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155 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What will happen if postoperative pain in rabbits is not alleviated?
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They won't eat or drink normally.
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WHat is an advantage of using metatomidine with ketamine for anesthesia or rodents/rabbits?
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It can be partially reversed using atipamezole allowing for a faster recovery.
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Postoperative analgesics should be given to rodents/rabbits to alleviate pain, but
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Opiods must be given with great care if a neurolotoanalgesic combination has been used for anesthesia.
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Why should glycopyrrolate should be used in rabiits, instead of atropine?
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Many rabbits have high levels a atropinase,so atropine may be relatively ineffective.
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How are rabbits best picked up?
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Around the shoulders.
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What is generally considered to be a good opiod analgesic of choice in smal mammals because of its longer duration of action?
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Buprenorphine.
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T or F. When performing inhaled anesthetic on rabbits using an induction chamber it is best to not administer preanesthetics to prevent respiratory depression.
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False.
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If the loss of skin elasticity in rodents due to dehydration, the patient is already how dehydrated?
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10%
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T or F. CRT is easy to assess in small mammals, but cannot be used in rabbits because of their small oral cavity size.
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False.
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What is the approximate blood volume of an adult mouse weighing 40 grams?
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3 ml
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What would eb the most important unwanted resultof the use of intraperitoneal anesthesia?
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prolonged recovery time.
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What is a common result in using inhalant anesthesia for anesthetic induction in rabbits?
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Prolonged breath holding
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Why can't the position of the eye be used to assess the depth of anesthesia in rodents?
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The position of the eye does not change during anesthesia.
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T or F. Preanesthetic bloodwork is usually done on small mammals and rabbits, but urine sample analysis is rarely performed because usrine is very difficult to obtain inthese patients.
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False.
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What is generally considered the safest and most effective method of providing general anesthsia in small rodents?
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Inhalant agents.
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When small rodents are anesthetized with injectable anesthetics, what else should be done?
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Oxygen should be administered because most anesthetics depress respiration.
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Beathing circuits in small rabiits shoul have what?
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Have low equipment dead space.
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What agent can be used to stimulate and provide ventilatory support for small mammals during anesthetic recovery?
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Doxapram.
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What NSAID can be used safely and effeectively to provide postoperative analgesia in small mammals?
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Meloxicam.
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what is a primary effect of mineralcorticoids?
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Excretion of potassium ions from the kidney.
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What is the stimulusfor the release of parathyroid hormone?
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low levels of clacium in the blood.
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What is the prinmary effect of calcitonin?
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Decreased blood calcium
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What is the primary stimulus for the release of glucocorticoids?
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ACTH
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What hormones regulate blood calcium?
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parathyroid hormone, calcitonin
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Where are hormones released by the neurohypophysis synthesized?
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Hypothalamus
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Cushing's is caused by what?
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an oversecretion of adrenal cortical hormones
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What is the primary target of glucagon?
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Liver
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What does diabetes insi[idus result from?
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hyposecretion of ADH
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What is the primary effect of parathyroid hormone?
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increase blood calcium
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What is the main target organ for ADH?
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Kidney
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What does glucagon do?
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It accelerates the conversion of glucogen into glucose.
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Does the kidney help regulate body temperature?
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No.
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What is the urinary bladder lined with?
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Transitional epitileal cells
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What is the first part of the renal tubule?
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Proximal convoluted tubule.
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What structures does urine pass through once it leaves the nephron?
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Collecting duct, calyces, renal pelvis, ureter
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What is the first step in uring formation?
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Glomerular filtraion
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Where are osmoreceptors measuring the water concentraion inthe body located?
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Hypothalamus.
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What helps regulate renal blood pressure?
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Juxtaglomerular apparatus
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What is the minimal amount of pain a patient can recognize?
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Pain threshold
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T or F. Among the anesthetic concerns for patients underoing a C-section, would be hyperoxemia, hypocarbia, and hypertension
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False.
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What agent shoould be avoided in C-sections because pediatric patients and neonatespoorly metabolize it?
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Diazepam
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WHich is the term used to describe the amount of blood that is being returned to the right atrium from systemic circulation?
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preload
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T or F. Hepatic or renal disease may increase the excretion of injectable anesthetic agents and much shorter recovery times may be seen inthose patients.
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False.
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What type of pain acts as a protective mechanism that incited individulas to move away from or avoid movement or contact with?
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Physiologic
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What agent would be most indicated for a patient with hepatic disease?
