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625 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1
Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
C
2
Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project
managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer
formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can
vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning
or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve
project management.
C
3

A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project
with aggressive timelines. The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this
environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit
their input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for
signature.
C
4

All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
A
5
A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team. To alleviate this
situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
C
6
While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk
events. You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events.
These adjustments are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred
and knocked the project off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and
notify management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on
probability and impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project
budget as reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a
management reserve budget.
A
7

You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following
should provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?

A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
A
8

An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that
he has been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty
about it and is telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?


A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
C
9

What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?

A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
A
10

You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked
to plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to
improve your chance of success.

A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
C
11

If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all


project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:

A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
C
12

The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip.
What is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?

A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
A
13

A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?

A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
B
14

A work authorization system can be used to:

A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
B
15

A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a
useful change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project
manager asked her to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST
appropriate advice for the situation?

A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during
project planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and
compare them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to
the project sponsor to make the change.
C
16

A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed
and is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the
project is a failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed
in 33 weeks. If the project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:

A. It only had six weeks of changes.

B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
B
17

Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new
product request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does
not meet the objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business
driver and to be a straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST
course of action?

A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look
at the project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
B
18
The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and
assign procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A
procurement professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________
in a decentralized contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
D
19
Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
A
20
A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved
project charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:

A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
B
21

A person is writing a document identifying the business need for a project and is including a
description of the product created by the project. She includes a list of stakeholders and pre
assigned resources. What is the role of this person on the project?

A. The project manager for the project or a company functional manager
B. A member of the project management team working at the direction of the project manager
C. The sponsor or the project manager
D. A manager or executive in the organization who is higher in the corporate hierarchy than the

project manager
C
22

Generally, when is the BEST time to create a procurement management plan?

A. After the contract is signed
B. Preceding the Conduct Procurement process
C. During project initiating
D. When updating the procurement management plan
B
23

All the following are needed to create the WBS EXCEPT:

A. Organizational process assets.
B. Quality measurements.
C. Requirements documentation.
D. Project scope statement.
B
24

Which of the following is a KEY output of the Verify Scope process?

A. A more complete scope management plan
B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables

C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system
B
25

A project manager discovers that two team members discussed what was needed to complete a
work package on the project and made many changes to the project scope. The work package is
now completed and the team members are planning to go on to the next work package. In looking
at what was done, the project manager determines that the work does NOT meet the requirements
of the project. What is the BEST course of action for the project manager?

A. Add another work package, formatted with the correct scope, to the project.
B. Refuse the submittal of the work package.
C. Have the team begin the work package again and include the incident in their performance
reviews.
D. Ask the team member's manager to assign different people to the work package.
B
26

You are the project manager on an information technology project on which you and the sponsor
have already approved the scope. An information specialist on your team, after having lunch with
a low ranking customer representative working with him on a software project, learns that a simple
alteration in the display would be a great addition to the project. The information specialist installs
the change with no negative effect on the project schedule and at no additional cost. What action
should be taken?

A. The information specialist should be recognized for exceeding customer expectations without
affecting project cost or schedule.
B. The project manager should add an activity to the project management plan with no associated
time.
C. The information specialist should be told that his behavior was unacceptable, as it may have
negatively affected the overall project.
D. The project manager should create a change control form and have the customer approve the

change since the change has already been made.
C
27

Which of the following is NOT included in a schedule change control system?

A. Approval levels necessary for authorizing changes
B. Tracking systems
C. Paperwork necessary for making changes
D. Limitations on the scope of changes
D
28

Which of the following is generally the MOST CORRECT use of a project network diagram?

A. Showing the project schedule
B. Documenting activity interdependencies
C. Defining project resources
D. Defining the project costs
B
29

In an activity-on-node diagram, the nodes represent:

A. Work packages.
B. Activities.

C. Dependencies.
D. Discretionaries.
B
30

A project has seven activities: A, B, C, D, E, F, and G. Activities A, B, and D can start anytime.
Activity A takes 3 weeks, Activity B takes 5 weeks, and Activity D takes 11 weeks. Activities A and
B must be completed before Activity C can start. Activity C requires 6 weeks to complete. Activities
B, C, and D must be completed before Activity E can start. Activity E requires 2 weeks. Activity F
takes 4 weeks and can start as soon as Activity C is completed. Activity E must be completed
before Activity G starts. Activity G requires 3 weeks. Activities F and G must be completed for the
project to be completed. Which activities have float available?

A. Activity A has two weeks float, activity F has one week.
B. Activity F has one week float.
C. There is no float available in the project.
D. Activity A has eight weeks float.
A
31

An activity-on-node (AON) network diagram shows the following activities on two critical paths;
Start, D, E, J, L, End and Start, D, E, G, I, L, End. Each activity is at least three days in duration,
except for activity L, which is one day in duration. If you are directed to reduce the project by one
day, which activities are MOST likely to change?

A. Activity L
B. Activity E or activity J
C. Activity G or activity I
D. Activity D or activity E
D
32

A project manager has increased project costs by US $100,000, but completed the project four
weeks earlier than planned. What activity is BEST described here?

A. Resource leveling
B. Schedule compression
C. Critical chain
D. Adjusting leads and lags
B
33

The project manager has performed schedule network analysis, compressed the schedule, and
completed a Monte Carlo analysis. What time management activity should be done NEXT?

A. Update resource requirements
B. Recommend corrective actions
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Create a milestone list
A
34

If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month, which
of the following is the BEST thing to do?

A. Perform a Monte Carlo analysis.
B. Fast track the project.
C. Perform resource leveling.
D. Analyze the life cycle costs.
C
35

A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to provide
you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor hours
per installation from past projects to predict the future. This is an example of which of the
following?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Three-point estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Monte Carlo analysis
A
36

In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with
crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing would also include looking at the:

A. Risk impact of crashing each activity.
B. Customer's opinion of which activities to crash.
C. Boss's opinion of which activities to crash and in which order.
D. Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur.
A
37

Based on the chart, while completing the project, a team member tells you that the team forgot
something during planning. Activity F needs the results of activity E before it can begin. Taking this
new dependency into account, what would be the effect on the project?


A. It would increase the critical path.
B. Communication would be more complex.
C. There would be no effect.
D. It would delay activity F.
B
38

Using the chart, what is the lowest cost of crashing this project to save four weeks?

A. $18,000
B. $6,000
C. $7,000
D. $9,000
B
39

Based on the network diagram in the chart,


the resource working on activity G is replaced with another resource with 50 percent of the
productivity of the previous resource. How long will this project take?


A. 44
B. 51
C. 52
D. 36
C
40

Instead of celebrating the end of the project, the stakeholders are breathing a sigh of relief. None
of them were confident the project would meet the end date. Which of the following is NOT one of
the reasons this project had difficulty?

A. Lack of a payback period
B. Lack of milestones
C. Lack of a communications management plan
D. Lack of a staffing management plan
A
41

A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for US
$130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost US
$60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule,
because the original estimates were not accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve
this problem?

A. Project manager
B. Senior management
C. Project sponsor
D. Manager of the project management office
A
42

While reviewing project performance, the project manager determines that the schedule variance
is -500. What is the BEST thing to do?

A. Let the sponsor know.
B. Determine the cost variance.
C. Look for activities that can be done in parallel.
D. Move resources from the project to one that is not failing.
B
43

The sponsor has informed you that the resources for your project will be cut. The sponsor wants to
know how long the project will take if only nine resources each month are committed to your
project. What is this activity called?

A. Crashing
B. Floating
C. Leveling
D. Fast tracking
C
44

A project has experienced significant delays due to equipment problems, staff attrition, and slow
client reviews. The project is 40 percent complete and has used 60 percent of the available
calendar time. What is the FIRST thing you should do?

A. Rebaseline the schedule to reflect the new date.
B. Analyze the critical path activities for potential to fast track or crash the schedule.
C. Document the lack of progress and associated issues to management.
D. Identify activities that required more time than planned.
D
45

To accommodate a new project in your department, you need to move resources from one project
to another. Because your department is currently working at capacity, moving resources will
inevitably delay the project from which you move the resources. It would cause the LEAST
negative impact if you move resources from which of the following projects?

A. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 0.8, no project charter, and four resources
B. Project B with a net present value of $60,000, 12 resources, and variable costs between US
$1,000 and $2,000 per month
C. Project C with an opportunity cost of US $300,000, no project control plan, and an internal rate
of return of 12 percent
D. Project D with indirect costs of US $20,000 and 13 resources
A
46

Who has the cost risk in a fixed price (FP) contract?

A. The team
B. The buyer
C. The seller
D. Management
C
47

The project management office is worried about the quality of the company's various projects.
They want to know which projects are having problems and which ones are doing well. If the PMO


receives the following information, which project should they be the MOST concerned about?

A. Project A with a benefit cost ratio of 2.3
B. Project B with a benefit cost ratio of 1.3
C. Project C with a benefit cost ratio of negative 2.3
D. Project D with a benefit cost ratio of negative 1.3
C
48

Earned value measurement is an example of:

A. Performance reporting.
B. Planning control.
C. Ishikawa diagrams.
D. Integrating the project components into a whole.
A
49

A project manager and team from a firm that designs railroad equipment are tasked to design a
machine to load stone onto railroad cars. The design allows for two percent spillage, amounting to
over two tons of spilled rock per day. In which of the following does the project manager document
quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvements for this project?

A. Quality management plan
B. Quality policy
C. Control charts
D. Project management plan
A
50

All of the following are inputs to the quality process EXCEPT:

A. Organizational process assets.
B. Checklists.
C. Quality policy.
D. The project scope statement.
B
51

A quality management plan is created during which of the following?

A. Project Executing
B. Plan Quality
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Quality Control
B
52

Which of the following is an example of a tool used in Plan Quality?

A. Fishbone diagram
B. Quality audit
C. Cause and effect diagram
D. Benchmarking
D
53

You are in the middle of a major new facility construction project. The structural steel is in place
and the heating conduits are going into place when a senior manager informs you that he is
worried that the project will not meet the quality standards. What should you do in this situation?

A. Assure senior management that during the Plan Quality process it was determined that the
project would meet the quality standards.
B. Analogously estimate future results.
C. Form a quality assurance team.
D. Check the results from the last quality management plan.
C
54

Management wants to be sure that the project is following defined quality standards. Which of the
following should they look at?

A. Risk management plan
B. WBS
C. Statement of work
D. Quality audit
D
55

All of the following are tools of Perform Quality Control EXCEPT:

A. Cost of quality.
B. Inspection.

C. Control charts.
D. Flowcharting.
A
56

Which of the following helps a project manager determine possible causes of problems on a
project?

A. The 50/50 rule
B. A fishbone diagram
C. A control chart
D. A Pareto chart
B
57

If two events cannot both occur in a single trial, they are:

A. False events.
B. Mutually exclusive.
C. Statistically independent.
D. Just-in-time.
B
58

The customer's expectations for quality are shown on a control chart as the:


A. Mean.
B. Specification limits.
C. Rule of seven.
D. Upper and lower control limits.
B
59

Co-location can help with:

A. Bringing customers together.
B. Building the team.
C. Decreasing project rental costs.
D. Decreasing project time.
B
60

A project involves arranging for the closing of the company office where the team works and
relocating everyone to a new city. The BEST thing the project manager can do is:

A. Spend time carefully creating the work breakdown structure.
B. Have a strong quality control plan.
C. Decrease the fringe benefits.
D. Carefully consider the reward system for the project.
D
61

A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system
development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work. What is


the BEST solution for the project manager?

A. Consult with the functional manager to determine project completion incentives for the team
member.
B. Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work.
C. Arrange for the team member to get training.
D. Allocate some of the project schedule reserve.
C
62

The management theory that all people can direct their own efforts is:

A. Theory Y.
B. Herzberg's theory.
C. Maslow's hierarchy.
D. Theory X.
A
63

A project team member has been having a big disagreement with another team member for over
two months when the other team members become involved. The issues are complex, but you
have specific experience in the area and know what needs to be done. The BEST choice would be
to:

A. Make the decision yourself.
B. Strive for fair resolution of the issue.
C. Ask the other team members to stay out of the issue.
D. Bring the team together and work out the issue to a win-win solution.
B
64

While creating the agenda for a status meeting with the team, a project manager receives input
from one team member that an item should be added. Another team member says the team is not
ready to resolve the item during the meeting. After much discussion, the project manager decides
to put the item on the agenda as an initial discussion item only. Which conflict resolution technique
is the project manager using?

A. Compromise
B. Smoothing
C. Forcing
D. Withdrawal
A
65

As the project manager, you are preparing your methods for quality management. You are looking
for a method that can demonstrate the relationship between events and their resulting effects. You
want to use a method to depict the events that cause a negative effect on quality. Which of the
following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your objective?

A. Histogram
B. Pareto chart
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Control chart
C
66

Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:


A. Defects are detected.
B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract.
C. The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path.
D. The project has cost overruns.
B
67

Extensive use of ___ communication is MOST likely to aid in solving complex problems.

A. Verbal
B. Written
C. Formal
D. Nonverbal
B
68

Which of the following techniques incorporates a form of risk assessment?

A. Arrow diagramming method
B. Network diagramming
C. Critical path method
D. Three-point estimating
D
69

A project manager is creating a risk response plan. However, every time a risk response is suggested,
another risk is identified that is caused by the response. Which of the following is the
BEST thing for the project manager to do?


A. Document the new risks and continue the Plan Risk Responses process.
B. Make sure the project work is better understood.
C. Spend more time making sure the risk responses are clearly defined.
D. Get more people involved in the Identify Risks process since risks have been missed.
A
70

If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last
five months, what is the probability that this risk event will occur during the fourth month of the
project?

A. Less than 1 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 60 percent
D. 80 percent
B
71

What is the purpose of a decision tree?

A. It demonstrates the path of events in a project.
B. It calculates the probability of an outcome.
C. It determines what events may take place.
D. It takes into account future events for today's choices.
D
72

Executing the risk response plan in order to react to risk events throughout the project is called:

A. Contingency planning.
B. Monitoring and control.
C. Mitigation.
D. Life cycle costing.
B
73

What is the difference between management reserves and contingency reserves?

A. Contingency reserves address known knowns, whereas management reserves address known
unknowns.
B. Contingency and management reserves both address known unknowns and could be
considered the same.
C. Contingency reserves address known unknowns, whereas management reserves address
unknown unknowns.
D. Contingency reserves are managed by senior management, whereas management reserves
are managed by the project manager.
C
74

A project manager is asked to select a contract type for a new software development project that
has complete, detailed requirements. Which is the BEST contract to choose?

A. Cost reimbursable (CR)
B. Fixed price (FP)
C. Time and material (T&M)
D. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B
75

The project manager and project sponsor are discussing the project costs and whether it is better
to have their own company do part of the project or hire another company to do the work. If they
asked for your opinion, you might say it would be better to do the work yourself if:

A. There is a lot of proprietary data.
B. You have the expertise, but you do not have the available manpower.
C. You do not need control over the work.
D. Your company resources are limited.
A
76

While project work is being done, conflicts can arise between the procurement officer and the
project manager because the procurement officer:

A. Is the only one who can change the contract.
B. Works for a different department.
C. Needs to obtain the project manager's approval to make project changes.
D. Has a different approach to creating a contract.
A
77

You are negotiating with a seller. Time is of the essence but you have a limited budget, and the
seller knows this. What is your BEST negotiating strategy under these circumstances?


A. Focus the negotiation on seller's profit margin in order to decrease the project cost.
B. Negotiate to get the work done even sooner than necessary in order to add a reserve.
C. Negotiate identified risks.
D. Arrange to reschedule the negotiation until you can acquire information of which the seller is not
aware.
C
78

You receive 25 new computers from the seller, but were expecting only 20. In looking at the
contract, you see that it says "seller to provide twenty (25) computers." What should you do
FIRST?

