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258 Cards in this Set

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List the two essential fatty acids, indicate what amount of each one is
needed each day, indicate if Americans get enough DHA and EPA
each day, and indicate what ratio of omega-6 to omega-3 fatty acid is
ideal and whether Americans are under or over this ideal ratio. What
are the health consequences of a large excess of Omega-6 fatty acid
relative to Omega-3? See Slide 6.
We have to consume lipid to get two essential fatty acids,
linoleic acid (Omega-6, RDA of 4.44 g/day) and alpha-linolenic
acid (Omega-3, RDA of 2.22 g/day). The recommended
intake for the two essential fatty acids gives us an omega-
6/omega-3 ratio of 2 which we think is the ideal balance.
Omega-3 series
Vasodilatory
Anti-inflammatory
Anti-aggregatory
Immunostimulant
Anti-arrhythm
Omega 6
Vasoconstrictive
Pro-inflammatory
Pro-aggregatory
Immunosuppressive
Pro-arrhythmic
What lipase is found in saliva, where is it produced, what does it
hydrolyze, what products does it produce, where does it work and
how well does it work?
Lingual lipase is secreted by von Ebner’s glands in the tongue
Involved in the first phase of fat digestion
Hydrolyzes medium and long-chain triglycerides
Important in the digestion of milk fat in a new-born
Unlike other mammalian lipases, it is highly hydrophobic and readily
enters fat globules (does not need colipase or bile salts like the pancreatic
lipase does)
Digests 10-30% of ingested triglyceride within 20 minutes.
Digestion
-ptyalin (α-amylase)
- identical to pancreatic amylase
- cleaves α-1,4-glycosidic bonds of carbohydrates
- 50% of starch, pH optimum 4-5
- functionally replaceable by pancreatic enzyme
lingual lipase
- triglycerides, not identical to pancreatic lipase
- lower acidic optimum than amylase – remains active
throughout the stomach and into the proximal duodenum
- 50% of triglyceride, functionally replaceable by
pancreatic enzyme
- dissolves dietary constituents
- increases the sensitivity of taste buds
Lingual lipase and pancreatic lipase both work preferentially on medium
and long-chain triglycerides and they both work the same way (hydrolyze
fatty acids off the sn-1 and sn-3 position to generate a 2-monoglyceride).
The big difference between the two lipases is that pancreatic lipase can
not work without a colipase and bile salts while lingual lipase works
without any outside help. Once the pH in the small intestine comes up to
around 7, lingual lipase activity drops off to almost zero.
What lipase is produced by the stomach, where is it produced, what
does it hydrolyze, what products does it produce, where does it work
and how well does it work?
Gastric lipase is produced by chief cells. Lingual, gastric and
pancreatic lipases work on all three kinds of triglycerides but lingual
and pancreatic lipase prefer medium and long-chain fatty acid
TG’s while gastric lipase prefers short-chain and medium-chain
fatty acid TG’s. The other difference is that lingual and gastric
lipases cleave sn-1 and sn-3 but gastric lipase only cleaves sn-3
(produces a fatty acid and a diglyceride).
What two fatty acids represent about 40% of the total fatty acids
found in human milk, how does this compare to the milk of other
mammals like the cow, what kind of triglyceride is formed using these
two fatty acids and does this particular triglyceride have any health
benefits?
Caprylic (n-Octanic) and Capric (n-Dodecanoic) form
medium chain triglycerides(appear to promote weight loss). Easier
absorption, less pancreatic stimulation, less immune suppression
List the six (6) lipid digestive enzymes that are produced by
pancreatic acinar cells and indicate what each enzyme does. See
Summary Slide 39.
1. Pancreatic lipase, colipase dependant. Cleaves triglycerides at sn-1 and
sn-3 only after activated by colipase. Prefers long-chain and medium-chain
triglycerides.
2. Pancreatic lipase, bile salt dependent. Cleaves fatty acids off cholesterol
esters, phospholipids, retinol-esters (Vitamin A esters) and triglycerides.
This is a general acting esterase (will cleave any ester bond linking fatty
acids to something). It does not work as well with triglycerides as the
colipase dependent lipase does but it will hydrolyze all of the fatty acids off
triglycerides to form glycerol and fatty acids.
3. Phospholipase A2. Cleaves fatty acids off the sn-2 position of
phospholipids with a glycerol backbone. The lysophospholipid acts like a
detergent to help bile salts form micelles. The second fatty acid needs to be
4
removed to get good absorption and this is done by the bile salt dependent
lipase.
4. Colipase. Activated by trypsin in the gut and then it binds to the colipase
dependent lipase to open up the active site.
5. Sphingomyelinase. Cleaves the phosphorylcholine off sphingomyelin to
produce ceramide.
6. Ceramidase. Cleaves the fatty acid off ceramide to produce sphingosine
and a fatty acid, both of which get absorbed. Beta-glucosidase action
converts some of the glycolipids to ceramide which then gets processed
using this enzyme.
What kind of gallstones did Will Sichel form and why did he form
this kind of stone?
Will Sichel formed bilirubin stones (see medical report)
What kind of gallstone is formed by most Americans, why does this
stone formation occur, how many Americans form gallstones that
produce symptoms, what is done for patients where gallstones can’t
be passed from the gallbladder and what can be done to try to prevent
gallstone formation?
Most Americans form cholesterol stones. About 80% of
gallstones are cholesterol (yellow-green stones) and the remainder
are bilirubin (dark stones often called pigment stones).
About 15% of Americans will have one or more stones during their
lifetime.
About 10% of women develop gallstones by the last trimester of
pregnancy.
About 50% of women over the age of 70 have gallstones.
About 1 million new cases of gallstone disease are diagnosed each
year.
Surgery is usually required in about 1/2 of the cases.
Cholesterol stones can form when the bile contains too much
cholesterol, too much bilirubin, (Michel Sichel) or not enough bile
salts. Stones can also form when the gallbladder does not empty as it
should.
Pigment (bilirubin) stones are usually the result of biliary tract
infections or situations where too much bilirubin (Will Sichel) is
formed. Bilirubin often acts as a seed for cholesterol stones, to get
pure bilirubin stones, a very large excess of bilirubin is needed.
Treatment for gallstones
chenodeoxycholic acid (chenodiol; Chenix)
6
ursodeoxycholic acid (ursodiol; Actigall)
statins
reduce hepatic secretion of cholesterol into bile
inhibition of HMG-CoA reductase: inhibit cholesterol
biosynthesis
increase cholesterol solubility in bile
90% of chenodiol and ursodiol are absorbed and converted to
bile salts in the liver where they act to help keep cholesterol in
bile in solution and they also act in the gall bladder to dissolve
about 40% of the gallstones that are present in the gall bladder
What makes the gallbladder contract and how often do we have to
remove the gallbladder because of disease?
Removal of the gallbladder is the most common surgery
performed in the U.S. with over 500,000 cholecystectomys performed
per year. Cholecystokinin makes the gallbladder contract and the
Sphincter of Oddi relax.
When Americans read a food label, what do they primarily look at
after checking the number of calories per serving?
The amount of fat is always the first specific component that they
look for after total calories.
What is the major trans fatty acid formed by the hydrogenation of
vegetable oil and why is this particular fatty acid so bad for human
health?
80 to 90 % of trans fat is Elaidic. Oleic acid melts at 15
degrees Celsius. Elaidic will not melt until the temperature reaches 42
degrees Celsius. This difference in melting point has a major effect
on membrane fluidity. Most of the naturally occurring trans fatty acid
is CLA (18:2) which we think has a health benefit. Elaidic acid is
the major trans fat found in hydrogenated vegetable oils and occurs in
small amounts in caprine and bovine milk (very roughly 0.1 % of the
7
fatty acids)[1]. It is the trans isomer of oleic acid. Elaidic acid
increases CETP activity, which in turn raises VLDL and lowers
HDL cholesterol.[2]
Do Americans have a problem with heart disease because they eat too
much saturated fat and cholesterol each day? If this isn’t primarily
responsible for heart disease in Americans, what is?
Americans have
one of the lowest intake levels for omega-3 fatty acids and one of the
highest intake levels for trans fatty acids.
Pancreatic lipase, colipase dependant.
Cleaves triglycerides at sn-1 and
sn-3 only after activated by colipase. Prefers long-chain and medium-chain
triglycerides.
Pancreatic lipase, bile salt dependent
Cleaves fatty acids off cholesterol
esters, phospholipids, retinol-esters (Vitamin A esters) and triglycerides.
This is a general acting esterase (will cleave any ester bond linking fatty
acids to something). It does not work as well with triglycerides as the
colipase dependent lipase does but it will hydrolyze all of the fatty acids off
triglycerides to form glycerol and fatty acids.
Phospholipase A2
Cleaves fatty acids off the sn-2 position of
phospholipids with a glycerol backbone. The lysophospholipid acts like a
detergent to help bile salts form micelles. The second fatty acid needs to be
4
removed to get good absorption and this is done by the bile salt dependent
lipase.
Colipase
Activated by trypsin in the gut and then it binds to the colipase
dependent lipase to open up the active site.
Sphingomyelinase
Cleaves the phosphorylcholine off sphingomyelin to
produce ceramide.
Ceramidase.
Cleaves the fatty acid off ceramide to produce sphingosine
and a fatty acid, both of which get absorbed. Beta-glucosidase action
converts some of the glycolipids to ceramide which then gets processed
using this enzyme.
What is beta oxidation, where does it occur, how does it operate and
where do the fatty acids that it uses come from?
Every cell with mitochondria will burn fatty acids except brain cells. The
beta oxidation pathway is used to burn fatty acids. Mitochondria is
responsible for beta oxidation. Reaction is identical to palmitic acid
synthesis, except in reverse.
Very long chain FA-CAN’T undergo this, they require peroxisomes
Long chain FA- can undergo this, but require carantine.
Short and medium chain FA-occurs in all mitochondria including
brain cells.
Mitochondrial Beta Oxidation of Fatty Acids
1. Oxidation - makes use of acyl-CoA dehydrogenase, FAD =>
FADH2 and 2 ATP generated
2. Hydration - makes use of enoyl-CoA hydratase, addition of water
3. Oxidation - by 3-hydroxyacl-CoA dehydrogenase, NAD =>
NADH2 and 3 ATP generated.
4. Cleavage (thiolysis) - by acyl-CoA acetyltransferase (thiolase),
CoA-SH required. Co-A is used for the thiolytic cleavage of acetic
acid which generates Acetyl-CoA.
How are fatty acids trapped inside cells, what enzymes are used to do
this and where are these enzymes located?
Before fatty acids can be burned in mitochondria, they have to be
activated. They also have to be activated before they can be used for
lipid synthesis.
Fatty acid activation occurs in the ER, the outer mitochondrial
membrane, the peroxisome membrane and in the mitochondrial
matrix and cytoplasm.
Fatty acyl-CoA synthetase(4 different enzymes) is the enzyme that
activates fatty acids. This reaction activates fatty acids so they can be
used to synthesize lipids and it also traps fatty acids inside cells, once
CoA is on them, they can no longer move through the plasma membrane
to exit the cell. Carnitine will move these activated fatty acids into the
mitochondria for beta-oxidation and FABP will move then to the ER for
lipid synthesis.
There is a different enzyme for the different chain length fatty acids
(short, medium, long and very long).
Peroxisomes have the very long and long enzymes.
The ER has the medium, long and very long enzymes.
The outer mitochondrial membrane has the long chain enzyme and the
mitochondrial matrix has the short and medium enzymes.
The cytoplasm has the short chain enzyme.
What compound is needed to move long-chain fatty acids into the
mitochondrial matrix, how does it work, what enzymes are needed for
it to work, where is it synthesized, what 6 factors are needed for its
synthesis and which of these 6 factors is most likely to be deficient in
Americans?
Long chain fatty acids can not get across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Carnitine is used to move long chain fatty acids into the mitochondrial
matrix so they can be burned.
Carnitine is synthesized in the liver and kidneys from lysine.
A primary carnitine deficiency occurs when synthesis or transport is
defective due to gene mutation.
A secondary carnitine deficiency is seen when synthesis in the liver and
kidneys is lower than normal due to a lysine deficiency or another factor
needed for carnitine synthesis.
Carnitine synthesis requires 6 factors: Lysine, Methionine, Vitamin C,
Vitamin B6, Iron and Niacin.
23% of Americans have a B6 deficiency making this the most common
cause for a carnitine deficiency
(incomplete answer - see LO sheet)
How is beta-oxidation in the mitochondria regulated?
5
The step from acyl-CoA +Carntine to Acyl-Carntine is regulated by CPTI
activity and carntine level to CONTROL fatty acid oxidation in the
mitochondria. See slide for add'l details
What is the most common genetic defect in fatty acid oxidation, what
problems does it cause and how can it be detected at birth?
The medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase (MCAD) is probably one
of the most common inherited genetic defects in human metabolism.
It is thought to be a major cause of SIDS (sudden infant death
syndrome). Vomiting and lethargy after fasting in child 3-15 months
of age. Newborn screening test can detect this defiency. Most
biochemistry textbooks will give the normal range for serum fasting
glucose as 70 to 110 mg/dl. However, most clinical labs will use 64
as the low normal. Symptoms of hypoglycemia do not start to occur
until the blood glucose level drops below 60 mg/dl. A value below 45
is life threatening for an infant (SIDS). For an adult, blood glucose
has to drop below 10 for death to occur.
What product besides acetyl-CoA is produced by the beta-oxidation of
odd chain fatty acids and what vitamin is required for the conversion
of this compound to glucose in the liver?
Odd chain fatty acids produce Propionyl-CoA as the last product of
beta-oxidation and this is converted to glucose in the liver using a B12
requiring enzyme. Only 3 enzymes require B12 for activity. Without
B12, severe brain damage occurs (pernicious anemia) because branchedchain
amino acids can not be metabolized in the brain. For oleic acid, the
double bond is in the wrong place and in the wrong configuration (cis
instead of trans).
What is alpha-oxidation, where does it occur, what compound is
handled by this pathway, where does this compound come from, what
are the three end products that come from the alpha-oxidation of this
compound, what disease occurs when alpha-oxidation is defective due
to gene mutation and how often does this disease occur?
Alpha-Oxidation occurs in peroxisomes which also have a
Beta-Oxidation pathway. There is also an Omega-Oxidation pathway
which occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum. Phytanic acid is a
branched chain fatty acid that beta-oxidation cannot handle. It comes
from phytol. Phytol is used to form chlorophyll in plants. Large
amounts are consumed each day from plant foods as well as from
animals that ate plants. Only alpha-oxidation in peroxisomes can
handle phytanic acid. Three compounds come from alpha oxidation
including isobutryl Co-A, Acetyl Co-A, and Propinoyl Co-A.
Refsum’s Disease is a rare autosomal recessive inherited disease
where alpha-oxidation in peroxisomes can not occur.
Accumulation of phytanic acid in nerve tissue leads to severe
CNS and peripheral nerve damage.
Compare beta-oxidation in mitochondria with beta-oxidation in
peroxisomes.
In peroxisomal oxidation carnitine transport is not needed.
Peroxisomes produce hydrogen peroxide, NADH and acetyl-CoA
from the beta-oxidation of fatty acids. Acetyl-CoA and NADH are
exported and are available for energy production. Unlike
mitochondria, this beta-oxidation does not result in direct ATP
production. Fatty acids have to be metabolized in brain and this is
probably the way that they are handled. Peroxisomes also have
enzymes to handle polyunsaturated fatty acids and only peroxisomes
can handle very long chain fatty acids.
What is omega-oxidation, where does it occur and what two vitamins
and class of lipid are metabolized using omega-oxidation?
It occurs in the ER by use of a mixed function oxidase. It can
produce dicarboxylic acids from FAs however most Omega oxidation
is done on eicosanoids, vitamins E and A where it’s used to improve
solubility for excretion in urine. You need to know that Omega
Oxidation is conducted using a mixed-function oxidase in the
endoplasmic reticulum. You do not need to know the other enzymes.
What are ketone bodies, where are they produced, what conditions are
needed for their production, what enzymes are needed for their
synthesis, how and where are ketone bodies used to produce energy
and what enzymes are needed for energy production from ketone
bodies?
Fatty acids are used to generate large quantities of acetyl-CoA which
drives the formation of ketone bodies. This only happens in the liver.
Ketone bodies can also be formed from some of the amino acids and this
can occur in any tissue. Three ketone bodies are
1.) Aceteoacetate -
Acetyl-CoA + Thiolase => Acetoacetyl-CoA
Acetylacetyl-CoA + HMG-CoA synthase =>
8
HMG-CoA
HMG-CoA + HMG-CoA lyase => acetoacetate
2.) B-hydroxybutyrate - generated from acetone by D(-)-
3-hydroxybutyrate
3.) Acetone - spontaneous generation from acetoacetate
acetoacetate => acetone + CO2
3 enzymes needed for synthesis are:
1.Thiolase
2. HMG-CoA Synthetase
3. HMG-CoA Lyase
You need to know that Succinyl-CoA from the TCA Cycle is needed to
process ketone bodies
What conditions are needed for severe ketoacidosis to occur and what
kind of increase in blood and urine levels of ketone bodies occur
during severe ketosis?
Too many ketones in the blood decreases blood pH, which is why it is
called acidosis. Can lead to coma or death.
INSULIN DEFICIENCY -
- Activated lipolysis in adipose
- Increased plasma FFA
- Increased liver FA
Causes accelerated ketogenesis
GLUCAGON EXCESS
Increased liver carnitine, decreased malonyl-CoA
Activation of Carnitine Acyltransferase
Causes accelerated ketogenesis
Other precipitating factors
-uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus
-septic shock
-myocardial infarction
-pregnancy
What 4 conditions can result in enough ketone body production to
cause death and how many Americans each year have to deal with this
life-threatening acidosis?
1. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus-type I w/o insulin
2. Septic shock-type II diabetic
3. Myocardial infection-type II diabetic
4. Pregnancy-3% of US women develop life threatening ketoacidosis
during pregnanacy
Over 100,000 hospital admissions per year
How does glucose and the other monosaccharides get converted to
fatty acids?
Glucose and other monosaccharides entering glycolysis in the
liver and other tissues provides the acetyl-CoA that will be used for
fatty acids synthesis. If sugar intake is high, fructose also becomes an
important secondary source of acetyl-CoA for fatty acid synthesis,
especially in the live
Why is pantothenic acid a critical B-complex vitamin for fatty acid
synthesis and how often do we see a pantothenic acid deficiency in
Americans?
Pantothenic acid is vitamin B5 is component of the essential
coenzyme A I faty acid synthesis. It’s rarely deficient in the diet of
Americans (only 3% have a confirmed deficiency) .
What is the acyl carrier protein, how is it modified to function in fatty
acid synthesis and what is its specific role in this process?
The acyl carrier protein has a Phosphopantetheine as a prosthetic
group
–attached to a carrier protein (CP) serine domain by
phosphopentatheinyl transferase (PPTase). The acyl carrier protein
(ACP) is used to hold fatty acids during fatty acid synthesis.
What compound can only be used for fatty acid synthesis and how is
this compound formed?
Malonyl-CoA and it can only be used for faty acid synthesis
What is the rate-limiting enzyme for fatty acid synthesis, what vitamin
does this enzyme need for activity, how often do we see a deficiency
of this vitamin in Americans, where is this enzyme located and how is
this enzyme regulated? Slides 18 and 19 have the summary for what
is testable for the regulation of this enzyme
Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase is the rate limiting step in fatty
acid synthesis
Turns Acetyl-CoA into Malonyl-CoA
1. It needs Biotin
Biotin is a prosthetic group (non-protein component of a
conjugated protein that is important in the protein’s
biological activity)
2. Step one: ATP-dependent carboxylation of the
biotin, carried out at one active site
3. Followed by the transfer of the carboxyl group to
acetyl-CoA at the second active site
In the cytoplasm
b. Regulation
Stimulate:
1. Citrate by dephosphoylating the polymer
(stimulated by insulin)
2. Insulin will activate a phosphatase to put acetyl-
CoA Carboxylase in the unphosphorylated form so
it can polymerize to form the most active
configuration. It will also increase gene
expression for this enzyme.
Inhibit:
3. Palmitoyl Co-A by phosphorylating via cAMPdependent
protein Kinase (induced by glucagons)
a. Feeds back to transform the Acety-CoA
Carboxylase from the polymerized state to
the monomer state.
i. Note: the polymerized state is the
most active state: phosphorylation
will promote depolymerization to
form the monomer state
3
b. Fatty acid synthesis is diminished in a low
energy state by the lack of the substrate
malonyl-CoA
4. Glucagon/Epinephrine: the cyclic-AMP
Dependent Kinase will phosphorylate Acetyl CaA
Carboxylase. (gluc also inhibits gene expression
for Acetyl-CoA Carboxylase)
5. AMP- a low energy state will activate an AMPDependent
Kinase to phophorylate Acetyl-CoA
caboxylase
Gene Regulation
6. Insulin increases gene expression for acetyl-CoA
Carboxylase
a. Citrate –feed forward to promote the
formation of polymerized form of acetyl-
CoA carboxylase
7. Glucagon decreases gene expression for “”
What is the fatty acid synthetase, where is it located and what does it
do?
Fatty acid synthase is a dimer. You do not have to know these enzyme activities. You do need to know that
this multienzyme complex operates in the cytoplasm. (incomplete answer).
What are the 4 steps for fatty acid synthesis and what is happening
during each step?
Condensation
5
i. The activated acyl group will react with the CH2-carbon
of the malonyl CoA, releasing Malonyl CoA’s fee COOgroup
as CO2
Reduction
ii. Use NADPH to reduce the B-keto group to an alchol
1. uses these enzymes:
a. Malonyl/acetyl-CoA-ACP Transacylase
b. Malonyl/acetyl-CoA-ACP Transacylase (on
slide first is acetyl, second is malonyl
c. Condensing Enzyme (B-ketoacyl Synthase)
Dehydration
iii. Eliminate water to create a double bond
Reduction of the double bond
iv. Use NADPH to create saturated fatty acyl group
How is fatty acid synthesis via the fatty acid synthetase regulated and
how does this regulation impact human health?
Fatty Acid Synthase
Control is through gene expression.
SREBP-1 in Liver – binds to DNA and promotes the expression of the
genes that code for the four enzymes in the fatty acid synthase.
Insulin – Raises SREBP-1 levels in the liver.
Glucagon – Lowers SREBP-1 levels in the liver.
Glucose – Raises SREBP-1 levels in the liver.
Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids – Lower SREBP-1 levels in the liver.
Leptin – Lowers SREBP-1 levels in Adipose Tissue and liver.
List the 6 enzymes that function in the citrate shuttle (slide 39) and
discuss why this shuttle plays a critical role in fatty acid synthesis.
a. Pyruvate carboxylase (mito)
i. Turns pyruvate into oxaloacetate
b. Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex (mito)
7
i. Turns pyruvate into Acetyl CoA
c. Citrate synthase + ATP (mito)
i. Turns Acetyl CoA or Oxaloacetate into Citrate,
Which goes from the mito into the cytosol
d. ATP-Citrate lyase (cytosol)
i. Turns citrate into either Acetyl Co-A or Oxaloacetate
e. Malate dehydrogenase +NADH (cytosol)
i. Turns Oxaloacetate into Malate
f. Malic enzyme + (NADP+1 +H) (cytosol)
i. Turns malate into Pyruvate and
ii. Makes NADPH which helps in fatty acid synthesis
1. high pyruvate levels inhibit the malic enzyme
Citrate-Malate-Pyruvate Shuttle For every acetyl-CoA moved out, 1
NADPH+H gets generated. However, 2/3 of the NADPH2 needed for
fatty acid synthesis comes from the pentose phosphate pathway so this
shuttle system can not be operating the way Marks shows it in Fig. 33.5
on page 609
This best shows the citrate-malate pump
What I’m getting from the slides is that Malate going into the mito is
necessary for citrate to come out of the cycle and Citrate coming out of the
mito is necessary for Pyruvate (mainly coming from glycolysis) to come
into the mitochondriaImportance: The citrate-malate-pyruvate shuttle provides cytosolic
acetate units and reducing equivalents for fatty acid synthesis
List the 3 enzymes that form the NADPH that is needed for fatty acid
synthesis and indicate where each enzyme operates.
The citrate shuttle produces 1/3 of the NADPH needed for fatty
acid synthesis and the rest comes from the Pentose Phosphate
Pathway
ENZYMES
G6P Dehydrogenase—Pentose Pathway
6-Phosphogluconate Dehydrogenase -----Pentose
Pathway
Malic Ezyme----Citrate shuttle
How does palmitic acid get elongated to form stearic acid?
Elongation means getting more than 16 C fatty acid
2 Systems
Mitochondria-minor (uses Acetyl CoA to reverse Beta
oxidation)
Endoplasmic reticulum (dominates and better)
1. uses Malonyl CoA and Multi-Enzyme complex
called Elongase
What are the two essential fatty acids for humans, what do they do
(why do we need them?) and what recommendation has been
developed for their dietary intake?
Linoleic Acid ( LA) Omega 6 and Alpha-lonolenic acid (ALA)
omega 3. 4.44 for omega 6 and 2.22 for omega 3The Omega-3 fatty
acids are so critical for human health that we do not set a limit on their
daily intake and we have minimum amounts set for EPA and DHA
How do we put double bonds into fatty acids and why are the omega-
3 fatty acids so important for human health?
Cytochrome Mixed Function Oxidase system that is in smooth
endoplasmic reticulum of every cell . Desaturases introduce double
bonds at specific locations in fatty acid chain. This is mportant as
mammalian cells are unable to produce double bonds at certain
locations. This is reason polyunsaturated fatty acids are dietary
essentials( eg linoleic acid18:2 and alpha linolenic acid 18:3 are
10
essential. These two essential fatty acids are used to form eicosanoids.
Eicosanoids are lipid hormones that regulate just about every
metabolic process that occurs in the human body. Deficiencies are
extremely rare but an imbalance between Omega-6 and Omega-3 is
very common.
How is our current diet different from our ancestral diet and what
impact has this change in diet had on our health?
Modern western diet is low in antioxidants, “bad” fats(omega 6) and
“bad” carbohydrates(high glycemic index). Ancestral diet-rich in
antioxidants, high in omega 3,good carbohydrates(low glycemic
index). CDC says that Diet is Responsible for Most (90%) of the
Diseases that Occur in Humans including more heart attacks, high
blood pressure, all cancers diabetes alzheimers, arthritis, autoimmune
disease, epilepsy, mental disorders, learning disorders, obesity, low
endurance infertility.
What is the USDA proposed limit for added sugar per 2,000 Calories
per day for the U.S. food label (grams per day)? What is the World
Health Organizations (WHO) proposed limit for added sugar?
40 grams per day is proposed.
There is no percent daily value because the USDA, the National
Academy of Science, and the Institute of Medicine cannot agree
on an upper limit
WHO recommends reducing added sugar of all types to 10%of
total energy consumption. Sugar is defined as all mono and
disaccharides added to foods plus sugar naturally occurring in
honey, syrups and fruit juice.
Does sugar cause health problems in humans? If it does, what
problems does it cause and what are we trying to do about it?
Sugar
has a glycemic index of 92 when white bread is used as the testing
standard (100). Sugar does not push glucose like the high glycemic
index foods do: maltodextrins in sports drinks and beer-150, French
bread-136, rice chex-127, crispix-124, instant rice-128, baked potato-
121, corn flakes-119 and corn chips -105. As a moderate glycemic
index food, sugar is fine in moderation.
What has been the single most effective way to prevent childhood
obesity?
Don’t give your children soda
Why are we in the middle of an obesity epidemic in the U.S.?
The sharp rise in Obesity in the U.S. directly correlates with the rise in
carbohydrate intake, fat does not make us fat, carbs make us fat.
What 5 tissues synthesize large amounts of triglycerides, what is the
subcellular location for triglyceride synthesis in these tissues, how do
triglycerides get formed in each of these tissues, what is the rate limiting
enzyme for triglyceride synthesis and how is the activity of
this enzyme controlled?
Note: most of the fatty acids that are synthesized in humans are used
to form triglycerides
1.Gut---major site of TG synth
o Come from dietary lipids
o Pancreatic Lipase breaks dietary fat down into fatty acids
and monoglycerides (glycerol with one fatty acid still
attached to it)
o TO reform Triglyceride: activate two fatty acids and react
with the monoglyceride
2.Liver---major site of TG synth
o De novo fatty acid synthesis 2 WAYS
 Take Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (from glycolysis
pathway/ intermediate) and use it to form glycerol or
just use glycerol if available. Then use the glycerol 3
phosphate pathway to form triglycerides
o Rate limiting step and committed step = DGAT
(diglyceride acyl transferase)
 Makes the diglyceride into a triglyceride
3. and 4. Adipose tissues and Type One Muscle Cells (Slow-twitch)
o Also uses glycerol 3 phosphate (using DHAP from
glycolysis)
o Activate the fatty acid (CoA)
o Sytnthesize the triglyceride
o
5. Mammary glands (in lactating women)
Rate lim step= Fatty Acyl CoA synthase: traps and activates fatty
acids so they can be used to synthesize triglcyerdes and other lipids.
2
This enzyme is in the ER and the Outer Mito mem. Forming the CoA
thioester also traps the fatty acid in the cell
Gut. Take monoglycerides and put two fatty acids in to get
triglyceride (remember, the fatty acids have to be activated first - CoA
derivatives). Gut has glycerol kinase because some of the triglycerides get
cleaved to fatty acids and glycerol. Put two fatty acids on glycerol-3-
phosphate to get phosphatidic acid. The glycerol-3-phosphate came from
glycerol using glycerol kinase. Take the phosphate off and then put the last
fatty acid in.
Liver. Glycerol kinase (same routine as what the gut
did). Remember, the liver is going to use glycerol to form glucose. It can
also use the glycerol to form triglycerides. DHAP in glycolysis can be
reduced to glycerol-3-phosphate. Same routine as what the gut did.
Adipose tissue. No glycerol kinase, have to use DHAP. Same
routine as the liver. DHAP to glycerol-3-phosphate. Glycerol-3-phosphate
to phosphatidic acid. Take phosphate off (get diglyeride). Add the last fatty
acid to get triglyceride.
Muscle. No glycerol kinase. Do what you did in adipose tissue.
Mammary Gland. Just like adipose tissue. But the really interesting
thing about human mammary glands is the kind of fatty acid that is used to
form the triglycerides in the milk. Palmitic acid is what fatty acid synthase
forms in all tissues. But in the breast tissue, it's lauric acid (12:0). We think
that this medium chain saturated fatty acid has special significance human
metabolism. We used to use a lot of coconut oil in the U.S. but the scare
over saturated fat stopped that. Europeans started going back to coconut oil
as well as palm oil to get margarine that does not have any trans fat. Palm
oil and coconut oil are very high in saturated fat and they are solids at room
temperature. These oils can be blended with corn oil or soybean oil to
produce margarine. We are just beginning to see some of these healthy
margarines in the U.S. but Europe has been using them as their only
margarine for over 10 years. Remember, we knew how bad trans fat was in
the early 90's
List the 6 glycerophospholipids, where are these lipids formed, go
through the steps required to synthesize each one, and name the
3
glycerophospholipid that is used to form triglyceride as well as the 6
glycerophospholipids that you listed above
1. Phosphatidlyethanolamine(PE) (cephalin) = CDPETHANOLAMINE
+ DG and also base exchange w/ PS
2. Phosphatidlyserine (PS )= CDP-DG + SERINE or base
exchange with PE-serine transferase
3. Phophatidlyinositol (PI) = CDP-DG + INOSITOL
4. Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)= CDP-DG + GLYCEROL-3-
PHOSPATE
5. Diphosphatidlyglycerol (DPG)(Cardiolipin) = CDP-DG
+PG
6. Phosphatidylcholine (PC) (lecithin) CDP-CHOLINE +
DG and SAM methylation of PE (methyltransferase)
Why did Colleen Lakker develop respiratory distress syndrome?
Make sure that you understand what pulmonary surfactant is, what it
does, when its formed, what can replace it, what can be used to check
for lung maturity and what can be used to speed up lung maturation.
Colleen Lakker was born 6 weeks premature (born at 34 weeks
gestation), she was one of the unlucky 5% that have trouble breathing.
60% of babies born before 28 weeks gestation will develop RDS
while only 5% that make it to 34 weeks gestation develop RDS.
Speed up= corticosteroids
Pulmonary surfactant
o What it is= DPPC, LPC, phosphatidylglycerol, apoporteins
and cholesterol
o What it does= decrease surface tension within alveoli
o When it is formed= around 34 weeks gestation is when it is
completed
o What can replace it= phospholipid remodeling: fatty acids in
membrane can be swapped out to change the properties of
the membrane:
4
 Dipalmitoyllecithin in lung tissue, phospholipase A2
removes fatty acid in 2 position and replaces it with
palmitic acid
o What is checked for lung maturity = Lectithin/
Sphingomyelin ratio of 2
List the 4 enzymes that are used for membrane lipid remodeling,
explain what each one does and indicate which one forms lung surfactant
as well as releases fatty acids for eicosanoid synthesis.
Phosphlipase A1, A2, C, D
A1-forms lysophospholipids
A2-forms lysophopholipids and releases FA’s for ecoisanoid synthesis
and is used to produce lungsurfactant
C—forms diglyceride
D—forms phosphatidic acid
How do we control the flow of fatty acids from the triglycerides that
are in chylomicrons and VLDL into muscle and adipose tissue?
Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) is used to hydrolyze triglycerides in
chylomicrons and VLDL so the fatty acids can be taken up into
specific tissues.
What does hormone-sensitive lipase do, where is it located, how is it
regulated and what regulates it?
Hormone sensitive lipase gets FA's (and glycerol) out of adipose
tissue by hydrolyzing TG's. It is located in adipose tissue.
Regulations:
Receptor stimulatorso
These bind to adrenergic plasma membrane receptor that
activates cAMP levels by activating adenyl cyclase.
 Epinephrine: binds to an adrenergic plasma
 Norepinephrine: acts the same way
 Glucagon: acts the same way
 ACTH: acts the same way
 Secretin: acts the same way
 Vasopressin: (ADH) acts the same way
 Ephedrine: stimulates the Symp NS system to get
norepi released adipose
Inhibition- no phophorylated lipaseo
Insulin- inhibits by putting phosphodiesterse in its active
phosphorylated form using protein kinase B to lower cyclic
AMP levles
o Nicotinic acid- inhbits by stimulating phosphodiesterase
activity to lower cyclic AMP levels. Also raises inhibitory G
protein levels or activity to decrease receptor-mediated
cyclic AMP formation
o Adenosine- inhibits by binding to a receptor that inhibits
adenyl cyclase which results in lower cyclic AMP levles
Stimulate (primers)- Stimulate by promoting synthesis of adenyl
cyclase to give better cAMP.
o Glucocorticoids
o GH
6
o Thyroxin
Inhibits phosphodiestrase from raising cAMP levels
o Caffeine
o Methyxanthines
o Theophylline
DR. B-----Lipases are really critical enzymes and I spend quite a bit of time
going over them. But if I decide to ask a question about one of them, I'm
almost always disappointed. We have lingual lipase, gastric lipase,
pancreatic lipase, lipoprotein lipase, hepatic lipase, acid lipase and hormonesensitive
lipase. What these enzymes have in common is that they all
breakdown triglycerides. But where the do it, why they do it, and how we
regulate each one is very different.
Hormone-sensitive lipase probably should have been called adipose lipase
but that's not what happened. The breakdown of triglycerides in adipose
tissue is heavily regulated. You have to know this regulation. Note:
something he said he likes to test on: everything with a glycerol backbone
comes from phosphatidic acid, everything with a sphingoine backbone
comes from ceramine. (sp?)
Where are saturated fats, monounsaturated fats and polyunsaturated
fats coming from in the American diet?
The fatty acids in our diet end up in our adipose tissue and in the
phospholipids that are in our membranes. This diet related fatty acid
profile affects the functioning of our tissue. Saturated fats: butter fat,
animal fat, coconut oil, palm oil, cocoa butter, palm kernel oil.
Why does dietary fat have a health impact on humans?
Phospholipid Fatty Acids species affect membrane biophysics
and membrane biophysics affects protein function… e.g.When rat
heart muscle is made hypoxic, the heart has a problem maintaining a
normal rate of contraction and arrhythmias can occur. Changing the
diet protects the rat heart from these potentially deadly changes in
heart beat rhythm.
What is the single most effective way to prevent the development of
heart disease?
Increase intake of Omega 3’s in diet. Increase intake of Omega 3’s in
diet. Increase intake of Omega 3’s in diet. Increase intake of Omega 3’s
in diet. Increase intake of Omega 3’s in diet. Increase intake of Omega
3’s in diet.
What is DHA?
DHA (Docosahexaenoic acid) is A 22 carbon 6 double bond fatty acid
that is formed from EPA.
What two humans tissues does it concentrate in?
DHA makes up 30% of fatty acids in brain and 60% fatty acids
in retina. It plays both a compositional and functional role in brain.
Why is it so critical for human infant health and are American women
getting enough DHA to produce healthy babies?
8
The need for DHA is greatest during the most rapid periods of
brain development.
Last trimester of pregnancy through 2 years of age
70% of brain cells are developed before birth
90 % of women in the US surveyed were well below the
minumum recommendation of 300 mg daily. Pregnant women
reportedly have the third lowest intake of DHA in the world.
What is the single most effective way to prevent depression?
Omega 3’s, Increase intake of fish(omega 3’s) in diet.
Why do all of the animals that Americans currently eat have low
levels of Omega-3 fat?
As soon as cattle are removed from pasture and fed corn, their
tissue levels of Omega-3 fatty acids start to drop. Every Animal and
Fish on this planet will have good amounts of Omega-3 fatty acids
until we feed it corn or other grains.
How can Americans increase their intake of omega-3 fatty acids?
Several ways including Omega 3 supplements, Reasors Omega
3 cookies, eating fish, walnuts, etc.
How much Omega-3 fat should be consumed each day for good
health?
Omega6/omega3 ratio of 4:1
2.5 g/day for maintenance
Improve hearing function 5 g/d
Treat chronic pain 7.5 g/d
Treat neurological disease >10 g/d
What are the general health benefits for omega-3 fatty acids?
Cardiac
Reduced incidence of MI
improved survival if MI occurs
Gastrointestinal
Improvement in Crohn’s disease & ulcerative colitis
 corticosteroid use in inflammatory bowel disease
Rheumatology
Improvement in rheumatoid arthritis symptoms
 corticosteroid use in rheumatoid arthritis
Renal
Reduced incidence of IgA nephropathy
Improved outcome in renal transplant
Neuropsychiatric
Mood disorders
Schizophrenia
ADHD
Depression
Dementia prevention
What tissues synthesize cholesterol on a regular basis, how much total
cholesterol gets formed in humans each day and what tissue forms the
greatest amount of cholesterol each day?
Can
be
formed
in
every
cell
except
RBCs
Most
comes
from
liver
o Even
if
cholesterol
isn’t
digested,
chylomicrons
will
take
up
the
cholesterol
synthesized
by
the
liver
Some
comes
from
skin,
testes,
ovaries,
and
adrenal
glands
~
1
gram
is
produced
every
day
What is the isopentenyl phosphate pathway, what organisms have this
pathway, what compounds does this pathway form in humans and what do
these compounds do?
See slide
How much cholesterol is synthesized in peroxisomes versus the endoplasmic
reticulum and which system for cholesterol synthesis peaks at night?
30% of the total cholesterol synthesis in the liver occurs in peroxisomes. Cytoplasmic (ER) cholesterol synthesis peaks at night while peroxisomal synthesis peaks during the day. When the liver is synthesizing fatty acids, it is also synthesizing cholesterol. You then use cytoplasmic HMG-­‐CoA to get HMG-­‐CoA.
What is the rate-limiting step (enzyme along with substrate and end product)
in the synthesis of cholesterol, what enzyme forms the substrate for this key
enzyme, where are these two enzymes located inside cells that synthesize
cholesterol and how is the synthesis of cholesterol regulated?
The
only
Enzymes
that
you
have
to
know
in
the
cholesterol
synthetic
pathway
are
Hydroxy-­‐
MethylGlutaryl-­‐CoA
(HMG-­‐CoA)
Reductase
and
Hydroxy-­‐Methylglutaryl-­‐CoA
Synthase.
HMG-­‐CoA
Synthase
is
mitochondrial,
cytoplasmic
and
peroxisomal
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase
is
in
peroxisomes
and
the
endoplasmic
reticulum
HMG-­‐CoA
reductase
is
the
rate
limiting
step
o Turns
HMG-­‐CO-­‐A
into
mevalonate
o This
is
the
enzyme
statins
inhibit,
as
well
fiber
will
feed
bacteria
What is used to produce cholesterol in the Fed State and what is used
during the Fasting State?
Key
point

