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952 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Indifferent stage of gonads (weeks)

Weeks 4-7

Where do the indifferent gonads develop?

In a longitudinal elevation or ridge of intermediate mesoderm - urogenital ridge

Where do the primordial germ cells arise from?

From the lining cells in the wall of the yolk sac


At week 4, primordial germ cells migrate into the indifferent gonad


Provide a critical inductive influence on gonad development

Components of the indifferent gonad

1. Primordial germ cells


2. Primary sex cords - finger-like epithelial extensions inside the gonads that are populated by migrating primordial germ cells


3. Mesonephric (Wolffian) duct - male genital truct


Paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct - female genital truct

Development of testis and ovary

Factors for the development of male reproductive system (4)

1. Sry gene - short arm of the Y chromosome (encodes testis-determining factor [TDF])


2. Testosterone - Leydig cells


3. Mullerian-inhibiting factor (MIF) - Sertoli cells


4. Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) - external genitalia

Events during meiosis I

Events during meiosis II

Meiosis chart

Type B spermatogonia/oogonia genetic status

46, 2n (Diploid)

Primary spermatocyte/oocyte genetic status

46, 4n

Secondary spermatocyte/oocyte genetic status

23. 2n

Gametes genetic status

23, 1n (Haploid)

Spermatogenesis

Oogenesis

Week 1 of development chart

2 changes of a spermatozoa in the female genital truct

1. Capacitation - during 7 hours in the female truct, removal of several proteins from the plasma membrane of the acrosome of the spermatozoa


2. Acrosome reaction - release of hydrolytic enzymes from the acrosome used by sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida -> cortical reaction that prevents other spermatozoa penetrating the zona pellucida

Morula

32-cell stage of division

Blastocyst

Forms as fluid develops in the morula


Consists of an inner cell mass known as the embryoblast, and the outer cell mass known as the trophoblast, which becomes the placenta


At the end of the first week, the trophoblast differentiates into the cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast and then implantation begins



Ectopic pregnancy

Risk factors for the tubal ectopic pregnancy

-Endometriosis


-Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)


-Tubular pelvic surgery


-Exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES)

What risks in diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure

-clear cell carcinoma, a rare vaginal tumor in girls and women who had been exposed to this drug in utero


-tubal ectopic pregnancy

Implantation

Week 2 of the development

Formation of the bilaminar embryo

Week 2 of development chart

Into what does the embryoblast differentiates?

Epiblast and hypoblast, forming a bilaminar embryonic disk


Epiblast -> amniotic cavity


Hypoblast -> primary yolk sac

From what structure does the mouth develops?

Prechordal plate (formed by fusion of epiblast and hypoblast)

Extraembryonic mesoderm

Is derived from the epiblast


Extraembryonic somatic mesoderm lines the cytotrophoblast, forms the connecting stalk, and covers the amnion


Extraembryonic visceral mesoderm covers the yolk sac

Connecting stalk

Suspends the conceptus within the chorionic cavity

Chorion

Wall of the chorionic cavity


Consists of extraembryonic somatic mesoderm, cytotrophoblast, and the syncitiotrophoblast

Is there mitosis in syncytiotrophoblast or cytotrophoblast?

No mitosis in syncytiotrophoblast!


Cytotrophoblast is mitotically active

Locations of hematopoiesis

1. Mesoderm surrounding the yolk sac (up to 6 weeks)


2. Fetal liver, spleen, thymus (6 weeks - 3rd trimester)


3. Bone marrow



Where is the hCG produced?

Syncytiotrophoblast

Function of the hCG

Stimulates progesterone production by the corpus luteum

Low hCG

-spontaneous abortion


-ectopic pregnancy

High hCG

-multiple pregnancy


-hydatidiform mole


-gestational trophoblastic disease

What replaces the blastocyst cavity?

Primary yolk sac

When are the extraembryonic mesoderm and chorion formed?

2 week (formation of the bilaminar embryo)

Embryonic period

Weeks 3-8

Embryonic week 3

Gastrulation

What does the mesoderm form? (3)

1. Paraxial mesoderm (35 pairs of somites)


2. Intermediate mesoderm


3. Lateral mesoderm

What happens in third week of embryonic development?

Gastrulation and early development of nervous and cardiovascular systems; corresponds to first missed period!

Sacrococcygeal teratoma

Chordoma

Hydatidiform mole. Two types. Their genotype.

Germ layer derivatives

Surface ectoderm derivatives (9)

Neuroectoderm derivatives (7)

Neural crest ectoderm derivatives (13)

Mesoderm derivatives (13)

Endoderm derivatives (11)

Yolk sac derivatives (2)

Pathogenesis of cystic fibrosis

The apical Cl channels do not open -> NaCl and water cannot move across -> thickening of the mucus layer covering the epithelia

Simple cuboidal epithelium

-renal tubules


-salivary gland acini



Simple columnar epithelium

-Small intestine


-Large intestine

Simple squamous epithelium

-Endothelium


-Mesothelium


-Epithelium lining the inside of the renal glomerular capsule

Stratified squamous epithelium

-Nonkeratinized: oral cavity, pharynx, and esophagus


-Keratinizing: skin

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

-nasal cavity


-trachea


-bronchi


-epididymis

Transitional epithelium (urothelium)

-ureter


-bladder

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

Salivary gland ducts

Hematoxylin

Eosin

Bladder transitional epithelium

Layers of the epidermis

Microfilaments

Intermediate filaments. 4 groups.

Microtubules. Function of dynein and kinesin.

First step in the invasion of malignant cells through an epithelium results from ...

... a loss of expression of cadherinsthat weakens the epithelium

Changes in ... are evident in neurons in Alzheimer's disease and in cirrhotic liver diseases

intermediate filaments

Colchicine action

Prevents microtubule polymerization and is used to prevent neutrophil migration in gout

Vinblastine and vincristine action

Inhibit the formation of the mitotic spindle


Used in cancer therapy

Cadherin and selectin

Catenin complex of proteins

Links cytoplasmic portions of cadherins to cytoplasmic actin filaments

Integrins

Basement membrane structure

1. Basal lamina (type IV collagen, glycoproteins [laminin], and proteoglycans [heparin sulfate])


2. Reticular lamina (reticular fibers) - under the basal lamina

Cell junctions chart

Tight junctions (zona occludens)

Proteins associated with tight junctions

-occludins (ZO-1,2,3)


-claudin proteins


These proteins bind to actin microfilaments

Zonula adherens

Proteins of zonula adherens

Cadherins


Bind to actin microfilaments

Desmosomes (macula adherens)

Proteins of desmosomes

Cadherins


Bind to intermediate filaments in large bundles (tonofilaments)

Hemidesmosomes

Proteins of hemidesmosomes

Integrins on the cell bind to fibronectin and fibronectin and laminin in turn bind to collagen (type IV) in the basal lamina


Internally, like a desmosome, the hemidesmosomes are linked to intermediate filaments

Gap junctions (communicating junctions)

Connexon structure

6 connexin molecules - gap junction

Pemphigus vulgaris

Bullous pemphigoid

Microvilli

Cilia



Kartagener syndrome



Structure of the axoneme of a cilium



Embryology of vertebrae

During week 4, sclerotome cells of the somites (mesoderm) migrate medially to surround the spinal cord and notochord. After proliferation of the caudal portion of the sclerotomes, the vertebrae are formed, each consisting of the caudal part of one sclerotome and the cephalic part of the next

Composition of the vertebral column



Each intervertebral disk is numbered by the vertebral body ... the disk

Above

Notochord derivative

Nucleus pulposus

Anulus fibrosus function

Connects the adjacent bodies

Nucleus pulposus function

Shock absorber

Anterior longitudinal ligament function

Prevents hyperextension of the vertebrae


Often involved in "whiplash" accidents

Posterior longitudinal ligament function

Limits flexion of the vertebral column


Causes the herniation of a disk to be positioned posterolaterally

Most common direction of disk herniation

Posterolateral

Disk herniation



Boundaries of the intervertebral foramina



Termination of spinal cord in adults

L1-L2

2 specializations of the pia mater

1. Denticulate ligaments


2. Filum terminale

Termination of the dural mater/dural sac

S2

Arachnoid termination

Like dural mater - S2

Epidural and subarachnoid spaces



Significance of the internal vertebral venous plexus



How many spinal nerves are there?

