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220 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
short wavelength equals frequency sound, patient penetration, and image resolution |
high; lower; increased |
|
the cathode is |
negatively charged and the site of electron production |
|
in an xray tube, electrons are boiled and then accelerate rapidly toward the |
positively charged anode |
|
the smaller the focal spot, the____ the image |
more distinct |
|
the x-ray beam is |
stronger toward the cathode side |
|
the milliamperage (mA) selector controls the |
volume of electrons |
|
the peak kilovoltage (kVp) selector controls the |
speed of the electrons |
|
while taking an x-ray, to decrease patient motion blur, you want the milliamperage and time settings required to arrive at the desired milliampere seconds (mAs) |
highest; shortest |
|
having a short exposure time does all of the following except |
decrease the milliamperage requirement |
|
all of the following are examples of acceptable means of labeling a radiograph except |
a permanent marker on film after developing |
|
what is the average life span of an intesifying screen |
10 to 12 years |
|
what is the yearly maximum exposure dose for occupationally exposed individuals |
5 rem |
|
what is the quality factor for diagnostic radiation |
1 |
|
what percent of sound is reflected when ultrasound beams intersect air |
100 |
|
you need to administer radionuclides to a large dog. you wisely choose the route as primary route of administration |
IV |
|
as you prepare star, a german shepherd, for a computed tomography (CT) scan, you arrange him in which position |
ventrodorsal or dorsoventral recumbent position |
|
you have been asked to keep track of how often and for what purpose CT scanning is used in your veterinary hospital. at the end of the year, you are most likely to discover that it has been most frequently used for |
head and spinal examination |
|
you use less concentrated contrast media when performing CT scanning (as opposed to standard radiography) because |
CT scanning is more contrast sensitive |
|
when is it safe to bring ferromagentic metal into or near a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) unit |
it is never safe |
|
radiographic density is controlled primarily by |
milliamperage |
|
radiographic contrast is controlled primarily by |
peak kilovoltage |
|
the change in an x-ray beam's strength as a result of passing through matter is called |
attenuation |
|
fast-speed films produce x-rays with detail |
increased |
|
in digital radiography systems, "ghost" images or artifacts |
occur when one is imaging objects that require a very high exposure |
|
the apperance of linear striations, or planking, in the background of a digital radiographic image is |
due to plate saturation |
|
when compared with film radiography systems, both computed radiography (CR) and DR |
use the same principles of radiation protection |
|
which of the following is not a characteristic of portable radiographic units |
they all use a grid |
|
scatter radiation can be described as |
lower-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structure in the patient's body |
|
which of the following describes the potter-bucky diaphragm gril |
the movement of the diaphragm is timed to suit a particular exposure, and the grid moves across the film during the exposure so that the grid lines are not visible on the resulting film |
|
barium sulfate is an example of a |
insoluble inert radiopaque medium |
|
which of the following statements is true of mechanical restraints for use in imaging |
once the animal is in the proper position, the images must be taken rapidly because mechanical restraints cannot keep the animal still for more than a few seconds |
|
the standard format for digital imaging and communications in medicine, called, makes it possible to send an image to another location electronically even though the two locations don't possess the same imaging equipment or software |
DICOM |
|
the is a grid whose movement is timed to suit a particular exposure, moving across the film in such a way that the grid lines are not visible on the resulting film |
potter-bucky diaphragm |
|
pathogensis is |
a sequence of events that leads to or underlies a disease |
|
which of the following tissues breaks down fastest after death |
retina |
|
the first step in performing a necropsy should be to |
review the signalment and history |
|
in order to remove the tongue, larynx, and associated structures, which bones must be cut |
hyoid bones |
|
you are extracting tissue sample for possible virus isolation. ideal specimens for this purpose should come from all of the following except |
muscle |
|
according to the author, which of the following chambers of the heart should be opened first |
right auricle |
|
ruminants are necropsied with their body in which position |
left lateral recumbent |
|
which of the following joints is the most difficult to access in the necropsy of the horse |
coffin |
|
which of the following animals should be rinsed in warm soapy water before starting the necropsy |
a bird suspected of having psittacosis |
|
the advantages of freezing a body prior to the necropsy is that it |
has no advantage and is contraindicated |
|
when fixing tissues for histopathologic examination, what should be the ratio between the volume of the tissue and the fixative |
1:10 |
|
which of the following fixatives is used when preserving whole brains for hisopathologic examination |
50% formalin |
|
which of the following techniques should be used when performing a necropsy on very small birds |
after opening body cavities, fix the entire carcass |
|
you are performing necropsy on a cat and need to inflate the lungs to achieve fine fixation. which of the following substances will you use for this |
formalin |
|
which of the following is the most common fixative used in histopathologic examination |
10% buffered formalin |
|
which of the following is not an important step before performing a necropsy |
keep the body frozen until the necropsy can be performed to prevent rapid decay |
|
which of the following nerves must be avoided when giving intramuscular injection in a cat or dog |
sciatic |
|
which of the following urine collection techniques is most suitable for bacterial culture |
cystocentesis |
|
you are about to administer fluid to a newborn piglet; your best choice for administration is usually via the route |
IP |
|
generally speaking, which of the following types of catheters is most commonly used for peripheral vein catheterization |
over the needle |
|
you warn a coworker that using the vein route to administer a particularly irritating drug can cause thrombosis and sloughing of the tail |
coccygeal |
|
to prevent pharyngeal or esophageal trauma when using a balling gun to administer a bolus, you should |
insert it into mouth and work it gently back to the pharynx, keeping the animal's head down |
|
while drawing a small volume of blood from a dog, you place the dog in the lateral recumbent position and grasp the lower leg, applying circumferential pressure to occlude and distend the vein |
medial saphenous |
|
large-volume samples of blood are commonly collected from the cranial vena cava in which animal |
commercial pig |
|
when liquids must be administered with a syringe or dropper, the tip of the syringe or dropper is placed |
between the cheek and the gums and the muzzle is held at a neutral angle |
|
a neonate puppy has a bloated stomach that needs decompression. before inserting an orogastric (OGT) tube, determine the correct length by measuring from the |
tip of the nose to the 13th rib |
|
you are trying to insert an OGT tube into a dog when the animal coughs. this means the tube |
may have entered the trachea and should be removed |
|
which of the following sites is not ideal for applying transdermal medications |
the back of the untrimmed neck |
|
will increase the rate of drug delivery of a fentanyl patch |
contact with an external heat source |
|
eyedrops should be administered, where as ointment forms are administered |
onto the sclera, onto the upper sclera of the lower palperbral border |
|
a veterinarian has prescribed both an opthalmic solution and an ophthamic ointment for your pet at this time. you should |
apply the solution to the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment |
|
to accurately administer medication into a dog's ear canal |
grasp pinna and pull it upward and slightly out laterally and insert tip of dispenser |
|
intrarectal drugs administration |
may have both local and systemic effects |
|
lactulose has been added to your patient's enema solution. you will |
hold the rectum closed with a gloved hand for the allotted time and then remove the catheter and let the intestine evacuate |
|
in intranasal vaccine administration, you should |
do either a or b, depending on the method chosen |
|
the most common route for administering vaccines is the route |
SC |
|
you are responding to a critically ill patient in an emergency situation. you will administer the small-volume, but critically needed, medication via the route for fast absorption |
IO |
|
the preferred site for most SC injection is the |
dorsolateral region from the neck to the hips |
|
the most frequent used sites for IV injections in dogs are the __ vein and ___ vein |
cephalic; lateral saphenous |
|
which of the following veins is less commonly used for IV injection in a cat |
lateral saphenous |
|
fluids or drugs that have an osmolality greater than 600mOsm/L should be administered through a vein |
jugular |
|
the required distance for a jugular catheter insertion is estimated by measureing the distance from the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the muscle |
triceps |
|
you are monitoring a patient receiving IV chemotherapy when you notice that the patient is whimpering. you check the catheter and notice redness and swelling near the injection site. you should |
aspirate 5ml of blood back through the catheter, infuse the tissue surrounding the site with 2% lidocaine, and add either cold or warm compresses |
|
urine samples degrade rapidly, so they should be analyzed promptly or refrigerated for no more than |
2 days |
|
in camelids, the urethral orifice is most easily located as |
a palpable groove on the floor of the vulva |
|
if san colic is suspected in a horse, a may be used as a diagnostic test |
fecal sedimentation test |
|
in bovine rumen fluid collection, the placement of the tube within the rumen can be confirmed by blowing into the tube and |
listening for gurgling |
|
bronchoalveolar lavage |
provides lung fluid samples that are better for a cytologic assessment than samples obtained by transtracheal aspiration |
|
abdominocentesis performed on the reduces the likelihood of tapping the spleen (in horses) or the rumen (in ruminant) |
paramedian site to the right of the midline |
|
which of the following is not an indication for bone marrow aspiration |
patients with severe thrombocytopenia |
|
which of the following describes the process of thoracocentesis |
after surgical prep, clipping, and lidocaine injection into and around the site, don gloves and insert the catheter into the caudal aspect of the intercostal space and cranial to the anterior edge of rib. using gentle pressure, apirate until a slight negative pressure is achieved or the patient's condition improves |
|
which of the follwing is not true of diagnostic peritoneal lavage |
it has the same indications as abdominocentesis, but is less effective and should be used only when the former is not possible |
|
which of the following statements about the process of arthrocentesis is true |
joint fluid can be drawn from distal joint without anesthetic or sedation if it will not cause the patient pain and if the patient is not currently experiencing pain |
|
when performing a bone marrow aspiration on a small animal, what factors play into site selection when deciding between the ilium, humerus and femur |
patient's age, size and conformation |
|
which of the following statements regaurding methods of oral medication administration in large animas is false |
while it may seem like an intuitive solution to administering the medication, when using a syringe, never add sweeteners like molasses, maple syrup, or applesauce to the medication, as the viscosity can significantly change the absorption time |
|
which of the following is true of nasogastric intubation (NGT) |
NGT is a procedure commonly used in equine patients |
|
which of the following statements regarding the intramuscular (IM) route of drug administration is false |
when injecting into the semimembranous or semitendosus muscles, the needle should enter the dorsal aspect of the muscle and be directed caudally |
|
when collecting a milk sample from a dairy animal, for which of the following methods is not important to clean the teat end before collecting the sample |
none of the above; the teats should always be cleaned before collecting a milk sample |
|
how does the queen or bitch stimulate urination or defecation of the newborn |
by licking the urogenital area |
|
a client is excited because she now owns her very first pregnant mare. she asks you how soon the foal will be born. you tell her that the average gestation in horses lasts day |
340 |
|
a new client whose mare recently delivered a foal complains that he believes his previous veterinarian charged him for an unnecessary number of rectal examinations and transrectal examination and transrectal ultrasound imaging |
around 15 days, 30 days, and then 90 days |
|
a pregnant mare in your clinic's care begins exhibiting a vaginal discharge you had not noticed before. this may indicate |
placentitis or urine pooling |
|
by performing a transrectal ultrasound study, the veterinarian can evaluate gross fetal movement and measure the eye orbit to |
estimate fetal age |
|
vaginal examination in the late-term mare is not recommended unless |
delivery is imminent |
|
can be used in a noninvasive way to measure the heart rates of the foal and mare during labor |
telemetry |
|
in late-term pregnancy, the foal will have a heart rate between beats/minute |
40 to 150 |
|
you are assessing vital signs in a late-term pregnant mare. because she is at rest, you anticipate a heart rate around beats/minute |
40 to 50 |
|
mares often foal |
at night |
|
you observe an agitated pregnant mare who is pacing, nickering, lifting the tail head, turing and biting at her sides, and kicking her own abdomen. from this you deduce that she is in stage of labor |
1 |
|
if you observe sweating around the shoulders of a mare in labor |
the mare will foal in the next half hour or so |
|
what stage of labor in the mare is explosive and starts when the mare's placenta ruptures and her water breaks |
stage 2 |
|
a pregnant mare you are attending experiences an explosive rupturing of the placenta, and allantoic fluid escapes vaginally. you are aware that if the foal is not delievered within 30 minutes, the foal will experience |
hypoxemia |
|
a mare who has just delivered her foal lies down and begins to expel the placenta. you mark that she is now in stage of labor |
3 |
|
you need a blood sample from a weak, hospitalized kitten. where is the best site for drawing blood |
jugular vein |
|
you have been directed to take a radiograph of the abdomen of a sick puppy, along with that of one of his healthy littermates. you know that for a successful image, you will need to use detail intesifying screens and emulsion film |
high; single |
|
if possible, you should obtain radiographs of normal littermates of a sick or weak puppy or kitten. why |
for comparison |
|
as long as neonates are close to their dams and the mammary glands, they can maintain |
thermal balance |
|
as the neonates begins to take up food, this increases its |
metabolic rate |
|
an owner has been keeping his cat's newborn kittens warm with extra bedding. at what age to puppies and kittens have a temperature that is similar to an adult's temperature |
6 weeks |
|
what two complications may occur when tube feeding a hypothermic neonates |
pneumonia and bloat |
|
a client calls to report that her dog has just given birth to a litter of puppies. she tells you, "im worried that they're sleeping to much. about how often should the puppies be nursing." what will you tell her |
every 2 to 4 hours |
|
what is the likely body temperature of a neonate that appears lethargic and uncoordinated but is responsive |
78 to 85 degree F |
|
by the end of what week are puppies and kittens able to stand and have good postural reflexes |
week 3 |
|
you are working nights in an animal shelter during an unusually cold winter when a couple run into the emergency department with a litter of kittens they found in their barn. the kittens are all hypothermic. you treat them wil appropriate ambient temperature and humidity, and four of them begin to recover. how soon can you give them food and water |
when the patient has audible gut sounds and is moderately warm |
|
you are careful to check oral mucous membranes in a new litter or puppies because you know that any disease process, imbalance of fluid, or electrolytes in the newborn will quickly lead to |
dehydration |
|
a newborn puppy is dehydrated and needs low-volume fluid administraion. this can be administered |
intravenously, intraosseously, intraperitoneally, or subcutaneously |
|
when administering fluids intraosseously to a feline neonate, an 18 or 19 gauge needle can be placed in the __ tibia or __ femur |
proximal; proximal |
|
you notice that one kitten in a healthy litter has still not begun to nurse, and it has been almost 24 hours since delivery. what is this neonates at increased risk for if suckling does not occur after 24 to 36 hours |
hypoglycemia |
|
you notice that a coworker is preparing to administer a dextrose solution. which of the following routes should be avoid and why |
subcutaneous; to avoid tissue damage |
|
you are examining a litter of neonatal puppies when you notice that one puppy has irregularities, including a hairless lump and other uneven patches of hair over his dorsum. you bring this to the attention of the veterinarian because this puppy needs to be assessed for the possible presence of |
spina bifida |
|
the neonatal period in puppies and kittens is defined as the period |
characterized by complete dependency on the bitch or queen for survival for nutrition, warmth, and care |
|
which of the following statements regarding the examination of neonatal animal is false |
to evaluate the hydration of a neonate, check the skin turgor rather than the mucous membranes, because the mucous membranes in a neonate are extremely sensitive |
|
which of the following would be considered abnormal in the first 24 hours of foal's life |
demonstration of menace response |
|
which of the following are signs of dysmaturity in foal |
all of the above |
|
which of the following is not mentioned in the text as being an acceptable alternative if a foal is uable to nurse directly from its mother |
all of the above are mentioned as replacements for mare's milk |
|
the cranial vena cava is commonly used to collect blood in which animal |
ferret |
|
which of the following is a marsupial |
sugar glider |
|
you need to collect blood from a rabbit; your site of choice will most likely be the |
lateral saphenous vein |
|
which of the following is the most reliable way to administer antibiotics to a pet bird |
in the pectoral muscle |
|
which of the following is a commonly diagnosed bacterial zoonotic disease carried by birds and spread through the respiratory route |
chlamydiosis |
|
which of the following is arboreal and requires a tall cage with branches |
sugar gliders |
|
what makes up the white part of a bird's droppings |
urates |
|
you are asked to conduct a stomach wash in a lizard to confrim the presence of which of the following organisms |
cryptosporidia |
|
which of the following zoonotic diseases is carried by many reptiles |
salmonellosis |
|
palperbral edema due to vitamin a deficiency is seen in which of the following |
turtle |
|
which of the following statements is true about descenting in ferrets |
ferrets still have a musty odor from their scent glands |
|
which disease can ferrets catch from their owners |
influenza |
|
adult rabbits often fight because they are normally |
territorial |
|
you are examining a rabbit for possible malocclusion. which teeth should you pay special attention to |
incisors and molars |
|
which of the following have cheek pouches that can be used as a transportation device |
hamsters |
|
hypoglycemia is a problem in which of the following |
ferrets and sugar gliders |
|
what is the cloacal probe used for in snakes |
determining sex |
|
mammary glands tumors are particularly common in which animal |
rats |
|
mycoplasma spp. cause what type of clinical problem in rodents |
respiratory infection |
|
why is it illegal to keep north american prairie dogs as pets in the united states |
they carry plague and monkeypox |
|
which of the following is not a rodent |
hedgehog |
|
you are attempting to perform a crop wash to examine a bird's upper gastrointestinal track and obtain samples for a wet-mount microscopic evaluation. the problem is, your patient has an underdevloped crop. what should you do |
pass a sterile tube through the mouth into the esophagus |
|
a bird's water bowl should be |
mounted on the wall of the cage or enclosure to keep it clean |
|
you have been asked to collect a fecal sample from a lizard. you will use a colonic wash with a volume of saline at or less of the animal's weight |
1% |
|
the majority of captive reptiles species can accommodate well in humidity ranges of |
50 to 70% |
|
you are examining a pet iguana and want a sample of gastrointestinal and urinary fluids. you realize that you can retrieve both samples from the |
cloaca |
|
are the only type of inflammatory cell that may be found in a cytologic evaluation via cloacal swab or crop wash |
heterophils |
|
when advising an owner on transporting his or her pet bird to the veterinary hospital, which of the following is not good advice |
the cage should be thoroughly cleaned and new water provided to reduce stress and injury to the bird |
|
which of the following is an important piece of specialized equipment for any veterinary hospital that decides to treat reptiles |
all of the above |
|
which of the following is true regarding the veterinary care of rodents |
isoflurane or sevoflurane are the best choices of anesthetic for rodents |
|
which of the following statement regarding the diet of guinea pigs is true |
all of the above |
|
you are unable to access a vein for intravenous IV administration in a neonate who experiences cardiovascular collapse. you must administer fluids soon. what alternative route might you use with success |
IO |
|
is an example of a synthetic colloid |
hetastarch |
|
you are administering hetastarch to a patient during resuscitation. what is the greatest risk of the administration of synthetic colloid |
coagulopathy |
|
during a transfusion of plasma-containing blood product, a horse begins to sweat and show piloerection. the veterinarian is most likely to |
slow the transfusion and continue monitorying: the reactions may resolve on their own |
|
which of the following is not true. transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) |
is rare euvolemic patients |
|
sodium bicarbonate can be appropriate treatment for |
extreme acidemia |
|
about two-thirds of the total body water (TBW) in mammals is made up of |
ICF |
|
all crystalloid IV solutions contain __ in water and characterized by their |
electrolytes; osmolality |
|
a horse needs immediate resucitation. in response, it is best to deliver |
hypertonic saline followed by isotonic crystalloids |
|
your patient, a large dog, has had multiple episodes of vomiting and diarrhea, and you need to calculate the fluid replacement volume for her. you have estimated ongoing losses for the past 3 hours as totaling 150mL. you will increase the administration rate by mL/hr to the fluid administration rate for the next period of time to replace these losses |
50 |
|
you are treating a horse who, you have just discovered, has a large colon impaction. she is already receiving IV fluids. the impaction itslef will most likely be treated using which route |
enteral route via nasogastric tube |
|
a critically ill horse will need fluid therapy during surgery. he has been anesthertized, but which route will you most likely use for the fluid administration |
intravenous |
|
you have been asked to administer two medications simultaneously, but you have noticed that the two drugs may not be compatible. assuming the dr wants these administered, you will |
use a central line catheter |
|
if an IV catheter is being placed in the jugular vein, the vessel should be occluded at the |
thoracic inlet |
|
your hospitalized patient acquires a fever of unknown origin. he has an IV catheter. you will |
remove and replace the catheter in a different vein as a precaution |
|
in a gravity-fed IV fluid system, the rate of administration is |
largely dependent on the patient's position and manually adjusted by opening or closing a clamp |
|
in a volumetric pump fluid system |
the required volume of fluids can be programmed to be delivered over a set amount of time |
|
the route can be used to administer large volumes of fluid for slow absorption over time and gradual fluid replacement to treat mild to moderate dehydration or as a preventative in patients that are not eating or drinking |
subcutaneous |
|
in most cases, the single best way to track changes in hydration and body water is through |
frequent monitorying of body weight |
|
which of the following is a portable device that can provide ventilatory support during cardiopulmonary cerebral resucitation (CPCR), providing either room air or 100% oxygen, depending on the model |
ambu bag |
|
the condition in which air becomes trapped between the body wall and the lung is called |
pneumothorax |
|
the veterinarian is about to perform a vaginal examination on a cow with dystocia. as you prep the perineal area, which of the following is not true |
it is imperative to clean the perineal area before the rectal portion of the examination |
|
an animal that assumes a praying or play bowing position most likely has pain |
abdominal |
|
disseminated intravascular coagulation is primarily a disorder of the body's function |
clotting |
|
you are treating a patient that is severely hypernatremic. you realize that you must administer |
IV fluids slowly and gradually over 2 to 3 days |
|
in an effort to improve your patient's blood pressure, you administer, a synthetic catecholamine, in hopes of causing peripheral vasoconstriction |
dopamine |
|
when performing chest compressions on an animal that weighs more than 15 lb, the animal should be placed in a |
lateral recumbent position |
|
when performing cardiac compression on a dog that weighs 9lbs, what is the point of compression |
directly over the heart |
|
what is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation |
electrical defibrillation |
|
what is the ideal route of drug administration during CPCR in advance life support |
intravenous route with a jugular cutdown |
|
which drugs can be administered safely via the endotracheal route |
atropine,lidocane, epinephrine, naloxone, vasopressin |
|
after performing CPCR on a dog, the animal develops opisthotonus with rigidity in all four limbs where is the lesion, and what is the prognosis |
brainstem; grave |
|
__provides a means to measure the expired dioxide concentration of expired air, whereas__ indicates a noninvasive measurement of the hemoglobin-oxygen saturation |
capnography;pulse oximetry |
|
arterial blood samples should be drawn from the or femoral artery |
dorsal metatarsal |
|
as a general rule of thumb, the PaO2 should be approximately times the FiO2 |
5 |
|
in dogs and cats, systolic values ranging from___mm hG and diastolic values ranging from ___ mm Hg are required to maintain adequate perfustion of vital organs, such as kidneys and brain |
80 to 140; 50 to 80 |
|
when selecting a cuff to use to indirectly measure a cat's or dog's blood pressure, the of the cuff should be approximately of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement |
width; 40% |
|
which of the following drugs promotes diuresis and decreases cerebral edema in a patient following cardiac arrest by drawing water from the interstitial space between cells |
mannitol |
|
which of the following drugs is used to treat ventricular tachycardia |
lidocaine |
|
which of the following drugs is classified as a loop diuretic and is typically used to treat heart failure and pulmonary edema |
furosemide |
|
which of the following is not part of a specialized cardiac conduction system |
QR node |
|
vertical measurements on an ECG paper represents |
strength of the electrical impulse expressed in millivolts |
|
in standard calibration on ECG paper, each vertical 1-mm box equals |
0.1mV |
|
the average heart rate (HR)(in beats per minutes) can be calculated by counting the numbers of |
QRS complexes in a predetermined time period and multiplying the number of complexes by a specific factor |
|
an abnormal P wave likely indicates |
right or left atrial enlargement |
|
variation in the PR interval may occur with |
atrioventricular enlargement |
|
in the QRS complex, a tall R wave indicates |
left ventricular enlargement |
|
the ST segment indicates the repolarization |
time interval from ventricular depolarization to |
|
the QT interval represents |
the total electrical systole |
|
first degree AV block occurs when |
conduction through the AV node is delayed |
|
a horse with a long history of severe pain prior to arrival often exhibits |
abrasion over the head, face, eyes and bony prominences of the body |
|
nasogastric intubation in horses |
should be performed in all patients examined for abdominal pain |
|
the veterinarian performs a chest tap on a horse. this is most likely indicates that |
the pleural space of a horse with pneumothorax was reduced to normal volume through thoracocentesis |
|
you are helping the veterinarian stabilize a midforelimb fracture on a horse. which of the following is not true |
a lateral splint extending from the ground to the hip is secured with nonelastic tape |
|
which method of helping a downed cow stand is the best option for supporting an animal for long periods of time |
hydrofloation |
|
when is it acceptable to use a rumen trocar to relieve bloat and a distended rumen |
in certain instances of severe respiratory depression |
|
for tracheostomy in a calf, you will use a mm ID tube |
5- to 10- |
|
meaning difficult birth, represents the majority of obstetric emergencies |
dystocia |
|
what is the first thing a technician should ascertain from a telephone triage with an owner who is worried about his or her pet |
a name and phone number where the caller can be contacted if disconnected |
|
which of the following is not a key aspect of recumbent care |
do not apply fluorescein stain to the corneas of a patient who is under general anesthesia |
|
according to the text, which of the following is not a common small animal emergency |
all of the above are common small animal emergencies |