When
the
liver
is
synthesizing
fatty
acids,
it’s
also
synthesizing
cholesterol!
Key
Point

When
the
liver
is
synthesizing
ketone
bodies,
its
also
synthesizing
cholesterol
3
Cholesterol

Binds
to
and
inhibits
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase.
Cholesterol

Inhibits
formation
of
SREBP-­‐2.
Sterol
Regulatory
Element
Binding
Protein-­‐2
is
going
to
induce
the
formation
of
messenger
RNA
that
codes
for
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase.
Cholesterol,
bile
salts,
oxidized
cholesterol,
mevalonic
acid
and
farnesyl
pyrophosphate
-­‐
Stimulate
the
degradation
of
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase.
AMP
(Low
Energy
State)

Inhibits
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase
through
an
AMP-­‐
Dependent
Protein
Kinase
action
which
puts
phosphate
on
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase
Kinase
to
activate
it.
The
reductase
kinase
then
phosphorylates
HMG-­‐CoA
Reductase
to
inactivate
it.
What do statins do besides inhibit the synthesis of cholesterol in the liver?
It’s
a
competitive
inhibitor
of
HMG
CoA
Reductase.
So
it
reduces
the
production
of
cholesterol
in
the
liver
They
reduce
serum
lipid
levels
by
increasing
LDL
receptor
synthesis,thereby
reducing
the
formation
of
new
arterial
plaques
Reduces
existing
plaques
Reduce
Inflammation
(modify
disease
activity
and
organ
damage
by
preventing
endothelial
activation)
Raises
HDL
levels
reduce
the
risk
of
CAD
allow
macrophages
to
remove
lipid
from
plaques (see slide)
What did the Lyon Diet Heart Study tell us about the role of diet in preventing a
second heart attack in people who had already had a heart attack?
A Mediterranean type diet reduced CVD events compared to standard lowfat
diet instructions. Further, the Lyon Diet-Heart study demonstrated that a
Mediterranean type diet (one high in fruits, vegetables and linolenic acid)
reduced future CVD events with significantly affecting plasma lipid levels.
Combined, these observations suggest that foods contain healthful non5
nutrient components which may protect against heart disease through novel
mechanisms.
Why are Omega-3 fatty acids so good at preventing a heart attack?
They
improve
arterial
elasticity
and
they
reduce
inflammation
What
4
Major
Classes
of
lipoproteins
are
found
in
human
blood,
where
do
these
come
from
and
how
do
they
differ
in
their
lipid
composition?
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL
-­‐Formed
in
the
gut
Puts
everything
not
soluble
in
water
from
food
into
lymph-­‐-­‐blood
-­‐formed
in
the
liver
-­‐Formed
in
the
liver
-­‐Formed
in
the
intestine
and
liver
40-­‐500nm
20-­‐22nm
9-­‐15nm
1-­‐5%
cholesterol
50%
cholesterol
25%
cholesterol
1-­‐10%
protein
22
%
protein
45%
protein
Apo
B-­‐48-­‐chylomicron
Apo
B-­‐100-­‐
VLDL
Apo
C’s
Apo
E
Apo
B-­‐100
Apo
A-­‐1
and
2
Apo
C’s
Apo
E

See slide if this is a mess
What
protein
is
needed
for
chylomicron
formation,
where
does
chylomicron
synthesis
occur,
how
are
chylomicrons
processed,
what
are
chylomicron
remnants,
what’s
in
chylomicron
remnants
and
how
does
the
liver
take
up
chylomicron
remnants?
Protein
in
chylomicron
formation=
Apolipoprotein
B48
Chylomicron
synthesis
happens
in
the
Endoplamic
reticulum
and
it
requires
phospholipids.
There
is
no
real
regulation
of
either
one.
For
chylomicrons,
the
only
thing
that
impacts
gut
formation
is
the
fat
content
of
your
last
meal.
Processing:
Chylomicrons
go
into
the
lymph.
Chylomicrons
get
into
blood
via
the
thoraic
duct.
The
triglyceride
gets
removed
by
lipoprotein
lipase
in
muscle
and
adipose
tissue
capillary
beds.
ApoC
I,
II
and
III
have
to
be
picked
up
before
lipoprotein
lipase
processing
starts.
These
come
from
HDL
(maybe
some
from
plasma
also).
ApoCI
and
II
activate
lipoprotein
lipase,
III
inhibits
lipoprotein
lipase.
Apo
CII
comes
off
the
chylomicron
(probably
CI
also)
so
that
CIII
can
inhibit
any
further
processing
of
chylomicrons.
Once
the
processing
has
stopped,
we
use
the
term
chylomicron
remnant.
The
newly
discovered
liver
receptor
LRP
sees
the
apoB48
and
binds
the
remnant
so
it
can
be
taken
up
by
the
liver.
The
liver
can
also
see
apoE.
ApoE
was
put
in
chylomicrons
by
HDL.
This
appears
to
happen
when
HDL
removes
apoCII
(and
probably
apoCI)
to
stop
the
hydrolysis
of
triglycerides
in
chylomicrons.
Putting
in
apoE
allows
the
liver
to
see
it
and
take
it
up
using
the
apoE
receptor.
We
process
chylomicrons
very
quickly.
With
an
over
night
fast,
the
blood
should
be
completely
clear
of
chylomicrons.
We
process
VLDL
much
more
slowly.
We
say
that
only
the
liver
can
take
up
chylomicron
What
protein
is
needed
for
VLDL
formation,
where
does
VLDL
synthesis
occur,
what
happens
if
a
high
rate
of
triglyceride
formation
occurs
during
the
synthesis
of
VLDL,
how
are
VLDL
particles
processed,
what
is
IDL,
what
does
IDL
form,
what
tissue
removes
most
of
the
IDL
and
how
is
this
removal
of
IDL
accomplished?
Protein
=
Apo
B-­‐100
Synthesized
=
in
the
liver
Regulation
of
Synth
if
the
dietary
intake
of
carbs
exceeds
the
immediate
fuel
requirements.of
the
liver,
the
excess
carbs
are
converted
to
triacylglycerols,
along
with
esterified
cholesterol,
phospholipids,
and
major
apoprotein
apoB-­‐100
and
are
packaged
to
form
nascent
VLDL
Increased
availability
of
fatty
acids
Stimulation
of
fatty
acid
synthesis
Stimulation
fatty
acid
synthesis
Processing:
VLDL
will
be
secreted
from
the
liver
into
the
bloodstream
In
bloodstream
they
accept
apoCII
and
apoE
from
circulating
HDLs.
Then
form
mature
VLDL
particles
Will
then
be
transported
from
hepatic
vein
to
caps
in
skeletal
m,
cardiac
m,
adipose,
and
lactating
mammary
tissues
Here
LPL
is
activated
by
apoCII
in
the
VLDL
This
facilitates
the
hydrolysis
of
triacylglycerol
inVLDL
causing
the
release
of
fatty
acids
and
glycerol
from
a
portion
of
the
core
triacylglycerols.
Residual
particles
called
VLDL
remnants
8
1. 50%
are
taken
up
by
the
liver
through
the
apoE
receptors
2. 50%
have
additional
core
triacylglycerols
removed
to
form
IDL
3. Additional
removal
of
triacylglycerols
will
create
an
LDL
a. 60%
of
the
LDL
is
transported
back
to
the
liver
where
it
binds
apoB-­‐100
receptors
b. 40%
of
the
LDL
is
carried
to
extrahepatic
tissues
that
contain
apoB-­‐100
receptors
and
internalize
the
LDL
particles
c. Excess/saturation
of
receptors
will
cause
the
nonspecific
macrophages
to
uptake
the
cells
near
the
endothelial
cells
i. This
induces
inflammation
and
then
known
to
produce
a
cascade
of
atherosclerosis
What
is
in
VLDL
besides
cholesterol,
triglycerides,
phospholipids
and
protein?
VLDL
is
formed
in
the
liver.
Liver
puts
everything
it
has
onboard
that
is
not
soluble
in
water
into
VLDL.
You
get
carotenoids,
vitamin
E,
coenzyme
Q10,
phytoestrogens,
etc.
Slide
56
in
the
Cholesterol
Metabolism
lecture
has
all
of
this
neat
stuff
(didn't
have
the
phytoestrogens
though
which
I
just
now
added).
Slide
56
shows
you
LDL
(LDL
of
course
comes
from
VLDL
after
the
triglyceride
is
removed).
Liver
is
also
storing
vitamin
D
and
vitamin
K
but
it
does
not
put
these
two
fat-­‐soluble
vitamins
into
VLDL
(it
uses
them).
I
wanted
you
to
know
that
antioxidants
get
delivered
to
extrahepatic
tissues
along
with
cholesterol
when
they
take
up
LDL
using
their
LDL
receptor.
What
tissue
removes
most
of
the
LDL
from
the
blood
and
how
is
this
accomplished?
Circulating
low-­‐density
lipoprotein
(LDL)
is
cleared
from
the
plasma
by
the
liver
(75%)
and
by
extrahepatic
tissues
(25%).
The
clearance
is
mediated
by
both
receptor-­‐dependent
(>70%)
and
receptor-­‐independent
pathways.
The
pathways
that
contribute
to
the
clearance
of
LDL
by
LDL-­‐receptor-­‐independent
mechanisms
are
poorly
understood.
Modifications
that
occur
in
the
plasma
(glycation
or
oxidation)
may
account
for
LDL-­‐receptor-­‐independent
clearance
mechanisms.
Deficiency
in
the
LDL
receptors
always
results
in
hypercholesterolaemia.
Approximately
35–50%
of
plasma
LDL
is
cleared
daily
in
normal
persons.
What
are
ACAT,
LCAT
and
CETP
and
what
do
they
do?
ACAT-­‐
LCAT—Lecithin
Cholesterol
Acyl
Tranferase.
Changes
LDL
from
Disk
to
sphere
formation.
It
turns
free
cholesterol
to
cholesterol
ester.
CETP—Cholesterol
Ester
Transfer
Protein.
CETP
is
involved
in
transporting
CE
in
HDL
from
extra-­‐hepatic
tissues
to
the
liver,
either
for
elimination
from
the
body
in
the
bile
or
for
re-­‐incorporation
into
VLDL.
This
process
is
known
as
reverse
cholesterol
transport.
CETP
transfers
oxidized
lipids
from
LDL
to
HDL.
The
oxidized
lipids
in
HDL
are
reduced
by
HDL
apolipoproteins.
10
What
proteins
are
needed
for
HDL
formation
Proteins
needed
for
HDL
formation
ApoaA1-­‐
synth
by
liver
and
intestine
ApoA2—synth
by
liver
i. ApoC
1
and
2
(says
book
and
obviously
necessary)
What
tissues
produce
these
proteins,?
Liver
and
Intestine
Where
does
HDL
formation
occur
and
how
does
HDL
get
cholesterol
back
to
the
liver?
Transport
of
HDL
to
the
liver:
b. Reverse
cholesterol
transport
i. Cells
contain
protein
ABCAI
(ATP
binding
Cassette
protein)
pumps
the
cholesterol
from
the
leaflet
of
the
membrane
to
the
outer
leaflet,
then
the
HDL
accepts
the
particle
ii. HDL
traps
the
particle
via
LCAT
(catalyzes
the
transfer
of
a
fatty
acid
to
make
an
esterified
cholesterol)
(activated
by
ApoA-­‐I)
CETP
is
involved
in
transporting
CE
in
HDL
from
extra-­‐hepatic
tissues
to
the
liver,
either
for
elimination
from
the
body
in
the
bile
or
for
re-­‐incorporation
into
VLDL.
This
process
is
known
as
reverse
cholesterol
transport.
The
steps
involved
include
transfer
of
unesterified
cholesterol
in
cell
membranes
to
acceptors
in
the
extracellular
space,
where
it
is
incorporated
into
HDL.
There
are
at
least
4
distinct
pathways
involving
the
ATP-­‐binding
cell
membrane
transporters
ABCA1
or
ABCG1,
the
HDL
receptor
SR-­‐B1
(scavenger
receptor
B1)
or
passive
diffusion.
HDL
is
released
from
the
SR-­‐BI
receptor
after
the
cholesterol
esters
are
transferred
to
the
liver.
What
pumps
phospholipids
and
cholesterol
into
nascent
HDL
and
what
activates
this
process?
High-­‐density
lipoprotein
(HDL)
particles
are
formed
in
plasma
from
the
coalescence
of
individual
phospholipid-­‐apolipoprotein
A
complexes.
HDL
and
its
major
apolipoprotein,
apoA-­‐I,
are
synthesized
by
both
the
liver
and
the
intestine.
The
other
primary
apolipoprotein,
apoA-­‐II,
is
synthesized
only
by
the
liver.
CETP
is
involved
in
transporting
CE
in
HDL
from
extra-­‐
hepatic
tissues
to
the
liver,
either
for
elimination
from
the
body
in
the
bile
or
for
re-­‐incorporation
into
VLDL.
This
process
is
known
as
reverse
cholesterol
transport.
The
steps
involved
include
transfer
of
unesterified
cholesterol
in
cell
membranes
to
acceptors
in
the
extracellular
space,
where
it
is
incorporated
into
HDL.
There
are
at
least
4
distinct
pathways
involving
the
ATP-­‐binding
cell
membrane
transporters
ABCA1
or
ABCG1,
the
HDL
receptor
SR-­‐B1
(scavenger
receptor
B1)
or
passive
diffusion.
What is metabolic syndrome and why was Ivan Applebod diagnosed with this particular
syndrome?
Metabolic Syndrome: Disease of the Modern Era
Constellation of several risk factors that increase chance of coronary artery disease,
peripheral vascular disease, stroke and type 2 diabetes.
Combination of 3 or more of the following risks: Ivan has all 5 conditions that make
up the Metabolic Syndrome
(1) Abdominal obesity
(2) Triglyceride levels above 150 mg/dL- Elevated triglycerides mean that small
LDL is being produced
(3) Low HDL cholesterol
(4) Elevated blood pressure (>130/85 mm Hg)
(5) Elevated fasting blood glucose > 100 mg/dL
Aging is a major contributor: prevalence in 20-29 yr olds = 6.7%; 60-69 yr olds = 43.5%
Why did Ann Jeina have a heart attack and what is her doctor trying to do to prevent her
from having another one?
Ann was diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolemia type IIA.
Hypercholesterolemia means elevated cholesterol in the blood. This elevation is
due to LDL being much higher than normal. LDL is a lipoprotein.
Her total cholesterol is 420 mg/dL, and her total triglyceride is 158 mg/dL. Ann’s
LDL cholesterol is 356 mg/dL. Her HDL cholesterol is 32 mg/dL. Her total
cholesterol and her LDL cholesterol are high enough that she was diagnosed with
familial hypercholesterolemia type IIA. Ann was placed on a Step I diet (replaced
by the TLC diet in 2006). She was also prescribed cholestyramine(Because Ann
has a genetic defect that raises her LDL cholesterol, she was also prescribed
cholestyramin) and provastatin to try to prevent another heart attack.
Hyperlipoproteinemia is a metabolic disorder characterized by abnormally elevated
concentrations of specific lipoprotein particles in the plasma. Hyperlipidemia (↑
plasma cholesterol and/or triglyceride) is present in all hyperlipoproteinemias.
What are the 6 classic hyperlipoproteinemias and which one was Ann Jeina diagnosed
with? Make sure you understand what’s wrong in patients with each type of
hyperliproteinemia.
Ann Jeina had IIA(defect in LDL receptor). See sheet for complete answer.
What are the three causes for primary hypercholesterolemia type IIA, how common are
these genetic defects and what kind of risk does a person with one of these defects have
of dying from a heart attack during their lifetime?
1. Familial Hypercholesterolemia (type IIA)-increased LDL, 1in 500, defective LDL
receptor
2. Familial Defective ApoB100-increased LDL, 1 in 100, defective Apo B100 binding to
LDLR
3. Polygenic Hypercholesterolemia-increased cholesterol, common, etiology unknown
Heart disease caused by defective APOB, LDL-R results in 70% lifetime risk of MI
What is atherosclerosis, what are the risk factors for atherosclerosis, what risk factors are
modifiable and why is chronic infection emerging as a very important risk factor for
atherosclerosis?
Atherosclerosis is the formation of plaques in the walls of major arteries. This constricts
the lumen of the blood vessel (which impedes the flow of blood) and decreases vessel
elasticity. Plaques are regions in the intima of major arteries in which smooth muscle cells,
connective tissues, lipids, and debris accumulate. The last stage of plaque development often
involves calcium deposition.
Risk Factors:
1. Obesity
2. Decreased
HDL
3. Diabetes
4. Psychological
Distress
5. Family history
of Heart
Disease
6. Tobacco use
7. High serum
homocysteine
8. High serum
bilirubin
9. Elevated
LDL
10. Over 50 years
old
11. Poor diet
12. Sedentary
lifestyle
13. Post
menopause
14. High blood
pressure
15. High Total
Serum
Cholesterol
16. Abnormalities
in coagulation
proteins
When did the age-adjusted death rate for heart disease peak in the
U.S., what was the death rate at this peak and how did this peak
compare to the death date in 1900 versus 1997?
The age-adjusted death rate for diseases of the heart peaked in 1950 at
587/100,000 . 1.3 million deaths in 1900 age-adjusted death rate of
265/100,000 versus 2.3 million deaths in 1997 age-adjusted death rate
of 479/100,000
Why do plaques form in artery walls and what specific lipoproteins
are responsible for this plaque formation?
Role of the plasma lipoproteins in the development of the
atherosclerotic lesion. The development of the atherosclerotic lesion
involves the interaction of lipoproteins with macrophages with the
formation of foam cells, which are characteristic of early
atherosclerosis. Elevated levels of three major classes of plasma
lipoproteins—low-density lipoprotein (LDL), very LDL (VLDL)
remnants, and lipoprotein (a) (Lp[a])—have been associated with an
increased risk of early cardiovascular disease. Increased plasma
concentrations of these lipoproteins are associated with increased
diffusion into the vessel wall. The major atherogenic lipoprotein, LDL,
requires oxidative modification to be taken up by the macrophage
with the formation of foam cells. Elevated intimal levels of Lp(a) also
are associated with foam cell formation. Lp(a) also may contribute to
the development of atherosclerosis by competition with plasminogen
for the plasminogen receptor []. Thus, the atherogenic potential of
Lp(a) may result from uptake by the macrophage with foam cell
formation and its thrombotic potential as a competitor of plasminogen.
Foam cell formation, macrophage activation, lipid oxidation, and
endothelial cell injury all lead to the release of chemotactic factors
that contribute to the development of the atherosclerotic lesion. The
major antiatherogenic lipoprotein, high-density lipoprotein (HDL),
protects against the development of foam cells and atherosclerosis by
several potential mechanisms. A major proposed mechanism is
reverse cholesterol transport, whereby HDL facilitates the removal of
cholesterol from the foam cells and transports this cholesterol out of
the vessel wall and back to the liver where it can be removed from the
5
body. In addition, HDL may protect LDL from being oxidized in the
vessel wall. Ox—oxidized.
Why is the HDL level the single most important factor in determine
who will have a heart attack?
If HDL levels are high enough, foam cells can’t be formed. Other
Antiatherogenic Actions of HDL include antiinflammatory activity,
antioxidative activity, antiinfectious activity, antithrombotic activity,
antiapoptotic activity and vasodilatory activity. HDL also plays a role in
endothelial repair.
Why do about 25% of current Americans have a heart attack even
though they have a completely normal lipid profile?
Almost ¼ of the people in the U.S. that have a heart attack have
a completely normal lipid profile as we currently measure lipids. To
identify more people who are at a high risk of having a heart attack,
we have to measure all of the LDL and HDL subspecies.
What are the 6 discrete stages of pathology that occur during plaque
development and how long does it take to reach a stage where the
pathology is severe enough to cause a heart attack?
1. foam cells
2. faty streak
3. exteacelular fatty streak
4. lipid core
5. artherosclerotic plaque lipid core embedded in fibrosis
6. complicated artherosclerotic plaque(plaque rupture,
thrombosis)
What percentage of young (12 to 14) American males have plaques in
their arteries that have reached the pathological stage where blood
clots can be formed?
8%(type III)--- Results of 1,900 autopsies performed on
U.S. males aged 12 to 14 in 1989.
Why do plaques rupture and cause blood clot formation?
Inflammation was a critical step in plaque formation, it’s also a
critical step in plaque rupture.
•The term vulnerable plaque is used to identify thrombosisprone
plaques and plaques with a high probability of undergoing
progression and becoming culprit lesions.
•This schematic figure illustrates the most common type of
vulnerable plaque considered responsible for acute coronary events
(based on retrospective autopsy studies).1 It is characterized by a thin
fibrous cap, and extensive macrophage infiltration with inflammation
on or beneath the surface and a large lipid core without significant
luminal narrowing.Inflammation causes plaque formation and inflammation also causes
plague rupture
What are the surgical treatments for heart disease?
PCTA (Percutaneous Transluminal Corornary Angioplasty)-
about 800,000 procedures a year.
Stent Placement-about 1,000,000 a year.
CPAG-Bypass surgery-about 700,000 year
What are the medical (drug) treatments for heart disease? Make
sure that you understand how each treatment works, how effective
the different treatments are for lowering LDL or raising HDL and
what complications can occur that would make it difficult for
patients to say on one of the medical treatments.
Lipid-modifying therapies include HMG CoA reductase inhibitors (statins),
fibrates, bile acid sequestrants (resins), nicotinic acid and its derivatives, and
probucol.
Statins are highly effective in lowering LDL-cholesterol and have a good
tolerability profile.1-3 Data presented in this slide does not include
rosuvastatin.
Bile acid sequestrants are potent cholesterol-modifying agents. Adverse
events such as gastrointestinal bloating, nausea and constipation limit
compliance to the bile acid sequestrants.1,2
Nicotinic acid, a B-complex vitamin, is effective at reducing both LDL
cholesterol and triglyceride concentrations, and increasing HDL cholesterol
levels. To be effective, it must be given in pharmacologic doses. The value
of nicotinic acid has been limited by the incidence of adverse events, which
include flushing, skin problems, gastrointestinal distress, liver toxicity,
hyperglycaemia and hyperuricemia.1,2
Fibrates are effective triglyceride-lowering and HDL-raising drugs.
However, in the majority of patients they are only moderately successful in
reducing LDL-cholesterol.1,2
Probucol is not available in most countries. It has only a modest LDLcholesterol-
lowering effect, and there is no evidence that it reduces CHD
risk and there are limited long-term tolerability data.1,2
Ezetimibe is the first of a novel class of selective cholesterol-absorption
inhibitors. Ezetimibe may be useful in patients who are intolerant to other
lipid-modifying therapies, and in combination with a statin in patients who
8
are intolerant to large doses of statins or need further reductions in LDL
cholesterol despite maximum doses of a statin.
Why do fish oil supplements stabilize plaques just a well as the
statins drugs do?
Omega 3 fatty acids decrease inflammation and platelet
aggregation.
What dietary factor carries the greatest risk for heart disease
development?
For every 2% increase in trans fats a 93 % increase in CAD.
Omega-3 fatty acids are the most important dietary factor in
preventing heart disease and trans fat is the most important dietary
factor in causing heart disease
Why is going on a low fat diet useless for preventing heart disease
or for losing weight?
Low fat diet results in decreased HDL, increased triglycerides,
decreased viamin E and essential fatty acids, increased insulin
resistance.
What is the best kind of diet to be on to prevent heart disease?
The Mediterranean Diet is nutrient dense, high in
antioxidants, high in omega 3 fats, low GI carbs (legumes, oats),
high fruits and vegetables, low sugar, low saturated
hydrogenated fats.
1. What are eicosanoids, what are the general functions for eicosanoids, what cells produce eicosanoids, what three fatty acids are used to form eicosanoids and which of these is the major precursor for eicosanoids in most Americans?
Derived from polyunsaturated fatty acids with 20 carbon atoms
Found in cell membranes esterified to membrane phospholipids
1. Arachidonic acid (Omega 6 from diet) 20:4 = 20 carbons, 4 double bonds is the most common compound that produces eicosanoids
2. Dihomo-Gamma-Linolenic Acid 20:3 (Omega 6)
3. Eicosapentaenoic Acid (EPA) 20:5 (Omega 3)

Common names for some eicosanoids:
Prostaglandins (PG)
Thromboxanes (TX)
Leukotrienes (LT)

Functions:
Act as local hormones
Participate in the inflammatory response that occurs after infection or injury
• Control of bleeding through blood clot formations
• Symptoms such as pain, swelling, and fever
• Exaggerated ex: allergic or hypersensitive reactions
Regulate smooth muscle contraction (particularly in uterus/intestine)
Regulate blood pressure (constrictors and dilators, eg broncho--)
Regulate sleep/wake cycle
Increase water and sodium excretion in kidneys
What are autocoids and what fatty acid is used to form autocoids but is not used to form eicosanoids?
DHA has 22 carbons so it can’t form eicosanoids but it does form fatty acid derivatives that have the same actions as eicosanoids. All 4 of these fatty acids are classified as autocoids.( Dihomo-gamma-linolenic-DGLA, Arachnoidic-AA, Eicosapentaenoic-EA, and Docasahexaenoic-DHA acids).
They are Endogenous substances with biological activity, local hormones that are not released or stored in glands, not circulated in the blood, they are formed at the site of action, and produce localized action.
3. What are resolvins and protectins, what do they do and why would a COX-2 inhibitor interfere with resolvin production?
Resolvins are compounds that are made by the human body from the omega-3 fatty acid, eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA). They are produced by the COX-2 pathway especially in the presence of aspirin. Experimental evidence indicates that resolvins reduce cellular inflammation by inhibiting the production and transportation of inflammatory cells and inflammatory chemicals to the sites of inflammation. They are released and used immunologically by the kidneys as a tool against acute renal failure. Resolvins probably play a key role in stabilizing plaques; COX-2 inhibitors probably interfere with this function. They interfere with the function because resolvins are produced in the COX-2 pathway. Via—the vioxx disaster.
4. What three enzymes are used to release fatty acids from membrane phospholipids for eicosanoid synthesis, where are these enzymes located, how do they work, and which one produces most of the arachidonic acid that is used for eicosanoid synthesis?
1.) Phospholipase A2-direct release-chief enzyme responsible for releasing Arachnoidic Acid as precursor to ecosonoid synthesis.

2.) Phospholipase C-Phosphoinositol-indirect release of arachnoid acid

3.) Phospholipase D (PLD) is also involved in releasing arachidonic acid from plasma membrane phospholipids
5. What are the three enzyme systems that are used to produce eicosanoids, what class of eicosanoids gets formed without the action of these enzyme systems and why does this non-enzymatic formation occur?
From arachidoinic acid---

Cyclooxygenase
Produces prostaglandins and thromboxanes
Lipoxygenase
Creates leukotriends, lipoxins, HETE
Cytochrome P450
Epoxides---diHETE and HETE

Isoprostanes-These are formed by non-enzymatic
lipid peroxidation catalyzed by free radicals

Amplifies platelet response to other agonists.
Vasoconstrictor
Plasma levels 1-2 orders
of magnitude > COX
derived metabolites.
6. What does the cyclooxygenase system produce, how many COX enzymes are currently known to exist, where are these enzymes located and what does each one do?
There are three (3) different cyclooxygenase complexes.



Cox 1 (‘the good guy’): (discovered in 1971)
•Constitutively expressed
•Credited for ‘house-keeping functions’
•Exception: Thromboxane synthesis in thrombocytes
Cox 2 (‘the bad guy’): (discovered in 1990)
•Inducible by inflammatory mediators (interleukin-1, tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
•Induction inhibited by corticosteroids
•Blamed for inflammation / pain / fever
Cox 3 (‘the new guy’): (discovered in 2002)
•Very recently discovered in dog brain (has been found in human cerebral cortex and heart muscle)
•Splice variant of Cox 1 (intron 1 remains in mRNA)
•Inhibited strongly by acetaminophen – which acts only weakly on Cox 1 and Cox 2

All three multienzyme complexes are located in the endoplasmic reticulum. This system produces prostaglandins, prostacyclins and thromboxanes. COX-2 is induced by inflammatory mediators and the process of inflammation. COX-1 is always present in our tissues, and is thought to mediate eicosanoid production as part of homeostasis (vasodilatory and vasoconstrictive compounds for local control)
What does the lipoxygenase system produce, how many lipoxygenase enzymes are currently known to exist and where are these enzymes located?
Lipoxygenases (there is also a 15-lipoxygenase) are cytoplasmic enzymes. See slide for other details.
8. What enzymes are needed to remove prostaglandins from the systemic circulation, and how do prostaglandins work throughout the body to regulate metabolism?
15-prostaglandin dehydrogenase inactivates PG’s via oxidation of the C15 hydroxy group(critical for activity) to a ketone
Δ-13 reductase reduces double bond at c13

+++ Know that Prostaglandins Regulate Gene Expression.

See slide for details/add'l info
9. How do steroids work to control inflammation, what steroids were used for Emma Wheezer and why were these particular steroids used?
Reduced inflammatory response by
inhibiting transmigration of leukocytes
attenuate the generation of inflammatory exudates
Phospholipase A2 suppression
COX-2 suppression

Emma Wheezer was given IV dexamethasone for 10 days to treat her asthma during hospitalization and she now uses a triamcinolone acetonide inhaler to prevent another serious asthma episode. These medications inhibit production of prostaglandins due to decreased gene expression of COX-2
2- inhibit early and late manifestations of inflammation
3- which prevents chronic inflammation
4- Decrease fibroblasts which leads to inhibition of chronic inflammation (less fibrosis) and better wound healing and repair
5- Inhibits Phospholipase A2 by inducing lipocortin which leads to:
•Decrease production of PAF (platelet activating factor)
• Decrease Arachidonic acid which is the precursor for:
* Production of prostaglandins
* Leukotrienes (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)
6- Decrease histamine release

7- Decrease production of nitric oxide

8- Decrease production of PAF

9- Decrease the production of GM-CSF which is essential for production of:

-platelets
-Monocyte, neutrophil & eosinophil
-RBCs
10. What role do eicosanoids play in inflammation?
Eicosanoids can mediate virtually every step of inflammation.

Action Metabolite

Vasoconstriction Thromboxane A2, Leukotriene C4, D4, E4

Vasodilation PGI2, PGE1, PGE2, PGD2

Increased vascul. permeab. LTC4, LTD4, LTE4

Chemotaxis, Leuko. adhesion LTB4, 5-HETE

Bronchospasm Leukotriene C4, D4, E4

Platelet aggregation Thromboxane A2

Pain mediation, Fever induction PGE2


11. How can diet be used to control inflammation?

Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA) is released to compete with arachidonic acid (AA) for enzymatic metabolism inducing production of less inflammatory & chemotactic derivatives. In experimental animals & humans, serum PUFA levels predict the response of proinflammatory cytokines to psychologic stress; imbalance in Ω-6:Ω-3 PUFA ratio in major depression may be related to  production of proinflammatory cytokines & eicosanoids. He cited a number of botanicals that are natural inhibitors of inflammatory mediators including ginkgo bilobo(platelet activating factor), Capsaicin (topical),Turmeric or Curcumin, Nettles, Feverfew and Ginger. And of course the increased use and intake of OMEGA 3’s.
12. How does aspirin reduce inflammation?
it inactivates platelet cyclooxygenase for the duration of platelet lifespan (7-10 days through acetylation, causing a mild hemostatic effect
13. Why were selective COX-2 inhibitors developed, and why did we have to remove two of the three selective COX-2 inhibitors from the U.S. market?
COX 2 inhibitors are anti-inflammatory and able to block pain with less gastric toxicity and side effects than NSAIDS that inhibit COX1. It was discovered that these drugs increase the risk for a heart attack Because they adversely effect the ratio of thromboxane to prostacyclin and adversely effect resolvin levels. Vioxx and Betrex were pulled from the market because of this.
1. What two different kinds of enzymes have to be produced for us to digest proteins, where do we produce these enzymes, how many different enzymes do we have to produce to digest proteins and how many different places are used for protein digestion?
a. Proteolytic digestive enzymes – over 30
i. Gastric secretion - 1
ii. Pancreatic secretion - 6
iii. Brush border enzymes (BB) - >20
iv. Cytoplasmic – 4
b. Two types are exopeptidases and endopeptidase
c. Places of use:
i. Luminal digestion – in the lumen of the GI
ii. Membrane digestion – by enterocytes in the BB
iii. Cytoplasmic digestion – in microvillar cells
d. Process:
i. Proteins are broken down into oligopeptides in the lumen
ii. Oligopeptides are broken down into di and tri-peptides, amino acids, and other oligo peptides by the BB using
1. Aminopeptidase – oligopeptides to tri/dipeptides and aa
2. Tripeptidase – tripeptides to dipeptides and aa
3. Dipeptidase – dipeptides to 2aa
iii. Amino acids and di- and tri-peptides are transported into the cell where they are further digested
2. What enzyme starts protein digestion, where is this enzyme formed, how is it activated and what does this enzyme do?
a. Pepsinogen is found in the stomach and is produced by chief cells
b. To become active it is catalyzed by HCl or pepsin (self-activation) to become pepsin (endopeptidase)
c. Unfolds protein polypeptides by acid and converted to large polypeptide pieces by Pepsin (10-20% of dietary protein)
d. It cleaves peptide bonds within the peptide
3. Where do we absorb amino acids, how much dietary protein gets
absorbed as free amino acids versus peptides?
a. Absorbed in the stomach, small intestine (mostly), and large intestine
b. 97% from animals absorbed, 65% from plants absorbed
c. Small intestine absorbs di and tri peptides
d. Peptides are 2/3 of the dietary protein that gets absorbed (mentioned many times in the slides)
4. What enzyme produced by the brush border membrane in the gut lining is used to activate pancreatic trypsinogen?
a. Enterokinase (enteropeptidase) converts trypsinogen to trypsin
5. Why are all pancreatic enzymes that are used for protein digestion, except for collagenase, produced as zymogens and how do we protect the pancreas from the constant spontaneous conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin?
a. They are secreted in inactive form so that the pancreas is not damaged by them
b. Enterokinase is outside the pancreas and the pancreas contains protease inhibitors to prevent damage from spontaneous activation of trypsinogen
c. Trypsinogen also has a slow spontaneous rate of activation
6. How do we transport amino acids?
a. Carrier proteins – small peptides (67%) using small peptide and H symport
b. Carrier mediated transport – amino acids (33%) using aa and Na symport
c. To move across the basolateral membrane into the blood there ar at least 5 classes of aa transporters, 2 are sodium dependent (active) and 3 are sodium independent (passive)
7. Where are peptide transporters found, how many peptide transporters do we have, how do they work and what kind of role do they play in the absorption of dietary protein?
a. They play a critical role in the absorption of protein digestion products and work on a proton gradient
b. PEPT1 – is in the small intestine
c. PEPT2 – in the colon
8. What are the two major kinds of kidney stones that Americans form and how are these kinds of stones treated? Why do Americans form more stones with phosphate in them than people living in India?
a. Calcium oxalate stones
b. Mixed calium oxalate and phosphate
c. We form more because soda is high in phosphate
d. Majority treated by Extra-corporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL)
e. 10-15% need surgery – PCNL/ureteroscopy
f. Less than 1% need open surgery
g. Only calcium stones can be broken up by ultrasonic shock waves
9. Why does magnesium citrate along with the RDA of 8 glasses of water each day decrease the incidence of kidney stones?
a. Citrate and magnesium both inhibit crystal growth by complexing with Ca or oxalate
b. Water helps to keep the urine dilute
10. What kind of kidney stone did Cal Kulis form, why did he form this kind of stone and how could it have been prevented?
a. He had a defective transport protein in the urinary tract and was unable to absorb cystine from urine
b. He formed a cystine stone
11. Why do carriers (heterozygotes) for cystic fibrosis have a better survival rate after exposure to the toxin produced by Cholera bacteria than non carriers and why do the homozygotes (patients with CF) die so quickly?
a. The CFTR chloride channel has a defect in cystic fibrosis that prevents the chloride channel from opening properly
b. Cholera toxin causes the CFTR to stay open , causing diarrhea
c. A heterozygous defect prevents cholera from allowing a high release of Cl into the lumen
d. Those homozygous usually die early due to thickening of mucous in the lungs
12. How many different DNA mutations have been identified to date that cause cystic fibrosis, what is the most common mutation, what is it’s frequency, what new drug has been developed to deal with some of the genetic defects that cause CF and how does this new drug it work?
a. A loss of phenylalanine at the position 508 is common and occurs in 70% of CF mutations (3 bp deletion)
b. There are 1546 DNA mutations that cause CF
c. PTC 124 has been developed to help, and it bypasses the nonsense stop codon that is found in 2% of cases to create full length CFTR proteins instead of truncated ones
13. What was used to help improve Sissy Fibrosis’ survival, why was this done, what kind of problems are we now facing with this kind of therapy and what is the major cause of death for patients with cystic fibrosis?
a. 85% of the patients have pancreatic insufficiency, so Sissy was prescribed pancreatic supplements to help her survival
b. High doses of PERT (pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy) cause severe colitis, and drug manufacturers were required to file NDA’s by 2008
c. Some extensions have been allowed by the FDA to ensure that the drugs are still on the market
d. Primary cause of death in CF is cardio-respiratory
1. What are the two metabolic classifications that are used for amino acids?
Glucogenic (glucose producing) and Ketogenic (ketone producing)
2. List the 9 essential amino acids, the amount needed each day for each one ( Dr. B said we don’t need to know amount) and the function(s) of each one. Do need to know function of each.
Leucine—1.2 grams per day. It’s a branched-chain amino acid that is used for fuel in brain and muscle.
Phenylalanine—1.1 grams per day. Aromatic amino acid that is used to form tyrosine. Competes with tryptophan for transport into the brain across the blood-brain barrier. High levels can induce a serotonin deficit (aspartame use). Also competes with tyrosine for transport across the blood-brain barrier. High levels can induce a dopamine deficit. This action of phenylalanine on movement of key amino acids into brain is thought to be the major cause of mental retardation in PKU patients.
Valine—1 gram per day. Branched-chain amino acid that is used for fuel in brain and muscle.
Methionine—1 gram per day. Sulfur-containing amino acid that is used to form cysteine and S-adenosylmethionine (SAM).
Isoleucine—950mg per day. Branched chain amino acid that is used for fuel in brain and muscle.
Lysine—800 mg per day. Positively charged (basic) amino acid. Hydroxylated lysine is a major component of collagen and is therefore needed for good wound healing.
Threonine—500mg per day. Hydroxylated amino acid. Used for O-linked glycosylation and as a site in protein for hormone regulation phosphorylation.
Histidine—350 mg per day. Positively charged (basic) amino acid. Used to form histamine and carnosine. Carnosine, like taurine, is an approved treatment for congestive heart failure
Tryptophan—250mg per day. Aromatic amino acid. Used to form niacin, serotonin, and melatonin.
3. List the 5 nonessential amino acids and indicate how each one is synthesized.
3 MADE FROM TCA CYCLE INTERMEDIATES
Aspartic acid—precursor is oxaloacetate and the enzyme is TA
Asparagine--- Precursor is aspartate and the enzyme is asparagines synthetase
Glutamic acid/Glutamate--- derived from alpha-ketoglutarate

2 MADE FROM GLYCOLYSIS INTERMEDIATES:
Alanine—made from pyruvate by aminotransaminase (ALT) it is a reversible reaction
Serine—comes from 3 phosphoglycerate (intermediate of glycolysis), it will produce cysteine and glycine
4. List the 7 conditionally essential amino acids and indicate how each one is synthesized. Dr. B said we need to know precursor that forms each aa but not the the enzyme
Glutamine-glu-precursor, gln synthetase-enzyme
Glycine -serine-precursor,
Proline- glu-precursor- 4 steps
Arginine- glu-precursor , urea cycle
Tyrosine-phenylalanine-precursor, Phe hydroxylase-enzyme
Cysteine- mehtionine-precursor, 3 steps
Taurine- cysteine-precursor, 4 steps
5. List the 18 glucogenic amino acids.
All except for leucine and lysine. Aspartate, Asparagine, Arginine
Phenylalani Tyrosine Isoleucine
Methionine, Valine, Glutamine
Glutamate, Proline, Histidine
Alanine, Serine Cysteine
Glycine, Threonine, Tryptophan
6. List the 6 ketogenic amino acids and indicate which two are purely ketogenic.
Isoleucine, Leucine, Tryptophan, Lysine, Phenylalanine, Tyrosind

Leucine and Lysine are purely ketogenic.
7. What tissue catabolizes most of the amino acids in blood or that come from a recent meal?
The liver-50% of AA’s entering the liver are catabolized. It is a major site for essential AA catabolism.
8. How many grams of protein are synthesized each day in a typical person, what is the turnover rate for different kinds of protein and why does protein breakdown and then get resynthesized on a regular basis?
About 300 grams of protein is broken down and then resynthesized on a regular basis in humans every day.
Three reasons for protein turnover.
1. to prevent accumalation of abnormal proteins.
2. to allow rapid changes in protein concentration
3. to have a readily available source of aa’s
What are the two ways of getting nitrogen out of amino acids and which process produces a toxic end product. Make sure that you know what this toxic end product is and why it’s toxic.
1. Transamination reaction-aminotransferase moves the amine to alpha ketoglutarate producing glutamateor to oxaloacetate, producing aspartate.
2. Oxidative damination-removal of the amine from glutamate producing an ammonium ion
10. Why is glutamate dehydrogenase such an important enzyme in amino acid metabolism? Make sure you understand where and how it it operates.
As a reversible reaction, glutamate dehydrogenase releases ammonia in the liver and traps ammonia in extrahepatic tissues. All tissues have this enzyme but it’s especially high in the liver. See slide
11. What are ALT and AST, why are these enzymes important, how are these enzymes used to look at liver function, what else besides ALT and AST is used to see how well the liver is working, what vitamin is required for ALT and AST activity and what happens when this vitamin is deficient. Make sure that you know how common this particular vitamin deficiency is and what the symptoms are for deficiency as well as excess (vitamin toxicity).
Vitamin B6—the most common vitamin defieciency detected by the CDC.
Deficiency: Microcytic, hypochromic anemia, irritability, insomnia, weakness, nervousness.
Toxicity: progressive numbness or tingling in feet, arms, legs, nerve malfunction (upper limit 100mg/day)
12. List the 4 major keto acids that are used to accept nitrogen in transamination reactions and indicate what amino acid is formed when each ketoacid is used.
Ketoglutarate ==> Glutamate
Oxaloacetate ==> Aspartate
Pyruvate ==> alanine
Glyoxylate ==> Glycine
13. What two enzymes are used to trap ammonia?
glutamate dehydrogenase and glutamine synthase
14. Go through the process that the liver uses to remove nitrogen from the blood to form urea. Make sure that you understand the glucose/alanine cycle.
see slide
. List the 4 enzymes and the 4 intermediates in the urea cycle.
4 enzymes
Ornithine transcarbamoylase
Arginosucinate synthetase
Arginosuccinase
Arginase

4 intermediates
citrline
arginosuccinate
arginene
orthonine
15. What is the rate-limiting step in urea synthesis and how is this enzyme regulated?
Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase is absolutely dependent on N-acetylglutmate
1. What are the five major functions of nucleotides?
1. Building blocks of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
2. Involved in energy storage, muscle contraction,
active transport, maintenance of ion gradients.
3. Form activated intermediates in biosynthesis
(e.g. UDP-glucose, S-adenosylmethionine).
4. Components of coenzymes (NAD+, NADP+, FAD,
FMN, and CoA)
5. Metabolic regulators:
a. Second messengers (cAMP, cGMP)
b. Phosphate donors in signal transduction (ATP)
c. Regulation of some enzymes via adenylation and uridylylation
2. What are the functions for the high-energy phosphate nucleotides and which one of these is found in the highest level in cells?
Precursors to DNA & RNA, carriers of energy via phosphoryl group transfer, serve as recognition units, cyclic nucleotides are signal molecules and regulators of cellular metabolism and reproduction.

ATP is central to energy metabolism

GTP drives protein synthesis

CTP drive lipid synthesis

UTP drives carbohydrate metabolism













Energy metabolism (ATP) found in the highest levels in cells
3. What is adenosine, how is it formed, what is it formed from, what does it do, how does it alter cellular metabolism and what plant chemical blocks the action of adenosine in the human body?
Adenosine is formed by the breakdown of ATP—formed in all cells
It is secreted (as hormone) into bloodstream where it binds to receptors on another cell surface and initiates changes in that target cell



Hormonal action of adenosine- Induces vasodialation
Induces smooth muscle contraction
Release of neurotransmitters
Induces sleepiness (countered by caffeine


Blocked by plant chemical Caffeine
Binds to the adenosine receptor and blocks them
Binds to phosphodiesterase and prevents it from converting cAMP to ATP
Caffeine was originally produced to kill insects
4. Where do nucleotides come from and how do we process them? Make sure that you know the names for the 4 enzymes that we use to process nucleotides coming from food or inside cells.
Sources of nucleotides from DNA and RNA include diet, cellular turnover, de novo synthesis and salvage (from breakdown). They are broken down in this process illustrated in diagram, which includes the enzymes needed as well.



deoxyribonuclease, ribonuclease, 5-nucleotidase and nucleotidase are 4 enzymes needed!!!
5. How do we synthesize nucleotides? Make sure that you know the end products for each pathway.
Conversion of both involve nucleside diphosphate kinase.end products for purines are ATP and GTP, for pyridimines it is UTP
6. Name the first purine nucleotide and pyrimidine nucleotide formed during the de novo synthesis of nucleotides.
The first purine nucleotide formed is IMP (inosine monophosphate) but it’s only used as a precursor for Adenine/Guanine
The first pyrimidine nucleotide formed is OMP (orotidine 5’-monophosphate)
7. What is the rate-limiting step for purine nucleotide synthesis and how is the activity of this enzyme controlled?
The rate-limiting enzyme is Amidophosphoribosyl
transferase. AMP, ADP, and ATP negatively inhibit
PRPP formation activates the enzyme
8. What is the rate-limiting step for pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis and how is the activity of this enzyme controlled?
The rate-limiting enzyme is Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase
The enzyme is inhibited by UTP and CTP and activated by ATP
9. What are the two end products of pyrimidine base degradation, which one of these is an important compound and why is it important?
Pyrimidine nucleotides are degraded to beta-alanine (useful metabolite -beta alanine will react w/ histidine to form carnosine) and beta amnioisobutyric acid.
10. What is the end product of purine base degradation and why is this compound specific to primates?
Purine nucleotides are degraded to Uric Acid (toxic waste producte). In primates, purine catabolism ends with uric acid and it is excreted. Primates have the gene for urate oxidase but it’s a non-functional gene (mutated early in primate evolution).
11. What is PRPP, what enzyme forms it, where does the substrate for this enzyme come from and what is PRPP used for?
PRPP is an activated form of ribose. Ribose-5- Phosphate. It comes from the pentose phosphate pathway. R5P pyrophosphokinase is the enzyme used in formation of PRPP. PRPP is used for both nucleotide synthesis and salvage
12. What are the salvage pathways for the purines and the pyrimidines and why are these pathways important?
This same process (react a base with PRPP) is also used for pyrimidine salvage. Salvage pathways are used to recover bases and nucleosides that are formed during degradation of RNA and DNA. This is important in some organs because some tissues cannot undergo de novo synthesis.

(incomplete)
13. What is gout and how is it treated?
Excess uric acid causes gout (results form overactive denovo synthesis pathway). This leads to deposit of uric acid in the joints. The treatment of an acute attack of gouty arthritis involves measures and medications that reduce inflammation. Preventing future acute gout attacks is equally as important as treating the acute arthritis. Prevention of acute gout involves maintaining adequate fluid intake, weight reduction, dietary changes, reduction in alcohol consumption, and medications to lower the uric acid level in the blood (reduce hyperuricemia).
14. What other disorders of purine metabolism besides gout occur in humans and what causes these other disorders?
Lesh-Nyan syndrome is caused by a genetic deficiency of HGPRT. Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCIDs) is caused by a deficiency of B lymphocytes, mutations effect the active site of adenosine deaminase. Then DATP (x50) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, key enzyme in the synthesis of dNDPs => dNTPs for DNA synthesis
. List the two nucleotides that are used to form deoxythymidine monophosphate and list the two enzymes that are needed to convert dUTP to dTMP.
CDP and UDP are 2 nucleotides used to form deoxythymidine monophosphate
dUTPase and thymidylate synthase are 2 enzymes used in process
15. What are aminopterin and methotrexate, what do they do and what are they used for
These are competitive inhibitors of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR) and used in cancer tx (see slide)
16. What is 5-flurouracil, what does it do and what is it used for?
It is a chemotherapy agent used against cancer as a thymidylate synthase inhibitor
Knocks out DNA synthesis---very specific
17. Name the enzyme needed to form deoxyribonucleotides and indicate how the activity of this enzyme is regulated
Ribonucleotide reductase is needed to form deoxyribonucleotides. + regulation by ATP and – regulation by dATP, dGTP, TTP and dCTP
1. Understand the definitions of endocrine, paracine, autocrine and intracrine. Be able to apply the terms to a biological example. Synaptic neurotransmission is a specialized form of which type of signaling?
Endocrine -glands synthesize & secrete hormones into the bloodstream
hormones have physiological affects on distal target tissues



Paracrine cells synthesize & secrete a substance into the extracellular space to affect targets on nearby cells

Autocrine a cell synthesizes & secretes a substance that affects targets on the same cell

Intracrine a cell synthesizes a substance that affects targets in the same cell (usually pertains the hydrophobic signaling molecules)

One signaling molecule can act at multiple levels simultaneously
Example: Insulin release from pancreatic β islet cells
Insulin is secreted in response to high blood glucose
Endocrine
Insulin enters the bloodstream and travels to distal sites to:
increase cellular glucose uptake
stimulate cellular glycolysis
promote storage of nutrients (glycogen synthesis)

Paracrine
Insulin inhibits the secretion of glucagon from α islet cells

Autocrine
Insulin inhibits release of more insulin from β islet cells





Synaptic neurotransmission is a specialized form of which type of signaling?

Synaptic neurotransmission is a specialized form of ligand-gated ion channel receptors.
2. Most signals are transduced by cell surface receptors, however some signaling molecules use intracellular receptors. What is the defining characteristic of signaling molecules that bind to intracellular receptors?
Intracellular receptors
Receptors in cytoplasm or nucleus for hydrophobic signaling molecules(these bind to intracellular receptors)
steroid hormones
derivatives of vitamin D3
retinoic acid
thyroid hormone
alter gene transcription
activated intracellular receptors are transcription factors
3. Understand the terms ligand, agonist and antagonist. What is the difference between a competitive and a non-competitive antagonist?
Ligand: any molecule that binds to a receptor protein (usually to plasma membrane receptors)
Agonist: A ligand that activates signal transduction
Test question: Antagonist: A ligand that prevents signal transduction
Competitive: bind at the agonist binding site
Affinity Matters
Non-competitive: bind at other sites on the receptor
Affinity Does NOT matter (used more in pharmacology)
4. Understand what is meant by a receptor subtype.
one endogenous ligand can bind to several entirely different receptor proteins that are products of different genes
receptor subtypes generate an extra level of specifity
they can be expressed differentially in different tissues
they can couple to different effectors
in many cases the site of agonist release also contributes to specificity
synthetic ligands are usually designed to be receptor subtype specific
What are the differences between nicotinic and muscarinic receptors?
Nicotinic receptors are gated ion channel receptors on skeletal muscle cells


Muscarinic receptors are G protein receptors on Heart Muscle Cells (parasympathetic)
What effects do nicotinic and muscarinic receptors mediate in skeletal and cardiac muscle, respectively?
Nicotinic receptors stimulate contraction in skeletal muscle

Muscarinic receptors stimulate hyperpolarization---deter contraction
What are nicotinic and muscarinic receptors' endogenous agonists?
Acetylcholine
How do the nicotinic and muscarinic receptor proteins differ?
Nicotinic = gated ion channel receptors
Muscarinic= G protein receptors
5. Understand the definitions of KD and EC50.
KD: Is the dissociation constant or the concentration of agonist where 50% of the binding sites are occupied
Affinity is inversely related to KD. In practice, affinity is stated in terms of KD
EC50: is the half-maximal effective concentration (measured from functional responses-dose response curve)
Generally considerably lower [agonist] than the KD



If both are determined in the same tissue, with the same agonist, which will usually have the lower concentration value?

EC 50


What is the physiological significance of this difference?

The effect will occur before the Kd is reached, and therefore does not give a lot of information about what dosage will work or be safe
The EC50 will tell you more about concentration and physiological effect


What is the relationship of KD and affinity?

Affinity is inversely related to KD. In practice, affinity is stated in terms of KD


Why is it important to know the affinity of a competitive antagonist?

If the affinity of a competitive agonist were extremely high, a small amount of the competitive agonist would be necessary to interfere with endogenous ligand binding.
Conversely, if the affinity of the competitor were low, it would take a much higher concentration of the competitor to effectively compete for the binding site because the endogenous ligand will be binding instead.
6. What is the therapeutic index, and what happens if it is too low?
LD50/ED50
LD50 = lethal dose: the concentration of agonist that kills half of all animals
ED50 is equivalent to EC50
If it is too low then the effective dose will be close to the lethal dose and it will be difficult to administer the right amount to be effective without causing death
. The binding of agonist to receptor initiates the first step in signal transduction – what is this step?
Ligand binding causes a change in receptor conformation
7. What are three mechanisms for terminating signal transduction?
Decrease agonist availability
effectiveness depends on the size of the compartment
plays a major role in synaptic signaling
agonist re-uptake (serotonin, dopamine)
agonist degradation (acetylcholinesterase)
Receptor desensitization – receptor stops signaling in the presence of agonist
intrinsic (AMPA-type glutamate receptors, nicotinic ACh receptors)
secondary to receptor phosphorylation (can be a form of negative feedback)
Internalization of ligand / receptor complex
unliganded receptor can be returned to the cell surface
ligand and receptor can be targeted to the lysosome for degradation
results in fewer cell surface receptors ==> receptor down-regulation
Which mechanism of terminating signal transduction is used to terminate signaling primarily in small compartments?
Decrease agonist availability (remember the concentration has to be higher to have an effect
Name two examples of terminating agonist availability to terminate signal transduction in small compartments
Agonist reuptake (serotonin, dopamine)
Agonist degradation (acetylcholinesterase)
If the receptor is internalized it has two possible fates – what are these?
unliganded receptor can be returned to the cell surface
iigand and receptor can be targeted to the lysosome for degradation
results in fewer cell surface receptors ==> receptor down-regulation
What is receptor down-regulation?
Fewer cell surface receptors available such as in example of ligand and receptor being targeted for degradation
8. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate very fast signal transduction. Why are they so fast?
very fast - only one molecule is involved, with no enzymatic reactions

After the receptor is opened, what are the intracellular transduction steps that follow?

When the ligand-gated ion channel opens:
Cation-selective receptors (Na+ and / or Ca2+ influx) are excitatory
gated by excitatory neurotransmitters
(glutamate, acetlycholine, serotonin, ATP)
Anion-selective receptors (Cl- influx) are inhibitory
gated by inhibitory neurotransmitters
(GABA, glycine)
A change in membrane potential
-effects the neuron’s probability of firing an action potential
-effects activation of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Ca2+ is an important second messenger
effects activation of Ca2+ binding regulatory proteins



If an increase in cytosolic calcium levels is the last of these steps, be able to list at least three Ca2+-sensitive effector proteins, and what physiological functions they mediate.

synaptotagmin in release of synaptic vesicles
troponin-C in contraction of striated muscle
calmodulin & CaM kinase II in protein phosphorylatio and alterations in gene expression
9. What is typical resting cytosolic Ca2+ concentration?
Cytosolic [Ca2+] = 10-7 M

greater extracellularly
Extracellular Ca2+ concentration?
Extracellular [Ca2+] = 10-3 M

greater extracellularly
The concentration at which Ca2+-sensitive effector proteins are activated?
Cytosolic [Ca2+] = 10-6M is sufficient to maximally activate Ca2+ sensitive proteins
What two proteins in the plasma membrane maintain the Ca2+ gradient?
Sodium (Na2+) calcium exchanger
Calcium ATPase
Release from intracellular organelles can also elevate cytosolic Ca2+ levels. Name an organelle that can release Ca2+.
Endoplasmic reticulum
How is the release of calcium from the ER triggered?
The cleavage of the Gqα subunit into Inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate which will openi IP3 gated calcium release channels
10. The endogenous agonists for ligand-gated ion channel receptors are classed as excitatory or inhibitory neurotransmitters based on what property of the receptor?
The receptor will be made of subunits with different properties
GluR1,3,& 4 are Q which means high glutamate affinity
GluR2 is R which means it has arginine in it, a positive cation. So it will not react with calcium. The more of this subunit you have in the receptor the less likely it will react to glutamine and/or calcium
Different receptors will differ with regard to:
Calcium permeability
Single-channel conductance
Desensitization properties
Protein structure determines protein function – what is the moleculer basis for this property?
When a ligand binds to a protein it will make a conformational (structural) change that will produce an effect of either activating or inhibiting another process
11. Ligand-gated ion channel receptor signaling is often terminated by desensitization. What is meant by desensitization?
Receptor desensitization – receptor stops signaling in the presence of agonist
How does an AMPA-type glutamate receptor desensitize?
See powerpoint-she spent some time on the above slide when discussing desensitization…

A ligand-gated ion channel can close when agonist is still bound (desensitization)
. For ligand-gated ion channel receptors the receptor and the ion channel are part of the same molecule. However, some ion channels are opened (or gated) by separate molecules. Name a specific example of this latter case - be able to name the separate molecule, explain how the signal is transduced to the ion channel and what the final physiological effect is.
The muscarinic acetylcholine receptor in the heart is an example of this. It has a separate Potassium channel that is blocked
When acetylcholine binds, the Giα subunit will bind and GDP will disassociate to be replaced with GTP, then the Gβgamma subunit will disassociate as well and bind to the potassium channel which will open the channel and release the potassium from the cell, slowing down the heart rate
14. Name two major groups of enzyme-linked receptors.
Receptor tyrosine kinases- epidermal growth factor (EGF), platelet derived growth factor (PDGF), insulin


Receptor serine/threonine kinases- transforming growth factor-β (TGFβ), bonemorphogenetic proteins (BMPs)

Both are monomers that must dimerize to work
To which group of enzyme-linked receptors does the insulin receptor belong?
Dr T likes this one
Receptor tyrosine kinases
For enzyme-linked receptors, what is the major function of the extracellular domain?
Extracellular—where ligand binds
What is the major function of the intracellular domain of enzyme-linked receptors?
Intracellular--- where the kinase is activated
Understand how agonist binding leads to the recruitment of a signaling complex.
Tyrosine Kinase
Ligand binding causes receptor dimerization
Dimerizaed receptors transphosphorylate on tyrosine residues
Phosphorylated tyrosines act as recognition and anchoring sites to recruit other signaling proteins, which in turn are phosphorylated on tyrosine residues by the activated receptor
Kinase cascades eventually phosphorylate effector molecules to alter their activity or cause changes in gene expression

Serine/Threonine kinases
Ligand binding causes receptor dimerization
Dimerized receptors transphosphorylate on Ser/Thr residues
Phosphorylated receptors can recruit and phosphorylate SMAD proteins
This phosphorylation allows SMADs to unfold, dimerize, and translocate to the nucleus, where they modulate gene expression
In general terms, what are the molecular effects at the end of the signaling cascade? How is receptor signaling terminated?
Signaling is terminated by receptor internalization, with recycling to the membrane
SH2 and PTB domains bind to the specific P-Tyr
SH3 domains bind to proline rich domains that characterize certain signaling proteins
What is the major difference between the class of enzyme-linked receptors and cytokine receptors?
They are both transmembrane receptor proteins, but cytokine receptors lack intrinsic catalytic activity
They will have protein binding domains instead
What characteristics of their agonists do both classes of receptors (enzyme-linked and cytokine receptors) share?
They both use large secreted proteins as agonists---paracrine
Although enzyme---endocrine
Cytokine---autocrine
What is an adaptor molecule?
Adaptor molecule = PSD-95
It is accessory to main proteins in signal transduction. They lack any intrinsic enzymatic activity but instead mediate specific protein-protein interactions that drive the formation of protein complexes
Know what SH2, SH3, PTB and PH domains bind to.
SH2 and PTB (phosphotyrosine binding proteins) bind to the phosphotylated tyrosines
SH3: will bind to proline rich domains that are characteristic of certain signaling molecules
PH (Pleckstrin homology) domains bind to phosphatidylinositol derivatives
. Cytokine receptors are important for which major aspects of human physiology
Hematopoiesis
Immune and inflammatory response (include interleukins and interferons)
For cytokine receptors, understand how agonist binding leads to the recruitment of a signaling complex.
When a cytokine binds, the JAK proteins are activated and begin to phosphorylate one another
This recruits the STATs already in the cell to come phosphorylate themselves
What type of proteins are JAKs?
Non-receptor (soluble) Tyrosine kinases---janus kinases
What type of proteins are STATs? This answer from wikepedia….in notes??
Signal Transducers and Activator of Transcription (STAT, also, called signal transduction and transcription) proteins regulate many aspects of cell growth, survival and differentiation. The transcription factors of this family are activated by the Janus Kinase JAK
What is the result of STAT phosphorylation (list all the steps)?
STAT proteins bind to the activated receptors and are themselves phosphorylated
Phosphorylated STATs dissociate from the receptor and can now dimerize, translocate to the nucleus, and act as transcription factors.
. G-protein coupled receptors are a large and diverse family, but they all share the same membrane topology – what is this topology?
Heterotrimeric G-proteins for signal transduction
Look like wound up strings with clumps in the membrane
extracellular loops form the ligand-binding domain
intracellular loops 2 and 3 bind the G-protein α subunit
Understand the how a G-protein works. What is the function of GDP binding?
G-protein will be bound to the –and GDP which gives it a high affinity for ---
When the receptor is activated it will change conformation and increase affinity for the Gα subunit
The Gα will bind to the activated receptor
The binding will induce a change in the Gα protein and GDP will disassociate
GTP is at a high concentration in the cytosol and so will bind to the Gα
This decreases the affinity of Gα for the Gβγ and will dissociate leaving the βγ attached to the activated receptor
Gα and GTP will then bind the inactive effector molecule (adenylate cyclase or phospholipase C)
Once it binds at the effector molecule an internal clock is set, and the Gα will continue to interact with other molecules until it is hydrolyzed back to GDP so that it will reassociate with the Gβγ and go back into its resting state






G-proteins are classed by their α subunits.

Contain the GDP/GTP binding site, and intrinsic GTPase activity attached to the inner leaflet of the plasma membrane by a lipid anchor





Understand the transduction pathways for αs,αi, and αq. Be able to identify the effector molecule, and the second messengers involved for each.


αs increases adenylate cyclase activity
==> increases cAMP levels (second messenger)

αi decreases adenylate cyclase activity
==> decreases cAMP levels (second messenger)

αq increases phospholipase C activity
==> increases IP3 levels, increases DAG levels (second messenger)
22 . After G-protein α and βγ subunits dissociate the βγ subunits can serve three important functions – what are they?
βγ subunits can also have signaling effects:
they can activate K+ channels
or inhibit Voltage-Gated Ca2+ Channels

βγ subunit composition can also effect which receptor the G-protein interacts with
What enzyme synthesizes cAMP?
Adenylate cyclase

From which substrate?

ATP

What enzyme family breaks down cAMP?

Phosphodiesterase (PDE’s)


How does cAMP activate Protein Kinase A (PKA)?

Binds to the regulatory subunits of protein kinase A and causes the regulatory subunits to dissociate from the catalytic subunits leaving the ATP and substrate binding sites on the catalytic subunits exposed

How does activated PKA alter cellular function?

It phosphorylates target proteins which will alter gene expression
24. What is AKAP, and what does it do?
AKAP (A Kinase Anchoring Protein)
Is a multivalent adaptor protein that can localize PKA:
near target proteins (to increase specificity)
near adenylyl cyclase (to increase sensitivity)
near phosphodiesterases (to limit the duration of the signal


How does this effect signal transduction?

Can limit the duration of the signal
25. Understand the mechanism of action for cholera toxin and pertussis toxin.
Both will bind to the cell surface receptors and the enzymatic subunit is internalized ( ADP-ribosyl transferase)
Will turn on the Gα subunit (they differ) but they are not turned off so it just keeps acting on the effector molecule or they completely inhibit the G-protein

What molecules do they target?
Cholera targets: αs
Pertussis targets: αi and αo



What do the toxins do to their targets, and what is the effect on signal transduction?


Cholera toxin binds to cell surface receptors
enzymatic subunit ( an ADP-ribosyl transferase) is internalized
toxin transfers an ADP-ribose from NAD to Arg210 on αS
this inhibits the GTPase activity of αS which enhances activation of adenylate cyclase

in intestinal epithelial cells results in the increased secretion of H2O-diarrhea



Pertussis toxin
also an ADP-ribosyl transferase
toxin transfers an ADP-ribose to a Cys near the COOH term of αI & αO
this inhibits interaction with G-protein coupled receptors which results in no signal transduction
Phospholipase C cleaves phosphatidylinositol-4, 5-bisphosphate into two molecules, both of which are second messengers. Name the two molecules and trace out the steps in their signal transduction.
Inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3)
PI 4,5,-biphosphate

Ligand binds to a G-protein coupled receptor, which activates Gαq,
which in turn activates phospholipase C
Phospholipase C hydrolyzes phosphoinositide 4,5-biphosphate (PIP2, which is inserted in the membrane) into inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate (IP3, which diffuses away into the cytoplasm), and 1,2-diacylglycerol (DAG, which remains in the membrane)




Do they remain attached to the membrane?

The PI 4,5,-biphosphate does
What are the normal steps to turning off GPCR signal transduction after the signal is gone?
Turning off the response when the signal is gone
Hormone dissociating from the receptor is determined by hormone concentration and Kd for receptor
G-protein hydrolysis of GTP-this can be sped by GTPase activator proteins (GAPs)
Phosphodiesterase degradation of cAMP
Dephosphorylation of target proteins by phosphatases
Understand the process by which GPCR signal transduction is terminated in the continued presence of agonist.
Turning off the response in the continued presence of signal
Desensitization
Internalization
recycling of the receptor to the cell surface
receptor degradation in the lysosome
What are the major hormones produced by the hypothalamus
TRH, ADH, and oxytocin
What are the major hormones produced by the anterior pituitary
ACTH, FSH, LH, TSH, PR, and GH
What are the major hormones produced by the posterior pituitary
Oxytocin and vasopressin (released here)
What are the major hormones produced by the thyroid gland
Thyroxin, T3 and T4
What are the major hormones produced by the heart
ANF
What are the major hormones produced by the adipose tissue
leptin, adiponectin, resistin, TNF-alpha
2. Understand what a negative feedback loop is and how it works.
The final hormone inhibits the earlier steps in the cascade and regulates the amount of final hormone. Ex. Cortisol decreases transcription of gene for ACTH.
3. Most peptide hormones are encoded by a single gene – name three exceptions
TSH, LH and FSH are exceptions.

How are the α chains of these three hormones related?
these 3 share a common α chain (which is encoded by one gene),


How are the β chains related?
have unique β chains (which are encoded by three separate
genes).



What is the physiological significance of having two subunits?
4. Many peptide hormones are processed from longer precursors. What determines where the precursors will be cut?
Cleavage most frequently occurs between two basic amino acids
– ArgLys, ArgArg, LysLys, LysArg, but adjacent amino acids
contribute to the specificity of the cleavage signal.)
This may be necessary to:
achieve proper protein folding (insulin)
ensure constituent hormones are expressed in the correct ratios
(vasopressin, oxytocin)
increase hormone repertoire



In what subcellular compartment does the cleavage occur?

Cleavage occurs in the ER and golgi.


What happens to the rest of the precursor after cleavage?

It is often times co-secreted as in the case of Insulin and C-peptide
Keeps ratios in check
In the case of vasopressing or oxytocin, the rest is used as a carrier protein (neurophysin I or II)


What controls the selective proteolysis of proopiomelanocortin?

The mRNA in POMC is cleaved differently in different cell types aka it is tissue specific
5. β-endorphin and Met-enkephalin are involved in what physiological process?
Both are endogenous opioid peptide neurotransmitters that have analgesic effects in the body to numb or dull pains.
6. In melanocytes, which physiological process is controlled by the melanocortin-1
receptor? Mutations in MC1R that prevent it from signaling cause what phenotype in humans? What are the clinical ramifications of this phenotype?
the melanocortin 1 receptor on melanocytes MC1R (a GPCR) controls which pigment is produced. Autosomal recessive mutations in MC1R produce red hair and fair skin in humans. These mutations cause an increased rate of skin cancer and reduced tolerance to pain
What are the five major classes of peptide hormone membrane receptors?
For each class understand how receptor activation couples to second messenger systems, how second messengers alter the location or activity of proteins, and how second messengers are cleared from the cytosol. Understand how PKA, PKB, and PKC are activated.
PKA is activated by cAMP, which will bind to the reg subunits of PKA and cause reg subunits to dissociate from catalytic subunits. Then the ATP and substrate binding sites are now exposed and go into the nucleus to change gene expression
PKB recruited by PIP3 as well as PKD. PKD will then phophyorylate PKB which will activate phophorylate target proteins
PKC involved in controlling the function of other proteins through the phophorylation of hydroxyl groups of serine and threonine amino acid residues on these proteins. PKC enzymes in turn are activated by signals such as increases in the concentration of diaglycerol Hence PKC enzymes play important roles in several signal transduction cascades.
What controls the synthesis of PNMT?
Coritsol increases the transciption of PNMT, the enzyme that converts Norepinephrine to
Epinephrine
What controls the release of epinephrine?
Epinephrine is released by a signal from the CNS, which will release ACh. Epinephrine is stored in vesicles in the adrenal medulla chrommafin cells for times of high stress.
What are the ligands for ErbB receptors?
Erb1,2,3,and 4.
Erb 2 is the most potent signaling; the rest will produce weak signals
Erbs must dimerize
ErbB signaling is important for what physiological processes?
Important for the development of the nervous system. Promote proliferation, differentiation, and migration.
What is the effect on signaling of including an ErbB2 subunit in a receptor dimer?
Increases cell proliferation
Increases cell migration
Resists apoptosis
Too much ErbB will promote tumor growth
What is Herceptin? What disease is it used to treat?
How, specifically, does it interfere with ErbB signaling?
Monoclonal antibodies directed against the extracellular domain of ErbB2 can block receptor dimerization and signaling (from powerpoint slide 8 in peptide hormones 2)

Used to treat breast cancer.

Decreases rate of mitosis & tumor spread.
β-cells secrete insulin in response to high blood glucose. How do β-cells sense high blood glucose, and how is that coupled to insulin release.

What is the role of GLUT2?

The ATP-dependent K+ channel?

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels?
Insulin secretion from β islet cells
Glucose is transported into the cell by the GLUT2 transporter and
immediately enters the glycolytic pathway
High blood glucose results in higher rates of glycolysis and ↑ [ATP]
ATP binds intracellularly to an ATP-gated K+ channel, which closes the channel
This depolarizes the cell, which opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Increased intracellular Ca2+ causes insulin release

Glucose is transported into the cell by the GLUT2 transporter

ATP binds intracellularly to an ATP-gated K+ channel, which closes the channel

This depolarizes the cell, which opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Increased intracellular Ca2+ causes insulin release
What are sulfonylureas, and what is their mechanism of action?
Sulfonylureas bind to the SUR1 subunits of the ATP-gated K+ channel and
close the channel
==> increased insulin release
Understand how insulin receptor activation leads to:
Increased glucose uptake

Increased rate of glycolysis

Increased glycogen synthesis
Increased glucose: Phospho-IRS recruites PI 3-kinase, which is phosphorylated
Activated PI 3-kinase binds PIP2 on the membrane and converts it to PIP3
PIP3 recruits PDK1 and Protein kinase B (PKB or Akt) to the membrane
Once they have both bound PDK1 phosphorylates PKB
PKB is a serine/threonine kinase
Activated PKB dissociates from the PIP3 to phosphorylate target proteins
One target is the glucose transporter GLUT4 in vesicles
Phosphorylation of GLUT4 promotes insertion into the plasma membrane

Increased rate of glycolysis: Fructose 2,6-P2 is a positive allosteric modulator of 6-phosphofructo-1-kinase
==> more fructose 2,6-P2 will stimulate gylcolysis
Glucagon activates Gαs and PKA, resulting in the phosphorylation of EnzymeX
Phosphorylated EnzymeX acts as a phosphatase and
converts fructose 2,6-P2 to fructose 6-P
==> less fructose 2,6-P2 slows glycolysis
Insulin lowers cAMP levels, and activates a phosphatase that dephosphorylates
EnzymeX
Dephospo-EnzymeX acts as a kinase and
convert fructose 6-P to fructose 2,6-P2
==> more fructose 2,6-P2 stimulates gylcolysis

Increased glycogen synthesis: Insulin binding leads to PKB activation (as detailed above)
PKB phosphorylates Glycogen Synthase Kinase 3 (GSK3), which inactivates it
(active GSK3 would phosphorylate glycogen synthase, which lowers its activity)
Inactive GSK3 ==> dephospho glycogen synthase, which is more active
==> more glycogen synthesis
What is GLP-1 and where is it secreted?
Glucagon-like peptide–1 is an incretin peptide
secreted in upper gut
What four effects does GLP-1 have on pancreatic β-cells?
Increase insulin biosynthesis
Increase glucose-dependent insulin release
Increase β-cell proliferation
Decrease β-cell apoptosis
How is GLP-1 degraded?
GLP-1 is rapidly degraded by DPP-IV
What is the pharmacological significance of GLP-1 degredation pathway (by DPP-IV)?
GLP-1 is rapidly degraded by DPP-IV
incretin mimetics or DPP-IV inhibitors are used to treat type 2 diabetes
What is PPARγ? What roles does it play in adipocytes? Why is this of therapeutic interest?
A transcription factor activated by fat cells that:
increases: Leptin
Activates neurons in hypothalamus
Results in decreased feeding secretion of TRH and CRH
Changes metabolic rate
TNF-α, REsistin , and Free fatty acids
(These 3 compounds will INCREASE INSULIN RESISTANCE_
Decreases
Adiponectin: keeps the body insulin sensitive
Overall
Adipocyte differentiation
Adipocyte apoptosis
Regulate insulin sensitivity
Increasing triglyceride clearance
Agonistic Controlling of PPAR can increase insulin sensitivity on adiopcytes and be therapeutic in treating insulin resistance.
What is somatostatin? Where is it released, and what is its physiological function?
A peptide hormone that regulates the endocrine system and affects neurotransmission and cell proliferation via interaction with G-protein-coupled somatostatin receptors and inhibition of the release of numerous secondary hormones. Released by Delta cells in pancreatic islet and also secreted in stomach and small intestine.
17. Although pituitary adenomas rarely progress to malignancy they can cause serious symptoms. Name two reasons why.
They often cause pressure on parts of the pituitary gland and lead to excessive secretion of a hormone.
18. Understand the cellular pathway for producing thyroid hormone. What does thyroid peroxidase do?
Iodide is taken up at the basal membrane of the follicular cell against both electrical and concentration gradients
==> requires energy
Thyroglobulin is synthesized and secreted into the lumen
It has ~140 tyrosine residues (not unusually high concentration)
Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) on the cell’s apical membrane:
1. oxidizes iodide
2. catalyzes iodination of tyrosine residues
3. couples MIT and DIT
coupling is both intra- and intermolecular
(only ~3 residues per molecule)
Colloid droplet endocytosed
Droplet fuses with lysosomes
thyroglobulin hydrolized to constituent amino acids
T4 and T3 are secreted
19. What is the relationship between T4 and T3? (Relative amounts, biological activity, etc.)
Both T3 and T4 are secreted from thyroid follicular cells (~9% T3, ~90% T4)
< 0.3% of T3 free in the blood
T4 can be deiodinated in periphery to become T3, which is the active form
What are the major functions of thyroid hormone?
Functions of thyroid hormone

Crucial for growth and development
critical period for CNS development (mid-gestation → ~ 2yrs)
perinatal lung maturation
bone maturation

Controls Basal Metabolic Rate
TEST******Stimulates all metabolic pathways, both anabolic & catabolic******
increases levels & activity of Na+/ K+ ATPase
may increase the # and size of mitochondria
increases sensitivity to epinephrine
increases levels of β-adrenergic receptor
increases efficacy of downstream coupling
==> increased heart rate, liver gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis
How is thyroid hormone transported in the blood?
By plasma carrier proteins
How is thyroid hormone deactivated?
T3 and T4 are deactivated by progressive deiodination
==> 80% of circulating T3 is produced by peripheral deiodination
The thyroid hormone receptor is a nuclear steroid hormone receptor
==> the liganded receptor acts as a transcription factor
Know the symptoms and molecular causes of the Diabetes Insipidus
Symptoms: Polyuria, polydispia
Blood may have high osmolality, but blood glucose is normal
Central:
Caused by hypothalamic damage
Can be treated by desmopressin (a long acting analogue of vasopressin)
Nephrogenic – Kidneys are insensitive to vasopressin
Know the symptoms and molecular causes of the Diabetes Mellitus
Defined by high glucose levels
Symptoms: Poluria, polydispia, wt loss, fatigue, blurred vision, thrush.
Most common cause of blindness in working age
End-stage renal failure requiring dialysis
Non- traumatic amputation
Microvascular changes & accelerated atherosclerosis – important in the etiology of the heart attack & stroke.

Type 1 – Beta cell destruction- usually complete lack of insulin
Autoimmune or idiopathic
Type 2 – Combination of insulin resistance and deficiency.
Resistance due to mutations in the insulin receptors are rare
Have complex phenotypes – insulin is a major growth factor for fetus For late set, defects found in: IRS tyrosine phosphorylation PI3 Kinase activation
Know the symptoms and molecular causes of acromegaly
Excessive secretion of GH.
After epiphyses have fused results in ACROMEG (rare)
Symptoms: Carpal tunnel syndrome, arthritis, excessive sweating.
Usually caused by a pituitary tumor
Know the symptoms and molecular causes of Endemic cretinism
Due to dietary iodine defiency brain damage severe and irreversible. Prenatal lung maturation, bone maturation
Know the symptoms and molecular causes of goiter
By iodine deficiency, which results in thyroid hypertrophy due to excess TSH secretion.
Know the symptoms and molecular cause of hyperthyroidism
Heat intolerance, weight loss, and fatigue
May be caused by Grave’s Disease(80%) Autoimmune :Ab that ACTIVATE TSH receptor
Know the symptoms and molecular cause of hypothyroidism
Intolerance to cold, weight gains, lethargy
Hashimoto’s Disease (~90%) autoimmune: caused by Ab to TPO or thyroglobulin, which can eventually destroy the gland
Symptoms and causes of Multiple endocrine neoplasias (MEN)
Autosomal dominant
Presents as hyperparathyroidism in most carriers, usually by age 40
Men – 1
Loss of function of mutation in menin, a tumor suppressor gene
Tumors in parathyroids = 90& (can be reason for hyperparathy.)
Pituitary = 60%
Pancreas = 70% usually very low to progress
Men – 2a
Loss of fun. Mutation in ret, a tumor suppressor gene.
Medullary thyroid cancer – greater than 90%
Tumors in Parathryoids
Both treated by surgical removal of glands/tumors
What are the major hormones involved in calcium homeostasis?
Vitamin D3 (calcitrol)
PTH
Calcitonin
What are the important intracellular roles of calcium?
Excitation – contraction coupling
Secretion
And it acts as a second messenger



Understand the process by which calcium is transported from the intestinal lumen into the bloodstream.
What three hormone systems control fluid balance?
Vasopressin or ADH
Renin/Angiotensin/Aldosterone system
Atrial Natriuretic Factor
Understand how each works individually, and how they interact...
Vasopressin
Secreted from the posterior pituitary in response to:
high osmolarity (osmoreceptors in hypothalamus)
low blood pressure (baroreceptors in left atrium and carotid sinus)

V2R insert aquaporin 2 into the apical surface of cells in the distal tubule of the kidney
==> increased reabsorption of water

V1R vasoconstriction (GPCR Gαq)
Understand how each works individually, and how they interact.
Renin / Angiotensin system
Renin is secreted from the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney in response to low blood pressure and low [Na+]

Renin cleaves angiotensinogen (produced in the liver) resulting in angiotensin I (a decapaptide, that is NOT biologically active)
Angiotensin Converting Enzyme (on endothelial cells) then cleaves angiotensin I and forms angiotensin II (an octapeptide)
Aminopeptidase can then cleave this to form angiotensin III
Understand how each works individually, and how they interact.

Actions of Angiotensin II
Stimulates synthesis of aldosterone in the adrenal glomerulosa cell
Causes a direct increase in renal tubular Na+ and water reabsorption
Causes direct vasoconstriction
Stimulates the sympathetic nervous system norepinephrine release
Acts in the CNS to stimulate thirst
Aldosterone
Aldosterone is synthesized from progesterone in the zona glomerulosa
The aldosterone, or mineralocorticoid, receptor is a cytoplasmic steroid hormone receptor

Aldosterone acts to increase water and Na+ reabsorption in:
kidney distal tubule
distal colon
sweat glands
salivary glands

The activated mineralocorticoid receptor probably acts by increasing the number of:
Na+ channels on the lumenal surface of epithelia
Na+/K+ ATPase on the basal/lateral membranes

Transporting Na+ will cause H2O to follow

Angiotensin II (activating a G-protein coupled receptor that signals through Gαq)
Stimulates aldosterone synthesis
Atrial Natriuretic Factor
Factor (activating its guanylate cyclase receptor)
Inhibits aldosterone synthesis


Atrial Natriuretic Factor is secreted from atrial cardiocytes in response to:
High blood pressure
High blood volume
High blood [Na+]

It causes vasodilation
decreases aldosterone synthesis
Decreases renin synthesis
Increases renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate
Increases excretion of H2O and Na+
Which hormone stimulates thirst?
Angiotensin 2 acts in CNS to stimulate thirst.
How do ACE inhibitors work?
Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (also called ACE inhibitors) are medicines that block the conversion of the chemical angiotensin I to a substance that increases salt and water retention in the body (Angiotensin 2). They are found on endothelial cells.
25. For each of the following hormones, be able to answer the following questions:
α-MSH
Vasopressin
Atrial natriuretic factor
Insulin
Glucagon
Epinephrine
Leptin
Adiponectin
Growth Hormone
Thyroid Hormone
Thyroid Releasing Hormone
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
1α,25-dihydroxy vitamin D3
Parathyroid Hormone
Calcitonin
Renin
Angiotensin II
Aldosterone

How are they synthesized? Where are they secreted? What controls secretion? What receptor(s) do they bind to? What class does the receptor belong to? What signal transduction pathways are activated? What are the biological effects of the hormone, and for those examples we discussed, what is the molecular mechanism of action?
See the chart dude.