31 pairs: 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, and 1 coccygeal

Cross section of spinal cord and parts of spinal nerve

Where are sensory ganglions located?

Dorsal roots

Relationship of exit of spinal nerves and vertebral levels



On what level is the lumbar puncture performed?

L4-L5 interspace

A horizontal line drawn at the top of the iliac crest marks the level of the ...

L4 vertebra

The interlaminar spaces are covered by the ...

Ligamentum flava

Layers passed during lumbar puncture



Preganglionic cell bodies of the SNS

Lateral horn gray matter of spinal cord segments T1-L2 (14 segments)

Postganglionic cell bodies of the SNS

2 types of motor ganglia in the PNS:


1. Chain or paravertebral


2. Collateral or prevertebral (found only in abdomen or pelvis)

Thoracic splanchnic nerves



Lumbar splanchic nerves



Sympathetic (thoracolumbar) outflow



Sympathetic outflow chart



Cross section of spinal cord's sympathetic outflow



Preganglionic cell bodies of the PsNS



Postganglionic cell bodies of the PsNS



Parasympathetic (craniosacral) outflow



PsNS ganglions

1. CN III - ciliary ganglion:


-pupillary sphincter


-ciliary m.


2. CN VII - submandibular ganglion:


-submandibular gland


-sublingual gland


CN VII - pterygopalatine ganglion:


-lacrimal gland


-nasal and oral mucosal glands


3. CN IX - otic ganglion:


-parotid gland


4. CN X and S2-S4 - terminal ganglia

PsNS outflow chart



Cooper ligaments

Suspensory ligaments that attach the mammary gland to the skin and run from the skin to the deep fascia

Arterial supply to the mammary glands

1. Internal thoracic artery - a branch of subclavian artery which supplies the medial aspect of the gland


2. Lateral thoracic artery - a branch of the axillary artery, supplies the lateral part of the gland. Courses with the long thoracic nerve, superficial to the serratus anterior muscle

Orange-peel appearance of the mammary glands

The presence of a tumor within the breast can distort Cooper ligaments. which results in dimpling of the skin

What nerves can be lesioned during the radical mastectomy? Symptoms?

1. Long thoracic nerve (serratus anterior muscle) during ligation of the lateral thoracic artery. Few weeks after surgery:


-winged scapula


-weakness in abduction of the arm above 90 degrees


2. Thoracodorsal nerve (latissimus dorsi):


-weakness in extension


-weakness in medial rotation of the arm



The lymphatic drainage of the breast

1. Laterally, most of the lymphatic flow (75%) drains from the nipple, superior, lateral, and inferior quadrants of the breast -> pectoral nodes -> axillary nodes


2. Medial quadrant -> parasternal nodes, which accompany the internal thoracic vessels -> opposite breast

Embryology of lower respiratory system

Week 4, lower respiatory tract (trachea, bronchi, and lungs) -> single respiratory (laryngotracheal) diverticulum of endoderm from the ventral wall of the foregut


-respiratory epithelium develops from endoderm


-muscles, connective tissues, and cartilages develop from mesoderm


*Respiratory diverticulum -> lung bud


*Diverticulum and lung bud -> bifurcation -> 2 bronchial buds -> series of divisions -> main, secondary, and tertiary bronchi (by the sixth month)


*Tracheoesophageal septum forms to separate the esophagus from the trachea

What structure is related to the bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs?

Tertiary segmental bronchi

A critical timeline in lung development. Why?

25-28th weeks. Surfactant production.

Tracheoesophageal fistula



Tracheoesophageal fistula chart

Pulmonary hypoplasia. 2 causes.



How many intercostal spaces are there? With what are they filled?

11 intercostal spaces


Filled by the 3 layers of intercostal muscles and their related fasciae

Costal groove. Correct abbreviation for the structures in it.

VAN (superior to inferior)

Intercostal arteries. Source.

Anteriorly:


-branches of internal thoracic artery << subclavian artery


Posteriorly:


-branches of the thoracic aorta


Thus, collateral circulation between the subclavian artery and the thoracic aorta

Where is the intercostal nerve block done?

Upper portion of the intercostal space

Where is the reflection poiny between parietal and visceral pleura?

Hilum of the lungs

Innervation of pleura



Respiratory distress syndrome and hyaline membrane disease



Differential diagnosis: pleurisy, costal inflammation, mediastinal irritation



Open and tension pneumothorax



Sympathetic outflow from the thoraco-lumbar spinal cord chart

Sternal line of reflection (where the costal pleura is continuous with the mediastinal pleura posterior to sternum)

Costal cartilages 2-4


The pleural margin then passes inferiorly to the level of the sixth costal cartilage

What occupies the costomediastinal recess?

Lingula of the left lung (during inspiration)

Visceral and parietal pleuras borderline



Diaphragmatic surface of what lung is more superior?

Right lung (owing to the liver)

Pancoast tumor

A tumor at the apex of the lung, may result in thoracic outlet syndrome

Lobes and fissures of the right lung

3 lobes: superior, middle, inferior


2 fissures:


*horizontal - separates the superior from the middle lobe


*oblique - separates the middlefrom inferior lobe

Lobes and fissures of the left lung

2 lobes: superior and inferior


1 fissure: oblique


The lingula of the left upper lobe corresponds to the middle lobe of the right lung

Projection of the horizontal fissure

Follows the curvature of the 4th rib, ending medially at the 4th costal cartilage

Projection of the horizontal fissure

Approximately 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line, ending medially deep to the 6th costal cartilage

Projection of the lungs' lobes on the chest wall



Locations for the auscultation of lungs



Aspiration of a foreign body. Where it will more probably fall?



2 major lymphatic vessels



Lymphatic drainage of the lungs

-Superficial plexus (immediately deep to the visceral pleura)


-Deep plexus - begins deeply in the lungs and drains through pulmonary nodes which follow the bronchial tree toward the hilum


Plexuses -> bronchopulmonary (hilar) nodes -> tracheobronchial nodes -> bronchomediastinal nodes and trunk -> right lymphatic duct or thoracic duct

Lymphatic drainage of the lungs chart



The lymphatic drainage from the lower lobe of the left lung



Right lymphatic and thoracic ducts



Metabolic functions of pulmonary endothelium

-transformation of lipoproteins and prostaglandins


-production of the enzyme that converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II

Clinical correlate



Main causes of lung cancer

-smoking


-asbestos


-excessive radiation

Mesothelioma

Malignant tumor of the pleura


Causative agent: asbestos dust

Histologic features of trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles





Histological layers of the trachea





Tracheal epithelial cell types

-columnar cells


-goblet cells


-pulmonary neuroendocrine (PNE) cells (APUD cells/DNES cells - diffuse neuro endocrine system/K [Kulchitsky] cells)


-brush cells - may represent goblet cells that have secreted their products or intermediate stages in the formation of goblet or the tall ciliated cells; may be sensory receptors


-basal cells - stem cells for the ciliated and goblet cells; stem cells lie on the basal membrane but do not extend to the lumen of the trachea; along with epithelial neuroendocrine cells are responsible for the pseudostratified appearance of the trachea

Kartagener syndrome



What cells give the pseudostratified appearance to the trachea?

