Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
190 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Great Circle (define)
|
a circle formed on the surface of a sphere by the intersection of a plane that passes through the center of the sphere. (shortest distance between two terrestrial points)
|
|
|
What is the term for a point where meridians and parallels cross?
|
Coordinates
|
|
|
True of False: Coordinates in ATC are written without degree or minute symbology and do not include seconds.
|
True
|
|
|
In which direction (relative to the equator or prime meridian respectively) do degrees of latitude and longitude increase?
|
Latitude - Increase outward from the equator (bottom to top in northern hemisphere) Longitude - Increase from right to left (in the western hemisphere) |
|
|
How are the coordinates "3427N10536W" read?
|
34 degrees, 27 minutes north latitude 105 degrees, 36 minutes west longitude |
|
|
A circle is how many degrees? A degree is how many minutes? A minute is how many seconds? |
A circle=360 degrees, one degree=60 minutes, one minute=60 seconds
|
|
|
When coordinates are used to define a position, is latitude or longitude stated first?
|
Latitude
|
|
|
How are these coordinates read: 29*40'N, 35*53'W ?
|
29 degrees, 40 minutes north latitude 35 degrees, 53 minutes west longitude |
|
|
How are these coordinates read: 45*35' N, 82*43'22"E ?
|
45 degrees, 35 minutes north latitude, 82 degrees, 43 minutes, 22 seconds east longitutde
|
|
|
The reference line for measuring north south distances is?
|
The equator
|
|
|
Great Circle Route (define)
|
The shortest distance to between two points on a sphere (The Earth), is the most direct route over the Earth's surface
|
|
|
Rhumb Line (define)
|
is a line which makes the same angle with each meridian of longitude and is longer than a great circle route
|
|
|
1 NM is equal to:
|
6,080 feet, 1.15 statute miles, 1 minute of latitude
|
|
|
1 SM is equal to:
|
5,280 feet, 0.87 nautical miles
|
|
|
Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is also known as?
|
Zulu Time
|
|
|
True or False: Zulu time is used for all FAA operations; however, VFR pilots may use local time
|
True
|
|
|
An aircraft departs Oklahoma City at 9 PM (CST) and travels for 3 hours to arrive in Seattle, WA (PST). What was the aircraft's arrival time in UTC? |
0600z |
|
|
If it is 1300z in Philadelphia (EST), what local time would it be in San Francisco (PST)?
|
0500L
|
|
|
At 1 PM EDT in New York City, the time is _________ UTC?
|
1700Z (Remember daylight savings time -1 hour)
|
|
|
Indicated Airpseed is shown on __________ and used in _____________
|
The aircraft's airspeed indicator Pilot/Controller Communications |
|
|
True Airspeed (define) and is used for? |
Speed of the aircraft relative to an undisturbed air mass. Used in: Flight Planning and enroute portion of flight (Flight progress strips) |
|
|
Ground Speed (define)
|
Speed of an aircraft relative to the surface of the Earth. (True airspeed corrected for the effects of wind)
|
|
|
Mach Number (define)
|
The ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound, expressed in decimal form
|
|
|
Given a constant true airspeed, indicated airspeed decreases with increases in __________ and __________
|
Altitude, Temperature
|
|
|
What is the relationship between distance, speed, and time in equation form?
|
Distance= Speed x Time
|
|
|
True or False: Wind affects true airspeed
|
False, wind affects ground speed, but not true airspeed
|
|
|
Explain the difference between True Course and Track
|
True Course is the aircraft's intended path over the Earth's surface whereas track is the actual path that aircraft has flown over the Earth's surface.
|
|
|
Drift Angle is the difference between an Aircraft's ______________ and its _______________
|
True Course, Track
|
|
|
The wind correction angle is the opposite of the _________
|
Drift Angle
|
|
|
Describe what TC +/- WCA = TH means
|
True course plus/minus wind correction angle equals true heading
|
|
|
What is variation?
|
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north
|
|
|
Isogonic Lines (define)
|
Lines that connect points of equal difference between true and magnetic north
|
|
|
Agonic Line (define)
|
A line that connect points of zero variation between true and magnetic north
|
|
|
How many agonic lines are there in the U.S. ?
