Biom1006: Infection And Immunity Exam

Front 1

Lymph: which of the following statements is most correct.
a. is pumped around the body under pressure by peristaltic action
b. drains from the tissues into lymphatic vessels
c. is a distinct fluid not derived from blood plasma
d. does not contain circulating lymphocytes
e. contains eosinophils and mast cells

Back 1

a. is pumped around the body under pressure by peristaltic action
b. drains from the tissues into lymphatic vessels

Front 2

Fc regions of an immunoglobulin are NOT:
a. Responsible for antibody binding
b. Involved in mast cell binding
c. Involved in the activation of the complement cascade
d. Able to determine the ability of the immunoglobulins to cross the placenta
e. Able to crystallise during cold storage

Back 2

a. Responsible for antibody binding

Front 3

Which cytokine drives the differentiation of the Thelper subset associated with cell mediated immunity (CMI)?
a. IL-4
b. IFNγ
c. IL-5
d. IL-12
e. IL-2

Back 3

d. IL-12

Front 4

The first line of defence against micro-organisms in the digestive tract is:
a. epithelial cells
b. lysozyme
c. increased muscular contraction of the GIT
d. mucus
e. the adaptive immune response

Back 4

d. mucus

Front 5

The spleen is a large ovoid lymphoid organ situated in the abdominal cavity which:
a. Specialises in trapping antigen from local tissues
b. Is supplied by lymphatic vessels
c. Has no specialised function
d. Specialises in filtering the blood
e. Is important for B cell maturation

Back 5

d. Specialises in filtering the blood

Front 6

CMI:
a. Is the principal defence against extracellular microbes.
b. Is mediated by two effector responses: B cell activation and DTH.
c. DTH is a response against pathogens living inside macrophages.
d. TB infection is cleared by a CTL response.
e. Is controlled by Th2 effector responses.

Back 6

c. DTH is a response against pathogens living inside macrophages.

Front 7

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs):
a. Kill virus-infected target cells by perforin, granzyme and Fas-ligation.
b. Are activated only in the presence of Th1 cells.
c. Require macrophage-derived IFNγ to undergo clonal expansion.
d. Respond to extracellular-resident pathogens.
e. Require Th2 cells for bystander activation.

Back 7

a. Kill virus-infected target cells by perforin, granzyme and Fas-ligation.

Front 8

The immune mechanisms behind the granulomatous DTH response can be best described by:
a. Macrophage activation by Th1-derived IFNγ.
b. IL-2 activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs).
c. CD40L-mediated activation of Th1 cells.
d. T cell mediated killing involving reactive oxygen intermediates.
e. Tc cytotoxicity amplified by macrophage function.

Back 8

a. Macrophage activation by Th1-derived IFNγ.

Front 9

Which statement best describes the CH50 diagnostic assay?
a. This assay is used to measure the opsonisation activity of complement.
b. This assay measures the activity of C1q.
c. This assay utilises complement-sensitised red blood cells.
d. This assay is based on the lectin pathway of complement activation.
e. This assay is based on antibody-dependent complement activation.

Back 9

a. This assay is used to measure the opsonisation activity of complement.

Front 10

Which cytokine is NOT a Th2 effector cytokine in humoral responses?
a. IL-4.
b. IL-5.
c. IL-12.
d. IL-13.
e. IL-10.

Back 10

d. IL-13.

Front 11

Which immunoglobulin is central to mucosal defences?
a. IgM.
b. IgG.
c. IgE.
d. IgA.
e. IgD.

Back 11

d. IgA.

Front 12

Which are NOT components of the innate immune system?
a. Antimicrobial peptides.
b. Complement.
c. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
d. Natural killer cells.
e. Neutrophils.

Back 12

c. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

Front 13

Which statement regarding innate immune cytokines is incorrect?
a. TNFα and IL-1β are major cytokines driving inflammatory responses.
b. Resolution of inflammation is mediated by IL-10.
c. Chemokines such as IL-8 recruit phagocytic cells.
d. Anti-viral responses are mediated by interferons.
e. TGFβ induces the acute phase response.

Back 13

e. TGFβ induces the acute phase response.

Front 14

Which of the following are features common to both prokaryote and eukaryote cells (indicate all that apply)
a. Fimbrae
b. Chromosomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Cell membrane
e. DNA

Back 14

d. Cell membrane
e. DNA

Front 15

With regards to a host which of the following best describes microbial antagonism?
a. is a parasitic interaction between two organisms
b. describes generally the harm done by a microorganism to a host
c. can be an example of mutualism
d. can be an example of parasitism
e. all of the above

Back 15

c. can be an example of mutualism

Front 16

Which statement best describes complement in immune function?
a. The classical pathway is activated directly by interaction with pathogen.
b. The lectin pathway activates complement by recognising antibody-coated pathogens.
c. Complement mediates its effect via opsonisation, bacterial lysis and inflammation.
d. Neisserial infection dysregulates complement opsonisation.
e. The lectin pathway is a combination of both adaptive and innate responses.