Basal cells (stem cells), not goblet cells! Along with epithelial neuroendocrine cells.

Bronchial tree

Trachea


Primary bronchi


Secondary (lobar) bronchi - 3 in right and 2 in left


Tertiary (segmental) bronchi - 10 in each lung





Histology of bronchi



Reaction of columnar and goblet cells on irritation



From what cells do the bronchial metastatic tumors arise?

Kulchitsky cells

Cystic fibrosis and Clara cells



Is there cartilage or glands in the bronchioles?

No

Epithelial type of bronchioles

Still ciliated but is a simple columnar or cuboidal rather than pseudostratified


Epithelial lining is composed of ciliated cells (goblet and basal cells are absent in the terminal bronchioles) and an additional type called the Clara cell

Clara cells



Histology of terminal and respiratory bronchioles



COPD



Alveolus and blood-air barrier



Type I pneumocyte



Type II pneumocyte







Surfactant



Types of collagen in the alveolar wall

Type I and II collagens, as well as elastic fibers, are in the septa


Type I collagen is present primarily in the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles

Why infants of diabetec mothers have a higher incidence of respiratory distress syndrome?



Blood-gas barrier

-Surfactant


-Squamous Type I pneumocyte


-Shared basal lamina


-Capillary endothelium



What's the distance between the lumen of the capillary and the lumen of the alveolus?

0.1 microns

Pores of Kohn

Openings in the wall of alveoli


Important in collateral ventilation


d = 10-15 microns

Alveolar macrophages



Other names of the alveolar macrophages



When the heart begins to develop?


From what germ layer?

Latter half of the third week


From splanchnic mesoderm + neural crest cells

Formation of heart tube



Development of the heart tube chart



Germ layer for the truncus arteriosus (aorta, pulmonary trunk, semilunar valves)

Neural crest





Development of the veins of liver (sinusoids, hepatic portal vein, hepatic vein) and part of the inferior vena cava

From viteline (omphalomesenteric) veins

Development of some of the major veins of the body (brachiocephalic, superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, azygos, renal)

From cardinal veins

Venous systems associated with the fetal heart



Arterial systems associated with the fetal heart



Fetal circulation and shunts



What substances facilitate closure of the ductus arteriosus?

-release of bradykinin


-immediate drop of prostaglandin E

Adult vestiges derived from the fetal circulatory system



When does the septation of atria and ventricles occur?

Week 4 - week 8

Formation of atrial septum



Where is the foramen primum located?

Between the inferior edge of the septum primum and the endocardial cushion; it is the only one foramen obliterated (when the septum primum later fuses with the endocardial cushions)

Where is the foramen secundum located?

Within the upper part of the SEPTUM PRIMUM (!) just before the FP closes

Two clinically important types of ASD

1. Secundum-type - most common ASD


2. Primum-type

Secundum-type ASD



Primum-type ASD



Ventricular septation



Ventricular septal defect

Membranous VSD



In what conditions PDA is common?

-premature infants


-maternal rubella infection

Machine-like murmur

PDA

What substances sustain PDA?

-Prostaglandin E (PGE)


-Low oxygen tension

I what conditions PGE is used to keep PDA?

Transposition of great vessels

What substances promote closure of the ductus arteriosus in a premature birth?

-PGE inhibitors (eg, indomethacin)


-acetylcholine


-histamine


-catecholamines

When does the septation of the truncus arteriosus occur?

During the 8th week

Septation of the truncus arteriosus



What is the defect in classic cyanotic congenital heart abnormalities?



Most common cyanotic congenital heart deffect

Tetralogy of Fallot

Boot-shaped heart

Tetralogy of Fallot (due to enlarged right ventricle)

Boot-shaped heart.Tetralogy of Fallot (due to enlarged right ventricle).

Tetralogy of Fallot



Trilogy vs. tetralogy vs. pentalogy of Fallot



Transposition of the great vessels



The most common cause of severe cyanosis that persists immediately at birth

Transposition of the great vessels

Transposition of the great vessels chart



What defect is ALWAYS accompanied by a membranous VSD?

Persistent truncus arteriosus

Persistent truncus arteriosus



Non-cyanotic and cyanotic congenital heart defects at birth (3 and 3)

Mediastinum



Anterior mediastinum



Point of division of the mediastinum on superior and inferior

Plane through the sternal angle of Louis and intervertebral disk between T4 and T5

Aortic hiatus level. What contains?

T12


Thoracic descending aorta and thoracic duct

Location of the esophagus in the posterior mediastinum

Immediately posterior to the left primary bronchus and the left atrium

Level of the esophageal hiatus. What contains?

T10


Esophagus and vagal nerve trunks

Constrictions of the esophagus

1. at its origin from the pharynx


2. posterior to the arch of the aorta


3. posterior to the left primary bronchus


4. at the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm

Location of the thoracic duct. Its origin.

Lies posterior to the esophagus and between the thoracic aorta and azygos vein


Arises from the cisterna chyli in the abdomen (at vertebral level L1) and enters the mediastinum through the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm

Azygos system of veins



4 structures of the posterior mediastinum

1. Thoracic (descending) aorta


2. Esophagus


3. Thoracic duct


4. Azygos system of veins

Middle mediastinum

Contains the heart, parts of the great vessels, phrenic nerves, and the pericardium

In what mediastinum are the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries located?

Completely in the middle mediastinum!

Completely in the middle mediastinum!

Superior mediastinum



Where the superior vena cava is formed?

2 brachiocephalic veins join posterior to the right first costal carilage

On what level the superior vena cava drains into RA?

Deep to the right third costal cartilage

Where are aortic arch and its 3 branches located?



Location of the bifurcation of the trachea

T4 level - border of the superior and inferior mediastinum

Location of the esophagus

Lies posterior to the trachea and courses posterior to the left primary bronchus to enter the posterior mediastinum

Superior mediastinum structures, from ventral to dorsal



Is the right recurrent laryngeal nerve in the mediastinum?

No

Vagus nerves



Phrenic nerves



Recurrent laryngeal nerves



Coarctation of the aorta



Infantile and adult types of the coarctation of the aorta

-infantile type - preductal - less common, occurs proximal to the DA, which remains open!


-adult type - postductal - more common, occurs distal to the DA, which usually closes and obliterates -> costal notching

Coarctation of the aorta pictures



Layers of pericardium

3 layers: an outer fobrous layer and a double-layered parietal and visceral (epicardium) serous layers

Fibrous pericardium



Serous pericardium



Sinuses of the heart



Cardiac tamponade



Borders of the heart



Surfaces of the heart

Sulci of the heart

1. Coronary


2. Anterior interventricular


3. Posterior interventricular

Surface projections of the heart:


-upper right aspect


-lower right aspect


-upper left aspect


-apex


-right border


-left border


-inferior border


-superior border



What is crista terminalis?



Right atrium structures



Where is the SA node located?

In the upper part of the crista terminalis

Inside the right atrium picture



Left atrium structures



What is infundibulum (the heart)?

The smooth area of the right ventricle leading to the pulmonary valve

What is septomarginal trabecula (moderator band)?

This is a band of cardiac muscle between the interventricular septum and the anterior papillary muscle that constitutes a part of the cardiac conduction system

This is a band of cardiac muscle between the interventricular septum and the anterior papillary muscle that constitutes a part of the cardiac conduction system

Right ventricle structures



What is aortic vestibule?

The aortic vestibule leads to the aortic semilunar valve and ascending aorta

Left ventricle structures



Right and left ventricles picture



Histology: cardiac muscle vs. skeletal muscle



Intercalated disks (heart)







Points of auscultation of the heart valves



How many cusps are in the aortic and pulmonary valves?

