Ate2634 Animal Pharmacology - Midterm Study

Front 1

Two antibiotics that can be given at the same time to produce synergistic effects are:

Back 1

Penicillin and Gentamicin

Front 2

Pharmacokinetics directly relates to:

Back 2

absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs

Front 3

The group of medications that is not absorbed well and is therefore ineffective systemically when given orally are the:

Back 3

aminoglycoside antibiotics

Front 4

A type of insecticide that can become irreversibly bound to the receptor sites of the nervous system and is considered to be a potentially potent toxin is:

Back 4

Organophosphate

Front 5

Drugs that are more soluble and more readily readily absorbed are usually:

Back 5

Lipid soluble

Front 6

When medications that are in the circulatory system are bound to protien, the protein that is involved in the binding is most commonly:

Back 6

albumin

Front 7

Penicillin G, when given orally, is:

Back 7

not acid stable

Front 8

The specialized cell that is present between the capillaries of the brain and the cerebral tissue that is effective in the blood brain barrier is the:

Back 8

Glial cell

Front 9

A drug that is an agonist is one that will __________ the action of a tissue

Back 9

Enhance

Front 10

The term used for the amount of time that it takes for the quantity of drug in the body to be reduced by 50% is:

Back 10

Half Life

Front 11

True or False: Most drugs are well absorbed at extremes of pH.

Back 11

FALSE

Front 12

An organ of the body where drug accumulation is likely to occur is the:

Back 12

Liver

Front 13

The receptor is a site on the cell membrane where a drug will _________ and ___________ an effect in the cell.

Back 13

attach and produce

Front 14

Pentothal comes as a powder of 5 gram in a bottle for dilution. How much saline must you add to get a solution of 2.5%

Back 14

200 ml

Front 15

You have 10.0 cc of 10% fenbendazole. You need 2.5% fenbendazole. How much saline will you add to the 10 cc's to get the 2.5% solution.

Back 15

30 ml

Front 16

The concentration of Azium is 2mg/ml. You will give 1.0 mg/lb to a dog the weighing 11 kg. Calculate the amount you will administer.

Back 16

12.1 ml

Front 17

Acepromazine is 10 mg per ml. How many mls will you give if your patient needs 1.0 mg.

Back 17

0.1 ml

Front 18

You are to induce a 112 pound dog with 8 mg/lb of Pentothal, (Pentothal is 2.5%). How many mls do you give this patient.

Back 18

35.8 ml

Front 19

The concentration of Acepromazine is 10mg/ml. How many ml of Ace will be given to the 88 pound dog at a dose of 0.1 mg / kg.

Back 19

0.4 ml

Front 20

The amount of a 50% dextrose solution that is required to make 1.0 liter of 10% Dextrose is:

Back 20

200 ml of dextrose is added to 800 ml of saline

Front 21

The dose of Rompun for the horse is 50mg/100 lbs. The concentration is 10%. How many mls of Rompun is needed for a horse weighing 1900 pounds.

Back 21

9.5 ml

Front 22

A 20% solution of Mannitol will be given to administer 4.5 grams to a dog. How many mls do you give this patient.

Back 22

22.5 ml

Front 23

How much of a 1% solution can be prepared from 6 ml of a 5% solution?

Back 23

30.0 ml

Front 24

4% Pentothal is how many mg per ml

Back 24

40 mg/ml

Front 25

True or False: The law sates that controlled substances must be kept in a securely locked, substantially constructed cabinet or safe.

Back 25

True

Front 26

The period of time that Veterinarians must retain a controlled substances use log and keep it available for inspection is:

Back 26

2 years

Front 27

The area of the Veterinary Clinic where prescription pads should be stored is:

Back 27

Controlled drug cabiniet, under lock and key

Front 28

The law that requires manufacturers to show a drug is safe for animal use, has therapeutic efficacy, and if used in food animals, must have a method to establish the drug withdrawal period is the:

Back 28

New Animal Drug Amendment

Front 29

All controlled drugs are marked with the letter "C" and inside the open area of the "C" is placed the:

Back 29

schedule number

Front 30

True or False: Generally, no prescription may be refilled for a period in excess of one year from the date of the original dispensing of the prescription.

Back 30

True

Front 31

Information on drug labels for dispensing should contain all of the following EXCEPT:

Back 31

name and address of drug manufacurer

Front 32

OD is the abbreviation for:

Back 32

right eye

Front 33

gtt is the abreviation for:

Back 33

drops

Front 34

The recommended minimum number of inventory turns per year for a typical veterinary practice is:

Back 34

4-6

Front 35

The primary disadvantage of having a large inventory on hand is:

Back 35

expense of tying up working capital in the drugs and supplies

Front 36

A drug that would be illegal to borrow from another a neighboring veterinary practice would be:

Back 36

phenobarbital

Front 37

True or False: In general, it is not legal to purchase larger quantities of medications made at compounding pharmacies and then to prescribe and dispense smaller amounts later for individual patients.

Back 37

True

Front 38

Of all of the insecticides used in veterinary hospitals, the most frequently associated with human toxicity are

Back 38

organophosphates and carbamates

Front 39

The most common health problem related to the use of disinfectants is:

Back 39

skin irritation

Front 40

In most cases, the most hazardous pharmaceuticals the veterinary technician will handle are:

Back 40

cancer chemotherapy drugs

Front 41

Cyclophosphamide, vincristine and doxorubicin are examples of:

Back 41

chemotherapeutic agents

Front 42

Latex gloves should be worn when handling urine, feces, vomitous and other body fluids from an animal that has received chemotherapeutic drugs because these drugs are considered dangerous for up to:

Back 42

48 hours

Front 43

Chemotherapy agents will generally target:

Back 43

rapidly dividing cells

Front 44

The drug that is noted to be an alpha blocker is:

Back 44

acepromazine

Front 45

The division of the nervous system that alpha, beta-1 and beta-2 receptors are specifically associated with is the:

Back 45

sympathetic

Front 46

The types of drugs that may result in an increase in intra-ocular pressure and are contraindicated in certain types of glaucoma are the:

Back 46

anticholinergics

Front 47

Considering the autonomic nervous system, stimulation of receptors that will result in powerful vasoconstriction are termed:

Back 47

alpha

Front 48

The drug that would be classified as a cholinergic agent due to its stimulating effect on the parasympathetic nervous system is:

Back 48

neostigmine

Front 49

A neurotramsmitter for the sympathetic nervous system is:

Back 49

epinephrine

Front 50

The two classifications of medications that have similar effect on the eye in that they cause dilation of the pupil are the:

Back 50

anticholinergics and sympathomimetics

Front 51

The common signs of organophosphate overdose such as miosis and breathing difficulties are due the organophosphate agent affecting:

Back 51

anticholinesterase

Front 52

Drugs that may be used to treat atropine intoxication and also reverse the effects of some of the neuromuscular blocking agents are:

Back 52

neostigmine and physostigmine

Front 53

A medication that may be used to produce local hemostasis as an aid in controlling capillary bleeding in highly vascular tissue is:

Back 53

epinephrine

Front 54

Alpha receptor stimulation would likely result in:

Back 54

splenic contraction

Front 55

In small animal practice, central nervous system stimulants are likely to be used to produce:

Back 55

respiratory stimulantion

Front 56

The drug that is noted for producing long acting bronchodilating effects is:

Back 56

theophylline

Front 57

The fentanyl patch is a controlled substance that is a Schedule:

Back 57

II

Front 58

A medication that is noted for producing cough suppressing effects is:

Back 58

butorphanol

Front 59

The anticonvulsant drug that is usually available in grains is:

Back 59

phenobarbital

Front 60

The analgesic effect of opioids is due to the:

Back 60

interaction with receptors such as kappa and mu in the brain and spinal cord

Front 61

The NSAID group of medications will produce anti-inflammatory effects by:

Back 61

inhibition of prostaglandin systhesis

Front 62

The medication that has a mechanism of action that inhibits cyclooxygenase II to counteract inflammation while producing minimal, but some, effects on the stomach and kidney is:

Back 62

carprofen

Front 63

An antipyretic medication would have the action of relieving:

Back 63

fever

Front 64

The most likely clinically important side effect of NSAIDs is:

Back 64

gastrointestinal ulceration

Front 65

A major side effect of the use of phenobarbital as an anticonvulsant is dose dependent:

Back 65

respiratory depression

Front 66

A side effect that may be seen with oral phenobarbital administration for treatment of epilepsy is:

Back 66

polydipsia

Front 67

What is the amount of drug given per unit of body weight called

Back 67

dosage

Front 68

What is the amount of drug given at one time

Back 68

dose

Front 69

Which book is a concise and useful information on drugs commonly used in practice

Back 69

Plumb's Veterinary Drug Handbook

Front 70

most medicines will be absorbed by the

Back 70

small intestine (duodenum)

Front 71

______ ______ tablets or capsules have a special coating usually a wax or a polymer that prevents them form being dissolved in the stomach

Back 71

enteric coated

Front 72

solution of a drug dissolved in a sweetened alcohol base

Back 72

elixirs

Front 73

a drug dissolved in an 85% dextrose solution

Back 73

syrup

Front 74

administration by other than the GI tract

Back 74

Parenteral

Front 75

if medications are not irritating they should be given on an empty stomach when stomach acidity is ______

Back 75

low

Front 76

IM Injections: usually no more than _____ to avoid pain and discomfort to patient.

Back 76

- usually no more than 2 ml

Front 77

IV Injections

Back 77

-rapid distribution

-good for irritating drugs or concentrated drugs.

-watch for phlebitis, emboli, slough

Front 78

the study of the movement of drugs in the body

Back 78

Pharacokinetics

Front 79

What are the 4 stages of Pharacokinetics?

Back 79

absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

Front 80

True or False:

Absorption will be enhanced if there is a higher concentration outside the cell compared to inside the cell

Back 80

True

Front 81

Lipophilic describes drugs that are:

Back 81

lipid soluble are more readily absorbed because of the lipid barrier of the cell membranes

Front 82

Examples of Lipophilic drugs include:

Back 82

Enrofloxacin (Baytril) and Prednisone

Front 83

True or False

Water soluble drugs are not well absorbed

Back 83

True

Front 84

Drugs that are water soluble are called

Back 84

hydrophilic

Front 85

Examples of Hydrophilic drugs

Back 85

aminoglycoside antibiotics, such as gentamicin3.

Front 86

Drugs that are _______ are not electrically charged. These drugs will be absorbed better

Back 86

nonionized

Front 87

Injection into the spinal canal, usually the subarachnoid space

Back 87

intrathecal

Front 88

_________ may allow for an elevated blood sugar by antagonizing the effect of insulin

Back 88

cortisone

Front 89

The acids of the stomach are neutralized by sodium bicarbonate that is produced by the ___________

Back 89

pancreas

Front 90

The _________ route is often used for skin testing

Back 90

intradermal (ID)

Front 91

The __________ route may be used when other routes are not practical

Back 91

intraperitoneal (IP)

Front 92

Example of drugs that are tightly bound are called irreversible and will act for a long time

Back 92

organophosphate insecticides

Front 93

Drugs that mimic the natural body functions are called __________

Back 93

Agonists

Front 94

Drugs that inhibit a normal body function are called ____________

Back 94

Antagonist

Front 95

An agonist drug that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, causes the pupil to dilate and the heart rate to increase