Back 16

c. Complement mediates its effect via opsonisation, bacterial lysis and inflammation.

Front 17

17. Which cytokine effector functions belong to the innate immune response to pathogen infection?
a. IL-1β activation of acute phase protein production by the liver.
b. Initiation of the inflammatory response.
c. Interferons are utilised in anti-viral responses.
d. a and b, only.
e. a, b & c.

Back 17

e. a, b & c.

Front 18

Which recognition receptors are involved in innate immunity?
a. NLRs.
b. TCRs.
c. BCRs.
d. None of the above.
e. a, b & c.

Back 18

a. NLRs.

Front 19

Bacterial spreading factors are generally secreted enzymes which help bacterial pathogens to
a. destroy host cells
b. spread to new hosts
c. hide in hosts
d. attack other microbes in the host
e. invade host tissue

Back 19

e. invade host tissue

Front 20

Which of the following statements does not apply when a bacterial intracellular pathogen takes up residence within a host cell?
a. pathogen avoids the host’s immune system
b. pathogen avoids competion from other microbes
c. pathogen takes advantage of a rich supply of nutrients
d. pathogen takes advantage of a rich supply of iron and defencins
e. pathogen avoids most antibiotics

Back 20

d. pathogen takes advantage of a rich supply of iron and defencins

Front 21

Every virus has two stages in its existence. These are:
a. metabolically inactive virion and infectious stages
b. metabolically active virion and non-infectious stages
c. metabolically inactive virion and non-infectious stages
d. metabolically active virion and infectious stages
e. metabolically variable virion and colonising stages

Back 21

a. metabolically inactive virion and infectious stages

Front 22

The signs of viral infection in cell culture are known as
a. cytotoxic effects
b. cytocidal effects
c. cytogenetical effects
d. cytopathic effects
e. cytostatic effects

Back 22

d. cytopathic effects

Front 23

Viruses are classified mainly on the basis of their
a. nucleic acid and morphology
b. shape alone
c. nucleic acid alone
d. biochemical reactions
e. serology

Back 23

a. nucleic acid and morphology

Front 24

Which of the following is NOT a component of the innate immune response?
a. Cytokines
b. Antimicrobial peptides
c. Phagocytic cells
d. Antibodies
e. Complement

Back 24

d. Antibodies

Front 25

Which of the following is NOT a cytokine?
a. Tumour Necrosis factor α
b. Toll like receptor 2
c. Interferon γ
d. Interleukin 10
e. Interleukin 17

Back 25

b. Toll like receptor 2

Front 26

Which of the following statements about the immune response to intracellular bacteria is most accurate?
a. Macrophages secrete IL12 which activates antibody responses
b. CD4+ T cells secrete IL-2 which activates phagocytic cells to kill ingested bacteria
c. CD4+ T cells secrete Interferon which activates macrophages to kill ingested bacteria
d. Depletion of T cells and NK cells controls the infection
e. Inhibition of IL-12 eradicates the infection

Back 26

c. CD4+ T cells secrete Interferon which activates macrophages to kill ingested bacteria

Front 27

Which of the following best characterises a type 1 hypersensitivity response?
a. Involves T cells and macrophages and occurs 48 hours after exposure to allergen
b. Involves IgE and mast cells and occurs within minutes of exposure to allergen
c. Involves NK cells and IgG and occurs within minutes of exposure to allergen
d. Involves neutrophils and T cells and occurs within weeks of exposure to allergen
e. Involves monocytes expressing TLR3 and occurs within minutes of exposure to allergen

Back 27

b. Involves IgE and mast cells and occurs within minutes of exposure to allergen

Front 28

Under certain circumstances some normal members of the microflora can cause disease and are termed:
a. parasitic pathogens
b. temporary pathogens
c. intermittent pathogens
d. opportunistic pathogens
e. rogue commensals

Back 28

d. opportunistic pathogens

Front 29

Staphylococcal food poisoning is an example of:
a. intoxication
b. Staphylococcus aureus infection
c. endotoxigenesis
d. opportunistic infection
e. food allergy

Back 29

a. intoxication

Front 30

30. In the microbiology practical which organism did you identify as Gram negative and gave a positive reaction with the oxidase test?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Bacillus subtilis
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Escherichia coli
e. Vellionella spp

Back 30

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa