes
What is the function of interleukin-10?
to down-regulate both the inflammatory and acquired immune responses.

suppresses growth of lymphocytes and the production of proinflammatory cytokines by macrophages
More than 30 interleukins have been identified. What are their various effects?
(1) alteration of adhesion molecule expression on many types of cells
(2) induction of leukocyte chemotaxis
(3) induction of proliferation and maturation of leukocytes in the bone marrow
(4) general enhancement or suppression of inflammation
What are interferons?
a family of cytokines that protect against viral infections
What interferons do macrophages and other cells produce?
IFN-alpha and IFN-beta
What interferons do lymphocytes release?
IFN-gamma
What is the function of IFN-alpha and IFN-beta?
induce production of antiviral proteins, thereby conferring protection on uninfected cells
What is the function of IFN-gamma?
enhances the inflammatory response by increasing the microbiocidal activity of macrophages

also facilitates development of the acquired immune response against viral antigens on infected cells
Other essential cytokines are needed to mount an efficient inflammatory response. What is one of the most important ones?
tumor necrosis factor-alpha
What do macrophages secrete TNF-alpha in response to?
recognition of foreign materials by toll-like receptors.
Besides macrophages, what other cells are sources of TNF-alpha?
mast cells
What does TNF-alpha induce?
a multitude of proinflammatory effects, including enhancement of endothelial cell adhesion molecule expression, which results in increased adherence of neutrophils, and induction of chemokine production by both endothelial cells and macrophages
When secreted in large amounts TNF-alpha has system effects. List them.
(1) inducing fever by acting as an endogenous pyrogen
(2) causing increased synthesis of inflammation-related serum proteins by the liver
(3) causing muscle wasting (cachexia) and intravascular thrombosis in cases of severe infection and cancer
What are very high levels of TNF-alpha responsible for?
fatalities from shock caused by gram-negative bacterial infections
What are transforming growth factors produced by?
by many types of cells in response to inflammation, tumor growth, and cellular differentiation
What do cytokines that are growth factors do?
induce the cell division and differentiation of many cell types, such as hemopoietic blood cells
What are colony-stimulating factors?
cytokines that stimulate differentiation of blood cells
What are chemokines?
a family of low-molecular-weight peptides that primarily induce leukocyte chemotaxis
What types of cells are chemokines synthesized by?
many cell types, including macrophages, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells, in response to proinflammatory cytokines
What types of cells are chemokines synthesized by?
many cell types, including macrophages, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells, in response to proinflammatory cytokines
List some examples of chemokines.
monocyte/macrophage chemotactic factors (MCP-1, MCP-2, and MCP-3)

macrophage inflammatory proteins (MIP-alpha and MIP-beta)

interleukin-8
What causes the local manifestations of acute inflammation?
a. Vascular changes and the subsequent leakage of circulating components into the tissue

b. The symptoms of acute inflammation are due to the vasodilation with hyperemia and fluid exudation that occur in response to the release of vasoactive substances from the mast cell and the plasma protein systems.

c. In addition, prostaglandins and bradykinin stimulate pain fibers. Thus, the symptoms of acute inflammation are redness, heat, swelling, pain, and loss of function.
What are the major types of inflammatory exudate?
a. Serous exudate--in early or mild inflammation, the exudate is watery with very few plasma proteins or leukocytes. e.g., fluid in a blister

b. Fibrinous exudate--in more severe or advanced inflammation, the exudate may be thick and clotted, such as in the lungs of individuals with pneumonia.

c. Purulent (suppurative) exudate--if a large number of leukocytes accumulate, as in persistent bacterial infections, the exudate consists of pus. This exudate is characteristic of walled-off lesions (cysts or abscesses).

d. Hemorrhagic exudate--if bleeding occurs, the exudate is filled with erythrocytes
What are the systemic manifestations of acute inflammation?
a. Fever

b. Leukocytosis

c. Plasma protein synthesis
What causes fever?
a. Partially induced by specific cytokines (e.g., IL-1 released from neutrophils and macrophages), known as endogenous pyrogens, that act on they hypothalamus, the portion of the brain that controls the body's thermostat

b. TNF-alpha, IL-1, IL-6, prostaglandins
How can a fever be beneficial?
because some microorganisms (e.g., syphilis, gonococcal urethritis) are highly sensitive to small increases in body temperature
Why might a fever have harmful side effects?
because it may enhance the host's susceptibility to the effects of endotoxins associated with gram-negative bacterial infections
What is meant by leukocytosis and a “left shift”?
a. Leukocytosis is an increase in the number of circulating white blood cells.

b. During many infections, leukocytosis may be accompanied by a "left shift" in the ratio of immature to mature neutrophils, so that the more immature forms of neutrophils, such as band cells, metamyelocytes, and occasionally myelocytes, are present in relatively greater than normal proportions. This increases primarily from proliferation and release of granulocyte and monocyte precursors in the bone marrow, which is stimulated by several products of inflammation.
What are the important plasma proteins that are synthesized in inflammation?
a. Acute-phase reactants
i. IL-1 directly induces the synthesis of acute-phase reactants by increasing production of IL-6, which directly stimulates the synthesis of acute-phase reactants by liver cells.

b. Fibrinogen, C-reactive protein
What are the characteristic cells of chronic inflammation?
Dense infiltration of lymphocytes and macrophages
What is a granuloma?
a. A walled-off and isolated infected area produced by the body if macrophages are unable to protect the host from tissue damage

b. Lymphocytes and macrophages are the primary cells of chronic inflammation. Macrophages may differentiate into epithelioid cells (which are inefficient phagocytes) or fuse into giant cells (which are excellent phagocytes and can envelop large particles). These cells gather around foreign bodies or infectious agents and form what is called a granuloma. A granuloma consists of a wall of epithelioid cells surrounding the nidus (center) of persistent inflammation, often with necrotic tissue at its core. Fibrin deposition and calcification of the lesion may also occur.
What are epithelioid cells, and what are giant cells?
a. Epithelioid cells are differentiated macrophages that are incapable of phagocytosing large bacteria but are capable of taking up debris and other small particles. When macrophages differentiate into epithelioid cells, granuloma formation begins.

b. Giant cells are fused macrophages which are active phagocytes that can engulf very large particles--larger than can be engulfed by a single macrophage

c. These two types of differentiated macrophages form the center of the granuloma, which is surrounded by a wall of lymphocytes.
What do the terms regeneration, resolution, and repair mean?
a. The term regeneration refers to the process in which a tissue is able to stimulate new cell division that allows for the restoration of damaged tissue.

b. Resolution is the result of complete regeneration and restoration of normal tissue function and structure after injury.

c. Repair is the replacement of damaged tissue with scar which is mostly composed of collagen.
How do healing by primary intention and secondary intention differ from one another?
a. Wounds that heal under conditions of minimal tissue loss are said to heal by primary intention.

b. Wounds that are larger and open and take longer to heal are said to heal by secondary intention.
What are the steps in the reconstructive phase of healing?
a. Clotting
b. Debridement
c. Formation of granulation tissue
d. Epithelialization
e. Fibroblast proliferation
f. Collagen deposition
g.Early wound contraction
What is granulation tissue?
Tissue that grows into the wound from surrounding healthy connective tissue. It is filled with new capillaries (angiogenesis) derived from capillaries in the surrounding tissue, giving the granulation tissue a red, granular appearance. New lymphatic vessels also grow into the granulation tissue by a similar process.
What is meant by the term debridement?
Activation of the plasma fibrinolytic system and release of lysosomal enzymes from neutrophils begins dissolving the clot. Macrophages phagocytose residual debris.
What is epithelialization, and how does it occur?
Epithelialization is the process by which epithelial cells grow into the wound from surrounding healthy tissue. The cells migrate under the clot or scab using MMPs (matrix metalloproteinases that degrade extracellular matrix proteins, such as collagen and fibrin, at the site of injury). Migrating epithelial cells contact similar cells from all sides of the wound and seal it, thereby halting migration and proliferation. The epithelial cells remain active, undergoing differentiation to give rise to the various epidermal layers.
What are the steps in collagen deposition?
a. Fibroblasts secrete collagen and other connective tissue proteins, which are deposited in the debrided areas about 6 days after the fibroblasts have entered the lesion.

b. Collagen is the most abundant protein in the body. It contains high concentrations of the amino acids glycine, proline, and lysine, many of which are enzymatically modified. Modification of proline and lysine requires several cofactors and is absolutely necessary for proper collagen polymerization and function. These include: iron, ascorbic acid (vitamin C), and molecular oxygen; absence of any of these results in impaired wound healing.

c. As healing progresses, collagen molecules are cross-linked by intermolecular covalent bonds to form collagen fibrils that are further cross-linked to form collagen fibers.

d. The complete process takes several months.
What is wound contraction?
a. Is necessary for closure of all wounds, especially those that heal by secondary intention.

b. Contraction is noticeable 6 to 12 days after injury.

c. The granulation tissue contains myofibroblasts--specialized cells that are responsible for wound contraction.

d. Myofibroblasts have features of both smooth muscle cells and fibroblasts.

e. Wound contraction occurs as extensions from the plasma membrane of myofibroblasts establish connections between neighboring cells, contract their fibers, and exert tension on the neighboring cells while anchoring themselves to the wound bed.
What is meant by the maturation phase of healing?
A phase that can persist for years in which collagen matrix assembly, tissue regeneration, and wound contraction continue.
b. Scar tissue is remodeled and capillaries disappear, leaving the scar avascular.
What are the mechanisms by which healing can become dysfunctional during the acute inflammatory response?
a. prolonged bleeding
b. excessive fibrin
c. Hypovolemia (insufficient arterial blood supply)
d. anti-inflammatory drugs
e. immunocompromise
f. poor nutrition
g. diabetes
h. wound sepsis
What can cause impaired collagen synthesis, and how might it present clinically?
a. Most of the factors that interfere with the production of collagen in healing tissues are nutritional.

b. Scurvy, for example, is caused by lack of ascorbic acid--one of the cofactors required for collagen formation by fibroblasts. The results of scurvy are poorly formed connective tissue and greatly impaired healing.

c. Protein and other nutrients are required for collagen synthesis. These include iron, oxygen, ketoglutarate, manganese, copper, and calcium.

d. Dysfunctional collagen synthesis may also involve excessive production of collagen, causing surface overhealing leading to a keloid or a hypertrophic scar.
i. A keloid is a raised scar that extends beyond the original boundaries of the wound. It invades surrounding tissue and is likely to recur after surgical removal.
ii. A hypertrophic scar is raised but remains within the original boundaries of the wound and tend to regress over time.
Why does hyponatremia prolong inflammation?
because it impaire fibroblast proliferation
What can cause impaired epithelialization, and how can it be prevented?
a. Epithelialization can be suppressed by:
i. Anti-inflammatory steroids
ii. Hypoxemia
iii. Ionizing radiation
iv. Zinc deficiencies

b. Can be prevented by wound care technique (promote epithelial cell migration):
i. Dressing that debride and protect wounds healing by secondary intention
ii.Cleaning/irrigation of wounds by normal saline rather than iodine and hydrogen peroxide
What are the key factors involved in wound dehiscence?
a. Generally occurs when collagen synthesis is at its peak.

b. Approx. half of cases are associated with wound infection, but they also may be the result of sutures breaking because of excess strain.

c. Obesity increases the risk for dehiscence because adipose tissue is difficult to suture.

d. Usually heralded by increased serous drainage from the wound and a feeling that "something gave way."

e. Prompt surgical attention is required.
What is a contracture, and how should it be managed?
a. A deformity that occurs when wound contraction becomes pathologic due to excessive contraction.
i. Burns are especially susceptible to contracture development.
ii. Internal contraction deformities include duodenal strictures caused by dysfunctional healing of an ulcer and esophageal strictures caused by lye burns.
iii. Contracture may occur in cirrhosis of the liver.
iv. Scar tissue that becomes contracted constricts vascular flow and contributes to the development of portal hypertension and esophageal varices.

b. Proper positioning and range-of-motion exercises and surgery are among the physical means used to overcome myofibroblast pull and prevent contractures.