Back 95

Epinephrine

Front 96

An antagonist drug that suppresses the parasympathetic nervous system and prevents the heart rate from slowing down

Back 96

Atropine

Front 97

Numerical value that represents the relationship between the dose that is effective in 50% of the animals tested and the dose that is lethal in 50% of the animals tested

Back 97

LD 50

Front 98

True or False

As the Theraputic Index increases the margin of safety increases

Back 98

True

Front 99

The FDA requires a minimum Theraputic Index of _____ if the drug is to be commercially available

Back 99

4

Front 100

Liver, kidney, small intestine are organs of ______

Back 100

metabolism

Front 101

_______ clears the drug from the blood stream and chemically alters the drugs so they are no longer active

Back 101

biotransformation (metabolism)

Front 102

The process of attachment of molecules to a drug is __________

Back 102

conjugation

Front 103

True or False

In general, cats will be slower at metabolizing medicines than dogs

Back 103

True

Front 104

The liver enzyme system is not fully developed until __________________

Back 104

30 - 60 days of age

Front 105

When a drug is repeatedly given, it will cause _______________ to be produced that will enhance the elimination of the drug (tolerance)

Back 105

enzymes in the liver

Front 106

Most of the metabolites are eliminated by the ________

Back 106

kidney

Front 107

True or False

The pH of the urine effects excretion

Back 107

True

Front 108

__________ can cause cardiac arrest in parakeets due to arrhythmias

Back 108

procaine penicillin - the procaine

Front 109

________very toxic to Guinea pigs

Back 109

penicillin

Front 110

Please memorize that a 1% solution will equal 10 mg/ml.

Back 110

1% = 10 mg / ml.

Front 111

For the calculation with a drip set, the formula used is:

Back 111

ml ordered / time of delivery X drip set factor = rate of flow in drops per minute

Front 112

Order is for 250 ml of lactated Ringers over the next 2 hours by drip set with 20 drops (gtt) / ml

Back 112

Calculation: 250 ml / 120 min X 20 = 41.7 or 42 drops per minute

Front 113

How much 50% dextrose is required to make a liter of 10% dextrose.

Back 113

200 cc of 50% dextrose added to 800 ml saline

Front 114

what is the Dose X Weight / Conc called

Back 114

Factor Label Method

Front 115

Which year was the established Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act created

Back 115

1938 -it states that a drug has met the standards that are recommended by members of the medicine, pharmacy, dentistry and vet medicine profession-a drug that has met these standards will have USP or NF on the label-it is the basic law governing drugs in the US

Front 116

Which year was the Durham Humphrey Amendment created

Back 116

1951 -it restricts the use of some drugs to have to be prescribed through a licensed practitioner-these are prescription drugs and are considered unsafe for use by the general public

Front 117

Which year was the New Animal Drug Amendment

Back 117

1972 -it requires manufacturers to show that a drug is safe for animals, has therapeutic efficacy and if being used in food animals, it must have methods to establish the drugs withdrawal period-the FDA requires for these drugs to show the manufacturer or distributor, the correct name of the drug and adequate directions on how to use it

Front 118

______________________________ is a separation of circulating blood and the brainextracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS).

Back 118

The blood–brain barrier

Front 119

___________ often occurs in the fat, muscle and liver

Back 119

drug accumulation

Front 120

1000g= ______ kg

Back 120

1kg

Front 121

1gr= _______ g

Back 121

65mg

Front 122

30ml= ____ oz

Back 122

1oz

Front 123

240mls = ____ c

Back 123

1 cup

Front 124

what is the definition of pharmacology

Back 124

the study of drugs and their effects on a living organism

Front 125

what is a drug definition

Back 125

a chemical agent acting on living tissue

Front 126

what is pharmacokinetics

Back 126

the study of the metabolism, distribution and excretion of drugs

Front 127

who is the father of pharmacology

Back 127

Paul Ehrlich

Front 128

who discovered penicillin

Back 128

Alexander Flemming

Front 129

what does it mean by a generic or chemical name

Back 129

it is related to the chemical structure of the drug

Front 130

what does it mean by trade name

Back 130

the name that is given by the manufacturer

Front 131

what does dosage mean

Back 131

the amount of drug given per unit of body weight

Front 132

what does dose mean

Back 132

the amount of drug given at one time

Front 133

what does PDR stand for

Back 133

Physicians Desk Reference

Front 134

what does a package insert do

Back 134

it describes the drug and it's activites

Front 135

what does Rx mean

Back 135

it indicates that a drug is only available as a prescription

Front 136

what are some routes used for administering drugs

Back 136

-topical

-oral

-injectable

-inhalation

-rectal

-intradermal

-intraperitoneal (within the body cavity)

Front 137

how are drugs distributed through the body

Back 137

-the circulatory system carries the medication throughout the body

-the medication must be absorbed into the blood stream first and then it is carried to the liver

Front 138

what pH should oral drugs be to be better absorbed and not be destroyed by the acid in the stomach

Back 138

drugs that are weak acids (a pH of about 6) are better absorbed than weak basesare most drugs absorbed by the stomach no, most drugs are absorbed in the duodenum

Front 139

what is the pH of the stomach

Back 139

1-3 pH (very acidic)

Front 140

what is a neutral pH

Back 140

7

Front 141

what is the pH of the small intestine (the place where drug absorption oocurs)

Back 141

pH of 8

Front 142

what does parenteral route mean

Back 142

-a medication that is not given orally or given other than by the GI tract

Front 143

what is a target organ

Back 143

the organ in which the drug will exert its main effect (but only a small fraction of the drug may react with the target organ)

Front 144

what drug will block the receptor site for acetylcholine

Back 144

atropine

Front 145

once a drug has reached its target organ, what will it do

Back 145

it will react with areas on the target organ called receptors

Front 146

how do drugs bind to the receptor sites

Back 146

by small electric forces

Front 147

what are drugs called that are tightly bound

Back 147

irreversible, they will act for a long time (ex: organophosphate)

Front 148

what are the drugs effects on the body functions

Back 148

it will alter existing body functions, it will not create new body functions

Front 149

what is an agonist drug

Back 149

a drug that mimics the natural body functions

Front 150

what is an antagonist drug

Back 150

a drug that inhibits a normal body function

Front 151

what is an example of an agonist and antagonist drug

Back 151

-epinephrine is an agonist drug that stimulates the sympathetic nervous system (it causes the pupil to dilate)

-atropine is an antagonist drug that suppresses the parasympathetic nervous system (it prevents the heart rate from slowing down)

Front 152

what is the difference between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous system

Back 152

-sympathetic is the "fight or flight"

-parasympathetic is the "rest and repair" or "wine and dine"

Front 153

what is the most common form of administration

Back 153

oral

Front 154

what is an elixir

Back 154

a solution of a drug dissolved in a sweetened alcohol base

Front 155

what are some factors that affect drug distribution

Back 155

-plasma binding

-bioavailability

-blood brain barrier

-drug accumulation

Front 156

what is the difference between brain capillaries and the other body capillaries

Back 156

brain capillaries are less permeable (allowing things to pass through) than the other capillaries of the body

Front 157

what are synergistic drugs

Back 157

a combination of drugs in which this combinations effects are greater than either of the drugs if used alone

Front 158

what are some ways that drugs become inactivated

Back 158

-potential changes in the pH of the solution

-chemical precipitates may form

-contamination of the vials

Front 159

what are some methods that a drug is metabolized

Back 159

-biotransformation (metabolism)

-conjugation

Front 160

what does biotransformation (metabolism) do

Back 160

it clears the drug from the blood stream and it will chemically alter the drug so then it is no longer active

Front 161

what are some organs that are used for metabolism

Back 161

the liver, kidney and small intestine

Front 162

is it safer if the therapeutic index is higher or lower

Back 162

-the higher the TI, the safer it is

-the lower the TI, the less safe it is

Front 163

what does the LD50/ED50 stand for

Back 163

the lethal dose/ effective dose

Front 164

what is a drug that has a low therapeutic index

Back 164

chemotherapy drugs

Front 165

what are some ways to identify if a patient is having an adverse reaction

Back 165

-establish cause and effect

-time relations to use of drug

-improvement when drug was removed-being able to reproduce the symptoms when the drug was given again

Front 166

what are some types of drug reactions seen

Back 166

-dry mouth (may be seen with "chewing gum" symptoms)

-drowsiness-excitement

-vomiting

-allergic reaction (urticaria- hives)

Front 167

what are some types of systems of measures

Back 167

-english system (most common used in US- yards, feet, inches)

-metric (common used in scientific work- meters, grams)

-apothecary (used by pharmacists for some drugs- grains, drams and ounces)

Front 168

what do drug standards relate to

Back 168

the laws regarding the quality, purity and uniformity of drugs

Front 169

who enforces the drug standards the food and drug administration (FDA)

Back 169

-it is a branch of the department of health, education and welfare (HEW)

Front 170

what act are controlled substances regulated by

Back 170

the controlled substance act of 1970

Front 171

what type of drugs does the controlled substance act regulate

Back 171

addictive and hallucinating drugs

Front 172

who enforces the controlled substance act the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA)

Back 172

-practitioners must be registered with the DEA to handle these drugs

Front 173

how many schedules are there for controlled drugs and what is there range in abuse

Back 173

-there are 5 schedules (written in roman numerals)

-the schedule 1 drugs have the highest risk of abuse and has no medical purpose

-the schedule 5 drugs have the least risk of abuse

Front 174

what are some examples of a schedule 1 drug

Back 174

-not used in any practice but is used in research only-marijuana may be used for anti-glaucoma or anti-nausea-ex: LSD, Heroine, Marijuana (THC), Mescaline

Front 175

what are some examples of a schedule 2 drug -

Back 175

high abuse potential-no more than a 30 day supply may be prescribed-Rx can't be phone in-ex: pentobarbital (euthanasia), Morphine, Hydromorphone, Fentanyl, codeine, PCP

Front 176

what are some examples of a schedule 3 drug

Back 176

less abuse potential-Rx can be phone in-ex: Hycodan, Pentothal, Ketaset, Winstrol V, Buprenex

Front 177

what are some examples of a schedule 4 drug

Back 177

-low abuse potential

-Rx can be refilled and phone in

-ex: phenobarbital, valium, torbugesic

Front 178

what are some examples of a schedule 5 drug

Back 178

-less abuse potential-ex: Lomotil, paregoric

Front 179

what is precription writing

Back 179

it is a Rx that is order by a licensed vet to a pharmacist to prepare meds (a legal document)

Front 180

what are some parts of a prescription

Back 180

-date written

-name & address of client

-Rx symbol

-Name and amount of drug (amounts are in metric system)

-instructions to pharmacist regarding compounding

-instructions to the pharmacist regarding use by the patient (how to give it)

-signature of practitioner

-doctors name, clinic address and phone number

-if it can be refilled

-if it is a controlled 2, 3 or 4 drug, it must contain "caution, federal law prohibits the transfer of this drug to any person other than the patient to whom it was prescribed"

Front 181

what shouldn't be on a prescription

Back 181

the DEA number

Front 182

what does the Florida Statutes state about vets giving out any drugs without a written prescription