|
One
|
|
|
For eastern variation you should __________ degrees of variation
|
Subtract
|
|
|
For western variation you should __________ degrees of variation
|
Add
|
|
|
Explain: TH +/- VAR = MH
|
True heading plus/minus magnetic variation equals magnetic heading
|
|
|
Magnetic Deviation (define)
|
The error of a magnetic compass due to magnetic influence in the structure or equipment of the aircraft
|
|
|
Explain MH +/- DEV = CH
|
Magnetic heading plus/minus magnetic deviation equals compass heading
|
|
|
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north at any given place is called _________
|
Variation
|
|
|
A line of equal magnetic variation is called a(n) _________ line
|
Isogonic
|
|
|
What term denotes a magnetic compass error that is caused by materials within the aircraft which possess magnetic properties?
|
Magnetic Deviation
|
|
|
True heading is true course corrected for the effects of ___________
|
Wind
|
|
|
Explain: TC +/- WCA = TH TH +/- VAR= MH MH +/- DEV = CH |
True course plus/minus wind correction angle equals true heading. True heading plus/minus magnetic variation equals magnetic heading. Magnetic heading plus/minus magnetic deviation equals compass heading. |
|
|
Dead Reckoning (define)
|
navigation of an airplane solely by means of computations (based on airspeed, course, heading, wind direction, speed, groundspeed, and elapsed time) |
|
|
Pilotage (define)
|
The determination of an aircraft's position by identification of prominent landmarks from their position on a chart. (flying landmark to landmark by visual reference only)
|
|
|
What are the eight types of NAVAIDs available for use?
|
NDB, VOR, TACAN, DME, VORTAC, ILS, INS, GNSS |
|
|
Non-Directional Radio Beacon (NDB) (define)
|
A L/MF or UHF (typically LF/MF) radio beacon transmitting non-directional signals allowing an aircraft with appropriate equipment "home or track" to or from the station
|
|
|
What are some disadvantages of NDBs?
|
Do not provide radials (non-directional), prone to disturbances from lighting, precipitation, static, etc. Can experience interference from distant stations at night.
|
|
|
How are all NDBs, except compass locators identified?
|
Three letter identifier in morse code
|
|
|
VHF Omni-Directional Range (VOR) (define)
|
A ground-based electronic navigational aid, transmitting very high frequency navigational signals, 360 degrees in azimuth, oriented to magnetic north.
|
|
|
True or false: The VOR is the primary navigational facility for civil aviation in the NAS.
|
True
|
|
|
What are the three classes of VORs?
|
Terminal (T) Low Altitude (L) High Altitude (H) |
|
|
Complete the VOR(VORTAC/TACAN) Service Volumes. Class Altitudes Distance T L H H H H |
T - 12,000 and below 25 miles L - Below 18,000 40 miles H - Below 14,500 40 Miles H - 14,500-17,999 100 Miles H - 18,000 - FL450 130 Miles H - Above FL450 100 Miles |
|
|
What is the only way to positively identify a VOR?
|
By its Morse Code identification or by the automatic voice identification
|
|
|
A VOR Transmission pattern is __________' A. Omni-directional B. Non-directional C. Fan Shaped |
A. Omni-Directional
|
|
|
A VOR station projects ___________ A. 360 usable true radials B. 360 usable magnetic radials C. an infinite number of bearings |
B. 360 usable magnetic radials
|
|
|
What are the different classes of VORs?
|
Terminal, Low, High
|
|
|
TACAN (define)
|
An ultra-high frequency electronic navigation aid which provides continuous indications of bearing and distance to the TACAN station. (Essentially a Military VOR transmitting in the UHF frequency range)
|
|
|
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) provides what type of distance from the navaid to the aircraft? |
Slant Range
|
|
|
What is a VORTAC?
|
A NAVAID with a collocated VOR and TACAN.
|
|
|
What three services does the VORTAC provide all at one site?
|
VOR azimuth TACAN azimuth TACAN distance (DME) |
|
|
What DME equipment on the ground is required to respond to the aircraft interrogator?
|
Transponder
|
|
|
What type of guidance does an ILS provide to an inbound aircraft?
|
Course (localizer) and altitude (glideslope) guidance
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a marker beacon?
|
To provide range information along the approach path. (Indicates where the aircraft is along the approach path)
|
|
|
A localizer operates in what frequency band? The glideslope?
|
Localizer - VHF Glideslope - UHF |
|
|
The localizer signal is usable at 18nm, between an altitude of __________ above the highest terrain along the course line and _________ above the antenna site
|
1,000 feet, 4,500 feet
|
|
|
Regarding localizer service volume: Proper off-course indications are provided how many degrees to either side of the centerline at 18 NM? 10 NM? |
10 degrees at 18 NM up to 35 degrees at 10 NM |
|
|
Can an ILS approach be flown without an operable localizer?
|
No
|
|
|
How far from the approach end of the runway is a glideslope usually positioned?
|
1,000 feet
|
|
|
What two marker beacons are generally associated with an ILS approach?
|
Outer marker, Middle Marker
|
|
|
_________ Is a totally self-contained navigation system that provides aircraft positon and navigation information based on aircraft movement
|
INS Inertial Navigation System
|
|
|
INS Systems must be "aligned" when?
|
Prior to aircraft departure
|
|
|
INS accuracy deteriorates at what rate?
|
1-2 nautical miles per hour
|
|
|
What does GNSS stand for?
|
Global Navigation Satellite System
|
|
|
The GPS constellation consists of how many satellites?
|
24 satellites
|
|
|
How many satellites are necessary to establish accurate: three-dimensional position? |
4 satellites for three dimensions |
|
|
Who is responsible for operating the GPS satellite constellation?
|
The Department of Defense (DoD)
|
|
|
What are the three systems used in aviation to confirm and improve GPS accuracy?
|
Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS) Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) |
|
|
A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids
|
RNAV (Area Navigation)
|
|
|
A predetermined geographical position used for route/instrument approach definition, progress reports, published VFR routes, or visual reporting points that are defined relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates
|
Waypoint
|
|
|
Victor airways are established in what class airspace and generally at what altitudes?
|
Class E, from 1,200 AGL up to but not including 18,000 MSL
|
|
|
Jet routes are established through what altitudes?
|
From 18,000 MSL to FL450 inclusive
|
|
|
What are the two types of RNAV routes?
|
RNAV Q and RNAV Tango
|
|
|
What are the major components of a pitot-static system?
|
The pitot tube and impact pressure chamber, the static vent and static pressure chamber, and all associated lines
|
|
|
What instruments on the aircraft are pitot-static instruments?
|
Altimeter, Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator
|
|
|
What is the only self-contained, direction-seeking instrument in an aircraft? |
The magnetic compass
|
|
|
What instruments in an aircraft are considered gyroscopic instruments?
|
The heading indicator, the turn coordinator, and the attitude indicator
|
|
|
Gyroscopic instruments are usually operated by one of three sources of energy, what are they?
|
Vacuum, Pressure, or Electrical
|
|
|
True or False: The turn coordinator is an electrically driven gyroscopic instrument
|
True, as a redundancy the turn coordinator is usually NOT driven by an engine driven vacuum or pressure source
|
|
|
What are the two fundamental properties of gyroscopic action?
|
Rigidity in Space and Precession
|
|
|
The turn coordinator is actually what two instruments combined into one?
|
A rate of turn indicator, and an inclinometer
|
|
|
What is a standard rate of turn?
|
3 degrees per second/ full turn in 2 minutes
|
|
|
True or False: The heading indicator and directional gyro are the same thing
|
True
|
|
|
The directional gyro is a mechanical instrumental designed to facilitate the use of the _______________
|
Magnetic Compass
|
|
|
What may be obtained from the attitude indicator? A. Rate of turn B. Degrees of Bank C. Height above sea level |
B. Degrees of Bank
|
|
|
The ADF is used to navigate using what?
|
Non-directional radio beacons (NDBs)
|
|
|
The horizontal situation indicator (HSI) is a combination of what three instruments?
|
The heading indicator, the VOR/LOC indicator, and the glideslope indicator
|
|
|
The VOR course deviation needle indicates the aircraft's positon in relation to the selected ______ A. Heading B. Radial C. Bearing |
B. Radial |
|
|
How many numbers are displayed on a transponder? What range of numbers is provided for each digit on a transponder? How many possible codes are on a transponder?
|
4 numbers, 0 through seven, 4,096 possible codes
|
|
|
_________ is a computer system that uses a large database to allow routes to be programmed and fed into the system by means of a data loader.
|
Flight Management System (FMS)
|
|
|
Combines all primary flight instruments into a single display
|
Primary Flight Display
|
|
|
___________ is a self-contained, airborne collision avoidance system that is intended to provide a backup for the separation services provided by ATC.
|
Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)
|
|
|
True or False: ATC is not responsible for providing standard separation between aircraft responding to a TCAS RA and any other aircraft, airspace, terrain, or obstructions
|
True - ATC is NOT responsible for standard separation in this instance
|
|
|
True or False: When an aircraft under your control jurisdiction informs you it is responding to a TCAS RA, you should issue control instructions contrary to the RA if you feel it is necessary.
|
False - Never issue clearances that are contrary to a TCAS RA
|
|
|
Hypoxia (Define)
|
Occurs when the oxygen available to body tissues is insufficient to meet their needs
|
|
|
Hyperventilation (define)
|
An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed into the lungs
|
|
|
________ is the loss of proper bearings; state of mental confusion as to position, location, or movement relative to the position of the earth.
|
Spatial Disorientation (Vertigo)
|
|
|
_________ occur when an aircraft returns to straight-and-level flight but the pilot feels compelled to lean into an imaginary turn which is still sensed by the inner ear.
|
Leans
|
|
|
_______ occurs when a pilot in a turn makes a sudden head movement |
Coriolis illusion
|
|
|
True or False: Sectional Aeronautical Charts are used by slow and medium speed aircraft in VFR conditions
|
True
|
|
|
How often are Sectionals published?
|
Every 6 months
|
|
|
What is the map scale of a sectional aeronautical chart?
|
1:500,000 or 1 inch=6.86 nautical miles
|
|
|
What is MEF on a sectional?
|
Maximum Elevation Figures - the highest elevation of a known feature to be found within that particular quadrangle of the chart
|
|
|
Terrain contours change color every how many feet of elevation?
|
1,000 feet.
|
|
|
Basic contour lines are spaced every how many feet on a sectional? |
500-foot intervals
|
|
|
Runways greater than how many feet are no longer circled on a sectional chart?
|
8,069 feet
|
|
|
Airports with a control tower are always depicted in what color on a sectional chart?
|
Blue
|
|
|
In the airport data "450 L 51 122.7" what does the L indicate?
|
The airport is lighted
|
|
|
In the airport data "4500 L 72 122.95" What does 4500 mean?
|
Airport elevation above sea level
|
|
|
The following lines indicated what type of airspace on a sectional chart? Solid Blue Solid Magenta Dashed Blue Dashed Magenta Solid Magenta (feathered) Solid Blue (feathered) |
SB - Class B SM - Class C DB - Class D DM - Class E at surface SMF - Class E at 700 AGL SBF - Class E at 1200 AGL |
|
|
What colors are : Prohibited, Restricted, Warning Areas? MOA and Alert Areas? |
- Hatched Blue - Hatched Magenta |
|
|
The height of an obstruction is always listed in MSL or AGL?
|
Both
|
|
|
What does a blue filled-in circle with a white H in the communication box of a NAVAID mean?
|
HIWAS can be received the voice portion of the navigational aid
|
|
|
What is the map scale for a VFR Terminal Area Chart? (TAC)
|
1:250,000 or 1 in=3.43NM
|
|
|
A major difference between a sectional aeronautical chart and a terminal area chart is that the TAC ________________ A. Provides greater detail and a larger scale B. Is used primarily for IFR flight in the terminal area C. Uses a different set of symbols for manmade as well as topographical features |
A. Provides greater detail and a larger scale
|
|
|
How often is the chart supplement published?
|
Every 56 days
|
|
|
En Route low altitude charts are used under what general flight conditions?
|
IFR flight under 18,000 MSLH
|
|
|
How often are En route Low/High charts published?
|
Every 56 days
|
|
|
How many total low en route charts are available?
|
36 charts
|
|
|
What does a star in an airport data block indicate?
|
Part-time or by request status
|
|
|
What criteria must be met for an airport to appear on a Low Altitude En Route Chart?
|
Must have an instrument approach OR a hard surface runway of at least 3,000 feet
|
|
|
Airports with approved instrument approaches are what color on a Low Altitude En route chart? With no instrument approach? |
With - Blue and Green Without - Brown |
|
|
When included in the airport data on a Low Altitude En Route Chart, what does (A) mean?
|
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is available
|
|
|
VHF/UHF NAVAIDS are depicted in what color? LF/MF ? |
VHF/UHF - Black LF/MF - Brown |
|
|
A frequency which is underlined in a communications box indicates that ___________
|
There is no voice transmitted on that frequency
|
|
|
A (T) depicted next to a NAVAID indicates?
|
The facility is a terminal class navaid
|
|
|
What does MOCA mean?
|
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
|
|
|
A MOCA only guarantees acceptable navigational signal coverage within how many miles of the station?
|
22 NM or 25 SM
|
|
|
What does MEA stand for?
|
Minimum En Route Altitude
|
|
|
What function does an MEA serve?
|
MEA is the minimum altitude which provides for navigational signal coverage and obstacle clearance between two radio fixes.
|
|
|
What does MAA stand for?
|
Maximum Authorized Altitude
|
|
|
True or False: An MAA is the highest altitude at which adequate reception of navigational aid signals is ensured. |
True
|
|
|
What does MRA stand for?
|
Minimum Reception Altitude
|
|
|
What does an MRA denote?
|
The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined
|
|
|
What does MCA stand for?
|
Minimum Crossing Altitude
|
|
|
What does an MCA do?
|
Requires an aircraft to cross a fix at a certain minimum altitude when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA
|
|
|
A compulsory reporting point looks the same as any other NAVAID, fix, or intersection except, the compulsory reporting point is _____________
|
Filled in (Completely black)
|
|
|
What does OROCA stand for?
|
Off route obstruction clearance altitude
|
|
|
The OROCA ensures an aircraft of _________ coverage. A. Obstruction clearance, but no NAVAID/communications B. NAVAID signal reception, but no communications C. Communications coverage, but no NAVAID signal |
A. Obstruction clearance, but no NAVAID/communications
|
|
|
Light brown shading on a Low En Route Altitude Chart means what?
|
Uncontrolled airspace
|
|
|
A mode C area on a low IFR chart is depicted by __________
|
A solid blue outline
|
|
|
En Route High Altitude Charts are for flight at what altitudes?
|
At or above 18,000 MSL
|
|
|
En Route High Altitude Charts are published how often?
|
Every 56 days
|
|
|
What is the map scale on High Altitude Charts?
|
1"=20 NM
|
|
|
For any airport to be depicted on a High Altitude En Route chart what criteria must be met?
|
Must have a hard surface runway of at least 5,000 feet.
|
|
|
Are MOAs depicted on a High Altitude En Route Chart?
|
No, MOAs only exist below 18,000 MSL (never in Class A airspace) thus they are not depicted
|
|
|
How many High En Route charts cover the contiguous US?
|
12 Charts
|
|
|
What are the standard MEAs and MAAs on a High Altitude chart (unless otherwise stated)?
|
MEA - 18,000 MSL MAA - 45,000 MSL |
|
|
If an MEA is stated in the following format what does that indicate? MEA-00000G MEA-00000D |
(G) - MEA for GNSS RNAV aircraft (D) - MEA for DME/DME/IRU RNAV aircraft |
|
|
How often are IFR area charts published?
|
Every 56 days
|
|
|
The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish ________________ A. Visual landmarks for use in congested areas B. Terminal data for IFR flights C. Navigation information using a smaller scale than the En Route Low Altitude Charts |
B. Terminal data for IFR flights
|
|
|
What are the two types of DPs? (Departure Procedures)
|
SIDs (Standard Instrument Departures) and ODPs (Obstacle Departure Procedures)
|
|
|
Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) (Define)
|
A preplanned IFR departure procedure printed for pilot use in graphical or textual form to provide Obstruction Clearance. May be flown without ATC clearance unless an alternate procedure has been assigned by ATC.
|
|
|
Standard Instrument Departure (SID) (Define) and explain Purpose. |
A preplanned IFR ATC departure procedure printed for pilot/controller use in graphical form to provide obstruction clearance AND a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. Designed for system enhancement to expedite traffic flow and reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must be received to fly a SID. |
|
|
SIDs are listed in what order in Terminal Procedures publication?
|
City then Airport
|
|
|
What are the two types of SIDs?
|
Pilot Navigation and Vector
|
|
|
What are the three sections of a SID/STAR chart? |
Margin, Planview, and Textual description
|
|
|
True or False: (SID) ATC must have radar contact with an aircraft in order to provide vectors.
|
True
|
|
|
What three times must a pilot notify ATC in regards to not accepting a SID?
|
- They cannot comply with the SID - They do not possess the SID chart - They do not wish to fly a SID |
|
|
If a pilot cannot accept a SID, what should ATC do? |
Clear the aircraft via the filed route if able, or via a PDR (preferential departure route)
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a STAR procedure?
|
Expedite ATC arrival procedures and to facilitate transition between the en route and instrument approach environments. STARs are long range planning tools that funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors.
|
|
|
Standard Instrument Approach Procedures (SIAPs) are designed to __________________
|
Provide an IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made.
|
|
|
True or false: A SIAP cannot be flown in VFR conditions.
|
False, a SIAP may be executed in VFR conditions
|
|
|
What are the four segments of an instrument approach?
|
Initial, Intermediate, Final, and Missed
|
|
|
When does an initial approach transition to the intermediate?
|
Upon interception of the inbound course
|
|
|
When does a SIAP intermediate segment end?
|
At the FAF (Final approach fix)W
|
|
|
When does a SIAP final segment end?
|
The point a safe landing can be made, or the beginning of the missed approach procedure
|
|
|
What are the primary components of an ILS?
|
Localizer, Glideslope, Marker BeaconsWhat
|
|
|
What are the seupplementary components of an ILS? |
Approach lights, Compass locators, DME
|
|
|
What are the six sections of a IAP chart?
|
Margin, pilot briefing, planview, airport diagram, profile view, minimums section
|
|
|
Where are the lat/long coordinates listed on IAP?
|
In the bottom margin
|
|
|
What is the MSA on an IAP?
|
Minimum Safe Altitude, an emergency altitude to be used within 25 NM of the NAVAID upon which the approach is predicated. Ensures 1,000 feet obstruction clearance.
|
|
|
Decision altitude (DA) and Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA): Which is associated with a precision approach?
|
Decision Altitude
|
|
|
What is the final approach fix depicted as on a precision approach? Non-precision approach?
|
"Lightning bolt", Maltese Cross
|
|
|
What are the two types of precision approaches?
|
ILS and PAR
|
|
|
Height Above Touchdown Zone (HAT) (define)
|
The height of the decision altitude or minimum descent altitude above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone
|
|
|
Height Above Airport (HAA) (define)
|
The height of the Minimum Descent Altitude above the published airport elevation
|
|
|
True or False: A visual approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually, clear of any clouds to the airport (Ceiling must be at or above 1,000 feet, and 3 SM visibility)
|
True
|
|
|
True or False: A contact approach is an approach wherein ATC authorizes an aircraft clear of clouds with at least 1 SM visibility to continue to the airport visually by reference to the ground, and deviate from the IAP
|
True
|
