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163 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
  • 3rd side (hint)
Which organs have sympathetic predominance?
Liver
Spleen
Adrenal medulla
sweat glands
most blood vessels
Which organs have parasympathetic predominance?
GI tract
gastric secretion
ciliary body
Which organs are stimulated by ACh from SNS neurons?
sweat glands
True/False. Horse sweat glands are stimulated by NE and ACh.
True
True/False. 3,4 dihydroxy substiuents are necessary for maximal sympathomimetic activity.
True.
What are 2 mechanisms of indirect sympathomimetic drugs?
1) displace stored catecholamines
2) inhibit reuptake of released catecholamines
How is adrenergic transmission terminated?
1) diffusion
2) reuptake into nerve terminal
3) transport into postsynaptic cell
What is the major termination mechanism of dopaminergic transmission?
reuptake
What are the primary effector organs with a1 adrenergic receptors?
arterioles in skin, mucosa, viscera and kidney
veins
uterus
What are the primary effector organs with a2 receptors?
Presynaptic nerve terminals
Postsynaptic nerve terminals in CNS
What are the primary effector organs with b1 receptors?
Heart (increases force and rate of contraction)
What are the primary effector organs with b2 receptors?
Arterioles (dilation)
Bronchial and uterine smooth muscle (relaxation)
What are the primary effector organs with D1 receptors?
Arterioles of kidney and mesentery
For which adrenergic receptor is Epi much more potent than NE?
Beta-2
Which adrenergic agonists have greater selectivity for the alpha receptors?
Phenylephrine
Clonidine
Which adrenergic agonists have greater selectivity for the beta receptors?
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
What is the mechanism of action of the a1 receptor?
Increase Ca++
What is the mechanism of action of the a2 receptor?
Decrease cAMP
Open K+ channel
Close Ca++ channel
What is the mechanism of action of the beta receptors?
Increase cAMP
What is the mechanism of action of the beta1 receptor at the heart?
Increase cAMP and ultimately increase Ca++
What is the mechanism of action of the D1 receptor?
Increase cAMP
What is the mechanism of action of the D2 receptor?
Decrease cAMP
Open K+ channel
Decrease Ca++ flux
Pharmacological effects of catecholamines on blood pressure?
Increased by a1
Decreased by b2
Indirectly increased by b1 (<a1)
Most general anesthetics work through which type of receptor?
GABA
True/False. Only volatile anesthetic action is interrupted when mutation are made in the alpha subunit of GABA.
True.
How do 2-pore-domain K+ channels inhibit neuronal activity?
Hyperpolarize the cell membrane
Where are NMDA receptors located? How do general anesthetics work through them?
pre, post, and extrasynaptically

blocked by anesthetics
Where are glycine receptors located?
Lower brain stem
Spinal cord
True/False. Barbiturates enhance the action of GABA at its receptor, but cannot activate the receptor directly.
False. Barbiturates can activate the receptor in the absence of GABA.
True/False. While Etomidate and propofol modulate NMDA receptor, ketamine produces its actions by inhibiting the GABA receptor.
False. Switch the drugs.
True/False. Inhalant anesthetics are some of the most high-risk drugs used.
True.
True/False. Halogenated alkanes are popular agents because of fewer side effects and best pharmacokinetic profile.
False. Halogenated ethers.
How do halogenated anesthetics work?
Change the physical conformation of the GABAa and glycine receptors, increasing their affinity for their substrates
How do non-halogenated anesthetics work?
inhibit excitatory postsynaptic currents by inhibiting NMDA receptors.
True/False. All halogenated alkane and ether anesthetics can bind to proteins involved in vesicle release and inhibit NT release.
True
What are the most important sites of action of the general anesthetics?
hippocampus
reticular activating system
Anesthesia
Stage 1
Voluntary movement
Epinephrine release --> tachycardia and hypertension
Conscious
Anesthesia
Stage 2
Excitement and increased CNS stimulation
Beginning of loss of consciousness and voluntary control
Anesthesia
Stage 3
Plane 1: Palpebral reflexes intact, eye position may change
Plane 2: Palpebral reflexes absent, withdrawal reflex absent, eye position unchanged from Plane 1, muscle relaxation
Plane 3: Palpebral reflex absent, eye position forward, abdominal respiration
Anesthesia
Stage 4
Medullary paralysis.
Most general anesthetics decrease responsiveness to autonomic reflexes and result in hypotension, decreased heart contractility, bradycardia. Exceptions?