Back 182

it is grounds for discipline for a vet to fail to give an owner of a patient, before dispensing any drug, a written prescription WHEN REQUESTED

Front 183

what is an example of a drug that can only be available through compounding pharmacies

Back 183

apomophine

Front 184

what is doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

Back 184

-a chemo drug used in treating leukemia and ovarian/stomach cancers

-it affects the cellular DNA-toxicity signs: cardiotoxicity and hemorrhagic cystitis

Front 185

what is cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan)

Back 185

-a chemo drug used to treat lymphoma and leukemia

-it stops the cell growth by attaching to the cellular DNA

-toxicity signs: nausea, vomiting, alopecia, hemorrhagic cystitis

Front 186

what is vincristine

Back 186

-a chemo drug used to treat lyphoma and leukemia-

it affects all rapidly growing cells by inhibiting mitosis

Front 187

what is carboplatin

Back 187

-a chemo drug used treat lung, head and neck carcinomas

-it acts on the DNA of the cancer cells-side effects: bone marrow suppression and nausea/ vomiting

Front 188

what are the 5-6 rights when administering medication

Back 188

-Right patient

-Right dose

-Right route

-Right frequency

-Right rate

Front 189

how are chemotheraphy agents eliminated in a patient

Back 189

through their urine, feces, vomit and other body fluids

Front 190

what is the parasympathetic NS also known as

Back 190

the nicotinic and muscarinin

Front 191

what is the sympathetic NS also known as

Back 191

the adrenergic

Front 192

where does the fibers from the sympathetic NS originate from?

Back 192

-sympathetic: thoracic and lumbar part of spinal cord

-parasympathetic: sacral spinal nerves and cranial nerves

Front 193

what is the function of the ANS

Back 193

-maintain homeokinesis or steady state

-controls the functions which are carried on below the level of consciousness

Front 194

how do nerve fibers get their name

Back 194

based on what type of neurochemical substance that is released by that nerve fiber at the synapse

Front 195

what is the cholinergic fiber and what does it do

Back 195

-it releases acetylcholine from the nerve endings called cholinergic fibers

-parasympathetic fibers release acetylcholine

Front 196

what are adrenergic fibers and what do they do

Back 196

-release epinephrine or nor-epinephrine (sympathetic fiber)

-they are called adrenergic because it is the adrenal gland that releases epinephrine

Front 197

what does sympatholytic mean? parasympatholytic? -para= anticholinergic

Back 197

-sym= anti adrenergic

Front 198

what does parasympatholytic mean?

Back 198

-para= anticholinergic

Front 199

what are some neurotransmitters for the parasympathetic NS

Back 199

-acetylcholine

-muscarine

-nicotine

Front 200

what are some types of receptors of the sympathetic NS

Back 200

-alpha

-beta 1

-beta 2

Front 201

what does the alpha receptor do

Back 201

-vasoconstriction of arterioles

-myocardial excitement

-splenic contraction

-iris dilation

Front 202

what does the beta 1 receptor do

Back 202

cardioacceleration

Front 203

what does the beta 2 receptor do

Back 203

-vasodilatation

-bronchial relaxation

Front 204

what is ephinephrine USP -

Back 204

adrenergics-naturally found in the body-used for: cardiac arrest, prolonged effects of local anesthetics, local hemostasis (causes vasoconstriction), anaphylactic shock, bronchodilation (asthma)

Front 205

what are some signs of ephinephrine USP toxicity

Back 205

-cardiac arrhythmias (disruption in hearts normal rhythm)

-pulmonary edema (buildup of fluid in the air sacs)

-dyspnea (difficulty breathing)

-sharp rises in BP

Front 206

what is isoproteronol (Isuprel)

Back 206

- a adrenergic

-is a beta adrenergic (cardio accelerator)

-used as a heart block (elevates the HR)

Front 207

what is albuterol (ventolin)

Back 207

-a adrenergic

-it is a beta adrenergic agonist

-used as a bronchodilator

-cautions: patients with cardiac arrhythmias, epilepsy, hyperthyroidism, and hypertension-side effects; tachycardia, hypertension and agitiation

Front 208

what is phenylpropanolamine (PPA) or (Proin)

Back 208

-a adrenergic-it is an alpha adrenergic stimulant

-used for urinary incontinence (urethral sphincter hypotonus)

-side effects: anorexia, restlessness, irritability, tachycardia, cardiac arrythmias and hypertension

Front 209

what are some anti adrenergics

Back 209

-acepromazine and other phenothiazine tranquilizers

-anti adrenergics are also called sympatholytics

Front 210

what do anti adrenergics do

Back 210

(acepromazine and other phenothiazine tranqs)

-not a controlled drug

-an alpha blocking agent

-protects the heart against epinephrine induced arrhythmias

Front 211

if acepromazine (an anti adrenergic) was used as a preanesthetic, what are some side effects seen

Back 211

-hypothermia

-possibly lowering seizure threshold

-penile paralysis

-prolapse of the third eyelid

-hypotension(patients BP should be monitored if under anesthesia and has received Ace)

Front 212

what are some side effects of propanolol (Inderal)

Back 212

-bradycardia

-hypotension

-bronchoconstriction

-collapse

Front 213

what is Pilocarpine (Isopto-Carpine)

Back 213

-a cholinergic-stimulates the receptor site for acetylcholine

-used for treatment in glaucome for the miosis (pupil constricting)

-it is also used to promote tear secretion

Front 214

what is metoclopramide (Reglan)

Back 214

-a cholinergic

-stimulates acetylcholine

-it is a gastric motility drug and acts as an anti-emetic (inhibits the CRTZ located in the medulla)

-it should not be used in patients with: GI obstructions/ perforation, GI hemorrhage, seizure disorders

Front 215

what is neostigmine and physostigmine

Back 215

-cholinergics that stimulate

-used to treat atropine intoxications and can be used as a neuromuscular blocking agent (gallamine)

Front 216

what does acetylcholinesterase do

Back 216

it stops the action of acetylcholine

Front 217

what are some signs of acetylcholine receptor stimulation

Back 217

-salivation

-vomiting

-diarrhea

-urination

-miosis

-bradycardia

-skeletal muscle spasms

Front 218

what is organophosphate insecticides

Back 218

-a cholinergic that indirectly stimulates

-it is an IRREVERSIBLE cholinesterase inhibitor

-used as a nerve gas in WW2

Front 219

what are som types of organophosphates

Back 219

-Malathion

-Diazanon

-Chlopyriphos

-Ronnel

-Paramite

-Proban

-ProSpot

Front 220

what are some toxicity signs of the insecticdes

Back 220

-muscle twitching

-walking w/ stiff gait-ataxia

-vomiting/ diarrhea

-seizures-death

Front 221

what are some treatments for organophosphate and carbamate toxicity

Back 221

-atropine

-protopam

-AVOID USING; morphine and acepromazine

Front 222

what is the metric used for atropine mg or grains-

Back 222

1 grain= 60 mg

Front 223

what is glycopyrrolate (Robinul- V)

Back 223

-a anticholinergic

-it has a longer duration than atropine

-it wont drive the heart rate up as much as atropine will

-it is sometimes used for preanesthetic anticholinergic to prevent the heart rate from dropping to much while under anesthesia

Front 224

what is Etodolac (EtoGesic)

Back 224

-an NSAID-recommended for pain and inflammation managment

-it is an antiinflammatory, antipyretic and analgesic-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX 1

Front 225

what is Meloxicam (Metacam)

Back 225

-an NSAID-similar to carprofen and etodolac

-can come as a flavored liquid-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX 1what is ketoprofen (Ketofen)

-an NSAID-inhibits COX 2 and COX 1

-has been associated w/ platelet adhesion decrease and increased bleeding times

Front 226

what is Fericoxib (Previcox)

Back 226

-an NSAID that is approved for dogs only

-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX1

-used for dogs over 7 pounds

-should not be used with other NSAIDS or steriodswhat is Daracoxib (Daramaxx)

-an NSAID that is approved for dogs only

-used for inflammation due to arthritis and post operative pain-inhibits COX 2 and spares COX 1-side effects: GI irritation, renal insufficiency-avoid taking with other NSAIDS or steriods

Front 227

what is morphine

Back 227

-an analgesic

-a schedule 2, narcotic drug

-a CNS depressant-can cause exittment in horses and cats

-metabolized by the liver

Front 228

what is butorphanol (Torbutrol, Torbugesic)

Back 228

-an analgesic

-derived from opium

-schedule 4 druga good cough suppressant and can cause mild sedation

Front 229

what is hydromorphone (Dilaudid)

Back 229

-an analgesic-similar to oxymorphone

-similar effects as morphine-used as a sedative, analgesic and preanesthetic

-more potent than morphine

-has fewer GI side effects due to less stimulation of the vagus nerve

-side effects: CNS depression, resp. depression, bradycardia

Front 230

what is the Fentanyl Patch

Back 230

-an analgesic-used for longer term pain control

-allows for a transdermal administration

-a synthetic opiod that is 100 times more potent than morphine

-provides about 72 hours of pain control-a schedule 2 drug

Front 231

what is hydrocodone (Hycodan)

Back 231

-an analgesic-a narcotic antitussive (cough supressant)

-good at controlling cough

-a schedule 3 drug-side effetcs: sedation, vomiting, constipation and can cause excitement in cats

Front 232

what is tramadol

Back 232

-an analgesic

-an opioid like drug

-useful as a pain control

-can be used as a cough suppressant (antitussive)

-may cause sedation

Front 233

what is a narcotic reversing agent -

Back 233

Nalorphine (Nalline) and Naloxone (Narcan)-nalorphine is best to reverse morphine and naloxone is best to reverse oxymorpone-it acts by displacing the morphine and oxy from the receptor site

Front 234

what does an anticonvulsant do

Back 234

stops/ prevents convulsions, seizures and epilepsy

Front 235

what causes convulsions

Back 235

an abnormal foci or area of the brain emits rapid bursts of electrical activity leading to seizures

Front 236

what is ictus mean

Back 236

relates to seizure activity

Front 237

what are some signs that a patient is about to have a seizure

Back 237

-personality changes

-dizziness, salivation

-sudden bladder or colonic contractions

-loss of consciousness

-sustained muscle contractions

Front 238

what are some cause of seizures

Back 238

-congenital

-infection (distemper)

-trauma-hypoxia (airway restirction)

-metabolic (hypoglycemia)

-neoplastic (menigioma)

Front 239

what is phenbarbital

Back 239

-derived from pyrimidine

-an anti seizure medication

-side effects: polyuria, polydipsia, plyphagia and drowsiness

Front 240

what is primidone

Back 240

-derived from pyrimidine

-converts to phenobarbital in the liver

-anti seizure med

-side effetcs: can cause elevations of liver enzymes (cause liver damage)

Front 241

what is Diazepam (Valium)

Back 241

-a skeletal muscle relaxant

-helps stop active seizures

Front 242

what is Pentobarbital

Back 242

-treats epilepsy (epilepticus)

-longer acting then Valium

-depresses the respiratory and CNS

-schedule 2 drug

Front 243

what is Potassium Bromide

Back 243

-used when patient's not responding to phenobarbital

-it hyperpolarize the neuronal membrane and stabilizes them agianst epileptic foci activity

-anti conculsantwhat is levetiracetam (Keppra) -antiseizure med-commonly used in cats

Front 244

Antiemetics have the effect of preventing:

Back 244

Vomiting

Front 245

A medication that can be used to induce vomiting in the cat is:

Back 245

xylazine

Front 246

A medication that is used in the treatment of gastric ulcers and adheres to the damaged mucosa to provide a protective barrier is:

Back 246

sucralfate

Front 247

An anti-emetic medication that will also enhance gastric motility and should be avoided if a gastric foriegn body is suspected is:

Back 247

metaclopramide

Front 248

A gastrointestinal medication that should not be used concurrently with phenothiazine drugs or narcotics because will increase the possibility of side effects is:

Back 248

metaclopramide

Front 249

as a gastrointestinal medication, famotidine is considered

Back 249

H2 antagonist

Front 250

Maropitant (Cerenia) acts as an anti-emetic by:

Back 250

acting on the vomiting center of the brain

Front 251

Deficiencies in the fat soluble vitamins due to interference of absorption may be seen with the prolonged use of:

Back 251

petrolatum-type-cathartics

Front 252

The medication that is used to treat stomach ulcers by enhancing the natural gastromucosal defense mechanisms is:

Back 252

misoprostil

Front 253

An emetic that may be administered by the conjunctival sac of the eye is:

Back 253

apomorphine

Front 254

Confinement is mandatory after treatment for which of the following parasitisms as severe pulmonary symptoms relating to thromboembolism may result after exertion.

Back 254

heartworms

Front 255

As wormers, the benzamidazoles are considered braod spectrum in activity

Back 255

TRUE

Front 256

Considering the medications listed below, a benzimidizole worming agent is:

Back 256

thiabendazole

Front 257

Which of the following is a topical agent that is used in the prevention of heartworm disease and in the control of fleas, ear mites, sarcoptic mange, canine tick infestation, and feline intestinal hookworm and roundworm infections.

Back 257

selamectin

Front 258

These topical insecticides, whose natural compound originates from the extract of a flower, come in a variety of formulations and are known for their quick "knock down" effects.

Back 258

pyrethrins

Front 259

Which antiparasitic agent is toxic at higher doses, sometimes producing fatalities, to some collies and members of the collie-mix breeds?

Back 259

ivermectin

Front 260

The oral and injectable insect development inhibitor that controls flea populations by breaking the life cycle at the egg stage is:

Back 260

lufenuron

Front 261

Which of the following worming agents is the most effective against liver flukes?

Back 261

albendazole

Front 262

Heartworm prevention in the dog is a primary indication for the use of:

Back 262

milbemycin

Front 263

It is recommended by the manufacturer that imidacloprid not be applied more than once every

Back 263

7 days

Front 264

The macrocyclic lactones that are useful in the prevention of heartworm disease are derived from a:

Back 264

bacteria

Front 265

The antibiotic that can cause a rare butpotentially fatal blood disease in humans that has resulted in avoidance ofdirect human contact is:

Back 265

chloramphenicol

Front 266

The antibiotic agent that should not be administered toyoung animals as it may cause tooth discoloration is:

Back 266

tetracycline

Front 267

Whenadministering ___________ capsules orally, follow with water or food to lessenthe possibility of esophageal strictures.

Back 267

doxycycline

Front 268

The antibiotic agent that is useful in the treatment ofgiardia infections is:

Back 268

metranidazole

Front 269

The antibiotic that may be avoided in Dobermans andRotweilers due to the occurrence of polyarthritis is:

Back 269

trimethoprin-sulfa

Front 270

The cephalosporin antibiotic that is not given orally andused IM or IV for more serious infections is:

Back 270

cefazolin

Front 271

Thetype of antibiotics that have been associated with kidney damage throughcrystal formation are:

Back 271

sulfonamides

Front 272

The antibiotic that has been associated with the developmentof keratoconjunctivits sicca is:

Back 272

trimethoprim/sulfa

Front 273

Considering the antibiotics list below, the agent that wouldlikely have the greatest effectiveness against pseudomonas infections is:

Back 273

enrofloxacin

Front 274

The antibiotic that has been associated with abnormalcartilage formation during the rapid growth phase of puppies is:

Back 274

enrofloxacin

Front 275

All microorganisms are harmful or disease producing (pathogenic.

Back 275

FALSE

Front 276

Bacteria are classified as either gram positive or gram negative based on their ability to absorb gentian violet dye into their cell walls

Back 276

TRUE

Front 277

The group of antibiotics that is considered bacteristatic is the

Back 277

tetracyclines

Front 278

In general, when antibiotics are prescribed, the minimum number of days for duration of treatment is:

Back 278

5 days

Front 279

Infections originating in hospitals or clinics are termed:

Back 279

nosicomial

Front 280

Low or sub-therapeutic doses of antibiotics is likely to lead to:

Back 280

resistance of bacteria to the antibiotic

Front 281

An antibiotic that is potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic is:

Back 281

gentamicin

Front 282

The form of penicillin that is the longest acting is:

Back 282

benzathine penicillin

Front 283

The mechanism of action relating to bacteria that makes penicillins effective antibiotics is:

Back 283

blocking the bacterial cell wall synthesis

Front 284

The form of penicillin that is the most resistant to hydrolysis by stomach acid making this form of penicillin the most readily absorbed when given orally is:

Back 284

amoxicillin

Front 285

A clinical use of diethylstilbesterol therapy in the dog is:

Back 285

urinary incontinence

Front 286

The area of the body that produces thyroid stimulating hormone is the

Back 286

anterior pituitary gland

Front 287

a controlled substance is

Back 287

Winstrol V

Front 288

The type of medication that can be used in cattle to regulate the heat cycle to allow breeding times and subsequent calving times to be planned is:

Back 288

Prostaglandins

Front 289

The medication that is noted for having a protein anabolic effect is:

Back 289

stanazolol

Front 290

When treating canine patients for hypothyroidism, the medication is likely to be administered ________ each day.

Back 290

2 times a day

Front 291

The type of insulin that is administered IV in emergency situations such as ketoacidosis is:

Back 291

regular insulin

Front 292

Bone marrow suppression is a possible side effect that may be seen if a patient is given large doses of:

Back 292

diethylstibesterol (DES)

Front 293

Hyperthyroidism occurs most commonly in the:

Back 293

cat

Front 294

In cases of accidental overdose of NPH Insulin, the medication indicated is:

Back 294

50% dextrose

Front 295

Cyclosporin is best categorized as a/an:

Back 295

immunosuppressant

Front 296

A cell that is associated with the release of histamine is the

Back 296

mast cell

Front 297

A hormone that is indicated for use in the treatment of dystocia is:

Back 297

oxytocin

Front 298

diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of

Back 298

antidiuretic hormone

Front 299

Oxytocin is a hormone that can cause:

Back 299

milk let-down

Front 300

Cushing's Disease is related to:

Back 300

an excess of cortisone

Front 301

A glucocorticoid that is produced in a form that is not water soluble to have the effect of greatly increasing the duration of action is:

Back 301

triamcinolone acetonide (vetalog)

Front 302

Cortrysin is most closely related to:

Back 302

adrenal cortical stimulating hormone

Front 303

When prednisone or prednisolone tablets are used for the long term treatment of allergy conditions, the typical frequency of use is:

Back 303

every other day

Front 304

The area of the body that produces thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)is the:

Back 304

anterior pituitary gland

Front 305

The effects on the blood cells that would be noted after the use of cortisone in a canine patient is:

Back 305

eosinopenia

Front 306

As a medication, diphenhydramine is classified as a/an:

Back 306

antihistamine

Front 307

A common side effect seen in patients receiving enalapril (Enacard) is

Back 307

hypotension

Front 308

A group of cardiac medications that has heart block as a potential side effect is:

Back 308

cardiac clycosides

Front 309

A medication that is used in the emergency treatment of ventricular tachycardia is:

Back 309

lidocaine

Front 310

A medication that is a hypersomotic diuretic is:

Back 310

mannitol

Front 311

When Lasix is used as a diuretic, an electrolyte that should be monitored for depletion is:

Back 311

potassium

Front 312

A calcium channel blocker that has found usefulness in the treatment of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is:

Back 312

diltiazem

Front 313

In the clinical setting, a conductance disorder of the heart is referred to as a(n):

Back 313

cardiac arrhythmia

Front 314

A drug used in horses and large dogs to treat supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias is:

Back 314

quinidine

Front 315

When canine patients are medicated with diuretics, a side effect may be the increased elimination of:

Back 315

potassium

Front 316

It is important to be cautious of giving IV injection of vitamins a a bolus as this increases the risk of:

Back 316

anaphylactic reactions

Front 317

In small animal practice, central nervous system stimulants are likely to be used to produce:

Back 317

respiratory stimulantion

Front 318

The drug that is noted for producing long acting bronchodilating effects is:

Back 318

theophylline

Front 319

The fentanyl patch is a controlled substance that is a Schedule:

Back 319

II

Front 320

A medication that is noted for producing cough suppressing effects is:

Back 320

butorphanol

Front 321

The anticonvulsant drug that is usually available in grains is:

Back 321

phenobarbital

Front 322

The analgesic effect of opioids is due to the:

Back 322

interaction with receptors such as kappa and mu in the brain and spinal cord

Front 323

The NSAID group of medications will produce anti-inflammatory effects by:

Back 323

inhibition of prostaglandin systhesis

Front 324

The medication that has a mechanism of action that inhibits cyclooxygenase II to counteract inflammation while producing minimal, but some, effects on the stomach and kidney is:

Back 324

carprofen

Front 325

An antipyretic medication would have the action of relieving:

Back 325

fever

Front 326

The most likely clinically important side effect of NSAIDs is:

Back 326

gastrointestinal ulceration

Front 327

A major side effect of the use of phenobarbital as an anticonvulsant is dose dependent:

Back 327

respiratory depression

Front 328

A side effect that may be seen with oral phenobarbital administration for treatment of epilepsy is:

Back 328

polydipsia

Front 329

The drug that is noted to be an alpha blocker is

Back 329

acepromazine

Front 330

The division of the nervous system that alpha, beta-1 and beta-2 receptors are specifically associated with is the:

Back 330

sympathetic

Front 331

The types of drugs that may result in an increase in intra-ocular pressure and are contraindicated in certain types of glaucoma are the:

Back 331

anticholinergics

Front 332

Considering the autonomic nervous system, stimulation of receptors that will result in powerful vasoconstriction are termed:

Back 332

alpha

Front 333

The drug that would be classified as a cholinergic agent due to its stimulating effect on the parasympathetic nervous system is:

Back 333

neostigmine

Front 334

A neurotramsmitter for the sympathetic nervous system is:

Back 334

epinephrine

Front 335

The two classifications of medications that have similar effect on the eye in that they cause dilation of the pupil are the:

Back 335

anticholinergics and sympathomimetics

Front 336

The common signs of organophosphate overdose such as miosis and breathing difficulties are due the organophosphate agent affecting:

Back 336

anticholinesterase

Front 337

All of the following are anticholinergic drugs EXCEPT:

Back 337

dexamethasaone

Front 338

A medication that may be used to produce local hemostasis as an aid in controlling capillary bleeding in highly vascular tissue is:

Back 338

epinephrine

Front 339

Alpha receptor stimulation would likely result in:

Back 339

splenic contraction