A. Issue a change order through the contract manager.
B. Return the five extra computers.
C. Make payment for the 25 computers.
D. Call the seller and ask for clarification.
B
79

A project manager you are mentoring comes to you for help because he is about to face his first
procurement audit. You might explain that he should NOT worry about such an audit because it:

A. Identifies successes and failures that warrant transfer to other procurements.
B. Makes sure the contract is being followed.
C. Makes sure costs are in line with the project.
D. Makes sure the seller is following the contract.
A
80

All of the following are typical concerns of matrixed team members EXCEPT:

A. Wondering who will handle their evaluations.
B. Serving multiple bosses.
C. Developing commitment.
D. Computing fringe benefits when working on multiple projects.
D
81

The seller tells you that your activities have resulted in an increase in their costs. You should:

A. Recommend a change to the project costs.
B. Have a meeting with management to find out what to do.
C. Ask the seller for supporting information.
D. Deny any wrongdoing.
C
82

Which of the following is CORRECT?

A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take.
B. There can be only one critical path.
C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes.
D. A project can never have negative float.
A
83

Which of the following is CORRECT about quality improvements?

A. They are a tool of Perform Quality Assurance and an output of Verify Scope.
B. They require the preparation of change requests or the recommendation of corrective actions.
C. They occur only through experience of the project manager, team, and sponsor.
D. They are a product of cooperation between the customer and the project manager.
B
84

A problem occurs on an activity with free float and the project manager has extended its duration.
What is MOST likely to be affected?

A. Project duration
B. Resource schedules
C. Project scope management plan
D. The latest start for the successor activity
B
85

Which of the following is NOT a reason to measure variances from the baseline?

A. To catch deviations early
B. To allow early corrective action
C. To determine if there are any wild fluctuations
D. To create a project control system
D
86

A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no
longer appropriate. It would be BEST for the project manager to be in what part of the project
management process?

A. Corrective action
B. Integrated change control
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Project closing
C
87

During project executing, a project team member informs the project manager that a work package
has not met the quality metric, and that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project
manager meets with all parties concerned to analyze the situation. Which part of the quality
management process is the project manager involved in?

A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Project Control
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Plan Quality
A
88

The project manager notices that project activities being completed by one department are all
taking slightly longer than planned. To date, none of the activities/work packages have been on
the critical path, nor have they affected the critical chain planning that has occurred. The project
manager is bothered by the problem, since four of the next five critical path activities are being
completed by this department. After making three calls, the project manager is finally able to
converse with the department manager to determine what is going on. The conversation is slow,


because both speak different native languages and they are trying to converse in French, a shared
language. To make communication easier, the project manager frequently asks the department
manager to repeat back what has been said. The department manager communicates that his
staff is following a company policy that requires two levels of testing. During the conversation, the
department manager also makes a comment that leads the project manager to believe that the
policy may include excessive work. This is the fourth time the project manager has heard such a
comment. What is the BEST thing to do?

A. Create a better communications management plan that requires only one language to be the
universal language on the project and have translators readily available on a moment's notice.
B. Contact someone else in the department who speaks the project manager's native language
better to confirm the department manager's opinion.
C. Find out if the upcoming activities should be re estimated.
D. Work on increasing the effectiveness of the performing organization by recommending
continuous improvement of the policy in question.
D
89

The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
contract. Each month the sponsor requires the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an
analysis of the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor that extra profits
should NOT be a worry on this project because:

A. The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope.
B. All costs invoiced are being audited.
C. There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if there is an unexpected cost overrun.
D. The fee is only received by the seller when the project is completed.
B
90

Which of the following is the LEAST effective way to influence the factors that create changes to
the cost baseline?


A. Review the project scope with the functional manager responsible for the greatest number of
requested changes.
B. Explain to those requesting changes the negative impact of change to the project.
C. Eliminate the scope causing the most changes.
D. Notify all stakeholders that no more changes will be allowed.
D
91

If a project manager is using observation and conversation to help control the project, she must be
involved in which process?

A. Develop Project Team
B. Distribute Information
C. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
D. Manage Project Team
D
92

Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the planning process
group?

A. Update corporate processes and procedures based on lessons learned.
B. Evaluate the effectiveness of risk responses.
C. Recommend changes and defect repair.
D. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria.
D
93

Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the monitoring and
controlling process group?

A. Implement recognition and reward systems.
B. Obtain sign-off of the product of the project.
C. Issue performance reports.
D. Keep everyone focused on completing the project to the charter.
C
94

The widget production project is well underway. The requirements are clear that each widget must
weigh between 0.320 and 0.325 ounces. The first day of test production resulted in 1247 widgets.
Of the widgets inspected, 47 percent fell within the acceptable weight range. This is an example
of:

A. Control limits.
B. Quality assurance.
C. Control charting.
D. Corrective action.
A
95

In which of the following contract types does the buyer have the most cost risk?

A. Cost plus percentage of costs (CPPC)
B. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
C. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
D. Cost plus incentive fee (CPIF)
A
96

What is the difference between expected monetary value and net present value?

A. Expected value is the estimated value of the work actually accomplished and net present value
is the value of the work to be done.
B. Expected value is the value it takes to recover your investment and net present value is the
value of money.
C. Expected value is the probability times impact of an opportunity and net present value is the
benefits less costs over many time periods.
D. Expected value is the estimated value of risk response plans and net present value helps
determine the value of investments.
C
97

A company attorney, newly hired by the company, walks into the project manager's office and tells
her that he is ready to work with her on the procurement process. The project manager has little
experience with procurement, so she is excited to have the assistance. With which of the following
would it be BEST for the project manager to ask the attorney for help?

A. Claims administration, audit results, and updating organizational process assets
B. Contract change control system, payments, and change requests
C. Recommended corrective actions, performance reporting, and records management system
D. Procurement documentation, project management plan updates, and procurement
management plan updates
A
98


A project manager discovers an urgent need for outsourced resources on the project. He knows
he has the money to cover the cost of these resources. He goes to the procurement manager and
explains the situation, insisting a contract be drawn up today so he can obtain resources and
circumvent the standard procedure. Is this the correct process to follow?

A. Yes, of course. For urgent needs, it is not necessary to follow the organization?s procedure
regarding procurement.
B. Yes. Urgent needs from projects should always be dealt with immediately, as directed by the
project manager.
C. No. The procurement manager has a process to follow when creating contracts that helps
protect the company and its projects.
D. No. The procurement manager should be checking in with the project manager to see if he is in
need of a contract, rather than making the project manager come and ask for one.
C
99

Which of the following is the BEST thing to do at a bidder conference?

A. Answer sellers' questions
B. Meet the sellers' teams
C. Make sure the sellers have all the procurement documents
D. Make sure the sellers ask all their questions
D
100

To-complete performance index (TCPI) is represented by which of the following?

A. BAC - EV/BAC - AC
B. A measure of the value of work completed compared to the actual cost or progress
C. A measure of progress achieved compared to progress planned
D. AC + (BAC - EV)
A
101

The inputs of the Performance Reporting process include all of the following except for which one?

A. Performance reviews
B. Work performance information
C. Forecasted completion
D. Performance measurements
A

Performance reviews are not an input of the Performance Reporting process. The remaining
inputs of this process are quality control measurements, project management plan, approved
change requests, and deliverables.
102

You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is
competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country.
You know, but have not yet informed your company, that you are going to go to work for the
competitor, which happens to be bidding for this same opportunity. What is the most appropriate
response?

A. You decide to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because any
information you gain now will help you when you make the move to the new company.
B. You inform the foreign business partners that you're going to be working with a new company
and that you know the deal they'll receive from the competing company is better than the one this
company is proposing.
C. You decline to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners because of a
conflict of interest.
D. You've not yet received an official offer from the competing company for your new job
opportunity, so you choose to participate in the initial meetings with the foreign business partners.
C

The most appropriate response is to decline to participate because of a conflict of interest.
103

The most effective team motivator is:

A. understanding the importance of the project
B. the satisfaction of meeting a challenge
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. the visibility of the team's contribution
E. the individual's professional challenge
D
104

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in

_______ .

A. Conduct Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Plan Procurements
D. Administer Procurements
B

Complete final contract performance reporting and verify product is done in Close Procurements.
105

Continually measuring and monitoring the actual cost versus the budget is done to _____.

A. None of the other alternatives apply
.
B. analyze the reasons for variances
C. establish the variances
D. identify the problems
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
E
106

You are a project manager for Giraffe Enterprises. You've recently taken over for a project
manager who lied about his PMI certification and was subsequently fired. Unfortunately, he did a
poor job of scope definition. Which of the following could happen if you don't correct this?

A. The project costs could increase, there might be rework, and schedule delays might result.
B. The project management plan's process for verification and acceptance of the deliverables
needs to be updated as a result of the poor scope definition.
C. The poor scope definition will adversely affect the creation of the work breakdown structure,
and costs will increase.
D. The stakeholders will require overtime from the project team to keep the project on schedule.
A

Option A might seem like a correct answer, but option D is more correct. There isn't enough
information to determine whether stakeholders will require overtime. We do know that poor scope
definition might lead to cost increases, rework, schedule delays, and poor morale.
107

You are a project manager working in a foreign country. You observe that some of your project
team members are having a difficult time adjusting to the new culture. You provided them with


training on cultural differences and the customs of this country before arriving, but they still seem

uncomfortable and disoriented. Which of the following statements is true?

A. This condition is known as culture shock.
B. This is the result of jet lag and travel fatigue.
C. This is the result of working with teams of people from two different countries.
D. This condition is known as globalculturalism.
A

When people work in unfamiliar environments, culture shock can occur. Training and researching
information about the country you'll be working in can help counteract this.
108

Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
B. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
C. Defines all people associated with each activity
D. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
D

The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the
matrix chart.
109

The erection of foundation formwork before the placement of foundation concrete would be an
example of a _____ dependency.

A. Soft logic

B. Subcontracted
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
E. External
C
110

You are the project manager of a project .You have just completed the Collect
Requirements and Define Scope. What should you do next?

A. Control Scope
B. Create WBS
C. Value analysis
D. Verify Scope
B
Create the WBS is the process that follows Collect Requirements and Define Scope.
111

Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):

A. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
B. Defines all people associated with each activity
C. Defines responsibilities for each WBS component
D. All of the other alternatives apply
D

The Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) details the different tasks for the people listed in the
matrix chart.
112

Giving a part of project work to a contractor is an example of:

A. risk assumption
B. risk assignment
C. risk delegation
D. risk deflection
E. risk mitigation
D
113

Given the following estimates: Optimistic 3 days, Pessimistic 9 days, and most likely

6 days, what is the PERT weighted average?

A. 6.1
B. 6.3
C. 6
D. 4
C
114

Management reserves are normally defined as a % of the total budget. As a project progresses,
the project manager wants the $ value of management reserve to _____, whereas the customer
wants the management reserve to _____.

A. Increase, increase.
B. Increase, decrease.

C. Remain the same, return to customer.
D. Decrease, increase.
E. Decrease, decrease.
C
115

The project manager has, as a prime responsibility, to assure proper integration of activities. In
which organizational form does the project manager probably have the easiest time in integrating
work?

A. Matrix
B. Pure project
C. Coordinator
D. Classical
E. Expediter
B
116

Formal written correspondence is mandated in which of the following situations:

A. Client requests additional work not covered under contract
B. None of the other alternatives apply
C. Both 1) Client requests additional work not covered under contract, and 2) Project manager
calls a meeting.
D. Project manager calls a meeting
E. Product undergoes casual in-house testing
A
117

Smoothing out resource requirements from period to period is called resource _____.


A. None of the other alternatives apply.
B. Leveling.
C. Quantification
D. Partitioning
E. Allocation.
B
118

You are a project manager for Cinema Snicker Productions. Your company specializes in
producing comedy films for the big screen. Your latest project has just been completed and
accepted. You've been given your next project, which starts right away. Which of the following
statements is true?

A. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted.
B. This project ended due to extinction because it was completed and accepted.
C. This project ended due to integration because it was completed and accepted and the project
manager moved on to a new project.
D. This project ended due to addition because it was completed and accepted and archived into
the company's catalog of available films.
B

Extinction is the best type of project end because it means the project was completed successfully
and accepted by the sponsor or customer.
119

Which is a valid response to negative risks?

A. mitigation
B. Enhance
C. Exploit
D. Share
A

Risk mitigation is a response to negative risks and not positive risks. Positive risks may be
responded by - "Exploit", "Enhance", "Share", "Accept".
120

Project leadership requires that the project manager pay attention simultaneously to the:

A. Time, cost and performance deliverables
B. Tasks to be performed and needs of the team
C. Quantity and quality of the work to be performed
D. All of the other alternatives apply
E. Efficiency and effectiveness of the team
D
121

A quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from three to six. The size of
the control band will:

A. not determinable from given data
B. None of the other alternatives apply
.
C. decrease
D. remain unchanged
E. increase
C
122


What is one of the most important skills a project manager can have?

A. Negotiation skills
B. Communication skills
C. Influencing skills
D. Problem-solving skills
B

Negotiation, influencing, and problem-solving skills are all important for a project manager to
possess. However, good communication skills are the most important skills a project manager can
have.
123

The critical path in a schedule network is the path that:

A. Takes the longest time to complete
B. Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start time.
C. Is not affected by schedule slippage
D. Must be done before any other tasks
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
A
124

In a matrix organizational form, which factor(s) make it difficult for a project manager to provide a
valid input into the employee's performance review?

A. All of the other alternatives apply
B. Employees spend only a short amount of time assigned to the project
C. Not working directly with the assigned functional employees
D. Not being knowledgeable enough to evaluate employees on technical judgment
E. Both 1) Not working directly with the assigned functional employees, and 2) Employees spend
only a short amount of time assigned to the project.
A
125

You are a project manager for Pizza Direct, which is a retail pizza delivery store. Your company is
competing with another retail store for the option of opening two new stores in a foreign country.
You have been invited to dinner with the prospective foreign business partners and their spouses
upon your arrival. You know that all of the following statements are generally true except for which
one?

A. You should respect the cultural differences you'll encounter when working with your prospective
foreign business partners.
B. You should build an atmosphere of mutual trust and cooperation.
C. You should spend time building relationships with your prospective foreign business partners
before getting down to business.
D. You should explain your company's rules, standards, and operating policies at your first
meeting with the prospective foreign business partners.
D

Your first meeting with foreign partners should be spent getting to know them on a personal basis.
Many cultures like to spend time building relationships first and then talking business. Since you've
been invited to dinner upon your arrival and the dinner includes the spouses of your prospective
partners, chances are they want to spend some time getting to know you personally first. The
discussion of the company's rules, standards, and operating policies should occur at the second or
third meeting.
126

Reserve Analysis a technique not used in:

A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimating Activity Duration
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
C

Reserve Analysis: Many cost estimators include reserves, also called contingency allowances, as
costs in many schedule activity cost estimates. Reserve Analysis a technique not used in Control
Costs.
127

A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000.

What term can best describe the difference of $10,000?

A. Management Contingency Reserve
B. Cost Variance
C. Schedule Variance
D. Management Overhead
A

The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is
Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So
Management Contingency Reserve is true.
128

The positive value of conflict is underestimated. Properly managed, conflict is a valuable tool,
particularly when

A. A diversion is needed
B. Conflict may cause a loss of status or position power
C. Conflictive situations are in their early stages and emotional involvement is low
D. Conflictive situations are in their late stages and emotional involvement is high
E.
C
129

You are the project manager for a new website for the local zoo. You need to perform Qualitative
Risk Analysis. When you've completed this process, you'll produce all of the following as part of
the risk register update output except which one?

A. Probability of achieving time and cost estimates
B. Watch list of low-priority risks
C. Priority list of risks
D. Risks grouped by categories
A

Probability of achieving time and cost estimates is an update that is produced from the
Quantitative Risk Analysis process.
130

A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the:

A. Selection of personnel.
B. Termination decision.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Functional requirements.
E. Project cost estimate.
D
131

A summary WBS is usually developed in the


A. close-out phase
B. All of the other alternatives apply phases
C. implementation phase
D. planning phase
E. Conceptual phase
E
132

Many companies self insure against some risk. Problems which can arise from self-insurance
include:

A. confusion of business risks with insurable risks.
B. Both 1) failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting
in severe financial damage to the company, and 2) confusion of business risks with insurable
risks.
C. stiff competition from insurance companies
D. All of the other alternatives apply.
E. failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in
severe financial damage to the company
B
133

You are a contract project manager working with the State of Bliss. Your latest project involves
rewriting the Department of Revenue's income tax system. As project manager, you have taken all
the appropriate actions regarding confidentiality of data. One of the key stakeholders is a huge
movie buff, and she has the power to promote you into a better position at the conclusion of this
project. She's reviewing some report data that just happens to include confidential information
regarding one of her favorite movie superstars. What is the most appropriate response?

A. Do nothing, because she has the proper level of access rights to the data and this information
showed up unintentionally.
B. Request that she immediately return the information, citing conflict of interest and violation of
confidential company data.
C. Request that she immediately return the information until you can confirm that she has the
proper level of access rights to the data.

D. Report her to the management team.
A

As project manager, it's your responsibility to make sure the people you will be sharing data with
have the proper permissions to see the data; this question indicated that you did that. In this case,
D is not correct because it implies that you did not verify ahead of time that the stake-holder had
the proper level of approvals to use the data.
134

Resource reallocation from non critical to critical activities is an example of which
Project Scheduling technique:

A. Critical Path Method
B. Schedule Compression
C. Resource Leveling
D. What if Analysis
C
Resource Leveling: Allocate scare resources to critical path activities first.
135

Which of the following statements is in agreement with McGregor's concepts concerning Theory X
and Theory Y managers?

A. All of the other alternatives apply
B. Theory X managers tend to be autocratic whereas Theory Y managers are more likely to
delegate responsibility
C. Both 1) Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to
change, and 2) Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing

to accept responsibility

D. Theory Y managers view subordinates as being imaginative, creative, and willing to accept
responsibility
E. Theory X managers view subordinates as being lazy, irresponsible, and resistant to change
A
136

Management by objectives assumes that the team

A. Both 1) is receptive to an unstructured environment, and 2) possesses a self-fulfillment
philosophy
B. possesses a self-fulfillment philosophy
C. All of the other alternatives apply
D. is receptive to an unstructured environment.
E. does not require close supervision
B
137

An activity that consumes no time or resources and shows only that a dependency exists between
two activities is called:

A. A milestone
B. A dummy activity
C. Both 1) A milestone and 2) A dummy activity
D. A hammock
B
138

A _____ estimate prepared from layouts, sketches and flowsheets, should be accurate within (-10,
+25%).


A. Parametric
B. Bottom up.
C. Budget
D. Top down.
E. Definitive.
C
139

What is the standard deviation for the estimates in the above problem?

A. 2
B. 0.5
C. 1.5
D. 0.6
D
140

Which of the following is most closely associated with pure risk:

A. profit and loss
B. personnel turnover
C. market fluctuations
D. insurance
E. Both 1) profit and loss and 2) market fluctuations.
D
141

Your company, Kick That Ball Sports, has appointed you project manager for its new Cricket
product line introduction. This is a national effort, and all the retail stores across the country need
to have the new products on the shelves before the media advertising blitz begins. The product


line involves three new products, two of which will be introduced together and a third one that will
follow within two years. Product number three will be elaborated in more detail closer to the
product's release date, while the first two products will be elaborated in great detail now. The
scope management plan has just been completed. Which of the following is true? (Choose the
best response.)

A. The WBS template from a previous project, a tool and technique of the Create WBS process,
was used to create the WBS for this project. The WBS encompasses the major deliverables for
the project.
B. Only the deliverables associated with the work of the project should be listed on the WBS.
Since product number three isn't being released until a later date it should not yet be included on
the WBS.
C. The WBS encompasses the full scope of work for the project and the technique in the question
is called rolling wave planning.
D. The WBS should be created next, and it encompasses the full scope of work for the project.
Only the work of the project is listed on the WBS.
C

There isn't enough information in the question to know whether "The WBS template from a
previous project, a tool and technique of the Create WBS process, was used to create the WBS
for this project. The WBS encompasses the major deliverables for the project." is correct, although
it could be. "The WBS should be created next, and it encompasses the full scope of work for the
project. Only the work of the project is listed on the WBS." is not correct because the next process
after the scope management plan is created is the Scope Definition process. The WBS details the
entire scope of the project and includes all deliverables. It is an output of the Create WBS process
and the technique of elaborating some deliverables at a later date is called rolling wave planning.
142

The risk of accepting a lot of poor quality, in acceptance sampling, is referred to as:

A. type I error
B. producer's risk
C. consumer's risk
D. buyer's risk
E. consumer's risk and type I error
C
143

Parametric cost estimating involves

A. using a statistical model to estimate costs
B. calculating the individual estimates of work packages
C. defining the perimeters of the life-cycle
D. using the WBS to do bottom up estimates
E. Both 1) using the WBS to do bottom up estimate, and 2) calculating the individual estimates of
work packages
A
144

You are a project manager for Picture Shades, Inc. It manufactures window shades that have
replicas of Renaissance-era paintings on the inside for hotel chains. Picture Shades is taking its
product to the home market, and you're managing the new project. It will offer its products at retail
stores as well as on its website. You're developing the project schedule for this under-taking and
have determined the critical path. Which of the following statements is true?

A. You calculated the early and late start dates, the early and late finish dates, and float times for
all activities.
B. You calculated the optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely duration times and the float times for
all activities.
C. You calculated the activity dependency and the optimistic and pessimistic activity duration
estimates.
D. You calculated the most likely start date and most likely finish dates, float time, and weighted
average estimates.
A

The CPM calculates a single early and late start date and a single early and late finish date for
each activity. Once these dates are known, float time is calculated for each activity to determine
the critical path. The other answers contain elements of PERT calculations.
145

Your project team has identified several potential risks on your current project that could have a
significant impact if they occurred. The team examined the impact of the risks by keeping all the
uncertain elements at their baseline values. What type of diagram will the team use to display this
information?

A. Process flowchart
B. Tornado diagram
C. Influence diagram
D. Fishbone diagram
B

The question describes sensitivity analysis, which is a tool and technique of the Quantitative Risk
Analysis process. Tornado diagrams are often used to display sensitivity analysis data.
146

Response Planning is the responsibility of the functional areas and considers

A. deflection.
B. contingency planning.
C. unforeseen occurrences.
D. All of the other alternatives apply.
E. mitigation.
D
147

Your project sponsor has requested a cost estimate for the project on which you're working. This


project is similar in scope to a project you worked on last year. She would like to get the cost
estimates as soon as possible. Accuracy is not her primary concern right now. She needs a
ballpark figure by tomorrow. You decide to use ___________________.

A. parametric modeling techniques
B. analogous estimating techniques
C. bottom-up estimating techniques
D. computerized modeling techniques
B

Analogous-or top-down-estimating techniques are a form of expert judgment. Since this project is
similar to another recent project, you can use the cost estimates from the previous project to help
you quickly determine estimates for the current project.
148

For communication to occur, there must be:

A. All of the other alternatives apply
B. a communication process
C. Two or more people involved
D. the transmittal of information
E. The transmittal of information and a communication process
A
149

Your company has asked you to be the project manager for the product introduction of its new
DeskTop Rock media system. You recently published the project scope statement. Which of the
following is not contained in the project scope statement?

A. Requested changes
B. Project configuration management requirements
C. Constraints

D. Project specifications
A
Requested changes are an output of the Scope Definition process. They are not part of the project
scope statement.
150

You are working on a project that is similar in scope to a project performed last year by your
company. You might consider which of the following?

A. Using the previous project's alternatives identification as a template
B. Reusing the previous project's product description when writing the scope statement
C. Using the previous project's WBS as a template
D. Reusing the previous project's cost-benefit analysis as justification for this project
C

WBSs from previous projects can be used as templates on projects that are producing similar
products, services, or results. Some companies write WBS templates to be used for projects of
similar scope.
151

What are the performance measurements for the Schedule Control process?

A. SV (EV - PV) and SPI (EV \u00F7 PV)
B. SV (PV - EV) and SPI (PV \u00F7 EV)
C. SV (EV - BAC) and SPI (EV \u00F7 BAC)
D. SV (EV - AC) and SPI (EV \u00F7 AC)
A


Schedule variance is (EV - PV) and schedule performance index is (EV \u00F7 PV).
152

The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features and functions
is:

A. Project verification
B. Project scope
C. Project control
D. Product scope
B

Project Scope: The work that must be done in order to deliver a product with the specified features
and functions.
153

The project manager is assigned in the?

A. Management Plan
B. SOW
C. Charter (contract)
D. Project Plan
C

Project Manager should be assigned in the early phase of the project otherwise project may get
delay.
154

Parametric Estimating is done as a part of which process:

A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Sequence Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
A

Tools and Techniques for Estimate Activity Durations are: Analogous estimates ,
Parametric Estimating, Three-Point Estimates and Reserve Analysis.
155

Make payment to seller is done in _______ .

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
C

Make payment to seller is done in Administer Procurements.
156


You have accumulated project information throughout the project and need to distribute some
important information you just received. Which of the following is not an information distribution
method?

A. Electronic mail
B. Videoconferencing
C. Voicemail
D. Electronic databases
D

Electronic databases are a type of information gathering and retrieval system, not a distribution
method.
157

The following reports are normally developed during the project closure phase?

A. None of the other alternatives apply
B. Communications Management Plan and Lessons Learned
C. Records Archive, Closure Report, & Specifications Document
D. Records Archive, Closure Report, lessons learned & Formal Acceptance Report
E. Communications Management Plan and Closure report
D
158

Which one of the following is not an acquisition method?

A. negotiation
B. invitation
C. purchase
D. advertising
E. all are acquisition methods
D
159

Communication in both project and non-project-driven organizations should occur in directions.

A. four
B. one
C. two
D. three
E. five
E
160

In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?

A. Fixed Price Plus Incentive
B. Firm Fixed Price Contract and Fixed Price Plus Incentive
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract
D. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
E. Cost Plus Fixed Price
D
161

Objectives can be described as all of the following except for which one? Choose the least correct
answer.

A. The monetary units used to express the cost criteria for the project
B. The functionality and specific conditions that must be met in order to satisfy the project,
contract, standard, or specification
C. The quantifiable results used to measure project success that should include schedule, cost,

and quality criteria

D. The purpose for undertaking the project
B

According to the PMBOK Guide, functionality and specific conditions that must be met in order to
satisfy the project, contract, standard, or specification describe the criteria for requirements, not
objectives.
162

All of the following statements are true regarding the RBS except for which one?

A. The RBS is similar to the WBS in that the lowest levels of both are easily assigned to a
responsible party or owner.
B. The RBS is contained in the risk management plan.
C. The lowest level of the RBS can be used as a checklist, which is a tool and technique of the
Risk Identification process.
D. It describes risk categories, which are a systematic way to identify risks and provide a
foundation for understanding for everyone involved on the project.
A

The RBS describes risk categories, and the lowest level can be used as a checklist to help identify
risks. Risk owners are not assigned from the RBS; they're assigned during the Risk Response
Planning process.
163

You are the project manager for Lucky Stars nightclubs. They specialize in live country and
western band performances. Your newest project is in the Planning process group. You've
published the scope statement and scope management plan. The document that describes who
will receive copies of this information as well as future project information, how it should be
distributed, and who will prepare it is which of the following?


A. Scope management plan
B. Project charter
C. Communications management plan
D. Information distribution plan
C

The communications management plan documents what information will be distributed, how it will
be distributed, to whom, by whom, and the timing of the distribution.
164

With triangular distribution, the low, likely and high values are 20, 30 and 40, respectively. The
mean is _____.

A. 25.0
B. 22.5
C. 27.5
D. 30.0
D

mean = (20+30+40)/3= 30
165

Sally is a project manager working on a project that will require a specially engineered machine.
Only three manufacturers can make the machine to the specifications Sally needs. The price of
this machine is particularly critical to this project. The budget is limited, and there's no chance of
securing additional funds if the bids for the machine come in higher than budgeted. She's
developing the evaluation criteria for the bidders' responses and knows all of the following are true
except for which one?

A. Sally will review the project management plan, including the risk register, as inputs to this

process.

B. Sally will base the evaluation criteria on price alone since the budget is a constraint.
C. Sally will update the contract statement of work with any new information.
D. Sally will use standard contract forms provided by her procurement department to write the
contract for this machine.
B

Evaluation criteria can be based on price alone when there are many vendors who can readily
supply the good or services. The question states that only three vendors make the machine, which
means evaluation criteria should be based on more than price.
166

Failure costs are also known as which of the following?

A. Internal costs
B. Prevention costs
C. Cost of keeping defects out of the hands of customers
D. Cost of poor quality
D

Failure costs are associated with the cost of quality and are also known as cost of poor quality.
167

During the opening rounds of contract negotiation, the other party uses a fait accompli tactic.
Which of the following statements is true about fait accompli tactics?

A. One party claims the issue under discussion was documented and accepted as part of Scope
Verification.
B. One party claims the issue under discussion has already been decided and can't be changed.
C. One party claims to accept the offer of the other party, provided a contract change request is

submitted describing the offer in detail.

D. One party agrees to accept the offer of the other party but secretly knows they will bring the
issue back up at a later time.
B

Fait accompli is a tactic used during contract negotiations where one party convinces the other
that the particular issue is no longer relevant or cannot be changed. Option B is not correct
because Scope Verification does not generally occur during contract negotiations since the work
of the project has not yet been performed.
168

The most rapid Estimate Costs technique is:

A. Analogous estimating
B. Template estimating
C. Computerized estimating
D. Square foot estimating
C

Computerized estimating rapid Estimate Costs technique
169

Management styles associated with production environments, such as assembly lines commonly
include:

A. assumption that workers lack ambition and dislike responsibility
B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. a directing style of leadership.
D. a lack of confidence in their workers
E. a Theory X style of leadership
B
170

The person in the organization that authorizes the commencement of a project is the
______________?

A. Project Admin
B. Sponsor
C. Project Manager
D. Senior Manager
B
The project manager executes the project but does not authorize the project. Sponsor authorize
the project.
171

Constraints do not include:

A. Expected staff assignments
B. Collective bargaining
C. Organizational structure of the performing organization
D. Impacts of weather
D

Impacts of weather
172

Job continuity would be an example of _____ in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

A. Self-actualization
B. Physiological
C. Safety
D. Belonging
E. Esteem
C
173

The estimated cost to complete (ETC) is _____.

A. BCWP/ACWP
B. the forecasted and final cost - cost to date
C. None of the other alternatives apply
.
D. Total estimate - ACWP
E. (ACWP-BCWP)/BCWP * 100
B
174

Formal written communication is mandated for which of the following?

A. Both 1) scope changes not part of the original project, and 2) taking exception to a
specification.
B. scope changes not part of the original project
C. procurement of raw materials
D. All of the other alternatives apply.
E. taking exception to a specification
D
175

Risk mitigation includes all but which of the following:

A. performing contingent planning
B. Obtaining insurance against loss
C. Developing system (policies, procedures, responsibilities)
D. identification of project risks.
E. developing planning alternatives
D
176

Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be
used to:

A. See how others have solved problems
B. "Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives"
C. See what mistakes others have made
D. All of the other alternatives apply
D

All of the other alternatives apply
177

In which type of organization(s) is the project manager's role most likely part-time?

A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix

D. Both 1) Functional and 2) Weak Matrix
D
178

A(n) _____ is defined as a specified accomplishment in a particular instant in time which does not
consume time or resources.

A. Event.
B. Activity
C. Correlation
D. Event constrained within planned effort.
E. Constant
A
179

Trend Analysis is best described as:

A. Examining project performance over time
B. Calculating Earned Value
C. Calculating Cost Variance
D. Analyzing performance of similar projects over time
A

Trend Analysis is Examining project performance time by time
180

Overlapping activities on a project, such as design and construction, is referred to as:


A. Process improvement.
B. Synchronous manufacturing
C. Fast tracking
D. Parallel management.
E. Risk conversion.
C
181

All the techniques described below can be used to keep a meeting focused except:

A. Rephrase unclear ideas presented by group members
B. Encourage pursuit of interesting new ideas
C. Summarize discussion periodically
D. Recall agenda items/purpose of meeting
E. All are acceptable techniques
B
182

Resource leveling _____.

A. Attempts to reduce resource requirements within a constraint on project duration
B. Smoothes out resource requirements by rescheduling activities within their float time.
C. Allocates resources to activities to find shortest schedule within fixed resource limits.
D. Smooths out resource requirements by substituting activities with unassigned resources.
E. 1) Smoothes out resource requirements by rescheduling activities within their float time, or 2)
Attempts to reduce resource requirements within a constraint on project duration
E
183

The highest degrees of project risk and uncertainty are associated with the following phase of the


project:

A. Both 1) conceptual, and 2)post project evaluation
B. cut-over
C. conceptual
D. execution
E. post project evaluation
C
184

You are a project manager for an engineering company. Your company won the bid to add ramp-
metering lights to several on-ramps along a stretch of highway at the south end of the city. You
subcontracted a portion of the project to another company. The subcontractor's work involves
digging the holes and setting the lamp poles in concrete. The subcontractor's performance is not
meeting the contract requirements. Which of the following is not a valid option?

A. You document the poor performance in written form and send the correspondence to the
subcontractor.
B. You terminate the contract for poor performance and submit a change request through Contract
Administration.
C. You agree to meet with the subcontractor to see whether a satisfactory solution can be
reached.
D. You submit a change request through Contract Administration demanding that the
subcontractor comply with the terms of the contract.
D

The contract change control system describes the processes you'll use to make changes to the
contract, not as a means of communication. The changes might include contract term changes,
date changes, and termination of a contract.
185

Job descriptions are examples of ______communications.


A. horizontal
B. downward
C. diagonal
D. upward
E. None of the other alternatives apply
E
186

You are in a meeting with someone who just ate a slice of garlic bread. Your are distracted by his
pungent breath. Which of the following communication barriers describe these distractions?

A. None of the other alternatives apply
B. Selective Perception
C. Sensory Limitations
D. Varying Alertness of Perception
E. Sign Detection
E
187

Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except:

A. Analysis of alternatives
B. Decision making
C. Team building
D. Convergent thinking
E. Uninhibited verbalization
D
188

In crashing a task, you would focus on:


A. Accelerate performance by minimizing cost.
B. As many tasks as possible and accelerate performance by minimizing cost.
C. Non critical tasks.
D. Accelerating performance of tasks on critical path.
E. As many tasks as possible.
D
189

You have been assigned to a project in which the objectives are to expand three miles of the
north-to-south highway through your city by two lanes in each direction. You are in charge of the
demolition phase of this project, and you report to the project manager in charge of this project.
You have been hired on contract and will be released at the completion of the demolition phase.
What type of organizational structure does this represent?

A. Balanced matrix organization
B. Functional organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Weak matrix organization
C

Projectized organizations are focused on the project itself. One issue with this type of structure is
determining what to do with project team members when they are not actively involved on the
project. One alternative is to release them when they are no longer needed.
190

You are a project manager of ABC organization. You are estimating the project in initiation phase.
What level of accuracy you can expect?

A. -75 percent to +75 percent
B. -25 percent to +25 percent
C. -50 percent to +50 percent
D. -50 percent to +100 percent
D

In the project initiation phase estimation is rough therefore it can fluctuate -50 percent to +100
percent.
191

Root Cause Analysis related to ________.

A. Process Analysis
B. Performance Measurements
C. All of the other alternatives apply
D. Quality Audits
A

Root Cause Analysis relates to Process Analysis.
192

Range estimating in determining cost risk probabilities requires _____ .

A. an amount of financial exposure.
B. risks and opportunities ranked in order of bottom line importance
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. contingency requirements for expected level of confidence
E. probability of cost overrun occurrences
C
193

When working in a matrix environment, all of the following are true regarding the Manage Project
Team process except for which one?

A. Communication methods and issue logs are used to create performance appraisals, provide
feedback, and track issues.
B. Managing project teams in a matrix environment is often a critical success factor for the project.
C. Loyalty issues might arise when managing projects in a matrix environment.
D. It's the project manager's responsibility to make certain this dual reporting relationship is
managed effectively.
A

Communication methods are not a tool and technique of the Manage Project Team process.
194

Who are the audience of project charter?

A. The senior Project Manager
B. The project team
C. stakeholders
D. The project manager
C

The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter and the audience are the stakeholders.
195

Communication always makes use of.

A. words

B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. language
D. gestures
E. symbols
B
196

The major difference between PERT and CPM networks is:

A. PERT is measured in days whereas CPM uses weeks or months.
B. PERT addresses only time whereas CPM also includes cost and resource availability.
C. PERT requires three time estimates whereas CPM requires one time estimate.
D. PERT is used for construction projects whereas CPM is used for R & D.
E. PERT requires computer solutions whereas CPM is a manual technique.
C
197

Risk event probability is defined as:

A. the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the risk event
B. the fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event
C. the number of times the risk event may occur
D. Both 1) the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the
risk event and 2) the number of times the risk event may occur.
E. the total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event.
A
198

You've been assigned as a project manager on a research and development project for a new
dental procedure. You're working in the Scope Planning process. What is the purpose of the


project scope management plan?

A. The project scope management plan describes and documents a scope baseline to help make
future project decisions.
B. The project scope management plan decomposes project deliverables into smaller units of
work.
C. The project scope management plan describes how project scope will be developed and how
changes will be managed.
D. The project scope management plan describes how cost and time estimates will be developed
for project scope changes.
C

The scope management plan outlines how project scope will be managed and how changes will
be incorporated into the project.
199

What are you likely to see as a project progresses in a schedule with must fix dates and little or no
slack?

A. Idle resources
B. Negative float
C. Lots of free float
D. Positive float
A
200

The ability to achieve cost savings is inversely proportional to _____.

A. empowerment to the P.M.
B. productivity
C. the estimated costs to complete
D. the earned value achieved to date

E. None of the other alternatives apply
.
D
201

The strong matrix versus a weak matrix.

A. strong matrix is more difficult to manage.
B. the balance of power has shifted away from the PM.
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. functional managers no longer has control over the technical processes.
E. team members are more likely to be assigned to the project office in a strong matrix
E
202

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor?

A. Working conditions
B. Achievement
C. Vacation time
D. Pay
E. Hygiene needs
B
203

The scope of a project can be expected to change if:

A. The project manager must provide cost estimates without having a design concept
B. All of the other alternatives apply are possible based upon the situation

C. The project manager is assigned after the project is defined, and the cost and schedule are
approved

D. A clear objective is not provided
E. Oversimplification (underestimating) of the nature of the work occurs
B
204

Work authorization forms are needed in order to:

A. Authorize line organizations to charge against the project
B. Develop a structured methodology for release of funds
C. Establish an audit trail
D. All of the other alternatives apply
E. 1) Authorize line organizations to charge against the project and 2)Develop a structured
methodology for release of funds
D
205

Cost management includes processes that are required to maintain financial control of projects.
These processes may include:

A. economic evaluation
B. cost estimating and cost forecasting
C. cost estimating
D. cost forecasting
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
E
206

Communication plays a major role in:


A. Organizing
B. Controlling
C. All of the other alternatives apply
D. Directing
E. Planning
C
207

A Project with a total funding of $70,000 finished with a BAC value of $60,000.

What term can best describe the difference of $10,000?

A. Management Overhead
B. Management Contingency Reserve
C. Cost Variance
D. Schedule Variance
B

The difference between the Cost Baseline and Funding requirement at Project completion is
Management Contingency Reserve. BAC represents the revised Cost baseline for the project. So
Management Contingency Reserve is true.
208

You are a project manager for an agricultural supply company. You have just completed and
obtained sign-off on the project scope statement for your new Natural Bug Busters project. A key
stakeholder has informed you that a deliverable is missing from the project scope statement. This
deliverable is a critical success factor. Which of the following actions should you take?

A. Modify the scope statement to reflect the new deliverable.
B. Modify the scope statement after an approved change request has been received from the
stakeholder.
C. Inform the stakeholder that work not stated in the scope statement is excluded from the project.

D. Inform the stakeholder that this deliverable must be included in phase two of this project since
sign-off has already been obtained.
B

The project scope statement will change throughout the project as change requests are received
and approved. Project managers must be certain to discover all deliverables before publishing the
project scope statement to prevent situations like the one described in this question.
209

Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations
may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following are examples of assignable causes
except:

A. None of the other alternatives apply (all are examples)
B. differences among materials.
C. differences among machines.
D. differences among workers.
E. differences in each of these factors over time.
A
210

The basic elements of communication include:

A. Reading, writing and listening
B. Communicator, encoding, message, medium, decoding, receiver, and feedback
C. All of the other alternatives apply
D. Clarity of speech and good listening habits
E. Listening, talking and sign language.
B
211

Life seems to be going very well for your close friend, a fellow PMP. She has taken a trip to
France, bought a new car, and stocked her wine cellar with a half dozen expensive bottles of wine,
all within the last six months. After a few cocktails one evening, she tells you her secret. The
vendor she's working with on the $4 billion project she's managing has given her all of these items
as gifts. Which of the following should you do? (Choose the best answer.)

A. You tell your friend these gifts probably aren't appropriate and leave it at that.
B. Your friend doesn't see a problem with accepting these gifts at all. You know this is a conflict of
interest situation and should be reported as a PMP Code of Professional Conduct violation.
C. You and your friend have a long conversation about the gifts, and she decides to return them
(with the exception of the trip) and not accept any more gifts in the future.
D. You're happy for your friend and say nothing.
B

This is a conflict of interest situation, and you should report it as a violation of the PMP Code of
Professional Conduct.
212

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Contract Administration process except for
which one?

A. Contract change control system, buyer-conducted performance review, and inspections and
audits
B. Records management system and information technology
C. Contract performance information gathering and contract reporting systems
D. Performance reporting, payment system, and claims administration
C

The tools and techniques of the Contract Administration process are contract change control
system, buyer-conducted performance review, inspections and audits, performance reporting,
payment system, claims administration, records management system, and information technology.
213

Company expenses such as auditing costs, supervision, office supplies, building rent and
maintenance are elements of the:

A. Contracts and administration costing system.
B. Fringe benefits packages.
C. None of the other alternatives apply
.
D. Capital budgeting process.
E. Overhead rates.
E
214

You are the project manger for Xylophone Phonics. This company produces children's software
programs that teach basic reading and math skills. You are ready to assign project roles,
responsibilities, and reporting relationships. Which project Planning process are you working on?

A. Human Resource Acquisition
B. Acquire Staff
C. Human Resource Planning
D. Resource Planning
C

The Human Resource Planning process identifies project resources, documents roles and
responsibilities of project team members, and documents reporting relationships.
215

The process of Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of which process?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Planning
D. QA
A

Manage Stakeholder Expectations is part of Monitoring and Control process.
216

Collect Requirements is:

A. Developing a plan from major stakeholders
B. Developing a written scope statement as the basis for future project decisions
C. Planning project milestones
D. Formalizing acceptance of the project scope
B

Collect Requirements: Process of progressively elaborating and documenting the project
work that produces the product of the project
217

Which is not one of the triple constraint of a project?

A. Cost
B. Time

C. Resources
D. Scope
C
Projects triple constraints are 1) Scope, 2)Time and 3)Cost
218

What is one of the advantages of a functional organization?

A. All employees report to two or more managers, but project team members show loyalty to
functional managers.
B. All employees report to one manager and have a clear chain of command.
C. Teams are co-located.
D. The organization is focused on projects and project work.
B

Advantages for employees in a functional organization are that they have only one supervisor and
a clear chain of command exists.
219

The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in many ways.
Which of the following represents the most important motivation for the QC circle participants?

A. strengthening of relationships between co-workers
B. recognition among co-workers
C. self-improvement
D. improving the performance of the company
E. financial incentives
D
220

The methods and techniques for determining the economic costs, the environmental impact, the
economic returns, and the probability for success are called:

A. Bills of materials.
B. Pert charts.
C. Managerial reserves.
D. None of the other alternatives apply
E. Feasibility studies.
E
221

Which of the following statements is true regarding schedule variances?

A. Schedule variances never impact the schedule.
B. Schedule variances sometimes impact the schedule.
C. Schedule variances impact scope, which impacts the schedule.
D. Schedule variances always impact the schedule.
B

Schedule variances will sometimes-but not always-impact the schedule. Changes to non-critical
path tasks will not likely impact the schedule, but changes to critical path tasks will always impact
the schedule.
222

Which is not an example of formal communication?


A. Contract
B. email
C. Project status report
D. Status meeting
B

Communication via email is not considered a formal communication.
223

You know that PV = 470, AC = 430, EV = 480, EAC = 500, and BAC = 525. What is VAC?

A. 25
B. 30
C. 20
D. 70
A

VAC is calculated this way: VAC = BAC - EAC. Therefore, 525 - 500 = 25.
224

In general, attempts to smooth out period to period resources will _____ the scheduled time and
_____ project costs.

A. Increase, increase
B. Decrease, decrease.
C. Increase, decrease.
D. Increase, increase or decrease.
E. Decrease, increase.
A
225

Bar charts are most appropriate for:

A. Showing slack time.
B. Comparing actual to planned performance to each activity.
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. Showing critical path dependencies.
E. Showing which activities can be rearranged in parallel.
B
226

All of the following may hinder a person's ability to transmit/receive a message except:

A. Preoccupation
B. Assuming
C. Unfamiliarity with topic
D. Noise
E. Withholding information
C
227

The Communications Management Plan should contain the following:

A. Selection of appropriate media to meet specific needs
B. Communications policy
C. All of the other alternatives apply
D. Communications media
E. Reporting channels
C
228

A project manager believes that the best way to manage is to form a good, harmonious working
relationship with the team, and high performance will follow. The project manager could be defined
as a _____ manager.

A. 1,9
B. 9,1
C. 1,1
D. 9,9
E. 5,5
A

Section: (none)
Explanation/Reference:
Four types of project leader that are considered best suited to different project circumstances are,
imaginative Explorer (9,9), assertive Driver (9,1), catalyst Coordinator (5,5) and Professional
Administrator (1,9) are placed in four quadrants of Focus (X) and Approach (Y) axis of General
Personality Characteristics Grid. These values of (9,9), (9,1), (1,9) and (5,5) are Blake-Mouton
Grid descriptions. (Refer to http://www.maxwideman.com/papers/profiles/general.htm) (1,9)
represents Administrator who believes in forming a good, harmonious working relationship with the
team. Administrator recognizes the need for stability, typically in order to optimize productivity
through maximizing repetition to the extent possible on a project and to get the work finished.
Often, requisite information must be assembled and carefully analyzed, with thought given to the
trade-offs and how conflicts and problems can be resolved and disposed of in advance.
Work must be carefully scheduled and procedurized if potential gains are to be realized and "all
the pieces are to be carefully put in place".So, Answer A (1,9) the Administrator manager.
229

Which involves estimating the cost of individual work items:

A. Analogous estimating
B. Bottom up estimating
C. Computerized

D. Square foot
B
Bottom-up estimating: Estimating the cost of individual work items and then rolling up
the costs to arrive at a project total , more accurate
230

You are a project manager for the Swirling Seas Cruises food division. You're considering two
different projects regarding food services on the cruise lines. The initial cost of Project Fish'n for
Chips will be $800,000, with expected cash inflows of $300,000 per quarter. Project Picnic's
payback period is six months. Which project should you recommend?

A. ProjectFish'n for Chips, because the costs on Project Picnic are unknown.
B. Project Picnic, because ProjectFish'n for Chips' payback period is two months longer than
Project Picnic's.
C. Project Picnic, because ProjectFish'n for Chips' payback period is four months longer than
Project Picnic's.
D. ProjectFish'n for Chips, because its payback period is two months shorter than Project Picnic's.
B

The payback period for Project Fish'n for Chips is eight months. This project will receive $300,000
every three months, or $100,000 per month. The $800,000 will be paid back in eight months.
231

A(n) _____ system is designed to ensure the timely availability of nonhuman resources, and
includes the cost in procurement, shipping/freight, storage and loss.

A. Procurement.
B. All of the other alternatives apply.
C. Inventory control.

D. Materials management.
E. Inventory control and Procurement.
D
232

Mathematical models using linear programming, dynamic, or algorithm models are considered:

A. form of expert judgment
B. project closing method
C. Project selection criteria
D. Project selection methods
D

< li >Mathematical models are one of the methods described in the project selection methods tool
and technique.
< li >These types of models are in use only in certain types of projects and are not going to be
used for simpler projects.
233

The purpose of configuration management is to:

A. control change during the production only
B. control change throughout the project
C. inform the project manager of changes
D. generate engineering change proposals
E. insure drawings are updated
B
234

The project charter is developed by:

A. the customer
B. senior management and the project manager
C. senior management
D. None of the other alternatives apply
.
E. the project manager
B
235

Lessons learned are most often based upon project historical records. Lessons learned can be
used to:

A. See what mistakes others have made
B. All of the other alternatives apply
C. See how others have solved problems
D. Predict trends, highlight problems and identify alternatives
E. Both 1) See what mistakes others have made, and 2) See how others have solved problems
B
236

You are a contract project manager for a wholesale flower distribution company. Your project is to
develop a website for the company that allows retailers to place their flower orders online. You will
also provide a separate link for individual purchases that are ordered, packaged, and mailed to the
consumer directly from the grower's site. This project involves coordinating the parent company,
growers, and distributors. You are preparing a performance review and have the following
measurements at hand: PV = 300, AC = 200, and EV = 250. What is the CPI of this project?

A. 0.83
B. 0.80

C. 1.25
D. 1.5
C
CPI is calculated as follows: EV \u00F7 AC. In this case, 250 \u00F7 200 = 1.25.
237

A work breakdown structure is most useful for:

A. determining potential delays
B. developing a cost estimate
C. scheduling the start of tasks
D. identifying individual tasks for a project
E. A and C
E
238

You are the project manager for a top-secret software project for an agency of the United States
government. Your mission-should you choose to accept it-is to complete the project using internal
resources. The reason is that finding contractors with top-secret clearances takes quite a bit of
time, and waiting for clearances would jeopardize the implementation date. Your programmers are
80 percent of the way through the programming and testing work when your agency appoints a
new executive director. Slowly but surely your programmers are taken off this project and
reassigned to the executive director's hot new project. Which of the following type of project
ending is this?

A. Extinction
B. Starvation
C. Addition
D. Integration
D


Integration occurs when resources, equipment, or property are reassigned or redeployed back to
the organization or to another project.
239

Define Activities is typically performed by which of the following:

A. Project Manager who created the WBS
B. Management
C. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
D. Project Stakeholder
C

Define Activities is typically performed by Project Team Members. identify the activities that need
to be done to complete the project.
240

Which of the following is closest to Juran's definition of Quality:

A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. customer focus.
D. continuous improvement.
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
B
241

Which of the following MUST NOT performed in project initiation process?

A. identify the requirements.
B. identify business need.
C. create project scope statement.
D. create project charter.
C

project scope statement created during project planning phase.
242

You are a project manager for a software manufacturing firm. The project you've just finished
created a new software product that is expected to become a number-one seller. All prerelease of
software is handled through the marketing department. A friend of yours is a certified software
instructor. They have asked you for a copy of the software prior to the beta release so they can get
familiar with it. What is the most appropriate response?

A. Since your friend is certified to teach your company's brand of software, provide them with a
copy of the software.
B. Decline the request since you stand to gain from this transaction by receiving free training.
C. Ask them to sign a nondisclosure agreement before releasing a copy of the software.
D. Decline the request because the software is the intellectual property of the company.
D

The most appropriate response is to deny the request. Software is considered intellectual property
and should not be used for personal gain or given to others without prior consent from the
organization. This question states that the release of the beta software is handled through the
marketing department, so you should not give your friend a copy of the software outside of this
process.
243

Resource leveling will often affect the project by making it:

A. Shorter.
B. More responsive to customer needs.
C. Longer and more responsive to customer needs.
D. Shorter and more responsive to customer needs
E. Longer
E
244

Going from Level 2 to Level 4 in the work breakdown structure will result in

A. None of the other alternatives apply
B. A greater likelihood that something will fall through the cracks
C. Less estimating accuracy
D. Lower status reporting costs
E. Better control of the project
A
245

The role of the _____ can be invaluable in problem solving.

A. dominator
B. devils advocate
C. recognition seeker or dominator
D. topic jumper
E. recognition seeker
B
246

Which of the following must not performed in the project initiation process?

A. Evaluate historical information
B. List down business need
C. List down stakeholders
D. Create scope statement
D

Scope statement generally created in planning phase.
All others are done in initiation phase.
247

You have assembled your thoughts into a message. As you pass this information to a second
party, you are giving this person your:

A. Input and Data
B. Feedback
C. Data
D. Output
E. Input
D
248

The quality management plan documents how the project team will implement the quality policy. It
must address all of the following except which one?

A. Continuous process improvement
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Quality checklists
D

Quality checklists are an output of the Quality Planning process.
249

Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production
problem?

A. run chart.
B. scatter diagram.
C. histogram.
D. control chart.
E. Ishikawa diagram.
E
250

A project may be defined as _____

A. an integrated approach to managing projects
B. a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities.
C. a group of activities directed by a project manger over a life cycle
D. All of the other alternatives apply.
E. an undertaking with a defined starting point and defined objectives
E
251

You are a project manager for Dutch Harbor Consulting. Your latest project involves the upgrade
of an organization's operating system on 236 servers. You performed this project under contract.


You are in the Closing process and know that product verification is for what purpose?

A. To verify that all the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily
B. To evaluate project goals and ensure that the product of the project meets the requirements
C. To verify the goals of the project and ensure that the product of the project is complete
D. To evaluate all the work of the project and compare the results to project scope
A

Product verification is performed by the buyer and examines all the work of the project and verifies
that the work was completed correctly and satisfactorily.
252

Which of the following is not a cost of non-conformance?

A. maintenance and calibration
B. warranty repairs
C. All of the other alternatives apply.
D. scrap
E. rework
A
253

In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain
control of cost, schedule and scope changes.

A. cost plus incentive fee
B. Cost plus incentive fee and firm fixed price
C. firm fixed price
D. cost plus fixed fee
E. unit price
C
254

You are working with XYZ organization. Your senior manager imposed new delivery date which is
earlier than mentioned project deliverables date in scope statement. To whom you are most
accountable?

A. customer
B. team member
C. sponsor
D. senior manager
A

The project manager must accountable to customer first.
255

The LEAST effective form of communication for complex situations is:

A. formal
B. verbal - face to face and formal
C. informal
D. written
E. verbal - face to face
B
256

If you know expected value is 500 and the standard deviation is 12, you can say with
approximately a 95 percent confidence rating which of the following?


A. The activity will take from 464 to 536 days.
B. The activity will take from 494 to 506 days.
C. The activity will take from 476 to 524 days.
D. The activity will take from 488 to 512 days.
C

There is a 95 percent probability that the work will finish within plus or minus two standard
deviations. The expected value is 500, and the standard deviation times 2 is 24, so the activity will
take from 476 to 524 days.
257

You are working on a project that was proceeding well until a manufacturing glitch occurred that
requires corrective action. It turns out the glitch was an unintentional enhancement to the product,
and the marketing people are absolutely crazy about its potential. The corrective action is
canceled, and you continue to produce the product with the newly discovered enhancement. As
the project manager, you know that a change has occurred to the project scope. Which of the
following statements is true?

A. Performance measurement baselines might be affected by scope changes.
B. Project scope change uses workarounds to correct unexpected problems with scope change.
C. Project scope change uses inspection to determine whether change has occurred.
D. Project scope changes do not require CCB approval.
A

A project scope change affects the performance measurement baselines, which might include
schedule baselines and cost baselines.
258

You are managing an internal project where a vice president from the user group is acting as the
sponsor. You have just been informed by your team that the critical path has slipped by three


weeks. You should:

A. See the sponsor after you have evaluated alternatives, recommendations, and performed an
impact analysis
B. Inform your senior management of the problem and tell them that you will get back to them after
you assessed the situation
C. Look for someone to blame before you see the sponsor
D. Do nothing until the slippage occurs
E. Immediately inform the sponsor and ask for advice
A
259

Parametric estimates are based on variables such as:

A. Project objectives and manpower allocations.
B. Physical characteristics and historical data.
C. Precise measurements and multiple inputs.
D. The WBS and similar projects.
E. Detailed planning and cost restraints.
B
260

All of the following are true regarding Communications Planning except for which one?

A. Communications requirements analysis, communications technology, and PMIS are tools and
techniques of this process.
B. It's the only output of the Communications Planning process.
C. It's tightly linked with enterprise environmental factors and organizational influences, and
lessons learned and historical information are two inputs that should get a lot of attention during
this process.
D. It should be completed as early in the project phases as possible.
A


Communications requirements analysis and communications technology are the tools and
techniques of the Communications Planning process.
261

The Delphi Method is well-suited for:

A. Decision-making
B. All of the other alternatives apply
C. Decision-making and Forecasting
D. Forecasting
E. Overhead rate estimating
C
262

A non-critical path activity is completed in half the time. Then,

A. All of the other alternatives apply.
B. The slack in the path containing this activity will increase.
C. The total cost for this activity has decreased.
D. The critical path is also reduced.
E. Manpower from this activity can be assigned to other activities.
B
263

Advantages of the functional (hierarchical) form of organization include _____ and creation of
technical competence.


A.
B. Single voice to customers
C. High information processing capability
D. Ease of horizontal coordination
E. Clearly defined authority
E
264

During your project meeting, a problem was discussed, and a resolution to the problem was
reached. During the meeting, the participants started wondering why they thought the problem
was such a big issue. Sometime after the meeting, you received an email from one of the meeting
participants saying they've changed their mind about the solution reached in the meeting and need
to resurface the problem. The solution reached during the initial project meeting is a result of
which of the following conflict resolution techniques?

A. Forcing
B. Confrontation
C. Storming
D. Smoothing
D

The smoothing technique does not usually result in a permanent solution. The problem is
downplayed to make it seem less important than it is, which makes the problem tend to resurface
later.
265

Which of the following would most likely increase the accuracy of estimating the project cost?

A. Using historical data.
B. Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure.
C. Both 1) Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure, and 2) Talking to
people who have worked on similar projects.

D. Talking to people who have worked on similar projects.
E. 1) Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure, and 2) Talking to people
who have worked on similar projects, and 3) Using historical data.
E
266

You are a project manager of Software Product Company. After hired a person you got to know
that many of this person's ideas were developed by the competing company. Are you going to
implement the same ideas?

A. Accept the new ideas.
B. Ask to sign NDA.
C. Ignore the ideas because it may be violation of code of conduct.
D. Tell the person that he should not mention that the ideas came from another company.
A

Unless the employee signed the NDA with his or her previous organization, there is no obligation
for him or her not to share knowledge that was gained while working for the competitor.
267

Risk Event Status is defined as _____ .

A. Both 1) the severity of the consequences, and 2)how likely the event is to occur with risk.
B. (Cost + Benefit + Business Risk) / Insurable Risk.
C. how likely the event is to occur with risk.
D. Risk Probability x Amount At Stake.
E. the severity of the consequences.
D
268

Which statement is TRUE about Present Value(PV)?

A. The difference in benefit received between a chosen project and a project that was not chosen
B. The interest rate that makes the net present value of all cash flow equal zero
C. The value today of future cash flow
D. The present value of cash inflow less the present value of cash outflow
C

Present Value(PV): The value today of future cash flow. The higher the PV, the better.
269

All of the following are tools and techniques of the Performance Reporting process except which
one?

A. Performance measurements
B. Information presentation tools
C. Time reporting systems
D. Cost reporting systems
A

The tools and techniques of the Performance Reporting process are information presentation
tools, performance information gathering and compilation, status review meetings, time reporting
systems, and cost reporting systems.
270

Most project (and non-project) managers prefer _____ communications.


A. Lateral
B. Oral
C. Downward
D. Written
E. Upward
B
271

Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

A. Empowerment
B. Self-actualization
C. Belonging
D. Esteem
E. Safety
C
272

A project manager believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value for
the customer. The project manager should:

A. Change the project's objectives
B. Call a meeting of the configuration control board
C. Postpone the modification until a separate enhancement project is funded after this project is
completed according to the original baseline
D. Change the scope baseline
E. Prepare a variance report
C
273


What are the Scope Definition process tools and techniques?

A. Product analysis, alternatives identification, expert judgment, and stakeholder analysis
B. Alternatives identification, stakeholder analysis, and expert judgment
C. Product analysis, cost benefit analysis, alternatives identification, and expert judgment
D. Cost benefit analysis, templates, and expert judgment
A

The tools and techniques of the Scope Definition process include product analysis, alternatives
identification, expert judgment, and stakeholder analysis.
274

All of the following statements about acceptance sampling are true except:

A. Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead
specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality.
B. Acceptance sampling plans are never effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent
inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious.
C. Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-made
products.
D. Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting
loss of passing nonconforming units is not great.
E. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are required.
B
275

Who is responsible for issuing the project charter?

A. The project sponsor
B. The senior Project Manager
C. The project team
D. The project manager
A

The project sponsor creates and issues the project charter.
276

The use of quality circles:

A. provides a quick fix for most quality problems.
B. is particularly effective in overcoming labor/management conflicts.
C. 1) Has proven ineffective in bothJapan and the U.S. and 2) is particularly effective in
overcoming labor/management conflicts.
D. has proven ineffective in bothJapan and the U.S.
E. allows workers the opportunity to generate solutions for chronic quality problems.
E
277

You are a project manager working on gathering requirements and establishing estimates for the
project. Which process group are you in?

A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Initiating
C. Executing
D. Planning
D

The Planning process is where requirements are fleshed out, stakeholders are identified, and
estimates on project costs and time are made.
278

You have been assigned to a project that will allow job seekers to fill out applications and submit
them via the company website. You report to the VP of human resources. You are also
responsible for screening applications for the information technology division and setting up
interviews. The project coordinator has asked for the latest version of your changes to the online
application page for his review. Which organizational structure do you work in?

A. Functional organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Weak matrix organization
D. Projectized organization
C

Functional managers who have lots of authority and power working with project coordinators who
have minimal authority and power characterizes a weak matrix organization. Project managers in
weak matrix organizations are sometimes called project coordinators, project leaders, or project
expeditors.
279

Planning activities such that predetermined resource availability pools are not exceeded is called:

A. Manpower planning.
B. Manpower leveling.
C. Resource leveling.
D. Manpower contingency planning.
E. Resource limited planning.
E
280

As project manager, you wish to impose a standard method by which subordinates calculate


project costs. Which level of communication should be required for this effort?

A. All of the other alternatives apply.
B. Face-to-face
C. Written
D. Non-verbal
E. Telephone
C
281

A line manager who is asked to wear two hats and function as a project manager at the same time
is likely to exercise:

A. All of the other alternatives apply]
B. Influence
C. Power
D. Authority and Power
E. Authority
A
282

By which process may an unsuccessful supplier seek remedy for unjust awards?

A. None of the other alternatives apply
.
B. Contract dispute
C. Bid protest
D. Coffective action
E. Stop work order
C
283

The project charter:

A. Establishes that organizational structure with the project.
B. Expresses upper management commitment to the project.
C. Provides that authority by which the project will be run.
D. Specifies overall objectives and timeframe of the project.
E. All of the other alternatives apply.
E
284

If you are the project manager for a new project. You have collected the necessary input
information and delivered the project charter to the stakeholders. What should you do next?

A. Develop the preliminary project scope statement.
B. Get the project charter signed.
C. Start to create project plan
D. Start the initial project planning process.
B

After delivered the project charter to the stakeholders, First thing you have to do get the project
charter signed..
Project charter is the only authorized document to start project.
285

You are a project manager working on a software development project. You've developed the risk
management plan, identified risks, and determined risk responses for the risks. One of the risks
you identified occurs, and you implement the response for that risk. Then, another risk occurs as a
result of the response you implemented. What type of risk is this called?

A. Residual risk

B. Mitigated risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Trigger risk
C

Secondary risks occur as a result of the implementation of a response to another risk.
286

A project manager is assigned to a project which phase of the project?

A. Closing
B. Initiation
C. Estimation
D. Planning
B

In the Initiation phase, the sponsor releases resources to get the project done, and the project
manager is chosen.
287

Which describes how cost variances will be managed?

A. Cost management plan
B. Cost baseline
C. Cost estimate
D. Chart of accounts
A

Cost management plan describes how cost variances will be managed.
288

History has shown that project managers can be trained in a combination of ways. Which method
is usually preferred by most companies?

A. None of the other alternatives apply
B. Formal education and special course (degreed programs)
C. Experiential learning, on-the-job
D. Professional activities, seminars
E. Individual readings
C
289

Who is responsible for decide project management process for a particular project?

A. Sponsor
B. Project Manager
C. Stakeholders
D. Senior management
B

Project Manager is responsible for decide project management process for a particular project.
290

The most common form of written project communication is


A. Bulletin boards
B. All of the other alternatives apply
C. Publications
D. Letters and memos
E. Reports
D
291

Which performance measurement tells you what the projected total cost of the project will be at
completion?

A. ETC
B. CPI
C. EAC
D. SPI
C

Estimate at completion (EAC) estimates the total cost of the project at completion based on the
performance of the project to date.
292

Your project team consists of 12 people in the same building you're located in, 4 people from the
West Coast office, 2 people from the Kansas City office, and 6 people from the London office.
Your office works different hours than all the other offices. Additionally, not all of the resources in
your building are available at the same times during the day. Three of the 12 team members work
swing shift hours. You use tools like web conferencing and email to distribute information to the
team. Which of the following is true?

A. This question describes resource availability from the Develop Project Team process and
information distribution methods from the Information Distribution process.
B. This question describes the staffing management plan from the Acquire Project Team process
and communication skills from the Information Distribution process.

C. This question describes project staff assignments from the Develop Project Team process and
communication skills from the Information Distribution process.

D. This question describes virtual teams from the Acquire Project Team process and information
distribution methods from the Information Distribution process.
D

Virtual teams are teams that don't necessarily work in the same location or have the same hours
but all share the goals of the project and have a role on the project. The web conferencing and
email references describe the information distribution methods tool and technique of the
Information Distribution process.
293

You are a project manager for a documentary film company. In light of a recent regional tragedy,
the company president wants to get a new documentary on the rescue efforts of the heroic rescue
teams to air as soon as possible. She's looking to you to make this documentary the best that has
ever been produced in the history of this company. She guarantees you free rein to use whatever
resources you need to get this project done quickly. However, the best photographer in the
company is currently working on another assignment. Which of the following is true?

A. The primary constraint is time because the president wants the film done quickly. She told you
to get it to air as soon as possible.
B. The primary constraint is quality because the president wants this to be the best film ever
produced by this company. She's given you free rein to use whatever resources needed to get the
job done.
C. The schedule is the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on
resource use, you assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects. The photographer
won't be finished for another three weeks on his current assignment, so schedule adjustments will
have to be made.
D. Resources are the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on
resource use, you assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects.
B

The primary constraint is quality. If you made the assumption as stated in "Resources are the
primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you
assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects.", you assumed incorrectly. Clarify
these assumptions with your stakeholders and project sponsors. This applies to "The schedule is


the primary constraint. Even though the president has given you free rein on resource use, you
assume she didn't mean those actively assigned to projects. The photographer won't be finished
for another three weeks on his current assignment, so schedule adjustments will have to be
made." as well.
294

Which may be employed to shorten a schedule without changing the scope of the task?

A. Alter to task priorities.
B. Releasing resources earlier from tasks which were scheduled with a late start.
C. Fast tracking or Crashing
D. Fast tracking.
E. Crashing
D
295

Surveys have shown that the primary skill needed to be a project manager is communication skill.
The typical project manager spends approximately ______percent of his or her time
communicating.

A. 40-50
B. 50-60
C. 90-95
D. 75-90
E. 60-75
D
296


A computer tape which contains historical project information is called ____ tape.

A. Database
B. Archive.
C. Lessons learned.
D. Baseline.
E. Life cycle summary.
B
297

Power games, withholding information, and hidden agendas are examples of-.

A. mixed messages
B. indirect communication
C. noise
D. communication barriers
E. All of the other alternatives apply
D
298

Your team is split between two buildings on either side of town. As a result, the team isn't very
cohesive because the members don't know each other very well. The team is still in the storming
stage because of the separation issues. Which of the following should you consider?

A. Training
B. Co-location
C. Corrective action
D. Conflict resolution
B

Co-location would bring your team members together in the same location and allow them to
function more efficiently as a team. At a minimum, team members meeting in a common room,
such as a war room, for all team meetings would bring the team closer together.
299

Risk event is the description of what may happen to the _____ of the project.

A. Budget
B. harm
C. Schedule
D. Manager
B

Risk event is the description of what may happen to the harm of the project.
300

Which of the following is NOT part of stakeholder's management?

A. Identify stakeholder's need
B. make sure all the stakeholders are in project plan
C. Identify stakeholders
D. make sure all the stakeholders are in communication plan
B

Stakeholders are NOT in project plan.

Topic 2, Volume B
301

On what is project baseline development established?


A. Approved product requirements
B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule
B
302

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and
identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
A
303

What is the definition of project plan execution?

A. Integrating all planned activities.
B. Performing the activities included in the plan.
C. Developing and maintaining the plan.
D. Execution of deliverables.
B
304

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan

B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-Location
D
305

Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
C
306

Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a
timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
C
307

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance
is improving or deteriorating?

A. Control chart

B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
D
308

You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is
effective and current?

A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
A

The document control plan is an outline or guide on how physical or virtual
documents will be managed throughout the life of the project. It provides a road map for tracking
documents and for adding, archiving, and removing new documentation from the process.
309

Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?

A. Failure to meet intermediate milestones
B. Force of nature, such as a flood
C. Risk threshold target
D. Crashing front loading or fast tracking
A
310

During what process is the quality policy determined?


A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
C
311

What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?

A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Work breakdown structure update
C. Project network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
C
312

Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?

A. Acceptance of the work deliverables.
B. Accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. Approval of the scope statement.
D. Accuracy of the work breakdown structure.
A
313

Which of the following is an example of contract administration?

A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work

C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
B
314

Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department
C
315

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete, and was to be finished today. As
of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.

What is the cost variance?

A. -$700
B. -$200
C. +$200
D. +$500
B
316

How is quality control performed?

A. By identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy

them.

B. By monitoring specific project results in compliance with relevant quality standards and
determining corrective actions as needed.
C. By ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance
processes.
D. By applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis and benchmarking techniques to ensure
conformance to quality standards.
B
317

As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of
total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?

A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
B
318

How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
C
319

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide should:

A. Always be applied uniformly
B. Be selected as appropriate by the sponsor
C. Be selected as appropriate by the project team
D. Be applied based on ISO guidelines.
C
320

Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed
and who will be performing them?

A. Project sponsor and project manager
B. Project sponsor and functional manager
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project team and functional manager
C

The project management processes are presented as discrete elements with well-
defined interfaces. However, in practice they overlap and interact in ways that are not completely


detailed here. Most experienced project management practitioners recognize there is more than
one way to manage a project. The specifics for a project are defined as objectives that must be
accomplished based on complexity, risk, size, time frame, project team\u2019s experience, access to
resources, amount of historical information, the organization\u2019s project management maturity, and
industry and application area. The required Process Groups and their constituent processes are
guides to apply appropriate project management knowledge and skills during the project. In
addition, the application of the project management processes to a project is iterative and many
processes are repeated and revised during the project. The project manager and the project team
are responsible for determining what processes from the Process Groups will be employed, by
whom, and the degree of rigor that will be applied to the execution of those processes to achieve
the desired project objective.
321

Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes
needed to meet its requirements?

A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning
C
322

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A. Cost Control
B. Quality Planning
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Cost Budgeting
A
323

The Define Scope process is in which of the following process groups?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring & Controlling
D. Executing
B
324

Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?

A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Change control process
D. Team performance assessment
A
325

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewart-Deming
D. Delphi
C
326


Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?

A. Flowcharting
B. Earned value
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Pareto analysis
C

Selection MethodsThere are various project selection methods practiced by the
modern business organizations. These methods have different features and characteristics.
Therefore, each selection method is best for different organizations. Although there are many
differences between these project selection methods, usually the underlying concepts and
principles are the same.
Following is an illustration of two of such methods (Benefit Measurement and Constrained
Optimization methods).


As the value of one project would need to be compared against the other projects, you could use
the benefit measurement methods. This could include various techniques, of which the following
are the most common.

\u2022 You and your team could come up with certain criteria that you want your ideal project objectives
to meet. You could then give each project scores based on how they rate in each of these criteria,
and then choose the project with the highest score.
\u2022 When it comes to the Discounted Cash flow method, the future value of a project is ascertained
by considering the present value and the interest earned on the money. The higher the present
value of the project, the better it would be for your organization.
\u2022 The rate of return received from the money is what is known as the IRR. Here again, you need to

be looking for a high rate of return from the project.

The mathematical approach is commonly used for larger projects. The constrained optimization
methods require several calculations in order to decide on whether or not a project should be
rejected.

Cost-benefit analysis is used by several organizations to assist them to make their selections.
Going by this method, you would have to consider all the positive aspects of the project, which is
the benefits, and then deduct the negative aspects (or the costs) from the benefits. Based on the
results you receive for different projects, you could choose which option would be the most viable
and financially rewarding.

These benefits and costs need to be carefully considered and quantified in order to arrive at a
proper conclusion. Questions that you may want to consider asking are in the selection process
are:

1. Would this decision help me to increase organizational value in the long run?
2. How long will the equipment last for?
3. Would I be able to cut down on costs as I go along?
In addition to these methods, you could also consider Choosing based on opportunity cost - When
choosing any project, you would need to keep in mind the profits that you would make if you do
decide to go ahead with the project.
Profit optimization is therefore the ultimate goal. You need to consider the difference between the
profits of the project you are primarily interested in, and the next best alternative.
327

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect
will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this
situation?

A. Utilize the change control process.
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
A
328

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Methodology
C. Project Management Information
D. Project Selection Methods
A
329

Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions
B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints
A
330

Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation
through project closure?

A. Resource leveling
B. Parametric measuring
C. Pareto chart
D. Earned value
D
331

An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:

A. Organizational Structure
B. Organizational Process Assets
C. Organizational Matrix
D. Organizational Breakdown Structures
B
332

The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.
B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.
B
333

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
D
334

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Variance Analysis
C. Reserve Analysis
D. Stakeholder Analysis
B
335

Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?

A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM
C
336

Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

A. Project Quality Plan
B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan
D
337


Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?

A. Project Scope Statement and Work Breakdown Structure
B. Activity list and Arrow Diagram
C. Change Requests Lists and Organizational Process Assets
D. Project Management Plan and Resource Availability
A

Activity definition refers to the process of parsing a project into a number of individual tasks which
must be completed before the deliverables can be considered completed. Activity definitions rely
on a number of specific input processes. These include enterprise environmental factors,
organizational process assets, the project scope statement, the work breakdown structure, the
WBS dictionary, the project management plan (which consists of the project scope management
plan and the schedule management plan). Through use of these inputs, the activities that will need
to ultimately be completed in order to compete all of the project objectives can be readily defined,
and the activity definition can be further accomplished through the utilization of a number of tools
and techniques including decomposition, templates, rolling wave planning, expert judgment, and
planning components. The four ultimate outputs of the activity definition process are the activity
list, the resulting activity attributes, all requested changes, and any milestones.
This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th.
338

Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project
Time Management process?

A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating
D

Activity Resource Estimate Assumptions and Breakdown StructuresIn the Estimate Activity
Resources process, the key output is activity resource requirements. These requirements describe
the types and quantities of resources needed for each project activity.Once you know what
resources you need, you can begin to estimate the time each activity will take to complete. In this
way, the activity resource requirements list generated by the Estimate Activity Resources process
become inputs for the Estimate Activity Durations process.


Activity resource requirements listThe activity resource requirements list identifies, for tracking
purposes, the activity's code in the work breakdown structure, as well as its name. Vital to
generating the project schedule, it details the resources that you've estimated you need to
complete the activity, and addresses.

Resource description \u2013 The Resource description column lists each type of resource that is
required for the activity. This includes human resources, materials, and facilities.
Number required \u2013 The Number required column identifies the quantity required of each resource.
This value can be specified in any measurement unit, such as hours, days, or physical number of
units required.
Resource assumptions \u2013 Resource assumptions are important factors to consider when devising
the project schedule. Any relevant assumptions about the resource can be included, for example
resource availability, skills, or quality.
Resource availability \u2013 The Resource availability column specifies when each resource can be
used. This is vital information for putting together the project schedule.
Resource dependencies \u2013 The Resource dependencies column identifies factors that may affect
the availability of resources. It's important to identify dependencies when devising the project
schedule because any change in an activity that has a dependency can affect the project
timeline.The final row of the activity resource requirements list identifies the total resources
needed for the activity. The resource totals are important in project scheduling as a base from
which to calculate the duration of the activity.
Resource Assumptions - It's important to record resource assumptions, as they can help during
different stages of a project. Select each project stage to find out how resource assumptions can
help.
Monitoring \u2013 Recorded assumptions can affect performance monitoring. For example, if a
particular task seems to be taking too long, looking at the assumptions can help you identify the
problem.
Controlling \u2013 Recorded assumptions can also help you control performance. Having used the
assumptions to identify a problem, you can now make performance adjustments so that the project
can run more efficiently.
Closing \u2013 Recorded assumptions can provide insights during post-project assessments at the
closing stage. For example, if you had made incorrect assumptions about staff capabilities, looking
at the assumptions helps you understand what went wrong. This can then be recorded in the
lessons learned file for the project.Failure to record assumptions can also have an impact during
the Monitor and Control Project Work process.
Resource breakdown structuresAlong with the activity resource requirements list, there's one more
main output of the Estimate Activity Resources process \u2013 the resource breakdown structure.The
resource breakdown structure provides a hierarchical diagram of the resources required for a
project. This structure is visually simple, showing resource information at a glance breaks
resources into categories and resource types helps you to organize a project schedule and report


on resource utilization information.
Although they look similar, a resource breakdown structure is not the same as a work breakdown
structure.
A work breakdown structure, or WBS, decomposes a project into manageable units of work.
Elements in a WBS include project phases, tasks, sub-tasks, and work packages. These represent
all the activities in a project.
Project document updatesThe Estimate Activity Resources process concludes with project
document updates \u2013 the final output of the process. Initially, various project documents are used
as inputs for the process. Now that resource estimation is complete, new information may have
come to light. For this reason, you may need to update documents so they reflect the latest project
information.
In the process of estimating resource requirements and creating the resource breakdown
structure, it's often necessary to add or delete schedule activities that appear in the activity list.The
activity changes have a subsequent effect on activity attributes and resource calendars. Because
project activities have changed, you need to document those changes by updating the
descriptions of activities and the availability of relevant resources.
The first output of the Estimate Activity Resources process is an activity resource requirements
list. It's important to record any assumptions you've made about resources in this list, for use in
monitoring and controlling project work, and in post-project assessments.
A second output of the process is the resource breakdown structure. This is a hierarchical diagram
that shows the resources required for the project in a visually simple way. It groups resources by
category, and can be used for organizing and reporting on resources.
The final output of the process is updates to relevant project documents, such as the activity list,
activity attributes, and resource calendars.
339

Project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to what Project Time Management
process?

A. Activity Sequencing
B. Activity Resource Estimating
C. Schedule Development
D. Schedule Control
C
340

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?

A. Critical path
B. Rolling Wave
C. PDM
D. Parametric
D
341

Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency
purposes?

A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis
D
342

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path
method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A. Applying calendars
B. Resource Leveling
C. Resource Planning
D. Resource Conflict Management
B
343

Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of
SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Performance measurements
D. Change requests
C
344

Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis
D
345

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Cost Control
B. Cost Budgeting
C. Cost Estimating
D. Cost Planning
B
346


Analogous Cost Estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert Judgment
B. Project Management Software
C. Vendor Bid Analysis
D. Reserve Analysis
A
347

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the
completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected:

Actual cost = $50,000

Plan cost = $45,000

Earned value = $40,000

What is the cost performance index?

A. 0.80
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25
A
348

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000 and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1.33
B. 2.00
C. 0.75
D. 0.5
A
349

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
B
350

Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?

A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
A
351

Based on the following metrics: EV=$20,000, AC=$22,000 and PV=$28,000, what is the project
CV?

A. -$8,000
B. -$2,000
C. $2,000
D. $8,000
B
352

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
B
353

Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?

A. Schedule Analysis
B. Checklist Analysis
C. Assumption Analysis
D. Cost-Benefit Analysis
D
354

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control Chart
C. Flowchart
D. Histogram
A
355

Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control Charts
C. Pareto Chart
D. Histogram
B
356

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 Principle?

A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control Chart
C. Run Chart
D. Pareto Chart
D
357

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
D
358

Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
A
359

Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for Opportunities
C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Risk Data Quality Assessment
C
360

Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on
project objectives?

A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
D
361

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
C
362

A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

A. Plan contracting
B. Request seller responses
C. Select sellers
D. Plan purchase and acquisition
C
363

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
A
364


Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
D
365

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.
D
366

A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of
specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
D
367

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?


A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
D
368

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects
that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's
business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and
to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and
quality of the work packages.
A
369

A project manager is responsible for managing which of the following at the project level?

A. Methodology
B. Standards
C. Constraints
D. Interdependencies
C
370

Company A is launching a new communications satellite system. Resource B was assigned


combined projects of design, construction, integration, and launch of the satellite.

Resource B's role is that of a:

A. Project manager
B. Portfolio manager
C. Work breakdown manager
D. Program manager
D
371

Which of the following defines a characteristic of a project?

A. Repetitive
B. Unique
C. No outcome
D. Permanent
B
372

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling and Closing are called:

A. process groups.
B. phase gates.
C. knowledge areas.
D. project phases.
A
373


Which of the following is the definition of a project?

A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a temporary business process or product
B. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
C. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
D. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
B
374

The Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK Guide) should be considered as a:

A. guide to project management processes, tools and techniques.
B. methodology for managing projects.
C. guide for project, portfolio and program management.
D. standard for project, portfolio and program management.
A
375

Which of the following is a Process Group?

A. Scoping
B. Budgeting
C. Closing
D. Quality
C
376

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?


A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
A
377

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of
changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
B
Explanations: Stakeholders and changes versus time in the Project Life Cycle

There are lots of common features regarding project life cycles:

\u2022 Most stages of the project follow one after the other and in many cases could be described in
technical way.
\u2022 Expenditures and personnel engaged in the task are quite cheap at the beginning of the project,
rise in the middle phase and fall significantly in the final stage. The Picture below shows exactly
the described model.

\u2022 At the beginning of the project - in initial stage the risk of failure and not to meet your goals is
very high. When this crucial period is over the project comes into an intermediate phase where the
situation is more stable and predictable.
\u2022 Stakeholders have a big influence for the project's product in many technical aspects, costs etc.
at the beginning of its life cycle. However their impact become lower within duration of the project
and cost of changes and other corrections - which are low in initial phase rise considerably as the
project continues. The Picture below demonstrates clearly this situation.
In our opinion lots of project life cycles have many similar characteristics but few of them are the
same. For example some projects can consist of five stages, others with ten or more? Depend on
complexity and duration of the project. One institution's hardware testing can have one individual
testing stage whereas another organization can have more phases for this task like: general and
detailed testing, error correction, compatibility with different computers etc. Separate life cycles
can also cover these subprojects for instance: one team of engineers can analysis and look for
any defects of the product and the other team can simultaneously check compatibility with other
devices.

In conclusion we recommend you to deal with every project separately and especially at big and
complex enterprises treat every phase as subproject with an individual life cycle.
378


Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are
these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
C
379

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
B
380

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest

A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
B
381

When do stakeholders have the greatest influence?


A. At the start of the project
B. At the end of the project
C. During execution
D. Stakeholders have constant influence
A
382

Which of the following provides a comprehensive and consistent method of controlling the project
and ensuring its success?

A. Stakeholder management
B. Monitoring and controlling
C. Project governance
D. Project management methodology
C
383

Company A is delivering a product in three parts. The contract allows for the parts to be delivered
either one after the other or at the same time.

Which type of project phasing will allow for the most flexibility in delivering the full product when
product requirements are subject to rapid change?

A. Sequencing the delivery phases one after the other
B. Overlapping the delivery phases
C. Delivering the products iteratively
D. Delivering all of the product at the same time
C
384


In which type of organization does a project manager have a moderate-to-high resource
availability?

A. Functional
B. Weak
C. Balanced
D. Strong
D
385

Which stakeholder is responsible for managing related projects in a coordinated way?

A. Sponsor
B. Portfolio manager
C. Program manager
D. Project manager
C
386

In which of the following organizational structures does the project manager have full authority on
a project?

A. Functional
B. Strong matrix
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
D
387


What are three basic types of project phase-to-phase relationships?

A. Sequential, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
B. Sequential, Iterative, Overlapping
C. Sequential, Non-overlapping, Iterative
D. Iterative, Overlapping, Non-overlapping
B
388

Which is a true statement regarding project governance?

A. Project governance approach must be described in the project management plan.
B. Project governance is independent of the organization or program sponsoring it.
C. Once a project has begun, it is not necessary to formally initiate each project phase.
D. Review of project performance and key deliverables is not required for each project phase.
A
389

A project manager has limited authority in which type of organizational structure?

A. Weak matrix
B. Functional
C. Balanced matrix
D. Projectized
A
390

Which of the following is an input to direct and manage project execution?


A. Requested changes
B. Approved preventive action
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
B
391

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
C
392

A project becomes officially authorized when which of the following occurs?

A. Project manager is appointed
B. Stakeholders approve the project
C. Project charter is approved
D. Project sponsor approves the project
C
393

How is the process of collecting requirements defined?

A. Defining and documenting project sponsors' needs to meet the project objectives
B. Defining and documenting stakeholders' needs to meet the project objectives

C. Defining and documenting the project teams' needs to meet the project objectives
D. Defining and documenting the project needs to meet the project objectives
B
394

Monitor and control project work is a process of which of the following knowledge areas?

A. Project risk management
B. Project scope management
C. Project time management
D. Project integration management
D
395

Which process group can be performed outside the project's scope of control?

A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Control
C. Closing
D. Initiating
D
396

The procurement document is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Schedule
C. Identify Stakeholders
D. Determine Budget
C
397

Which of the following is involved in the initiation process group?

A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Plan Communications
D. Collect Requirements
B
398

Which of the following is defined by a project's life cycle and varies by application area?

A. Product
B. Product-oriented processes
C. Project management process groups
D. Project-oriented processes
B
399

How many knowledge areas are there according to PMBOK Guide?

A. 5
B. 8
C. 9
D. 12
C
400

Which of the following must be taken into account for every process, even if they are not explicitly
listed as inputs in the process specifications?

A. Organizational processes and procedures and enterprise environmental factors
B. Organizational processes and procedures and corporate knowledge base
C. Organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors
D. Corporate knowledge base and enterprise environmental factors
C
401

Perform quality assurance belongs to which of the following process groups?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Closing
B
402

A project team is in which of the following processes when they finalize all activities across all of
the management process groups to formally complete the project?

A. Closing
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
A
403

Which process group defines the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project
was undertaken to achieve?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
C
404

How many process groups are there according to the PMBOK Guide?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
A
405

The Monitoring and Controlling process group contains which of the following processes?

A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Perform Quality Control
D. Identify Stakeholders
C
406

Which process group establishes the total scope of a project?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
B
407

Who must accept the end product for a project to be considered closed?

A. Project team
B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Customer or sponsor
D
408

Manage Project Team belongs to which knowledge area?

A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Procurement Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
D
409

Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?

A. Product scope description
B. Project charter
C. Preliminary project scope statement
D. Communications management plan
A
410

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the
project's scope is managed?

A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
A
411

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution Process?

A. Approved corrective actions
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
A
412

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS
and WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
D
413

What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform
the work of the project?

A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
C
414

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
B
415

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Resource Breakdown Structure (RBS)
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project Breakdown Structure (PBS)
B
416

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A. Requested changes
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Approved change requests
D
417

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the
project work?

A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
C
418


What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to
accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A. Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)
B. Work Performance Information
C. Work Package
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D
419

What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

A. Project boundaries
B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives
A
420

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements
and product acceptance criteria?

A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
C
421


Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project document updates
B. Project management plan
C. Scope baseline
D. Product analysis
A
422

What is an output of Control Scope?

A. Accepted deliverables
B. Work performance measurements
C. Requirements documentation
D. Work performance information
B
423

The decomposition technique is used to do which of the following?

A. Subdivide the estimated costs of individual activities
B. Subdivide project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components
C. Relate the work packages to the performing organizational units
D. Shorten the project schedule duration and the amount of resources needed
B
424

A project manager needs the project team to make a group decision. Which of the following is a
method that can be used to reach a group decision?


A. Expert judgment
B. Majority
C. SWOT analysis
D. Brainstorming
B
425

Decomposition is a tool and technique used in which of the following?

A. Define Scope and Define Activities
B. Collect Requirements and Estimate Activity Resources
C. Create WBS and Define Activities
D. Create WBS and Estimate Activity Duration
C
426

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Collect Requirements process?

A. Group decision making techniques
B. Project management information system
C. Alternative identification
D. Communication requirement analysis
A
427

Which of the following is an input to Collect Requirements?

A. Stakeholder register
B. Requirements documentation

C. Prototypes
D. Organizational process assets
A
428

The use of group creativity techniques as a tool and technique is done in which of the following
processes?

A. Plan Quality
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Perform Quality Control
B
429

Which is an input to the Collect Requirements process?

A. Requirement documentation
B. Organizational process assets
C. Requirements management plan
D. Stakeholder register
D
430

Which of the following can be used to track the requirements throughout the project life cycle?

A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Scope management plan
C. Project charter

D. Work breakdown structure
A
431

Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique?

A. Delphi technique
B. Unanimity
C. Observation
D. Presentation technique
A
432

Which process includes facilitated workshops as a tool and technique?

A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Communications
C. Develop Project Team
D. Report Performance
A
433

Which of the following is a tool or technique used to verify scope?

A. Product analysis
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Inspection
D. Requirements traceability matrix
C
434

Inspection is a tool and technique for which of the following processes?

A. Create WBS
B. Define Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Verify Scope
D
435

What is the lowest level in the WBS at which the cost and activity durations for the work can be
reliably estimated and managed?

A. Work product
B. Work package
C. Project deliverable
D. Scope baseline
B
436

Many organizations categorize requirements into which of the following two categories?

A. Project and Product
B. Staffing and Budget
C. Stakeholder and Customer
D. Business and Technical
A
437

Plurality is a type of which of the following?

A. Group creativity techniques
B. Group decision making techniques
C. Facilitated workshops
D. Prototypes
B
438

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A. Your project is behind schedule and you want your baseline to reflect estimated actual
completion.
B. Your customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing
the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the Risk Management Plan occurs resulting in a schedule delay.
D. One of your key project team resources has left your team and no replacement is available.
B
439

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would
normally have been done sequentially?

A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
B
440

Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources?

A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
C
441

Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late
start date?

A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
A
442

What is the minimum a project schedule must include?

A. Variance analysis
B. A planned start date and a planned finish date for each schedule activity
C. A critical path diagram
D. Critical chain analysis
B
443

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or
expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
D
444

Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?

EV = $500
PV= $750
AC= $1000
BAC= $1200

A. 0.67
B. 1.50
C. 0.75
D. 0.50
A
445

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?


A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases
B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions
A
446

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or
work packages?

A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting
D
447

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?

BAC = $100,000

PV = $50,000

AC = $80,000

EV = $40,000

A. 1.00
B. 0.40
C. 0.50
D. 0.80
D
448

The project manager calculated a schedule performance index of 0.8 and a cost performance
index of 1.1 for the project. What is the actual status of this project?

A. Behind schedule and over budget
B. Behind schedule and under budget
C. Ahead of schedule and under budget
D. Ahead of schedule and over budget
B
449

EAC (estimate at complete) is typically based on actual cost (AC) for work completed plus an ETC
(estimate to complete) the remaining work. Which of the following is a valid formula for calculating
EAC?

A. EAC = AC + [(BAC-EV) / (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI)]
B. EAC = BAC - AC
C. EAC = 1 - CPI
D. EAC = EV + [1 - (Cumulative CPI * Cumulative SPI) / BAC]
A
450

Which of the following equations is used to calculate schedule variance?

A. EV/PV
B. PV/EV
C. EV-PV
D. PV-EV
C
451

Which tool and technique uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other variables
to calculate estimates?

A. Analogous estimating
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Bottom-up estimating
C
452

Which of the following equations is used to calculate cost variance?

A. EV-AC
B. AC-EV
C. AC+EV
D. AC/EV
A
453

Given the following values, what is the calculated expected activity cost (CE) when using PERT?

CO = $7,000

CM = $10,500

CP = $11,000

A. $ 4,750
B. $ 9,500

C. $10,000
D. $11,500
C
454

What is the expected activity cost for a project having a most likely cost of $140, a best case
scenario of $115, and a worst case scenario of $165?

A. $115
B. $138
C. $140
D. $165
C
455

What does a SPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. More work was completed than planned
B. Less work was completed than planned
C. Cost overrun for completed work has occurred
D. Cost underrun for completed work has occurred
A
456

Total funding requirements and periodic funding requirements are derived from:

A. funding limit reconciliation
B. scope baseline
C. activity cost estimates.

D. cost baseline.
D
457

What is the status of the project whose data is shown in the following S-curve?


A. Under budget and ahead of schedule
B. Over budget and behind schedule
C. Over budget and ahead of schedule
D. Under budget and behind schedule
B
458

If the earned value (EV) is $1000, actual cost (AC) is $800, and planned value (PV) is $1500, what
would be the cost performance index (CPI)?

A. 0.66

B. 0.8
C. 1.25
D. 1.5
C
459

Control Charts, Flowcharting, Histograms, Pareto Charts, Scatter Diagrams are tools and
techniques of what process?

A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Quality Planning
D. Performance Reporting
A
460

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes and procedures?

A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
C
461

What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart
B. Flowchart

C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
B
462

Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to
those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to
measure performance?

A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
C
463

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A. Scope Management
B. Time Management
C. Communications Management
D. Quality Management
D
464

What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework

C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
B
465

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific
variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
B
466

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different
technical characteristics?

A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
D
467

Which of the following provides a basis for assessing project performance?

A. Profitability and impact matrix
B. Expert judgment

C. Benchmarking
D. Risk categorization
C
468

Regardless of style, what information is shown in a process flowchart?

A. Actions, decision points, and process drivers
B. Activities, decision points, and the order of processing
C. Activities, process drivers, and the order of processing
D. Actions, decision points, and activities
B
469

Which quality assurance tool and technique confirms the implementation of approved change
requests, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions?

A. Quality checklists
B. Quality metrics
C. Quality audits
D. Process analysis
C
470

Which tool or technique uses the 80/20 principle?

A. Pareto chart
B. Cause and effect diagrams
C. Control charts

D. Flowcharting
A
471

What is a cost of nonconformance?

A. Rework
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Testing
A
472

What is included in a control chart?

A. Baseline
B. Planned value
C. Upper specification limit
D. Expenditure
C
473

What tool and technique includes all costs incurred over the life of a product by investment in
preventing nonconformance to requirements?

A. Cost of quality
B. Measure of design
C. Statistical control
D. Systematic analysis
A
474

In a control chart, the consecutive measurements are 11, 13, 09, 07, 08, 09, 09, 09, 08, and 12.
For the entire process, the goal is 10 and the standard deviation is 1.

For this data set, it is correct to say that the process:

A. is under control.
B. is out of control.
C. has an increasing trend.
D. has a decreasing trend.
B
475

In which tool and technique is it possible to find a correlation between dependent and independent
variables?

A. Fishbone diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
D
476

A project manager arranges for project specific training for the new team members. Under which
category does this cost fall?

A. Appraisal

B. Internal failure
C. External failure
D. Prevention
D
477

Which of the following describes the purpose of the quality control process?

A. To identify quality requirements of the project
B. To identify ineffective processes and eliminate them
C. To assess performance and recommend necessary changes
D. To ensure quality standards are used
C
478

What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers become more involved.
A
479

Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards

D. Prizing and promoting
C
480

When managing a project team, what helps to reduce the amount of conflict?

A. Clear role definition
B. Negotiation
C. Risk response planning
D. Team member replacement
A
481

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
A
482

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
C
483

Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is
responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?

A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Functional manager supported by the project manager
D. Project management office
B
484

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
B
485

In which of the following team development stages does the team meet and learn about the
project and their formal roles and responsibilities?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
A
486

Which of the following is a technique for resolving conflict?

A. Collaborating
B. Issue log
C. Leadership
D. Motivation
A
487

Which of the following is a conflict resolving technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather
than areas of difference?

A. Withdrawing/Avoiding
B. Forcing
C. Collaborating
D. Smoothing/Accommodating
D
488

In which of the team development stages are the teams interdependent and work through issues
smoothly and effectively?

A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
D
489

The resource calendars document is an output of which process?

A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Schedule
D. Develop Project Team
B
490

In which of the following team development stages does the team begin to work together, develop
trust, and adjust to the work habits and behavior?

A. Norming
B. Forming
C. Storming
D. Performing
A
491

Project team members begin to address the project work and technical decisions. The project
team is in which of the following stages of team development?

A. Storming
B. Forming
C. Norming
D. Performing
A
492

Placing many or all of the most active project team members in the same physical location to
enhance their ability to perform as a team is called which of the following?

A. Team training
B. Co-location
C. Team location
D. Organization training
B
493

Emphasizing areas of agreement rather than areas of difference is part which of the following
conflict management techniques?

A. Smoothing
B. Compromising
C. Avoiding
D. Forcing
A
494

Which knowledge area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project
information?

A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)

D. Project Scope Management
B
495

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner?

A. Contract management
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Information distribution
D

The project management term or phrase that is used for the purposes of
representing the project management process that focuses on taking the facts and happenings in
regards to a particular project and disseminating this information to all of the relevant parties, with
a particular focus on providing information to those who have a financial stake in the ultimate
outcomes of the project. These methods of information dissemination can come in means
including regularly scheduled conferences and or meetings, regularly scheduled conference calls
in which some or all members of the project team participate, informal written communications
such as periodic updates via email and of other short form, less formal means of communications,
as well as formal reports that may or may not have been requisite to the completion of the project.
Information distribution is essential to assuring that the financial stakeholders are fully aware of the
progress throughout as it helps to assure no surprises arise at the time that deliverables are
expected to be final.
This term is defined in the 3rd edition of the PMBOK but not in the 4th.
496

Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process
asset updates are all outputs of which process?

A. Risk response planning
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Performance reporting

D. Manage stakeholders
C
497

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
B
498

Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate
generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project
information?

A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
C
499

Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process
assets are all outputs of which project management process?

A. Risk response planning
B. Manage stakeholders

C. Scope definition
D. Performance reporting
B
500

What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
D

Performance Reporting is the process for "collecting and distributing performance information"
like "status reporting, progress measurement, and forecasting" (comp. PMBOK3, p. 221): On the
base of the collected performance information concerning scope, schedule, cost and quality this
process generates the reports which are distributed to the stakeholders (comp. PMBOK3, p.
231). Basicly one can determine four types of reports:

\u2022 Forcast reports for describing future trends
\u2022 Progess reports for describing trends from past to presence
\u2022 Status reports for describing actual status
\u2022 Variance reports for describing differences between the planned baseline and the real data
501

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
B
502

What information does the stakeholder register contain?

A. Communication model
B. Identification information
C. Communication method
D. Identification plan
B
503

Stakeholder analysis identifies what information and relates it to the purpose of the project?

A. Requirements, influence, and functional department
B. Interest, requirements, and functional role
C. Requirements, expectations, and influence
D. Interest, expectations, and influence
D
504

Which of the following is a tool and technique to the Manage Stakeholder Expectations process?

A. Issue log
B. Change register
C. Stakeholder register
D. Interpersonal skills
D
505

When using the Delphi technique for gathering information, what forecasting method is being
used?

A. Time series method
B. Casual method
C. Econometric method
D. Judgmental method
D
506

Which of the following is one of the key components of the basic communications model?

A. Push
B. Decode
C. Pull
D. Duration
B
507

Which of the following is a tool or technique for distribute information?

A. Project management plan
B. Report performance
C. Communications requirements analysis
D. Communication methods
D
508


A project manager convenes a meeting to determine why the time to produce one product
according to specifications has increased from one day to three days over the past month. Which
tool or technique is used in this case?

A. Expert judgment
B. Quality assurance
C. Quality control
D. Variance analysis
D
509

There are seven members on the project team not counting the project manager and the sponsor.
How many communication channels are there?

A. 21
B. 28
C. 36
D. 42
C
510

ABC project is at risk for failing to achieve a major project objective due to unresolved stakeholder
issues. Team member morale is low.

Who is primarily responsible for the project being at risk?

A. Team members who have low morale
B. Sponsor who is not actively supporting the project
C. Project manager who is responsible for managing stakeholder expectations
D. Stakeholders who have unrealistic expectations
C
511

When communicating with large audiences, which communication method works most effectively?

A. Push
B. Interactive
C. Parallel
D. Pull
D
512

What are assigned risk ratings based upon?

A. Root cause analysis
B. Assessed probability and impact
C. Expert judgment
D. Risk Identification
B
513

Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or
action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Risk response planning
A
514

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require
near term action?

A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
C
515

Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
A
516

When does risk monitoring and control occur?

A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
C
517


A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controlling
B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis
C
518

Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the
risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk response planning
B
519

What is one of the objectives of project risk management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in
place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
C
520


Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a
third party?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
C
521

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
A
522

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
D
523

What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?


A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Contract Statement of Work (SOW)
D
524

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
B
525

Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement
Management?

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers
B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers
A
526

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements
Process?


A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
B
527

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the
simplest form of what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
C
528

What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
C
529

A contract change control system defines which of the following?

A. Process by which the procurement is being satisfied

B. Process by which the procurement can be modified
C. Process by which the procurement can be obtained
D. Process by which the procurement can be disposed
B
530

In what type of contract is the seller reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract
work and receives a predetermined fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives as
set forth in the contract?

A. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
B. Cost-plus-incentive-fee
C. Firm-fixed-price
D. Fixed-price-incentive-fee
B
531

Who decides buyer and seller roles in a teaming agreement?

A. Executive management
B. Project members
C. Project manager
D. Contract administrator
A
532

In which of the following contract types is a price ceiling set and any additional costs above the
price ceiling becomes the responsibility of the performing organization?


A. Firm-Fixed-Price Contracts (FFP)
B. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contracts (FPIF)
C. Cost-Reimbursable Contracts
D. Time and Materials Contracts (T&M)
B
533

The degree of risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A. contract type.
B. sponsors.
C. project manager.
D. stakeholders.
A
534

Company A bought a well-defined project deliverable from Company B. Company A will pay a
fixed total price plus a percentage premium for the schedule target achieved.

For which type of contract have they subscribed?

A. Fixed-price-incentive-fee contracts (FPIF)
B. Firm-fixed-price-contracts (FFP)
C. Fixed price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)
D. Time and material contracts (T&M)
A
535

Negotiated Settlements are an example of a technique used in which Project Procurement


Management Process?

A. Plan Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
D
536

Which project management process ensures the seller's performance meets procurement
requirements and that the buyer performs according to the terms of the legal contract?

A. Plan Procurements
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Administer Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements
C
537

Which contract type is typically used whenever the seller's performance period spans a
considerable period of years?

A. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee contracts (FPIF)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment contracts (FP-EPA)
C. Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee contracts (CPFF)
D. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
B
538


The project management information system is used as tools and techniques in which of the
following processes?

A. Develop Project Charter
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
C
539

Final product transition is an output of which process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
B
540

Which of the following provides a standardized, effective, and efficient way to centrally manage
approved changes and baselines within a project?

A. Project management information system
B. Configuration management system
C. Change control board
D. Project management plan
B
541


The approval of which of the following indicates formal initiation of the project?

A. Procurement management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Project scope document
D. Project charter
D
542

Which one of the following is true regarding the change control board?

A. Describes how changes are managed.
B. Approves or rejects change requests.
C. Needs updated project management plans to approve or reject a change.
D. Describes how changes are documented.
B
543

Which document is a narrative description of products or services to be delivered by the project?

A. Project charter
B. Contract
C. Business case
D. Project statement of work
D
544

Reviewing, tracking, and regulating the process to meet performance objectives defined in the
project management plan are part of which process?


A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risk
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
A
545

Which document contains initial requirements that satisfy stakeholders' needs and expectations?

A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Project statement of work
D. Project scope statement
A
546

The decision to approve or reject a particular change request is made in which of the following
processes?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Direct and Manage Project Execution
A
547

Who authorizes a project?

A. Sponsor

B. Project manager
C. Project team
D. Buyer
A
548

Providing forecasts to update current cost and schedule information is a part of which process?

A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Risks
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
D
549

A business case is an input to which of the following processes?

A. Collect Requirements
B. Define Scope
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Project Management Plan
C
550

What should be covered in an implementation when the change is approved?

A. Functional requirement
B. Status report
C. Customer need

D. Defect repair
D
551

The Project Integration Management knowledge area includes which of the following set of
processes?

A. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Perform Integrated Change
Control
B. Define Project Scope, Create WBS, Close Project or Phase
C. Develop Project Charter, Develop Human Resource Plan, Estimate Costs
D. Identify Stakeholders, Plan Communications, Develop Project Management Plan
A
552

What document should be reviewed by a project manager before finalizing the project closure?

A. Customer acceptance
B. Statement of work
C. Product report
D. User manual
A
553

Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Top-down estimating

D. Bottom-up estimating
A

Explanations:
An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship between historical data and other
variables (for example, square footage in construction, lines of code in software development) to
calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration. This
technique can produce higher levels of accuracy depending upon the sophistication and the
underlying data built into the model. An example for the cost parameter is multiplying the planned
quantity of work to be performed by the historical cost per unit to obtain the estimated cost.
554

Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships among schedule
activities?

A. Schedule development
B. Activity sequencing
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
B
555

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in
detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
B
556

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
C
557

Which is the duration of the project?


A. 63

B. 65
C. 66
D. 70
D
558

Which tool and technique is used to sequence activities?

A. Decomposition
B. Project management software
C. Applying lead and lags
D. Expert judgment
C
559

What tool or technique of Estimate Activity Durations uses parameters such as duration, budget,
size, weight, and complexity from a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the same
parameter or measure for a future project?

A. Bottom-up estimating
B. Analogous estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Three-point estimates
B
560

Which schedule format usually shows both the project network logic and the project's critical path
schedule activities with activity date information?


A. Schedule table
B. Schedule network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Milestone chart
B
561

Which is the total float for the activity G?

A. 0
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10
C
562

Which of these are logical dependencies in a precedence diagram method?

A. End-to-end
B. Finish-to-end
C. Start-to-end
D. Start-to-start
D
563

In the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely estimate for an activity to complete is 100
days, the optimistic estimate is 60 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 200 days, what is the
expected duration in which the activity will be completed?


A. 90 days
B. 100 days
C. 110 days
D. 660 days
C
564

Which of the following techniques uses historical information to estimate the activity duration?

A. Three-point estimating
B. Organizational process asset
C. Analogous estimating
D. Reserve analysis
C
565

What is a specific advantage of analogous estimating in comparison with other cost estimate
techniques?

A. Uses contingency reserves
B. Less costly and time consuming
C. Can be applied to segments of work
D. More accurate
B
566

Which of the following is an output of the Estimate Activity Resources process?

A. Alternative analysis

B. Bottom-up estimating
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Enterprise environmental factors
C
567

In the precedence diagramming method, which of the following is a logical relationship for the
activities?

A. Finish-to-start
B. Applying leads and lags
C. Activity-on-node
D. Dependency determination
A
568

During the initial stages of the project, what do activity attributes include?

A. Activity name, dependencies, assumptions
B. Activity ID, WBS ID, activity name
C. Activity ID, assumptions, constraints
D. Activity name, WBS ID, activity description
B
569

Which of the following is one of the tools and techniques for the Define Activities process?

A. Rolling wave planning
B. Dependency determination

C. Schedule network template
D. Applying leads and lags
A
570

Which of the following is a tool and technique to develop the schedule?

A. What-if scenario analysis
B. Benchmarking
C. Variance analysis
D. SWOT analysis
A
571

Rolling wave planning is used as a tool and a technique in which of the following processes?

A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities
B
572

Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the
question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.

What is the critical path duration for the given schedule network?


A. 22
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25
D
573

Draw the precedence diagram for the dependencies and activity times below to answer the
question. Use AON or another technique to derive the answer using F-S relationships.


What is the total float on path BEG?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
C
574

If the Schedule Variance (SV) =$55, and the Planned Value (PV) =$11, what is the Earned Value
(EV)?


A. $0.2
B. $5
C. $44
D. $66
D
575

What is the status of a project if the Cost Performance Index is 1.25 and the Schedule
Performance Index is 0.75?

A. Under budget and behind schedule
B. Over budget and ahead of schedule
C. Under budget and ahead of schedule
D. Over budget and behind schedule
A
576 CORRECT TEXT

Which of the following will be required to perform simulation for schedule risk analysis?
Activity list and activity attributes
A: Schedule network diagram and duration estimates
A: Schedule data and activity resource requirements
A: Milestone list and resource breakdown structure
A: B
577

The risk register contains which of the following?

A. Identified risks and potential responses
B. Identified risks and updates to scope baseline
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk related contract decisions
A

A Risk Register is a Risk Management tool commonly used in Project Management

and organizational risk assessments. It acts as a central repository for all risks identified by the
project or organization and, for each risk, includes information such as risk probability, impact,
counter-measures, risk owner and so on. It can sometimes be referred to as a Risk Log
578

Which of the following is an input to identify risk?

A. Organizational process assets
B. Scope management plan
C. Communication management plan
D. