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108 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the orientation of the superior vertebral facets?
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Cervical - BUM
Thoracic - BUL Lumbar - BM |
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Which vertebrae contain transverse foramina?
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C1-6
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Which scalenes help elevate the first rib?
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anterior and middle
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What is the primary motion of the OA?
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Flexion and Extension (side bending opposite)
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What is the primary motion of the AA?
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Rotation (sidebending opposite)
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For which cervical segments is the primary motion sidebending?
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C5-C7
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For which cervical segments is the primary motion rotation?
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C1-C4
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The spine of the scapula corresponds with which thoracic vertebrae?
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T3
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Inferior angle of the scapula corresponds with the spinous process of which thoracic vertebra?
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T7
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What is the main motion of the thoracic spine?
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rotation
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What are the secondary muscles of respiration?
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scalenes
pec minor serratus mm. quadratus lumborum lattissimus dorsi |
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What are the atypical ribs?
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1, 2, 11, 12 (SOMETIMES 10)
*Have "1s and 2s" |
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What are the true ribs?
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1-7
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Which ribs move through pump-handle motion?
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1-5
*Remember 5 looks like pump handle |
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Which ribs move through caliper motion?
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11-12
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Which ribs move through bucket handle motion?
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6-10
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What is the origin/insertion of the iliopsoas muscle?
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origin= T12-L5 vertebral bodies
insertion= lesser trochanter of femur |
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What is the most common anomaly in the lumbar spine?
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Facet (Zygopophyseal) Trophism
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What is the normal furgason's angle?
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Lumosacral angle 25-35
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A herniated nucleus pulposus at L3/4 will exert pressure on which nerve root?
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L4
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Psoas syndrome is often associated with what spinal somatic dysfunction?
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Type 2 L1 or L2
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Define spondylolisthesis
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anterior displacement of one vertebrae in relation to the one below
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In which vertebrae do spondylolistheses often occur?
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L4 or L5
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Scotty dog is a radiographic finding in which defect?
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spondylolysis
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Saddle anesthesia is a/w which spinal defect?
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Cauda equina syndrome
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What is dextroscoliosis?
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curve to the right (sidebent left)
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Define levels of severity of scoliosis
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Mild --> Cobb angle 5-15
Moderate --> Cobb angle 20-45 Severe --> Cobb angle > 50 |
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What is the maximum heel lift?
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1/2 inch (1/4 inside 1/4 out)
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Which ligament divides the greater and lesser sciatic foramen?
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The sacrospinous ligament
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What are the two primary pelvic muscle groups?
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Levator ani, Coccygeus
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During inhalation, the sacral base will move __________
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posterior
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During craniosacral flexion, the sacrum moves ________
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posterior (counternutates)
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About which sacral axis does respiratory/craniosacral motion occur?
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Superior transverse axis
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About which sacral axis does postural motion occur?
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Middle transverse axis
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About which sacral axis does innominate motion occur?
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Inferior transverse
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Which somatic dysfunction is defined as sacral rotation about an oblique axis along with somatic dysfunction at L5?
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sacral torsions
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The positive seated flexion test is found _________ to the oblique axis
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contralateral
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Positive Spring test --> ?
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No spring
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What are the 3 sacral torsion rules?
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Oblique axis on same side as sidebending of L5
Oblique axis on opposite side of L5 rotation Seated flexion test on same side as oblique axis |
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Which nerve innervates the primary flexors of the wrist and hand?
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median nerve (except flexor carpi ulnaris -ulnar)
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Which nerve innervates the primary extensors of the wrist and hand?
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radial nerve
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What nerve innervates the supinator?
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radial nerve
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Which nerve innervates the pronators?
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median nerve
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the head and neck?
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T1-4
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What is the sympathetic cardiovascular innervation?
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T1-5
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the respiratory system?
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T2-7
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the stomach, liver and gall bladder?
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T5-9
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the small intestine?
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T9-11
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the gonads?
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T9-10
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the kidney, ureter and bladder?
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T10-11
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the large intestine?
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T8-L2
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the uterus?
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T10-11
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What is the sympathetic innervation of the prostate?
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L1-2
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Piriformis spasm would lead to what hip restriction?
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restricted internal rotation
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What is the function of the ACL?
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prevents anterior translation of tibia on the femur
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What is the function of the PCL?
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prevents posterior translation of the tibia on the femur
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The fibular head glides __________ with pronation of the foot
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anteriorly
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What is the motor and sensory innervation of the femoral nerve?
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Motor: quadriceps, iliacus, sartorius and pectineus
Sensory: anterior thigh and medial leg |
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What are the two divisions of the sciatic nerve?
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Tibial and Peroneal
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Which nerve innervates most dorsiflexors and toe extensors?
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Peroneal
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Which nerve innervates the plantar flexors of the foot?
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Tibial
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What femur angle constitutes coxa valga?
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> 135 degrees
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What femur angle constitutes coxa vara?
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< 120 degrees
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What is the normal Q angle?
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10-12 degrees
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A posterior fibular head is likely to disturb the function of which nerve?
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Fibular
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Which structures are affected by the terrible triad?