Nitrous oxide
ketamine
True/False. Usually, the hypoxic drive is preserved under general anesthesia.
True, although there may be decreased responsiveness to CO2
Explain what a blood:gas partition coefficient of 1.4 means.
The concentration of the drug in the blood is 1.4 times that in the gas (alveolar) phase at equilibrium. Equilibrium relates to partial pressure.
What is the relationship between solubility and induction time of inhaled anesthetics?
The less soluble, the faster partial pressure in the blood increases, the faster rate of rise of anesthesia in the brain.
Which anesthetic has the fastest onset and termination of action of the volatile anesthetics?
Sevoflurane
Which volatile anesthetic agent is used to induce anesthesia and is commonly used in exotic patients?
Sevoflurane
Which volatile anesthetic is popular in lab animal medicine?
Methoxyflurane
True/False. Nitrous oxide can be used to maintain anesthesia alone.
False. However, it can be used to decrease the required dose of another agent.
Administration of which drug will inhibit liver metabolism of barbiturates and prolong duration of recovery?
Chloramphenicol
Which injectable GA is used with patients with brain disease?
Thiopental because it decreases cerebral metabolism and oxygen consumption.
Which injectable GA is used in sighthounds and why?
Methohexital. Redistribution and metabolism of thiopental is relatively slower in these breeds.
What is the mechanism of action of propofol?
acts at GABAa receptors to cause hyperpolarization of postsynaptic cell membranes
Chemical classes of drugs that constitute neuroleptics
Phenothiazine
Butyrophenone
Rauwolfia Alkaloid
Chemical classes of drugs that constitute anxiolytics
Benzodiazepine
Non-Benziodiasepine (Buspirone)
Chemical classes of drugs that constitute sedatives-hypnotics.
Barbiturates
Benzodiazepines
Chloral Hydrate
Alpha 2 Adrenergic Agonists
Use and MOA of phenothiazine
antagonist to D2, alpha, muscarinic and H2 receptors

Antipsychotic, behavior modification, anti-emetic, hypotensive, anti-pruritic
Hypothalamic in nature:
Impair temperature regulation
Increased ADH release
Decrease GnRH, GH, ACTH, PIF
increased appetite
hypotension and tachycardia
Use and MOA of xylazine
alpha 2 agonist

sedation by suppressing ARAS
pain suppression by inhibiting NA inhibition of 5-HT
Contraindicated with heart disease (interference with cardiac conductivity)
Bradycardia
Emesis
Diarrhea
Tympany
Use and MOA of benzodiazepine
anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, muscle relaxant

Potentiate neural inhibition by GABA
drowsiness, ataxia
potentiate other CNS depressants (alcohol)
hepatotoxicity in cats
Use and MOA of barbiturates
anesthetic induction, anticonvulsant

Potentiate neural inhibition by GABA.
Cardiovascular and respiratory depression
Reveral agent for benzodiazepines?
Flumazenil
Reversal agents for xylazine?
Alpha 2 antagonists
Yohimbine
atipamezole
tolazoline
Why use a2 agonists with caution in sheep?
Causes dyspnea w/ cyanosis
pulmonary edema
Why inject benzodiazepines slowly?
Formulated in propylene glycol
What is the prototypical phenothiazine?
Chlorpomazine/acepromazine
What is the prototypical a2 agonist?
Xylazine
What effect do the phenothiazines with high noradrenergic affinity have (relative to those with high dopaminergic affinity)?
Sedative
What effect is seen by specific phenothiazines and why?
Antipsychotics as they have high affinity for dopaminergic neurons.
Which sedative is also used to relax the penis in bulls for examination?
Phenothiazines
True/False. Phenothiazines are often used as a pre-anesthetic and provide analgesia.
False. Used in pre-anesthetic but have little to no analgesic activity
True/False. Butyrophenones share many of the same properties as Phenothiazines.
True.
Other than tranquilization, what are other effects of butyrophenone?
anti-emetic
anti-psychotic
relaxation (spasticity at high doses)
tachycardia
What receptor effects are seen with the new antipsychotics?
Antagonism of both 5-HT2 and D2 receptors

Fewer extrapyramidal side effects
Which sedative can cause retrograde amnesia?
Benzodiazepines
Which sedative can cause hepatotoxicity in cats?