3 cusps

Auscultation of heart murmurs chart ("A heart murmur is heard downstream from the valve")



Arterial supply of the heart



Arterial supply to the heart chart



Right coronary artery branches



Left coronary artery branches



Epidemiology of vessels obstruction leading to the myocardial infarction



From what does the coronary sinus develop?

Left sinus venosus

Main vein of the coronary circulation

Coronary sinus

Main tributary of the coronary sinus

Great cardiac vein (lies in the anterior interventricular sulcus)

Venous drainage of the heart



Venous drainage of the heart picture



Where is the AV node located?

In the interatrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus

Cardiac plexus



Phrenic nerve segments

C3-C5

Caval hiatus

T8, right of the midline, within the central tendon


Inferior vena cava and some branches of the right phrenic nerve

Esophageal hiatus

T10, left of the midline, within the muscle of the right crus


Esophagus and the anterior and posterior vagus trunks

Aortic hiatus

T12, lLocated in the midline behind the two crura


Aorta and the thoracic duct

Development of the diaphragm:


1. central tendon of the diaphragm


2. parts of the tendinous portion of the diaphragm


3. crura of the diaphragm


4. muscle periphery



Pain referral from the phrenic nerve



A congenital diaphragmatic and esophageal hiatal hernia





Development of the alveolar macrophages

They are derived from monocytes

From what does the primitive heart tube develop?

From the lateral plate mesoderm

Where is the coronary sinus orifice located?

Between the inferior vena cava and the right atrioventricular orifice or tricuspid valve in the right atrium

Linea semilunaris

Is a curved line defining the lateral border of the rectus abdominis, a bilateral feature

Subcostal plane



Transpyloric plane



Midclavicular lines



Regions and plains of the abdomen



Superficial fascia of the anterior abdominal wall



Hesselbach's triangle

Lacunar and pectineal ligaments

Femoral canal

Inguinal ligament



Superficial inguinal ring



Anteror abdominal wall layers



External abdominal oblique muscle



External spermatic fascia derives from ...

External abdominal oblique muscle


Is the outer layer of 3 coverings of the spermatic cord formed at the superficial inguinal ring in males

Cremasteric muscle and fascia derive from ...

Internal abdominal oblique muscle


Is the middle layer of the spermatic fascia covering the spermatic cord and testis in the male. It forms in the inguinal canal.

Internal abdominal oblique muscle



Transversus abdominis muscle and aponeurosis



Internal spermatic fascia derives from ...

Transversalis fascia


Deepest of the coverings of the spermatic cord formed at the deep ring in the male



Superficial inguinal ring is formed by ...

External oblique aponeurosis

Deep inguinal ring



Deep inguinal ring is formed by ...

Outpouching of the transversalis fascia immediately above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament


The inferior epigastric vessels are medial to the deep ring

Transversalis fascia



Femoral sheath

Where do the gonads develop?

Within the extraperitoneal connective tissue!

Layers of anterolateral abdominal wall and inguinal canal picture

Innervation of the skin and muskulature of the anterior abdominal wall

-Ventral primary rami of T7-T12 (includes the subcostal nerve)


-Iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal branches of the ventral primary rami of L1

Arterial blood supply to the anterior abdominal wall

-superior epigastric branch << internal thoracic artery


-inferior epigastric and DEEP circumflex iliac << external iliac artery

Venous drainage from the anterior abdominal wall

Superiorly:


-superficial epigastric


-lateral thoracic veins


Inferiorly:


-great saphenous vein

Lymph drainage from the anterior abdominal wall

Superiorly - axillary nodes


Inferiorly - superficial inguinal

Inguinal canal



Remnant of the caudal genital ligament (females)

Round ligament of the uterus

Homologue of the gubernaculum testis of the male

Round ligament of the uterus

Ilioinguinal nerve innervation in females

Anterior part of the mons pubis and labia majora

Female inguinal canal contents



Ilioinguinal nerve innervation in males

Skin of the lateral and anterior scrotum

Contents of the spermatic cord (6)



Male inguinal canal contents

1. Ilioinguinal nerve


2. The spermatic cord

Varicocele



Fascial layers of the spermatic cord



Boundaries of the inguinal canal



When does the descent of testes occur?

During the last trimester

When does the processus vaginalis close?

Before birth

What is gubernaculum?

Fibers that guide the testis during its descent to the scrotum

Descent of the testes

Where do the cancers of penis and scrotum will metastasize? Testicular cancer?



Cremasteric reflex limbs



Cryptorchidism



Inguinal hernias occur ... to the inguinal ligament

superior

Indirect inguinal hernias



Direct inguinal hernias



Cuase of the congenital indirect inguinal hernia

Persistent process vaginalis

Hydrocele

Direct vs. indirect hernias



Hasselbach's triangle



Inguinal hernias most often occur in ...


Femoral hernias most offen occur in ...

Inguinal - men


Femoral - women (Femoral-Female)

What does the femoral sheath contain?

Femoral artery, vein, and canal

Femoral hernias occur ... to the inguinal ligament

inferior

Femoral artery, nerve, and vein - correct order (medial to lateral!)

VAN

How is the primitive gut tube formed?



Primitive gut tube



Adult structures derived from each of the 3 divisions of the primitive gut tube



Development of gastrointestinal tract

Where does the liver develop? Spleen and dorsal pancreatic bud?

Liver - ventral embryonic mesentery


Spleen and dorsal pancreatic bud - dorsal embryonic mesentery

Rotation of the foregut



From what do the lower respiratory tract, liver and biliary system, and pancreas develop?

Endodermal outgrowth of the foregut

Cross-sectional view of foregut development and rotation



From what does the midgut develop?

From the cranial and caudal intestinal loops

Development and rotation of the midgut



Innervation of the parietal peritoneum

-lower intercostal nerves


-ilioinguinal and the iliohypogastric nerves of the lumbar plexus

What are mesenteries?

Double-layered peritoneal membranes that suspend parts of the GI tract from the body wall

Postnatal remnants of mesenteries



Peritonitis



lesser sac

Omental bursa


Is a cul-de-sac formed posterior to the stomach and the lesser omentum

Greater sac

Formed by the larger area of the remaining peritoneal cavity

The only communication between the lesser sac and the greater sac

Epiploic foramen (of Winslow)

Intraperitoneal vs. retroperitoneal organs



Intraperitoneal vs. retroperitoneal organs table



Boundaries of the epiploic foramen (of Winslow)

Where is the ligamentum teres of liver located?

Falciform ligament

What does the splenorenal ligament contain?

Tail of pancreas and distal splenic vessels

Composition of the lesser omentum

-Hepatogastric ligament


-Hepatoduodenal ligament

What does the hepatoduodenal ligament contain?

-common bile duct


-proper hepatic artery


-hepatic portal vein

Development of the liver



Development of the pancreas



What does the dorsal pancreatic bud form?

Neck, body, and tail of the pancreas

What does the ventral pancreatic bud form?

Head and uncinate process

Development of the spleen



Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis



Annular pancreas



Extrahepatic biliary atresia



Duodenal atresia



Omphalocele





Omphalocele (with membrane)



Gastroschisis

The amnion stems from the ... on the outer side and the ... on the inner side

The amnion stems from the extraembryonic somatic mesoderm on the outer side and the extraembryonic ectoderm on the inner side

Gastroschisis



Ileal (Meckel) diverticulum



Vitelline fistula



Drainage of meconium from the umbilicus

Vitelline fistula

Volvulus

Twisting of intestines

Malrotation of midgut



Hirschprung disease



Division of the liver



Visceral surface of the liver



Where does the gallbladder lie?

In a fossa on the visceral surface of the liver to the right of the quadrate lobe

Biliary ducts



By what is the uncinate process of pancreas crossed?