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Isoflurane
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What drug is used to prevent bradycardia in brachiocephalic patients?
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glycopyrrolate
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What is pain that is caused by a stimulus that does not normally cause pain?
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Allodynia.
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What drug is most commonly used in the treatment of cardiac arrest?
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epinephrine
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What is the initial drug of choice intreating a post anesthtic seizure?
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Diazepam
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What does the prescense of cyanosis in a patient indicate?
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inadequate tissue oxygenation
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For most precision vaporizers, a minimum flow rate of how many mL per minute is necessary for the accurate delivery of the anesthetic?
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500
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What are the physical and physiological signs that an animal might be too deeply anesthetized?
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<6BPM, CRT > 2 seconds, pal/cyanotic mucous membranes, bradycardia, weak pulse, systolic BP <80 mm Hg, cardiac arrhythmias, hypothermic, irregular QRS complexes or VPCs, absent reflexes, flaccid muscle tone, dilated pupils
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What are the common causes of pale mucous membranes in a potential anesthetic patient?
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Anesthetic too deep, hypothermic, in pain, blood loss during surgery, preexisting conditions
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Which drugs are most likely to cause hypotension in susceptible anesthetized patients?
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Acepromazine, inhalation agents.
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What are the possible causes of cyanosis in a patient?
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Not properly oxygenated or able to remove adequate CO2.
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Tachycardia is present if the heart rate during Stage III anesthesia is greater than how many bpm for a large dog?
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140
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Tachycardia is present if the heart rate during Stage III anesthesia is greater than how many bpm for a small dog?
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160
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Tachycardia is present if the heart rate during Stage III anesthesia is greater than how many bpm for a cat?
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200
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Tachycardia is present if the heart rate during Stage III anesthesia is greater than how many bpm for a horse?
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60
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Tachycardia is present if the heart rate during Stage III anesthesia is greater than how many bpm for a cow (or bull, or steer, or heifer)?
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100
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Bradycardia is defined a heart rate of less than how many to how many bpm in a dog?
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60-70
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Bradycardia is defined a heart rate of less than how many bpm in a cat?
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100
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What would, and would not be, the possible causes of bradycardia in a patient?
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Vagal stimulation, may be secondary to drug administration
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Which agents are the most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in anesthetic patients?
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opiods
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What are the signs of a possible impending cardiac arrest in a patient?
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Respiratory distress or arrest, cyanosis/dyspnea, prolonged CRT, arrythmia
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The authors of the Thomas and Lerche text recommend how many team member to run a Code, or perform CPCR?
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5
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What is the correct order of ABC’s for running CPCR on an aesthesia patient?
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CABDE
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If the rate of compressions on a closed chest dog undergoing CPCR is one or two compressions per second, that will result in a heart rate of how many bpm?
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100 BPM
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If two people are administering CPCR, once person should bag the patient every how many to how many seconds while the other person compresses the chest?
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10-12 seconds
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Internal or open chest massage will result in about what percent of normal cardiac output?
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70%
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Which drug is the most commonly used for the initial treatment of cardiac arrest?
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Epinephrine, vasopressin, atropine, dopamine, dobutamine.
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Which drug used during CPCR is specifically indicated to decrease myocardial parasympathetic tone?
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Atropine
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Sodium bicarbonate is no longer recommended for use during CPCR unless the patient specifically has which of the following conditions?
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hyperkalemia
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Which conditions or situations are likely to cause post anesthetic seizures in a patient?
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Use of ketamine, mylography, epilepsy, hypoglycemia.
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Which drugs, and the way they are given, would be the most likely to cause a prolonged recovery in an anesthetic patient?
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Intramuscular ketamine, repeated injections of barbiturates.
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Which drug is generally considered to be the initial drug of choice in treating post-anesthetic seizures?
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Diazepam
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What is the sequence of events associated with cardiac arrest and respiratory arrest?
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Respiratory: dyspnea/cyanosis, abnormal HB/CRT/pulse strength/pupil size; pulse ox fall below 90%. Cardiac: cyanosis/dyspnea/respiratory arrest/prolonged CRT/arrythmia
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Be able to define the term cardiac arrhythmia or cardiac dysrhythmia
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Refers to eletrocardiographic abnormalities.
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What special precautions should be taken with patients with cardiovascular and/or pulmonary disease?
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Preoxygenate 5 mins, diuretics, avoid agents that cause arrhythmias/depress myocardium, avoid overhydration.
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What is the preferred technique for the induction of anesthesia in patients with diaphragmatic hernias?
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Rapid induction (injectables).
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What is the drug of choice for treating tachyarrhythmias in dogs?
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Lidocaine or beta blockers.
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What is the drug of choice for treating tachyarrhythmias in cats?
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Beta blockers or calcium channel blockers.
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What is the drug of choice to treat pulmonary edema before the administration of anesthesia?
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Furosemide.
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What class of drugs would be most likely to depress the myocardium or exacerbate arrhythmias?
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Alpha-2 agonists and halothane.
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What types of conditions would pose a threat to a preanesthetic patient?
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Trauma patients, renal/cardiac/geriatric/liver/respiratory issues.
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What conditions would be likely to cause a cardiac arrhythmia?
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Chest trauma
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What is the formula for Arterial Blood Pressure?
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ABP= CO xSVR, with CO = HR x SV.
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What term is used to describe the amount of blood that is being returned to the right atrium from systemic circulation?
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Stroke volume.
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Know the various types of colloid solutions
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Hetastarch, Dextran 40 or 70, 10% Pentastarch, plasma, whole blood.
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Which drug can be used to stimulate respiration in neonatal patients after a cesarean section?
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Doxapram.
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What is the rapid shallow respiratory pattern that obese dogs and toy breeds often exhibit during anesthesia? This breathing pattern may result in what condition?
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Dyspnea.
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Sighthounds show an increased sensitivity to which class of anesthetic agents?
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Thiobarbiturates.
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What situation or condition will cause many brachiocephalic patients will exhibit bradycardia?
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Abnormally high parasympathetic tone.
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What drugs are used to prevent bradycardia in brachiocephalic patients?
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Atropine or glycopyrrolate
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According to the text, what is the preferred agent for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia in pediatric patients?
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Isoflurane
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A geriatric patient is one that has reached what % of its expected life expectancy?
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75
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What are, and are not, the inherent risks associated with performing anesthesia on a patient for a caesarean section?
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Aspiration of vomitus, decreased lung capacity, increased cardiac workload, physiologic anemia, poor regulation of BP, decreased anesthetic requirements (effet of progesterone and metoblites on GABA receptors).
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Which agent should be avoided for caesarian sections because pediatric patients and neonates poorly metabolize it?
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Diazepam
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How might you know that a patient is in pain during an ongoing surgical procedure?
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Sudden elevation in HR or respiratory rate
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What is the most appropriate drug for use by CRI to manage severe pain intraoperatively during the amputation of a forelimb because of a cancerous mass?
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Opiod
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A patient with hip dysplasia is scheduled for surgery. The medical record shows this is the patient’s third surgical procedure, and both times in the past, it exhibited wind-up pain postoperatively. What is the most appropriate drug to combine with an opioid for and intraoperative CRI?
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Ketamine or lidocaine
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A patient is in a cage recovering from the effects of anesthesia after undergoing surgery. What change(s) would be the most likely to be the first indication it is in pain?
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Restlessness w/without vocalization
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How often should you assess the pain threshold of a post surgical patient?
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At least every 2 hours.
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What type of pain acts as a protective mechanism and incites individuals to move away from the cause of potential tissue damage or to avoid movement or contact with external stimuli during a reparative phase?
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Physiologic pain.
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What type of pain is defined as pain caused by a stimulus that does not normally cause pain?
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Allodynia
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What type of pain originates from damage to bone, joints, muscle, or skin and is described by humans who feel it as localized, constant, sharp, aching, and throbbing?
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Somatic pain.
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What is an increased response to a stimulation that is normally painful either at the site of the injury or in surrounding undamaged tissue?
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Hyperalgesia.
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Which term means an increased sensitivity to sensation?
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Hyperesthesia.
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This term means the transaction, conduction, and CNS processing of nerve signals generated by the stimulation of certain receptors.
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Nociception.
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What is the minimal amount of pain that a patient can recognize?
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Pain threshold.
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o Waste products:
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urea, salts, water, and other soluble waste
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o Parts of the Urinary System
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kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, urethra.
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o Functions of the kidneys
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production of urine, maintain homeostasis, hormone production.
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o Acid-Base regulation
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removes hydrogen and bicarbonate ions from blood, secretes them in urine.
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o Location of the Kidneys
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dorsal abdominal area ventral to & on either side of the first few lumbar vertebrae.