Benzodiazepines
Which sedative is metabolized by the liver to active metabolites with long effects?
Benzodiazepines
Which anxiolytic is used to treat spraying in cats and lacks anticonvulsant and muscle relaxant activity?
Buspirone
Which sedative is used on large animals in the field (international vet med)?
Chloral hydrate
Which sedative is much more potent in ruminants than other animals?
Xylazine
True/False. Xylazine is typically administered orally.
False, not absorbed well. Administered IM
True/False. Sedative doses of a2 agonists typically raise the blood pressure.
True.
Which sedative causes profuse salivation, in addition to loss of tone in large intestine?
Xylazine
Which sedative causes partial penile paralysis?
Xylazine
True/False. Xylazine-ketamine combinations may be responsible for anesthetic deaths.
True.
True/False. All local anesthetics are weak bases.
True. Administered as HCl salt
True/False. Local anesthetics work by blocking Ca++ channels and therefore neurotransmission.
False. Block voltage-gated Na channels
True/False. Local anesthetics bind to the receptor near the extracellular end of the Na++ channel.
False. Intracellular.
True/False. The effect of a given concentration of local anesthetic is more marked in rapidly firing axons than resting fibers.
True.
For myelinated nerves, how many successive nodes must be blocked to halt impulse propagation?
3
What effect does elevated serum calcium have on local anesthetics?
Partial antagonism
What effect does elevated potassium have on local anesthetics?
Increases effects by depolarizing the membrane and favoring an inactivated state.
Severe liver disease and reduced liver blood flow may lead to significant increase in concentration of which type of local anesthetic?
Amide local anesthetic
Prilocaine or benzocaine may produce what in cats and rabbits?
methemoglobinuria
Whcih species is most susceptible to cardiovascular toxicity of lidocaine?
Cats
Sulfonamides should not be used with what local anesthetics?
PABA containing, such as procaine. Will interfere with inhibition of folate synthesis.
What effects make local anesthetics useful as antiarrhythmics?
Block fast Na+ channel in cardiac cell membrane
decrease HR
Increase AP duration
Lengthen refractory period
True/False. The Nm receptor is a ligand-gated Na+ channel.
True.
Which ANS receptors act by formation of IP3 and DAG and increasing intracellular Ca++
M1, M3, alpha 1
Which ANS receptors act by stimulating AC and increasing cAMP?
beta receptors
D1
Which ANS receptors act by inhibiting AC?
M2, M4 (in addition to opening K+ channels)
alpha 2
Hemicholinum
Inhibit choline reuptake
ACh receptor antagonists
Curare (NM junction)
Atropine (Muscarinics)
Hexamethonium (ganglionic)
Succinylcholine (NM junction)
scribo, scribis, scribit, scribunt
write, writes, are writing
CNS effects of the opioids?
Analgesia
Sedation
Cough suppression
Nausea and Vomiting
Respiratory depression
Thermoregulatory changes
True/False. Opioids are inhibitory to deep pain, pressure and touch.
False. Analgesia against dull aching pain
What is the mechanism of analgesia of opioids in the spinal cord?
Inhibit NT release by closing Ca++ channels
Inhibit pain transmission neurons directly
Inhibitory to interneurons and thus antagonizes action of substance P
What is the mechanism of analgesia of opioids in the supraspinal structures?
Inhibition of output neurons of the spinothalamic tract to higher centers of the brain.
Why administer opioids epidurally?
Minimizes unwanted respiratory depression, nausea and vomiting
Which animals are excited by opioids?
horses
pigs
cows
sheep
cats
Which animals are sedated by opioids?
primates
dogs
If respiratory depression following an opioid administration, what can be given to reverse the effects?
Naxolone
Why should opiates be avoided in dogs with comprimised respiratory function?
Causes bronchoconstriction in dogs
Which opioids are used as antitussives?
codein
dextromethorphan
butorphanol
Which species show increased body temp in response to opioids?
cats
goats
cattle
horses
Which species show decreased body temp in response to opioids?
dogs
rabbits
monkeys
Which opioids are used as antidiarrhetics?
loperamide
diphenoxylate
Which species show mydriasis in response to opioids?
cats
horses
sheep
How can tolerance to opioids be minimized?
give small amounts of drug less fequently
Which features of opioids are unaffected by development of tolerance?
Gi motility
convulsions
eye
What opioid structural modification incrases narcosis and respiratory depression?
Alcoholic hydroxyl substitutions
What is the primary use of etorphine?
immobilization of wild animals?
What drug is recommended for reversal of etorphine effects?
diprenorphine
For what conditions are opioids contraindicated?
hypothyroidism
renal insufficiency
adrenocortical insufficiency
head trauma/seizures
compromised respiratory function
Name 2 opioid mixed agonist/antagonists
buprenorphine (agonist at mu, antagonist at kappa)
Butorphanol
What other opioids are reversed by butorphanol?
morphine
oxymorphone
True/False. Naloxone has been shown to be beneficial in treatment of septic, hypovolemic and cardiogenic shock.
True
True/False. Certain toxins can cause seizures by increasing the availability of excitatory neurotransmitters in the brain.
True.
What are the 2 mechanisms of action of common anticonvulsants?
Enhancement of GABAergic transmission
Inhibition of excitatory (glutaminergic) transmission
True/False. Hyperpolarization decreases the seizure threshold.
False.
MOA of phenobarbital.
Potentiates GABAergic inhibition
Opens Cl- channels
Side effects of phenobarbital
sedation
ataxia
polyphagia
PU/PD
hyperexcitability (rare)
Doses of which other drugs need to be increased if given with phenobarbital?
digitoxin
glucocorticoids
doxycycline
estrogens
Which drugs increase the CNS depressive response of phenobarbital?
sulfonamides
salicylates
True/False. Primidone is metabolized to phenobarbital and PEME, and all three are active anticonvulsants.
True.
True/False. Primidone is more toxic in dogs than cats.
False. The opposite
What is the drug of choice to treat status epilepticus in dogs and cats?
Diazepam
Why should diazepam be administered slowly?
The propylene glycol can cause cardiac arrhythmias
MOA of potassium bromide?
synergistic inhibition with drugs that open the Cl- channel via GABA receptor activation
MOA of phenytoin?
Inhibits Na+ channels on axon hillock of excitatory neurons.
What is the drug of choice for digitalis-induced ventricular arrhythmias?
Phenytoin because of its lidocaine-like effects
Which broad classes of drugs may induce seizures?
Phenothiazines
Local anesthetics
Which drug may increase toxicity of anticonvulsants by decreasing their metabolism?
Chloramphenicol
Name 2 muscarinic agonists that are:
a) direct acting
b) indirect acting
a) bethanechol
b) physostigmine
What is the mechanism of indirect acting cholinergic drugs?
Inhcrease the concentration of ACh
True/False. Like ACh, indirect cholinergics undergo a 2 step hydrolysis sequence by ACh esterase.
True.
True/False. Phenothiazines have similar structure to atropine and thus have significant antimuscarinic effects.
True.
In what conditions should ACh esterase inhibitors be given with caution?
Liver disease (pseudocholinesterase produced by liver)
Respiratory disease (bronchoconstriction)
Late pregnancy (abortion)
Antimuscarinic drugs should be used with caution in patients with:
gastric ulcer
glaucoma
True/False. Herbivores are more resistant to atropine.
True.
What is a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
d-tubocurarine
What is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker?
succinylcholine
Which type of neuromuscular blocker is enhanced by ACh esterase inhibitors?
Depolarizing
True/False. All the neuromuscular blocking drugs bear a structural resemblance to atropine.
False. To ACh
True/False. Neuromuscular blocking drugs have poor lipid solubility and are always administered IV.
True.
True/False. Muscles capable of rapid movement, such as those of the jaw and eye are paralyzed before larger muscles of the limb and trunk.
True.
Which sedatives are also used as muscle relaxants?
Diazepam
Xylazine
What are the effects of M3 activation?
increased secretion of exocrine glands
relaxation of sphincters
bronchoconstriction
Atropine is mostly excreted unchanged in the urine, except in which species?
Rabbits havae a specific enzyme that metabolizes it.
Why should one be careful using AChE inhibitors with phenothiazines?
They also inhibit AChE
What are the 2 indirect mechanisms for adrenergic drugs?
1) displacement of stored catecholamines
2) inhibition of reuptake of atecholamines already released
Isoprotenerol is most ptoent at which receptor(s)?
b1 and b2
True/False. NE preferentially activates b1 receptors compared to b2 receptors.
True.
True/False. Isoprotenerol preferentially activates alpha receptors relative to beta.
False. The opposite is true.
True/False. All adrenergic agonists are catecholamines and can be metabolized by COMT.
False.