Superior mesenteric vessels

Site of formation of the hepatic portal vein

Posterior to the neck of pancreas

The only part of the pancreas that is intraperitoneal

Tail

Blood supply to the pancreas

Head:


-superior pancreaticoduodenal branch << gastroduodenal artery << celiac trunk


-inferior pancreaticoduodenal branch << superior mesenteric artery


Collateral circulation between celiac trunk and superior mesenteric artery!


Neck, body, and tail: splenic artery

Carcinoma of the pancreas



The splenic artery and vein reach the hilus of the spleen by traversing the ...

splenorenal ligament

Border between foregut and midgut

2 part of duodenum - at the point of entry of the common bile duct

What is mesoappendix?

Own mesentery of the appendix

What's longer - jejunum or ileum?

Jejunum - 2/5


Ileum - 3/5!

Sliding hiatal hernia



What is transverse mesocolon?

Own mesentery of the transverse colon

Border between midgut and hindgut

Junction of the proximal two-thirds and distal one-third of the transverse colon

What is sigmoid mesocolon?

Own mesentery of the sigmoid colon

Junction point between descending colon and sigmoid colon

Pelvic brim

Anal canal



Function of the puborectalis component of the pelvic diaphragm



Internal and external anal sphincter



Innervation of the external anal sphincter

Inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve

Pectinate line (rectum)



Comparison of features above and below the pectinate line (table)





What is located in the lamina propria of GI tract?

-Capillary networks


-Lacteals!


-GALT (IgA production)!

Meissner's plexus

An interconnected network of ganglia and nerves located in the submucosa

Auerbach's plexus

Located between the 2 muscle layers of the muscularis externa

Extrinsic autonomic innervation of the GI tract



Hirschprung disease

Brunner glands

Discharge alkaline secretion in duodenum


Located in submucosa!

Histology of GI tract table



Function of M cells in ileum



Muscularis externa of the esophagus







Gastric pits





Where are the parietal cells located?

Upper regions of the gastric glands (under the isthmus!)

Where are the mucus-secreting cells located in the stomach?



H. pylori infection



Where are the stem cells responsible for the regeneration of all types of cells located in the stomach?

Isthmus!

Where are chief cells located?

Deep within the glands, thus they can have life span greater than 190 days (not acidic environment)





The glands are ... in the cardiac and pyloric regions of the stomach and ... in the fundus and body regions

The glands are coiled in the cardiac and pyloric regions of the stomach and straight in the fundus and body regions

Valves of Kerckring

Plicae circulares (circular folds) in the small intestine


Involve both mucosa and sub-mucosa


Increase the surface area by factor of 3

Villi of the small intestine



Microvilli of the small intestine



Function of glycocalix

Crypts of Lieberkuhn



Small intestine mucosal histology

What cells produce mucus in the GI tract?

Duodenum - Brunner glands


Intestine - goblet cells





Maternal IgGs ingestion and IgAs secretion



Constipation



Where are the Peyer's patches located?



Goblet cells



Enterocytes



Paneth cells







Stain for the enteroendocrine cells

Silver-based stains

Where are the enteroendocrine cells located?



Stem cells of the intestinal epithelia



GALT







Does the large intestine have plicae, villi, and crypts of Lieberkuhn?

No plicae, villi, but has short crypts of Lieberkuhn

Why are there haustra in the colon?

Because the colon is longer than teniae coli

Difference in location between stem cells in stomach and small and large intestine

Stomach - isthmus


Small and large intestine - lower part of the crypts



Salivary glands



Intercalated and striated ducts of the salivary glands







Parotid gland pathology



Stensen's duct

Parotid gland's duct, opens above the second upper molar tooth

Parotid gland



Wharton's duct

Duct of the submandibular gland, drain in the floor of the mouth near the base of the tongue

Submandibular gland



Sublingual gland





Duct of Wirsung

Main pancreatic duct

Duct of Santorini

Accessory pancreatic duct

Histological difference between pancreas and salivary glands



Kupffer cells



Blood flow into the liver

Blood flow into the liver is dual (75% from portal vein, 25% from hepatic artery)

Space of Disse



How many hepatic veins are there?

The hepatic veins are three large veins which drain the hepatic parenchyma into the inferior vena cava (IVC), named the right hepatic vein, middle hepatic vein and left hepatic vein

The hepatic veins are three large veins which drain the hepatic parenchyma into the inferior vena cava (IVC), named the right hepatic vein, middle hepatic vein and left hepatic vein

Portal triad (portal tract)



Classic hepatic lobule







Portal lobule



Hepatic acinus



Hepatic acinus picture

Classic lobule vs. portal lobule vs. hepatic acinus

Metabolic activity of hepatocytes within the zones of the acinus



Ito cells (stellate cells)



Epithelium of the gallbladder



Spiral valves of Heister

Valves in the cystic duct

Mechanism of the development of the portal hypertension



3 main functions of bile



Level of the aortal bifurcation

L4

3 groups of the aortal branches

-3 unpaired visceral branches


-3 paired visceral branches


-several parietal branches to the body wall

Abdominal aorta branches



Visceral and parietal branches of the abdominal aorta picture



The most common site for an abdominal aneurism



Celiac artery (trunk) branches

Arises at T12-L1 level


Supplies the structures derived from the foregut


3 branches:


1. left gastric artery (supplies most of the lesser curvature)


-esophageal branch


2. splenic artery


-branches to the neck, body, and tail of the pancreas


-left gastroepiploic artery (supplies the left side of the greater curvature of the stomach)


-short gastric branches (supply the fundus of the stomach)


3. common hepatic artery


-proper hepatic artery


*right gastric artery


-left hepatic artery


-right hepatic artery


*cystic artery


-gastroduodenal artery


*right gastroepiploic artery


*superior pancreaticoduodenal arteries (anastomoses with inferior pancreaticoduodenal branches of the superior mesenteric artery)

Celiac artery branches



Superior mesenteric artery

Arises at the L1 level just below the celiac artery


Supplies the midgut


The superior mesenteric vein is to the right of the artery


Branches:


1. inferior pancreaticoduodenal arteries - anastomose with the superior pancreaticoduodenal branches of the gastroduodenal artery


2. intestinal arteries - 12-15 branches from the left side of SMA


3. ileocolic artery


4. right colic artery


5. middle colic artery

SMA picture



Inferior mesenteric artery

Supplies hindgut


Arises at the level of L3


Branches:


1. Left colic artery


2. Sigmoid arteries


3. Superior rectal artery

Marginal artery



IMA picture



The most common site of bowel ischemia

Splenic flexure

Renal arteries' level

Upper border of the L2 vertebra

Difference between the right and left renal arteries

The right renal artery is longer and passes posterior to the IVC

Gonadal arteries



Level of the IVC origin

To the right of the lumbar vertebrae at the L5 level

Where do the right and left gonadal and suprarenal veins drain?



How does the left renal vein pass?

Crosses anterior to the aorta, just inferior to the origin of the superior mesenteric artery

IVC picture



Aneurysm of the superior mesenteric artery



Hepatic portal system



Hepatic portal system picture



Are there valves in the portal system?

No!

Palm tree sign

Caput medusae

Portacaval anastomoses



Embryology of kidneys and ureter



Pronephros derivatives

Nothing!

Nothing!

Mesonephros derivatives

Bowman's capsule into which a tuft of capillaries, or glomerulus, invaginates

Bowman's capsule into which a tuft of capillaries, or glomerulus, invaginates

Metanephros derivatives

1. Ureteric bud - calyces, pelvis, ureter
2. Metanephric mass - proximal convoluted tubule, the loop of Henle, and the distal convoluted tubule

1. Ureteric bud - calyces, pelvis, ureter


2. Metanephric mass - proximal convoluted tubule, the loop of Henle, and the distal convoluted tubule

Positional change of the kidneys



Development of the urinary system pictures



Embryology of bladder and urethra



Urogenital sinus



Potter sequence

-clubbed feet


-pulmonary hypoplasia


-craniofacial anomalies


Seen in cases of oligohydramnios (eg, bilateral renal agenesis)

Renal agenesis



Club foot or Congenital Talipes Equinovarus (CTEV)

Pelvic and horseshoe kidney



Double ureter



Patent urachus



Right kidney vs. left kidney position

T12-L3


The right kidney is positioned slightly lower than the left because of the mass of the liver

Kidney's relation to the posterior abdominal wall



Ureters



On what muscle does the ureter lie?

Psoas major muscle

Critical points of the ureter for the blockage by renal calculi



Muscles and bony landmarks of the posterior abdominal wall



Blood supply to the urinary bladder



Lymphatic drainage of the urinary bladder

Drain to the external and internal iliac nodes

Innervation of the urinary bladder



Innervation of the external urethral sphincter

Perineal branches of the pudendal nerve

Urethra



Spastic bladder



Atonic bladder



Weakness of the puborectalis and sphincter uretrae



Column of Bertin

Renal column

Endocrine functions of kidneys

-renin


-erythropoietin


-prostaglandins - vasodilators



Collections of straight tubules form the medullary rays, which run up the center axis of a renal lobule. The border of the renal lobule is defined by the interlobular blood vessels. Between the interlobular blood vessels and the medullary ray are the renal corpuscles and convoluted tubules, together constituting the cortical labyrinth.

Organization of the kidney



Blood circulation in kidneys



Uriniferous tubule

Nephron + collecting duct

Renal corpuscle and Bowman's capsule picture















Podocyte foot processes



Erythropoietin production



Polkissen or Lacis cells



Renal corpuscle and juxtaglomerular apparatus picture



Juxtaglomerular complex



Juxtaglomerular cells. Location and function.

Modified smooth-muscle cells!


Location: in the wall of the afferent arteriole


Function: secrete renin

Macula densa. Location and function.

Formed by tall cuboidal cells


Location: in the wall of the distal convoluted tubule


Function: detect sodium levels in the tubular fluid

Intraglomerular mesangial cell

Extraglomerular mesangial cell

Adult male and female reproductive structures derived from precursors of the indifferent embryo



Gonads derivatives in male and female

Male (+TDF!): testes, seminiferous tubules, rete testes


Female: ovary, follicles, rete ovarii

Paramesonephric ducts derivatives in male and female

Male (-MIF!): Appendix of testes (hydatid of Morgagni = remnant)


Female: Uterine tubes, uterus, cervix, and upper part of vagina

Mesonephric ducts derivatives in males and females

Males (+Testosterone!): Epididymis, ductus deferens, seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct


FEmales: Duct of Gartner = remnant

Genital tubercle derivatives in males and females

Males (+DHT!): Glans and body of penis


Females: Clitoris

Urogenital folds derivatives in males and females

Male (+DHT!): ventral aspect of penis


Female: Labia minora

Labioscrotal swellings derivatives in males and females

Male: Scrotum


Female: Labia majora

Hydatid of Morgagni



Female pseudointersexuality



Male pseudointersexuality



5α-reductase 2 deficiency



CAIS

Chordee

A condition in which the head of the penis curves downward or upward, at the junction of the head and shaft of the penis. The curvature is usually most obvious during erection, but resistance to straightening is often apparent in the flaccid state as well.

Hypospadias



Bladder exstrophy

Also known as "Ectopia vesicae"


A congenital anomaly that exists along the spectrum of the exstrophy-epispadias complex and most notably involves protrusion of the urinary bladder through a defect in the abdominal wall. Its presentation is variable, often including abnormalities of the bony pelvis, pelvic floor, and genitalia. The underlying embryologic mechanism leading to bladder exstrophy is unknown, though it is thought to be in part due to failed reinforcement of the cloacal membrane by underlying mesoderm.

Epispadias



Cryptorchidism



When does the descend of testes normally occur?

Within 3 months after birth

Vaginal process



Canal of Nuck

Hydrocele of the testes



Innervation of the pelvic and urogenital diaphragms

Branches of the pudendal nerve

Pelvic diaphragm



Urogenital diaphragm



Kegel exercise

Parts of the levator ani muscle

1. Pubococcygeus - main, can be damaged in parturition


2. Puborectalis


3. Ileococcygeus

Where is the bulbourethral gland located?

Deep perineal pouch

Where is the Bartholin gland located?

Superficial perineal pouch

Hyperplasia of the prostate



Where are the ovarian vessels located?

In the suspensory ligament of ovary

Ureter vs. suspensory ligament of the ovary location



Ligaments of the female reproductive tract



Perineum



Anal triangle



Supporting structures of the pelvic viscera



"Water under the bridge"



Pudendal nerve block



Urogenital triangle



Cowper glands

Bulbourethral


Located in the deep perineal pouch

Bartholin glands

Greater vestibular glands


Located in the superficial perineal pouch

Superficial perineal pouch

Deep perineal pouch



Colles' fascia

Superficial perineal = Scarpa fascia in abdomen = dartos fascia of scrotum = superficial fascia of clitoris or penis

Superficial and deep perineal pouches of male picture



Shaft of the penis



Male reproductive system



Perineum of female picture



Pelvic and perineal innervation



Testicular histology



Blood-testis barrier



Seminiferous tubule diagram



Spermatogenesis







Spermiogenesis



Spermatozoan diagram



The acrosome is derived from the ...

Golgi complex

Acrosome



Androgen binding protein and inhibin



Sertoli cells



Leydig cells











Rete testis



Epithelial lining of the epididymis

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium wich contains stereocilia (tall microvilli)

Where do the spermatozoa become motile?

Epididymis

Epididymis







Ductus (vas) deferens





Epithelial lining of the seminal vesicles

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

How much (in %) do the seminal vesicles constitute to the human ejaculate

70%

Seminal vesicles

What substance provides energy for the spermatozoa's motility?

Fructose





Prostate histology



Epithelial lining of the prostate

Pseudostratified columnar epithelium





Penile erection



Ejaculation



Accumilation of fluid in the scrotum, penis, and anterolateral abdominal wall



Ovarian histology



Female reproductive system diagram



Follicular development diagram



Graafian follicle diagram



Primordial follicles

Primary oocyte surrounded by a single layer of squamous follicular cells, which are joined to one another by desmosomes

Primary follicles

Develop from the primordial follicles


Oocyte is surrounded now by 2 or more layers of cuboidal cells

What is zona pellucida?

A thick layer of glycoprotein synthesized by both granulosa cells and oocyte

Difference between the theca interna and theca externa (follicle)

Theca interna - richly vascularized, synthesize androgenic steroids, that diffuse into follicle and are converted to estradiol by the granulosa cells

Ovarian follicles







Secondary follicle



Graafian follicle





Ovulation



What do the granulosa lutein cells and theca lutein cells produce?

From theca interna!

From theca interna!

Corpus luteum



Oviduct







Epithelial lining of the oviducts

Simple columnar!


Some cells are ciliated!

Layers of the oviduct

No submucosa!


1. Mucosa


2. Muscularis


3. Serosa

Will the Kartagener's syndrome cause impairment of the tubular transport in women?

No

Source of the stem cells for the functional layer of the myometrium

The bases of the uterine glands, which lie deep in the basalis

Epithelial lining of the uterus

Simple columnar cells (ciliated and secretory)

Uterus







Does the vagina have glands?

No!

Epithelial lining of the vagina

Stratified sqamous



Mammary glands' histology









4 collateral portacaval anastomoses

1. Esophageal


2. Rectal


3. Umbilical


4. Retroperitoneal

How does the gallbladder concentrate bile?

It removes water through active transport of sodium and chloride ions (especially chloride!)

Breast cancer epidemiology



Epithelial lining of the urethra

Prostatic urethra - transitional epithelium


Distal urethra - stratified epithelium

Corpora CAVERNOSA are surrounded by ...

Tunica albuginea

Why there is breakdown of the functional level?

Constriction of the spiral arteries

Fetal and maternal components of the placenta



pH in the vagina during estrogenic and postestrogenic phases



Brachial plexus segments

C5-T1

Brachial plexus diagram



Musculocutaneous nerve


Segments?


Muscles innervated?


Primary actions?



Median nerve


Segments?


Muscles innervated?


Primary actions?



What muscles are in action?

What muscles are in action?

Lumbricals 1-4

Ulnar nerve


Segments?


Muscles innervated?


Primary actions?



Palmar and dorsal interossei muscles mnemonics



Axillary nerve


Segments?


Muscles innervated?


Primary actions?



Teres minor and teres major functions

Teres major - medial rotation (we are stronger in medial rotation, thus, teres MAJOR)


Teres minor - lateral rotation

Radial nerve


Segments?


Muscles innervated?


Primary actions?



Nerves of the upper limbs that provide supination and pronation

Supination:


-Musculocutaneous nerve (biceps brachii)


-Radial nerve (supinator muscle)


Pronation:


-Median nerve

Is the biceps brachii the most powerful flexor of the forearm?

No! Brachialis is. Biceps is powerful supinator.

Collateral nerves of the brachial plexus



Dorsal scapular nerve innervation

Rhomboids

Long thoracic nerve innervation

Serratus anterior - protracts and rotates scapula superiorly

Suprascapular nerve innervation

Supraspinatus - abduct shoulder 0-15 degrees


Infraspinatus - LATERALLY rotate shoulder

Lateral pectoral nerve innervation

Pectoralis major

Medial pectoral nerve innervation

Pectoralis major and minor

Upper subscapular nerve innervation

Subscapularis

Middle subscapular (thoracodorsal) nerve innervation

Latissimus dorsi

Lower subscapular nerve innervation

Subscapularis and teres major

Medial brachial cutaneous nerve innervation

Skin of medial arm

Medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve innervation

Skin of medial forearm

Segmental inervation to muscles of upper limbs



Sensory innervation of the hand



Is the palm sensation affected by the carpal tunnel syndrome?



Sensory innervation of the hand and forearm diagram



Sensory innervation of the lateral forearm

Musculocutaneous nerve (C5-C6) -> lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm

Sensory innervation of the medial forearm

Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm (C8-T1)

Sensory innervation of the lateral arm

Radial nerve -> lateral cutaneous nerve of arm

Sensory innervation of the medial arm

Medial cutaneous nerve of arm (C8-T1)

Sensory innervation of the lateral dorsal 3.5 distal phalangs

Median nerve

Erb-Duchenne palsy



What nerves are affected in Erb-Duchenne palsy?

-axillary


-suprascapular


-musculocutaneous



Erb-Duchenne palsy

Klumpke's paralysis





Klumpke's paralysis

Deep tendon reflexes levels

Deep tendon reflexes scale

Radial nerve injury in axilla

 Also, honeymoon palsy

Also, honeymoon palsy

Elbow - lateral epicondyle or radial head dislocation

Radial nerve injury

Radial nerve injury in mid-shaft of humerus at radial groove or lateral elbow (lateral epicondyle or radial head dislocation)

Radial nerve injury in wrist laceration



Waiter's tip sign

Erb-Duchenne palsy

Combination of "claw hand" and "ape hand" signs

Klumpke's paralysis

"Wrist drop"

Radial nerve injury

Median nerve injury - elbow (supracondylar fracture of humerus)



Combination of the "hand of benediction" and "ape hand"

Median nerve injury - elbow (supracondylar fracture of humerus)

Median nerve injury - wrist laceration or carpal tunnel



Ulnar nerve injury



Fracture of hook of hamate

Ulnar nerve injury

Axillary nerve injury



Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus or inferior dislocation of the shoulder

Axillary nerve injury

Musculocutaneous nerve injury



Long thoracic nerve injury



"Winged scapula"

Long thoracic nerve injury (radical mastectome or stab wound to lateral chest)

Suprascapular nerve injury



"Ulnar claw" vs. "Hand of benediction"



"Dupuytren's contracture" vs. "ulnar claw"



Dupuytren's contracture



"Ulnar claw"

Spinster's claw

"Ulnar claw"

Ulnar paradox

Pathogenesis of the "ulnar claw"



Unable to make the O.K. sign

Unable to make the O.K. sign

Anterior interosseus nerve injury

Unable to perform the "hitch hike" sign

Unable to perform the "hitch hike" sign

Radial nerve injury

Posterior interosseus nerve injury

Froment's test

Pronator teres syndrome

Median nerve injury

Supracondylar fracture of humerus

Median nerve injury

Fracture of medial epicondyle of humerus

Ulnar nerve injury

What nerve may be damaged in fracture of clavicle?

Ulnar nerve

Effects of lesions to branches of the brachial plexus



Axillary artery margins

From the first rib to the posterior edge of the teres major muscle

What nerve runs with the lateral thoracic artery?

Long thoracic nerve

Shoulder arterial collateral

-Subscapular artery << axillary artery


-Suprascapular artery << subclavian artery

What artery runs with axillary nerve?

Posterior humeral circumflex artery - at surgical neck

What artery runs with radial nerve in radial groove at midshaft of humerus?

Profunda brachii artery

Deep palmar arch is from ...

Radial artery

Superficial palmar arch is from ...

Ulnar artery

Common interosseus artery is from ...

Ulnar artery

Arterial supply to the upper limb picture



Collateral circulation in the hand

Superficial and deep palmar arches (ulnar and radial arteries)

Boundaries of the carpal tunnel

Anteriorly - flexor retinaculum


Posteriorly - proximal row of carpal bones (lunate)

Carpal tunnel



Carpal tunnel syndrome



Rotator cuff muscles mnemonics

Counterclockwise: SITS!

Counterclockwise: SITS!

Humeral head dislocation



Most frequently damaged muscle of the rotator cuff



Humeral surgical neck fracture



Mid-shaft (radial groove) humeral fracture





Most frequently fractured and most frequently dislocated carpal bones



Hook of the hamate fracture



Lumbosacral plexus levels

L2-S3

Division. Level.


-Femoral nerve


-Obturator nerve


-Tibial nerve


-Common fibular nerve


-Superior gluteal nerve


-Inferior gluteal nerve



Lumbosacral plexus chart



Origin. Muscles innervated. Primary actions.

Origin. Muscles innervated. Primary actions.



Origin. Muscles or skin innervated. Primary actions.

Origin. Muscles or skin innervated. Primary actions.



Segmental innervation to muscles of lower limb



Trendelenburg gait

Gluteus medius (weakness in abduction) - superior gluteal nerve

Gluteus medius (weakness in abduction) - superior gluteal nerve

Superior gluteal nerve injury



Inferior gluteal nerve injury



Femoral nerve injury



Obturator nerve injury



Sciatic nerve injury



Tibial nerve injury



Common fibular nerve injury (neck of fibula)



Deep fibular nerve injury



Superficial fibular nerve injury



Most frequently damaged nerve of the lower limb



Piriformis syndrome



What nerve may be lesioned in posterior hip dislocation?



Sensory innervation of the lower leg and foot



Sural nerve

It is made up of collateral branches of the tibial nerve and common fibular nerve.


The medial cutaneous branch arises from the tibial nerve, and the lateral branch arises from the common fibular nerve.

Arterial supply to the legs



What artery supplies head of femur?

Medial circumflex femoral artery

Avascular necrosis of the head of the femur



What artery is responsible for pulse on dorsum of foot?

Dorsalis pedis artery

Arterial supply to lower limb picture



Tibial shaft fractures



Femoral triangle



Femoral sheath contents

Femoral artery anv vein and canal


No femoral nerve!

Mnemonics for the structures in the femoral triangle


Ligaments of the hip joint



Structures of the knee picture



Most frequently torn ligament at the knee


Tibial collateral ligament



The collateral ligaments are taut with knee flexion or extension?

Extension

Fibular collateral ligament



Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments



Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments chart



Medial and lateral menisci



Anterior and posterior drawer signs



Pain when the leg is medially rotated at the knee

Medial meniscus tear

3 most commonly injured structures at the knee



Lateral (collateral) ligament of ankle parts



Medial (deltoid) ligament of ankle parts



Most common injuries in ankle joint





Thoracic outlet. Scalene triangle.



Thoracic outlet syndrome



Scalene triangle picture



Internal (2) and external (8) carotid arteries branches



Subclavian artery branches (7)



The most significant artery of the external carotid system



Pharyngeal apparatus



Fetal pharyngeal apparatus picture



Section through the developing pharynx (picture)



Pharyngeal arch 1

Pharyngeal arch 1

Pharyngeal arch 2

Pharyngeal arch 2



Pharyngeal arch 3

Pharyngeal arch 3

Pharyngeal arch 4

Pharyngeal arch 4



Pharyngeal arch 6

Pharyngeal arch 6



Where do the ocular muscles (III, IV, VI) and the tongue muscles (XII) derive from?

Mesoderm of the occipital somites (somitomeres)


Not from the pharyngeal arch mesoderm!

Fetal pharyngeal pouches picture



Adult structures derived from the fetal pharyngeal pouches



Adult structures derived from the fetal pharyngeal grooves (clefts)



Branchial cyst (lateral cervical cyst)





Branchial cyst (lateral cervical cyst)

DiGeorge syndrome. Contemporary name.

22q11.1 deletion syndrome


Pharyngeal pouches 3 and 4 fail to differentiate into the parathyroid glands and thymus.


Neural crest cells are involved.


-Immunologic problems


-Hypocalcemia


May be combined with:


-Cardiovascular defects (persistent truncus arteriosus)


-Abnormal ears


-Micrognathia

Thyroid gland development



"Wrist drop" - radial nerve palsy


"Winged scapula" - serratus anterior - long thoracic nerve

Treacher Collins syndrome


Pierre Robin sequence

Treacher Collins syndrome

Abnormal formation of pharyngeal arch 1 because of faulty migration of neural crest cells.


-Mandibular hypoplasia


-Zygomatic hypoplasia


-Down-slanted palpebral fissures


-Colobomas


-Malformed ears

Pierre Robin sequence

Abnormal formation of pharyngeal arch 1 because of faulty migration of neural crest cells.


Triad:


1. Poor mandibular growth


2. Cleft palate


3. Posteriorly placed tongue


Normal ears (differentiation with DiGeorge)

What is foramen cecum (tongue)?

Former site of the thyroglossal duct

Development of the tongue


Innervation of the tongue


Paltoglossus muscle innervation

Vagus nerve (via pharyngeal branch to pharyngeal plexus)


All other intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of tongue - CN XII

Development of the face and palate


Cleft lip and cleft palate pathogenesis


First arch syndrome


Pharyngeal fistula and pharyngeal cyst


Ectopic thyroid, parathyroid, or thymus


Thyroglossal duct cyst or fistula


Cribriform plate fractures

May result in dysosmia and rhinorrhea (CSF)

Foramen lacerum function

-The foramen lacerum fills with cartilage after birth.


-The artery of pterygoid canal, the nerve of pterygoid canal and some venous drainage pass through the foramen lacerum.


-Some emissary veins pass through the foramen lacerum. These connect the extracranial pterygoid plexus with the intracranial cavernous sinus and present an unopposed route for infection.


-The Foramen lacerum is a potential route for nasopharyngeal carcinoma to gain access to the cavernous sinus and affect cranial nerves.

What do the cranial foramens contain?


1. Cribriform plate


2. Optic canal


3. Superior orbital fissure


4. Foramen rotundum


5. Foramen ovale


6. Foramen spinosum


7. Foramen lacerum


8. Internal auditory meatus


9. Jugular foramen


10. Hypoglossal canal


11. Foramen magnum


Jugular foramen syndrome


Where the tongue will deviate in CN XII lesion?

Towards the lesioned side!

What does the stylomastoid foramen contain?

CN VII

What does the carotid canal contain?

Internal carotid artery and carotid sympathetic nerve

What do the supraorbital, infraorbital, and mental foramens contain?

Supraorbital, infraorbital, and mental VANs, respectively

What does theinferior orbital fissure contain?

-zygomatic branch of the maxillary nerve


-ascending branches from the pterygopalatine ganglion


-inferior division of ophthalmic vein

Where does the CSF returns back to the systemic venous circulation?


Coronal section of the dural sinuses picture


What does the jugular foramen contain?

CN IX, X, XI and internal jugular vein

3 duplicatons of meningeal dura mater

-falx cerebri


-tentorium cerebelli


-diaphragma sellae

Primary tributaries that flow into the dural sinuses


Dural venous sinuses picture


How is the inferior sagittal sinus formed?


Dural venous sinuses


Cavernous sinus


Cavernous sinus picture


What does the cavernous sinus contain?

-Lateral wall of the sinus: CN III, IV, V1, and V2


-Centrally: CN VI and internal carotid artery

Cavernous sinus thrombosis


Initial symptom of cavernous sinus thrombosis

Internal strabismus (CN VI lesion)

Epidural hematoma


Lens-shaped (biconvex) hematoma at the lateral hemisphere

Epidural hematoma (middle meningeal artery)

Initial symptoms of uncal herniation

The uncus can squeeze the oculomotor nerve (a.k.a. CN III), which may affect the parasympathetic input to the eye on the side of the affected nerve, causing the pupil of the affected eye to dilate and fail to constrict in response to light as it should. Pupillary dilation often precedes the somatic motor effects of CN III compression called oculomotor nerve palsy or third nerve palsy. This palsy presents as deviation of the eye to a "down and out" position due to loss of innervation to all ocular motility muscles except for the lateral rectus (innervated by abducens nerve (a.k.a. CN VI) and the superior oblique (innervated by trochlear nerve a.k.a. CN IV). The symptoms occur in this order because the parasympathetic fibers surround the motor fibers of CN III and are hence compressed first.

Subdural hematoma


Crescent-shaped hematoma at the lateral hemisphere

Subdural hematoma


Epidural hematoma


Subdural hematoma

Subarachnoid hemorrhage


Xanthochromia

Yellowish appearance of cerebrospinal fluid that occurs several hours after bleeding into the subarachnoid space caused by certain medical conditions, most commonly subarachnoid hemorrhage. Its presence can be determined by either by spectrophotometry (measuring the absorption of particular wavelengths of light) or simple visual examination.

Orbital muscles and their innervation


Clinical testing of superior oblique muscle

Ask patient to look medially and downward!


We can asses only the function of moving the eye downward.

Function of thesuperior oblique muscle

Abducts, depresses and internally rotates the eye

Function of the inferior oblique muscle

Primary action is extorsion (external rotation); secondary action is elevation; tertiary action is abduction (i.e. it extorts the eye and moves it upward and outwards).


The inferior oblique muscle is the only muscle that is capable of elevating the eye when it is in a fully adducted position.



Muscles of the tongue developments