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397 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
POA
problem oriented approach
what is the POA
a logical way to think about case management based on presenting clinicial signs or findings which are called "problems" in this sytem
POVMR
problem oriented veterinary medical record
the POVMR is designed to
show the orderly process of the POA- thought process as well as content
four steps of the POA
gather a data base, problem ID, plan formulation, assessment and follow up plans
plans in the POA-POVMR contain 3 major components
diagnostic plan, therapeutic plan, client education
differentials
possible causes for the problem that need to be ruled out
clinical problem solving: need to know _____ to solve the _____
normal, to solve the abnormal
pathophysiology
understanding the mechanisms that create problems
quality patient care is best achieved by
managing problems diagnosticaly and therapeutically
most important step in the POA
data base collection
define a problem
any abnormality requiring medical or surgical management or one that interferes with the quality of life
SOAP
subjective objective assessment plan
hyperthermia
elevated core body temperature
what is the term hyperthermia generally reserved for
heat stroke and malignant hyperthermia
fever
a form of hyperthermia provoked by the release of inflammatory proteins called pyrogens. The thermoregulatory center in the hypothalamus is adjusted to a set point above normal body temperature
how is body temperature regulated in endothermic vertebrates?
by controlling production and dissipation of heat via neurological mechanisms mediated in the hypothalams
normal temperature for dogs/cats
101-102
activation of the sympathetic nervous system ____ body temp
increases
activiation of the parasympathetic nervous sysem ____ body temp
decreases
body heat is largely generated by
metabolic activity of skeletal muscles and in the liver
how do dogs and cats largely dissipate heat
respiratory tract/panting, and evaporation from mucous membranes
pyrogens have the ability to
increase the thermoregulatory set point
exogenous pyrogens include
infections agents, exo and endotoxins, pharmacologic agents
most exogenous pyrogens mostly produce fever by promoting
the release of cytokines from macrophages and other leukotcytes
chronic fever causes ____ and ____
protein catabolism and cachexia
fever is a clinical sign of
inflammation
four major categories of diseases to consider with fever?
infectious, immune mediated, neoplastic, drug induced
FUO
fever of unknown origin
define FUO
feber of at least three weeks with no cause identified on labs or rads
some of the more common causes of FUO in cats
FELV, FIV, FIP
some of the more common causes of FUO in dogs
endocarditis, prostatis, deep abscess, rickettsial infections, deep mycotic infections
heat stroke
reults from inadequate heat dissipation in animals in high ambient temps
exercise induced collapse and hyperthermia
most likely a functional myopthaty with concurrent hyperthermia. Likely inherited.
malignant hyperthermia
inherited functional myopathy, causes severe muscle necrosis and hyperthermia, especially in horses/pigs
fevers in which rainge usually do not require treatment unless chronic
103-105degrees
temps above ___ do require treatment
105
natures way of signalling that something is wrong
fever
classification of true fever: can be
intermittent, remittent, relapsing, septic or FUO
where is the thermoregulatory center located
anterior hypothalamus- diencephalon
regulation of body temp:
vasoconstriction/vasodilation, symp control/parasymp control
what are the actual mediators of fever
endogens pyrogens
name three endogenous mediators
IL1, IL6 and TNFa
which of the endogenous mediators is most important?
IL1
what does IL1 stimulate?
release of IL6
potential benefits of fever
increased t-cell proliferation, augments the alternate complement pathway, increase neutrophile and macrophage activity, may inhibit growth of bacteria/viruses, makes iron less available for bacterial metabolism
harmful effects of fever
over 106 is harmful to cell metabolism. Potential for cerebral edema and neuronal death. Protein catabolism and cachexia, depression and anorexia
which is generally more difficult to determine from the PE: chronic or acute inflammation
chronic
most antipyretic agents are
antiprostaglandins
does heat stroke respond to antipyretics?
no
treatment for heat stroke?
total body cooling, IV crystalloids and glucocorticoids
common complication of heat stroke
DIC
hypothermia can occur for three reasons
accidental, pathological, purposeful
PU/PD
polyurea/polydipsia
general characteristics of PU/PD?
PU = urine output > 25ml/lb. PD = water intake > 50ml/lb
what is the most common disease in dogs with PU/PD?
renal disease
what are the top three causes of disease in cats with PU/PD?
renal disease, diabetes mellitus, hyperthyroidism
glomerular function
selective filtration- excludes particles with molecular weight greater than 5000. Excludes protein and cells. Freely permeable to water, glucose, aminoacids and electrolytes. Approximately 1% of glomerular filtrate is excreted as urine.
what is the specific gravity of glomerular filtrate?
1.008 - 1.012 (isothenuria)
what happens to glomerular filtrate In the proximal tubule
solutes are actively transported out and water follows. Volume is decreased 60-70% and specific gravity stays about 1.010
what important actions occur in the ascending limb of Henle's loop
sodium, chloride and urea are actively transported into the renal medulla. The tubule is impermeable to water. Urine specific gravity is reduced below 1.008. This is how the renal medulla maintains its high concentration of solute
what happens in the distal tubule?
aldosterone stimulates the excretion of potassium and the retention of sodium. Acid/base mechanisms-bicarb exchange. Specific gravity increases a small amount.
what stimluates the release of aldosterone?
renin/angiotensin
what happens in the collecting ducts?
ADH regulates pore size in the tubule membrane. Water is passively reabsorbed by the osmotic gradient of the renal medulla.
what regulates the release of ADH?
plasma osmolality
what is the countercurrent system?
association of vasa recta and loop of henle. Allows sodium and urea to be concentrated in renal medulla
medullary washout
decreased medullary hypertonicity- failure of NaCl pump in LH., liver failure (decrease urea), prolonged PU/PD (increased fluid flow in LH and vasa recta)
thirst
the conscious desire for water
where is the thirst center
hypothalamus near ADH controlled centers
what is thirst controlled by?
extracellular fluid osmolality
primary thirst
results from increase in sodium or decrease in blood volume
secondary thirst
anticipation of needs before deficiencies occur- oropharyngeal cues and circadian rhythm of eating
5 causes of pathologic thirst
neuronal irritation, compulsive water drinking, increased plasma renin, hypercalcemia, constriction of thoracic vena cava
cat has extreme PU/PD, and a specific gravity of 1.028. Localize the abnormality
consistent with osmotoc diuresis such as diabetes mellitus. Proximal tubular threshold for glucose absorption has been exceeded
7 year old dog, PU/PD, specific gravity of 1.003. Localize the problem. What diseases come to mind
collecting duct/renal medulla. Diabetes insipidus, hyperadrenocorticism, hypercalcemic syndromes, psychogenic polydipsia
7 year old dog, PU/PD, but specific gravity is 1.009.
dog is neither contrating nor diluting, therefore we should be suspicious of renal failure
dog has PU/PD with dehydration. Rule outs?
renal dz, diabetes mellitus, diabetes insipidus, hyperadrenocorticism, hypercalcemia, primary polydipsia, liver disease
dog has PU/PD with dehydration. Sp. Gr. Is 1.002, all other labs normal. What can we comclude?
the dog can dilute its urine but cannot concentrate it
would you perform a water deprivation test on a dog that is already dehydrated?
no
is diabetes insipidus common?
no
a dehydrated brain followed by an overhydrated brain is a
dead brain
do not perform water deprivation tests on ____, _____ or ____ animals
azotemic, dehydrated or hypercalemic
which can concentrate urine to a greater extent- dogs or cats
cats
normal sp. Gr for cats
greater than 1.035
normal sp. Gr for dogs
greater than 1.030
most polydispsic dogs will have:
dilute urine, inability to maximally concentrate urine or glucosurea
which is usually the primary- the PU or the PD?
the polyuria
glomerulus
selectively filters blood retaining proteins and cells, but permits fluid and solutes to enter the renal tubules
compare the sp. Gr of glomerulus to plasma
identical
how much of the glomerular filtrate is reabsorbed In the PCT?
80-90%
what does the PCT readsorb?
sodium, glucose, amino acids, water
DCT function
regulated excretion of potassium into urine and the further reabsorption of sodium
what regulates the DCT function
aldosterone
what are the collecting ducts responsible for? Hormone?
final urine concentration. ADH
where is adh produced and stored?
hypothalamus, stored in the pars nervosa of the pituitary gland
diagnostic approach to PU/PD: first step
determine that problem actually exists
diagnostic approach to PU/PD: second step
CBC/Chem- check for dehydration, electrolyte concentrations, kidney/liver values etc
what is the most common cause of PUPD in dogs and cats, and what percentages of cases in each?
CRF- 80% in dogs, 50% in cats
what can an ADH response test be used to differentiate?
DI from renal dz
vomiting
the forceful ejection of blood and fluids from the stomach or proximal duodenum.. Active reflex mediated process
regurgitation
expuslion of food and fluids from the esophagus. Passive, not reflex mediated. Sign of esophageal dysfunction, obstruction or dz
dysphagia
difficulting swallowing liquids or foods. Clinical sign of pharyngeal dysfunction, obstruction or dz
what regulates motility in the stomach and intestinal tract
autonomic nervous system
what does the parasymp component stimulate?
motiliity, decreases contraction of sphincters, and increases GI secretions
parasymp nerve innervating GI?
vagus
where is the vomiting center located?
in the medulla/ caudal brainstem
ways to activate vomiting center
receptors in ab viscera stimulated by inflammation/distension/hypertonicity
once activated, the vomiting center cuases
nausea, drooling and anorexia. Push/pull rxn in abdomen
push-pull rxn
push= abdominal pressin in which the stomach is squeezed between diaphradm and other viscera. Esophageal sphincters open and contractions of the stomach plus the abdominal press expels food/fluid into esophagus. Pull = negative pressure in the thorax and intra thorax esophagus. epiglottis is closed (prevents aspiration)
efferent pathway
vagus, phrenic and general somatic eferent nerves to skeletal muscles of the abdominal wall and thorax
reflex is largely mediated by
acetylcholine receptors
how else can the reflex be mediated?
by acetylcholie receptors
vomiting reflex can also be activated by
chemoreceptor trigger zone
where is CTZ located?
near vomiting center in the caudal brainstem
primary NT involved in the CTZ
dopamine
can the CTZ directly activate the vomiting center?
yes
metabolic consequences of vomiting
loss of fluids, food, electrolytes, and acid-base compounds
vomiting resulting in loss of stomach fluids causes
metabolic alkalosis and dehydration
loss of both stomach and duodenal fluid
blood pH remains normal or metabolic acidosis
vomiting results in
dehydration, hypokalemia, hypochloremia, hyponatremia
in which animals is aspiratoin pneumonia most likely to occur?
those that are severely depressed
what can a pure metabolic alkalosis due to vomiting result in?
renal retention of bicarb
regurgitation results in
weight loss, dehydration, and aspiration pneumonia
what increases the risk of aspiration?
the epiglottis not closing
what is the usual acid-base status in regurgitation?
normal
primary GI ruleouts for vomiting
functional disorders, inflammatory dz, obstructive, neoplastic, drug induced
rulouts for non-GI causes of vomiting
renal failure, liver dz, acute pancreatitis, peritonitis, hypoadrenocorticism, toxins, drugs
primary ruleouts for regurg include
mechanical or obstructive disorders such as esophageal foreigh body, vascular ring anomalies, strictures, esophagitis, neoplasia, and functional disorders such as- megaesphagus, myasthenia gravis, polymyositis, hypothyroid, hypoadrenocorticism
what should not be given to dehydrated dogs that may be hypotensive?
phenothiaze tranqs to antagonize the action of the NTs that mediate the vomiting reflex
metaclopramide
prokinetic that antagonizes dopamine, promotes gastric motility and emptying
symptomatic treatment of rugurg
elevated feeding platform
where is the CTZ located
on the floor of the fourth ventricle
what is the CTZ sensitive to
blood borne toxins and drugs
what connects to the CTZ and is involved with motion sickness?
the vestibular system
three types of antiemetics
local, anticholinergics, central
three types of antiacids
oral, H2 rc antagonists, proton pump inhibitors
anorexia
lak of or disintrest in the ingestion of food
three categories of anorexia
primary, secondary, pseudo
primary anorexia
direct involvement of the appetite centers of the hypothalamus
where is the hunger center located
lateral hypothalamus
what does stimulation of the hunger center cause
psychc drive to search for ingest food
where is the satiety center located
ventro-medial hypothalamus
what is located in the satiety center that is not present anywhere else in the CNS
insulin receptors for the transport of glucose
what are two other symptoms that can result from primary anorexia
psychologic, loss of smell
causes of secondary anorexia
pain, distension/inflammation of abdominal organs, toxic agents (endogenous waste, bacterial toxins, pyrogens), endocrine, neoplastic
how can neoplasia result in secondary anorexia?
may produce substances that inhibit appetite center, or may be the caues of organ failure or abdominal organ inflammation
pseudoanorexia
there is a desire to eat, but physically unable to. Can be associated with pain, neurologic dysfunction or inflammation of the oral cavity
define pathologic weight loss
unexplained loss of 10%
cachexia
20% weight loss, loss of muscle/fat stores
classifying decreased food intake
anorexia vs starvation/malnutrition
3 yr old GSD, never has gained weight, cow patty stool- 2 possible causes?
EPI, protein losing enteropathy
define obesity
excess body fat in relation to body mass
what percent obesity requires therapy
15% excess in body weight
what is the most common malnutrition disease?
obesity
obesity is the number 2 disease of:
"healthy" pets
types of obesity:
simple, dystrophic, hyperplastic, hypertrophic
simple obesity
normal fat distribution
dystrophic obesity
abnormal fat distribution
hyperplastic obesity
primarily in younger animals, number of adipocytes increases.
hypertrophic obesity
primarily in older animals, increased size of existing adipocytes
pathogenesis of obesity
prolonged caloric intake in relation to caloric requirement (over eating / under exercising)
two stages of obesity
dynamic (body fat accumulates, caloric intake high) and static (body fat stable, low caloric intake)
what is food intake under the control of
the satiety center of the hypothalamus
what does gastrointestinal filling stimulate?
vagal stimulation to inhibit feeding center
hormonal regulation of food intake
CCK, glucagon, insulin
what are oral receptors?
a metering process for food intake
glucostatic theory
glucoreceptor neurons in satiety center. Possibly insulin dependent. Decreased glucose levels increase firing and increased glucose levels decrease firing of neurons
aminostatic theory
certain amino acids decrease appetite
lipostatic theory
breakdown products of fat metabolism, ketoacids, and fatty acids, decrease feeding.
leptin
a peptide hormone produced by adipocytes. A way of signalling brain about energey stores. Leptin levels increase with obesity
disease that cause obesity
hypothyroidism, hypercorisolism, cortisol/hypothalamic lesion, +/- insulinoma
factors that can contribute to obesity
genetic, castration/OHE, age
disease associated with or exacerbated by obesity
diabetes, hyperlipidemia, hepatic lipidosis, musculoskeletal disorders, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, dermatologic, cancer
obesity may play a role in the development of:
diabetes
chronic hyperinsulinemia leads to
beta cell exhaustion
hypersecretion of insulin is associated with increased levels of:
amyloid deposition
obesity induces insulin ____
resistance
obesity and hepatic lipidosis:
protein deficiency leading to an inability to synthesize VLDLs
how do you evaluate obesity?
body scale charts
treatment of obesity:
calorie restriction AND exercise.
high fiber vs high protein diets
fiber increases gastric fill, protein induces ketosis and utilization of fat stores for energy
calculating basal energy requirement
30(ideal BW in KG) + 70
calculating maintenance energy requirement factor
k9: 1.6(BER), fel: 1.2(BER)
calculating calorie restricition
K9: 60% of MER, fel 70% of MER
behavioral modification of obesity
food does not equal love, need to enhance motivation and commitment, decrease begging
ascites
abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity
presenting symptom for ascites:
abdominal distention
other rule outs for abdominal distention?
mass, air, organ, muscle weakness, fluid
pathophysiology of ascites:
increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased oncotic pressure, lymphatic, increased capillary permeability
causes of increased hydrostatic pressure
right heart failure, obstruction, overhydration
causes of decreased oncotic pressure
hypoalbuminemia, increased loss (glomerulus, intestine, wounds), decreased production by liver
causes of ascites due to the lymphatic system
obstruction or hypertension
causes of increase capillary permeability
inflammation, sepsis, endotoxemia, trauma
how does venous obstruction change the protein content of the effusion?
depends on anatomic location
obstruction of the hepatic sinusoids results in _____ effusion
high protein
obstruction of the intestinal lympathics results in _____ effusion
low protein
transudate
< 2.5 g/dl protein, < 1000 nucleated cells per ml
modified transudate
2.5-6 g/dl protein, 250-20000 nucleated cells per ml
exudate
>3.5 g/dl protein, >30000 nucleated cells per ml
what can result in pure transudate
hypoalbuminea, long standing portal hypertension
what can result in modified transudate?
right heart failure/congestion, vena cava obstruction, chyle, FIP, neoplasia
exudate can be caused by _____ or _____ reasons
septic or non-septic
septic causes of exudates include
rupture of GI tract, abcess, pyometra, septicemia
non septic causes of exudates include
chemical, inflammation, neoplastic, FIP
if abdominal effusions result in hypotension
activate RAAS system, exacerbate some causes of ascites (increase hydrostatic/decrease oncotic)
if abdominal effusions result in peritoneal cavity pressure increases:
respiration and venous return can be compromised
what tests are needed to diagnose ascites
abdominocentesis, ultrasound, radiograph, cardiac eval, exploratory sx, cbc/chem/ua
where do you perform abdominocentesis
right cranial quadrant- to avoid spleen
when should you drain fluid in the abdomen?
only if causing resporatory distress
abdominocentesis fluid is clear, red tinged and foamy, with 4.1g/dl protein and 1000 nucleated cells. It is:
modified transudate
abdominocentesis fluid is clear like tap water, .9g/dl protein and 100 nucleated cells
pure transudate
pathogenesis of edema
increased vascular permeability, decreased oncotic pressure, increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased lymph drainage
localized edema
decreased lymphatic drainage, vasculitis/increased vascular permeability
generalized edema
hypoalbuminemia --> decreased oncotic pressure
calculate net filtration pression (arteriolar)
(plasma hydrostatic - tissue hydrostatic) -- (plasma oncotic - tissue oncotic)
calculate net absorption pressure (venular)
(plasma hydrostatic - tissue hydrostatic) -- (plasma oncotic - tissue oncotic)
mediatiors of inflammation include
histamine, serotonin, and kinins
what/when are histamine and serotonin secreted from?
from mast cells and platelets in response to a variety of stimuli
what are kinins
potent vasodilators or vasoconstrictions. They increase vascular permeability. They are activated by exposed endothelium and proteases released from neutrophils
ow are arachidonic acid metabolites form
cleaved from cell membrane phospholipids, further degraded to COX and LOX pathways to produce prostaglandins, thromboxanes, leukotrienes
what can these autocoids cause
a variey of effects including vasodilation, vasoconstriction and increased vascular permeability
nitric oxide
released from endothelial cells, causes vasodilation, forms free radicals
inflammatoin leads to
changes in vascular tone and permeability
system inflammatory response syndrome
a common pathologic process behind progression and deterioration of patients
causes of localized, pitting edema
venous or lymphatic problem
tenesmus
straining to defecate and frequent defecation
hematochezia
presence of blood in the stool
rule outs for diarrhea
acute small bowel, chronic small bowel, acute large bowel, and chronic large bowel
rule outs for chronic mucoid bloody diarrhea
parasites/whips, colitis, neoplasia, systemic fungal infection, food interolarance
define diarrhea
increased frequency, fluidity or volume of feces
pathophysiology of diarrhea
increased concentration of fecal water - (hypersecretion, altered mucosal permeability, maldigestion/malabsorption, altered motility, combination
small bowel origin of diarrhea
colonic overload of water, inhibition of water absorption in colon
large bowel origin of diarrhea
failure to absorb water due to reduced absorptive capacity
what are the two major types of motility in the GI tract
peristalsis, segmental/mixing movements
effects of parasympathetic on motility
stimulates motility, relaxes sphincters, stimulates secretion
effects of sympathetic on motility
inhibits motility, increases sphincter tone, decreases secretion
what are the phases of digestion
oral, swallowing, gastric, SI, LI
the esophagus in dogs and cats is what muscle type?
>50% striated
what stimulates motility and secretion in the stomach
gastric distension, gastrin, vagus nerve
relative to digestion, what chemical proess is generally involved for the major classes of nutrients?
hydrolysis
what controls the release of HCL?
gastrin stimulates release from parietal cells, but vagus also increases HCL production. (proton pump/H2 rc)
where is protein digested and absorbed?
gastric, small intestine, absorbed in brush border
where are carbs digested?
in the oral phase and the intestinal phase
where does fat digestion occur?
small intestine
hypersecretion
secretion exceeds absorption
what type of intestinal movement is often reduced in diarrheal states?
rhythmic contractions
is the gut hyper or hypo motile in diarrhea?
hypo
maldigest can result from
deficiences of enzymes, deficiencies of grinding/mixing, and deficiencies of bile
what can be involved with malabsorption
structural and biochemical mechanisms
what can malabsorption's osmotic effects result in?
severe diarrhea
what can result in malabsorption?
villus atrophy/destruction, gluten enteropathy, severe IBD, lympangectesia, diffuse lymphosarcoma of gut
what part of the spinal cord and what nerves are involved in defecation reflex?
sacral, pelvic/pudendal nerves
metabolic consequences of SI diarrhea
metabolic acidosis, hypotension, edema, ascites, nutritional deficiences, electroylyte imbalances
diarrhea with decreased volume, greatly increased frequency, tenesmus, hematochezia, and mucus is likely from
large bowel
diarrhea with increased volume, increased frequency, melena, and steatorrhea is likely from
small intestine
what kinds of fecal exams should be done?
floatations/sedimentations, direct smears, stained fecal smears, rectal mucosal scraping/cytology
constipation
infrequent or difficult passage of feces
obstipation
intractable constipation resulting in severe fecal impaction throughout the rectum and colon
coprostasis
fecal impaction
pseudocoprostasis
matting of hair over the anus resulting in fecal stasis
megacolon
marked dilatation and hypomotility of rectum and colon
flatulence
intestinal gas
flatus
gas expelled through the anus
clinical signs of constipation
tenesmus with little or no passage of feces. Feces may be excessively hard, firm, sticky or form. Fecal mass can be palpated through the abdomen. In chronic cases, weight loss and vomiting may occur in cats
internal anal sphincter is under
parasympathetic control
external anal sphincter is under
pudendal nerve controls
colonic functions
absorption in proximal half, storage in caudal half, elimination and fermentation
causes of constipation:
dietary, environment, colonic obstruction, neurologic, perirectal pain, metabolic, endocrine, drug induced
what can constipation result in?
weight loss, anorexia, weakness, depression, colonic diverticuli, paradoxical diarrhea
feline idiopathic megacolon
impairment of colonic smooth muscle function, progressive loss of colonic motility, sever constipation and obstipation
pathophysiology of gas production
aerophagia, bacterial fermentation, diffusion from blood to GI tract, neutralization of acids
contents of flatus
nitrogen, CO2, hydrogen, oxygen, methane
what do hydrogen and CO2 result from
bacterial fermentation of nonabsorbable oligosaccharies (ie, soybeans)
what spinal cord segments control defecation?
L4 to S3
what does the pudendal nerve to relative to defecation?
control external anal sphincter
what is the primary component of flatus?
nitrogen
excess of what nutrient predisposes to flatulence?
carbohydrates
breed of cat that has a congenital neuro condition called spinal dysraphism and sacral nerve agenesis
manx
symptomatic treatment of constipation can include
dietary management, laxatives and drugs to stimulate motility
what will help increase the strength and frequency of colonic contractions and make feces easier to pass?
bulk- insolunble and soluble fiber added to the diet
melena
darkening of feces by blood pgiments. Implies digested blood
steatorrhea
presence of undigested fecal fat, implies deficiences of lipase or bile
the major pathophysiologic event affecting motility in diarrheas is loss of
segmental concentrations
breed with a familial immuno-proliferative disease that causes serious malabsorption of fat and the loss of serum proteins into intestinal lumen
basenjis
how does malabsorption result in severe diarrhea?
due to osmotic effects of malabsorbed particles that remain in the intestinal lumen
what other clinical signs can be assocated with small bowel diarrhea?
vomiting, marked wieght loss, dehydration, nutritional eficiences
what other clinical signs can be assocated with large bowel diarrhea?
weight loss, dehydration
what is the hallmark of large bowel diarrhea?
tenesmus
icterus
hyperbilirubinemia with bile pigments in skin and mucus membranes
bilirubin comes from
hemoglobin
true or false: bilirubin comes from senescent erythrocytes
TRUE
what part of hemoglobin is metabolized to bilirubin?
heme
what is the major rate limiting step in bilirubin metabolism in dogs and cats
the excretion of conjugated bilirubin (Step 4)
two main causes of icterus
hemolytic and hepatobiliary
hemolysis may cause hepatic
hypoxia
some ____ conditions involve both hemolytic and hepatic mechanisms
icteric
most common cause of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia-hemolytic icteris
hemolysis (increased release of Hb)
causes of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia - hepatobiliary icterus
hepatocellular and biliary disease and/or hemolytic dz
hemolytic icterus rule outs
IMHA, blood parasites, drugs/toxins, bacteremia/septicemia
hepatobiliary icterus acute rule outs
drugs/toxins, ICH, lepto, acute pancreatitis, bacteremia/septicemia.
hepatobiliary icterus chronic rule outs
hepatic lipidosis, cholangitis/cholangiohepatitis, hepatic copper storage dz, chronic active hepatitis, hepatic cirrhosis, anticonvulsants/antibiotics, neoplasia, ruptured gall bladder, FIP
symptomatic therapy of icterus
maintain hydration, promote renal excretion of bilirubin,
true or false: bilirubin in urine must be conjugated
TRUE
jaundice
yellowness of the skin, mucus membranes or sclera due to the accumulation of bilirubin in tissues. Implies an abnormality in bilirubin metabolism or increased production
which term is preferred in veterinary medicine: jaundice or icteric
icteric
unconjugated bilirubin
bilirubin that has not ben processed by hepatocytes. NOT water soluble
conjugated bilirubin
has been processed by hepatocytes for excretion via the biliary system. Water soluble.
hemolytic icterus
icterus that results from the rapid and excessive destruction of RBCs releasing large amounts of hemoglobin
hepatobiliary icterus
icterus that results from decreased liver metabolism of bilirubin or failure to properly excrete bile into the duodenum
bilirubinemia
excess bilirubin in the blood
bilirubinuria
excess bilirubin in the urine
hemoglobinurea
excess hemoglobin in the urine- indicates severe hemolysis
what are senescent erythrocytes taken up and destryed by?
the macrophage-phagocyte system in the liver and spleen
____ is the only component of the heme molecule that requires excretion
bilirubin
kernicterus
unbound unconjugated bilirubin can enter tissues including the brain
the most common reason in dogs and cats for very large concentration of unbound, unconjugated bilirubin is
severe hemolysis
dogs and cats hepatocytes have a ___ Capacity to take in bilirubin
huge
oncei n the hepatocyte bilirubin is converted to ________ by ______
bilirubin glucuronide by glucuronyl transferase
dogs and cats hepatocytes have a ___ Capacity for conjugation
huge
conjugated bilirubin is transported to the biliary system for
excretion
the ability to take up and conjugate bilirubin _____ the capactiy to excrete conjugated bilirubin
exceeds
if the excretion pathway is compromised by liver or biliary tract disease, it is _____ into the serum
regurgitated
once excreted into the biliary system, conjugated bilirubin is mixed with other excretory products to form
bile
where is bile stored?
gall bladder
what test can confirm that hemolysis is present?
PCV
initial diagnostic plan for icterus:
determine hemolysis vs hepatobiliary
diagnostic tests only tell you what has happened:
in the past few hours
diagnostic tests do not tell the ___ or the ___
past or the future
lab findings of unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia include:
anemia (nonregen first, then regen), increase bilirubin, bilirubinuria after 3 days, liver enzymes normal at first but may increase after day 5, hemoglobinemia/uria
lab findings of conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include:
increased bilirubin, bilirubinuria, increased liver enzymes, increased bile acids
___ can be toxic to renal cells
hemoglobin
animals die from the disease causeing _____ rather than from the direct result of ______
icterus, hyperbilirubinemia
micturition
voluntary voiding of urine
urinary incontinence
lack of voluntary control over the passage of urine
dysuria
painful or difficult urination
stranguria
slow, painfully urination (obstruction, spasm of bladder neck and urethra)
pollakiuria
frequent storage attempts to urinate with voiding of small volumes
reflex dyssynergia
sudden interupttion of micturition
enuresis
involuntary passage of urine during sleep
innervation of the urinary bladder
pelvic and hypogastrric n
innervation of the urethra
pudendal n and hypogastric n
pelvic n
contains both afferent and efferent parasympathetic fibers. Primary nerve for both motor and sensory functions
hypogastric n
sympathetic fibers. Primary function is to facilitate detrussor relaxation during filling phase. Also innervates the internal urethral sphincter- faciliates urethral tone
pudendal n
mixed somatic nerve that innervates the external urethral sphincter. Maintains continence during fill phase and relaxes during voiding phase
what center mediates the micturition reflex
pons
what is the long tract circuit
tract from urethra/bladder to cerebral cortex
detrussor m innvervation
pelvic n
detrusor atony
failure of the bladder to contract, may be caused by disruption of tight junctions- chronic urethral obstruction or neurogenic causes
how is electrical activity conducted from fiber to fiber in the detrussor m?
tight junctions
characteristics of the filling phase of micturition
detrusor inhibited, sphincter stimulated
characteristics of the voiding phase of micturition
detrusor stimulated, urethra inhibited
what is dysuria a sign of?
lower urinary tract dz
dysuria
mucosal irritation or inflamation stimulates sensory receptors in bladder and urethra. This initates the micturition reflex.
causes of dysuria
inflammation/infection of bladder, urethra, prostate. Obstructive disorders (calculi, tumors, FLUTD), ofter assoc with hematuria and pyuria
two things that can be confused with dysuria by owners
polyuria, incontinence
neurogenic incontinence
lesions of nervous innervation and control
nonneurogenic incontinence
disease or anatominical defects of the lower urinary bladder
what effect can a cerebral lesion have on micturition?
can void bladder but no voluntary control, loss of house training, bladder is not distended
what effect can a lesion on the brain stem and spinal cord rostral to sacral segments hve on micturition?
no micturition reflex, but urethral and anal tone is maintained. Urethral pressures are increased and detrusor muscle is paralyzed )high resitance detrusor atony). Bladder is more dificul to express and animal may spurt small amounts of urine when the bladder is compresed. called an UMN bladder
what effect can a lesion on sacral spinal cord, nerve roots and peripheral nerves hve?
both micturion reflex and urethral pressures are decreased resulting in low resistance detrusor atony. Called a lmn bldder- more easily expressed and anal tone/reflexes might also be decreased
nonneurogenic incontinence: differentials for distended bladder
urethral obstruction, mass in bladder neck, detrusor-urethral dyssynergia, detrusor dysfunction
nonneurogenic incontience: differentials for non distended bladder
urethral incompetance, ectopic ureters, patent urachus, reduced bladder capacity, vesiculo-vaginal or ureterovaginal fistula
diagnostic approach for bladder problems
1) analyze history 2) observation and physical exam 3) classify problem-- dysuria, incontinence or a combo; neurogenic or nonneurogenic incontinence
what do you palpate on the physical exam
bladder, prostrate, urethra, empty bladder
after observing micturition wht should you determine?
residual volume in the bladder- should be less than 10 ml
animals that are incontinent are very prone to
UTIs
if bladder is distended:
assume obstruction. Attempt to pass catheter and image the abdomen. In males, be sure to palpate prostrate. May need advanced DXIM. Consider neurogenic, but odds are that it is nonneurogenic
three major causes if bladder not distended
urethral sphincter incompetence, urethral sphincter bypass, bladder contracting involuntarily at low volumes-- urger incontincence
describe the bladder in an UTI
usually small, may spasm during palpation, often feels hard
what can induce urethral sphincter incompetance
spay
urethral incompetance can be associated with
spay and neuter- more common in females
what occurs with urethral incompetence?
decreased urethral pressure, hormone receptors exist in urethral muscle- enhance resting urethral tone. When hormone levels are low the tone is decrased.
how can you treat uretheral incompetence?
hormone replacement therapty (females = estrogen), and alpha adrenergic drugs. Severe cases might require surgery
Phenylpropanolamine
a drug used to treat urethral incompetance
does the timing of OHE affect development of urethral incompetance?
it does not appear to
what dogs tend to be more affected by urethral incompetance
large dogs
fever is a sign of?
1) infection
2) immune meidated disease
3) cancer
4) drug reaction
5) all of the above
5) all of the above
which one of the following diseases will cause extreme PUPD but produce modestly concentrated urine (1.020 - 1.028)
1) renal failure
2) diabetes insipidus
3) hyperadrenocorticism
4) diabetes mellitus
5) hypercalcemia
4) diabetes mellitus
the largest component of flatus is?
nitrogen
a dog is presented with acute tenesmus, fresh blood (hematochezia) and mucoid diarrhea. Exam is neg for other clinical signs, TPR is normal. Given the clinical signs, where in the GI tract should one ficus diagnostic efforts?
large bowel
in the metabolism of bilirubin, which of the following steps is the most rate limited in dogs and cats?
a) transport of non conjugated bilirubin to liver
b) uptake into hepatocytes
c) conjugation
d) excretion of bile into the biliary system
d) excretion of bile into the biliary system
a dog has a bilateral injury of the spinal cord at T13-L1. all of the following are examples of urinary dysfunction that might occur from this injury except
a) detrussor atony
b) distended bladder
c) reduced urethral resistance
d) urinary incontinence
c) reduced urethral resistance
regarding anorexia in dogs/cats, which of the following is not correct?
1) the most common cause is primary anorexia
2) abdominal distension can cause anorexia
3) inflammatory cytokines inhibit the appetite center
4) in the presence of insulin, increased blood glucose can activiate the satiety center
1) the most primary cause is primary anorexia
all of the folowing are correct regarding obesity in dogs and cats except
a) the most common form is dystrophic obesity
b) the most common cause is excess calories relative to metabolic requirements
c) conditions that decrease the basal metabolic rate can cause weight gain
d) one of the factors to overcome in treating obesity is the body set point for weight and food intake
a) the most common form is dystrophic obesity
liver sinusoids differ from regular cappilaries in all of the following ways except
a) very porous
b) leak high protein lymph
c) have increased venous hydrostatic pressure
d) connect eins to veins
c) have increased venous hydrostatic pressure
the cause of low protein ascites is usually which of the following?
a) increased arteriole hydrostatic pressure
b) increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
c) decreased plasma oncotic pressure
d) post sinusoidal hypertension
c) decreased plasma oncotic pressure
the first step in the POA approach is
database collection
substances that cause fever are called
pyrogens
a dog has a urine specific gravity of 1.002. what area of the kidney is most likely affected?
a) glomerulus
b) proximal tubule
c) loop of henle
d) collecting ducts
collecting ducts
is water deprivation test appropriate for a dog that is 5-7% clinically dehydrated?
no
what is the primary difference in vomiting vs regurgitation?
vomiting- food from stomach/prox duodenum, reflex mediated
regurgitation- passive, food from esophagus
in chronic diarrhear what characerizes motility of the intestinal tract?
often hypomotile (decreased or slowed)
dogs and cats with lower urinary disease manifest what major clinical sign
dysuria
what is the cardinal sign of colorectal disease in dogs?
constipation
the most common type of anorexia is
secondary
the most common type of obesity is
simple
what is the most likely cause for a dug with generalized ventral edema and a low protein ascites
hypoalbunimia