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o Retroperitoneal:
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outside of peritoneal cavity
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o Anatomy of the Kidneys
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Fibrous connective tissue capsule. Hilus, renal pelvis, renal cortex, renal medulla, calyx
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o Hilus
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: indented area on medial side of kidney where ureters, nerves, blood/lymph vessels enter and leave the kidney.
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o Ureters:
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Muscular tubes that leave the kidneys at the hilus & connect to the urinary bladder. Move urine by peristaltic, smooth muscle contractions.
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o Renal pelvis
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funnel-shaped area inside the hilus. Forms beginning of ureter. Lined with transitional epithelial tissue.
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o Renal cortex
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outer portion of the kidney
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o Renal medulla
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inner portion around the renal pelvis.
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o The Nephron
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basic functional unit of the kidney. # per kidney varies. Consists of: renal corpuscle, proximal convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule.
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o Renal corpuscle
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: located in renal cortex. Filters blood in first stage of urine production. Composed of glomerulus surrounded by Bowman’s capsule
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o Glomerulus:
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: “tufts” of capillaries.
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o Bowman’s capsule
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double-walled capsule surrounding the glomerulus.
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o Capsular space
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space between the visceral and parietal layer.
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o Glomerular filtrate:
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: fluid filtered out of blood by glomerulus.
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o Proximal convoluted tubule:
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1st tube off of Bowman’s capsule. Lined with cuboidal epithelial cell with a brush border on lumen side.
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o Tubular filtrate
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AKA primitive urine, what the glomerular filtrate becomes.
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o Loop of Henle
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goes from PCT down into medulla, makes aU-turn, heads back to cortex. Descending: epithelial cells w/brush border, ascending thins to squamous cells.
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o Distal proximal tubule
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continuation of ascending Loop of Henle. Empties into collection ducts.
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o Collecting ducts
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carry tubular filtrate through medulla into renal pelvis.
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o Nerve Supply to the Kidney
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primarily from sympathetic portion of autonomic nervous system.
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o Blood supply to the Kidney
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Consists of renal artery, afferent glomerlar arterioles, glomerular capillaries, efferent golmerular capillaries, peritubular capillaries, renal vein.
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o Renal artery
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branches off abdominal portion of aorta, enters kidney at hilus.
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o Afferent glomerular arterioles:
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carries blood into the glomerular capillaries of renal corpuscle.
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o Glomerular capillaries
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filter some plasma out of the blood & put it in capsular space of Bowman’s capsule.
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o Efferent glomerular arterioles
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receive blood from glomerular capillaries.
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o Peritubular capillaries
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form from efferent glomerlar arterioles. Surrounds the rest of the nephron. Oxygen transfer to nephron cells takes place here. Tubular reasorption and secretion also occurs.
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o Renal vein
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leaves the kidney at the hilus, joins the abdominal portion of the vena cava, the flows to right side of the heart.
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o Filtration
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glomerular capillaries have large fenestrations, high BP forces some plasma out of blood into capsule space of Bowman’s capsule.
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o Reabsorption
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mechanism to get useful substances from the tubules of the nephron into blood of the peritubular capillaries.
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o Secretion of wastes
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Transferring waste from peritubular capillaries to interstitial fluid to tubular epithelial cells into the tubular filtrate tubules.
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o Filtration of blood
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occurs in renal corpuscle
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o Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR):
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how fast plasma is filtered as it passes through the golmerulus.
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o Sodium cotransport
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glucose and amino acids attach to sam protein as sodium and go into epithelial cells by passive transport.
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o Urine volume regulation
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determined by amount of water contained in tubular filtrate when it reaches the renal pelvis. Controlled by ADH and aldosterone.
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o Anatomy of the Ureters
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3 layers: outer fibrous layer, (smooth) muscular layer, inner epithelial layer lined with transitional epithelium.
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o Function of the Ureters
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continuously moves urine from kidneys to urinary bladder.
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o Anatomy of the Urinary Bladder
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2 parts: muscular sac, neck. Lined with transitional epithelial cells.
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o Functions of the Urinary Bladder
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Collect, store, and release urine.
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o Control of Urination
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2-3 steps: urine accumulation, muscle contraction, sphincter muscle control.
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o Micturation
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AKA urination or uresis.
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o Anatomy and Function of the Urethra:
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Continuation of bladder neck. Runs through pelvic canal. Function: Carries urine from urinary bladder to outside environment.
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