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ACL, MCL and medial meniscus
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What ligaments are the lateral stabilizers of the ankle?
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anterior talofibular lig, posterior talofibular, calcanofibular lig
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What is the most commonly injured structure in the foot?
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Anterior Talofibular lig
*Remember ATf "Always Tears first" |
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Which structure is the medial stabilizer of the ankle?
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Deltoid ligament
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What are the components of the lateral longitudinal arch?
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Calcaneus, cuboid, 4th and 5th metatarsals
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Which structure of the knee prevents hyperextension?
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ACL
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What are the structures of the medial longitudinal arch?
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Talus, Navicular, Cuneiforms, 1st to 3rd metatarsals
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What are the structures of the transverse arch of the foot?
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Navicular, Cuneiforms, Cuboid
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Who invented all this cranial voodoo hoopahjoo?
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William G. Motherfucking Sutherland
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What is the "normal CRI"?
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"10-14 cycles per minute"
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Where does the dura attach along the spine?
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Foramen magnum, C2, C3 and S2
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The head becomes fatter during craniosacral _______
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flexion
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The sacrum moves ________ during craniosacral flexion
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posterior
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SBS torsions occur along what axis and are named for the position of which structure?
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AP axis and named for superior greater wing of sphenoid
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Where does CNI exit the cranium?
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Cribiform plate
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Where does CNIII exit the cranium?
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Superior orbital fissure
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Where does CNIV exit the cranium?
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Superior orbital fissure
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Where does CN V1 exit the cranium?
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Superior orbital fissure
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Where does CN V2 exit the cranium?
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Foramen rotundum
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Where does CN V3 exit the cranium?
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Foramen ovale
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Where does CN VI exit the cranium?
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Superior orbital fissure
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Where does CNIX exit the cranium?
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Jugular foramen
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Where does CNX exit the cranium?
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Jugular foramen
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Where does CNXII exit the cranium?
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Hypoglossal canal
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What is Wallenberg's test testing for?
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Vertebral artery insufficiency (flex neck, look for symptoms)
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How/why is the Adson's Test performed?
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Monitor pt's pulse --> extend elbow, extend, externally rotate and abduct shoulder --> deep breath --> if pulse decreases, then positive
Tests for neurovascular bundle compromise associated w/ tight scalenes |
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How/why is the Wright's Test performed?
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Hyperextend arm while monitoring pt's radial pulse --> decreased pulse = positive
Tests for compromise of neurovascular bundle by pec minor |
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How/why is the Apley's scratch test performed?
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Have pt touch opposite shoulder from front and back and scratch back
Tests ROM of shoulder |
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How/why is the drop arm test performed?
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Pt is instructed to abduct shoulder 90 degrees --> pt cannot smoothly lower arm = positive
Tests for rotator cuff tear |
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How/why is the Yergason's test performed?
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Pt flexes elbow 90 degrees while physician grasps elbow and wrist --> physician externally rotates forearm while pulling down on elbow --> positive test = pain
Tests stability of biceps tendon in the bicipital groove |
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How/why is the Allen's test performed?
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Physician occludes radial and ulnar arteries --> releases one --> assesses blood return --> positive = slow or no reperfusion
Tests adequacy of ulnar and radial arteries |
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How/why is the Finkelstein test performed?
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Pt makes a fist with thumb tucked in --> physician stabilizes forearm and deviates wrist ulnarly --> positive = pain
Tests for tenosynovitis in the abductor pollicis and extensor pollicis brevis |
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How/why is the Phalen's test performed?
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Have pt maximally flex wrists against each other --> positive = pain
Tests for carpal tunnel |
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How/why is the Tinel's test performed?
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Tap on the volar aspect of the transverse carpal ligament --> positive = pain
Tests for carpal tunnel |
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How/why is a hip-drop test performed?
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Have pt flex knee w/ heel on the ground --> positive= less than 20-25 degree drop
Tests somatic disfunction of lumbar spine |
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How/why is the straight leg raising test performed?
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Grab heel and raise leg while pt is supine --> positive = < 70-80 degrees flexion without discomfort
Tests for sciatic nerve compression |
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How/why is the Trendelenberg's test performed?
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Have pt stand on one leg --> positive = no pelvic support from gluteus medius
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Postive lumbosacral spring test indicates that the sacral base is positioned ________
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posteriorly
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A __________ backward bending test causes the sacral base to become more asymetric
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positive
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How/why is Ober's test performed?
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Pt lays on side with affected side up --> physician flexes knee 90 degrees, abducts the hip as far as possible and slightly extends hip --> physician slowly allows thigh to fall to the table --> positive = thigh remains in abducted position
Tests tight IT band |
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How/why is the Patrick's (FABERE) test performed?
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Put affected side leg into a figure 4 --> positive = pain
Tests for pathology of the sacroiliac and hip joint |
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How/why is the Thomas test performed?
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Flex hip and knee w/ pt supine --> positive test = motion of contralateral leg
Tests for flexion contracture of hip |
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How/why is McMurray's test performed?
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Flex knee 90 degrees, externally rotate and apply valgus stress while palpating medial meniscus --> extend knee and feels for clicks
Externally rotate and varus force for lateral meniscus |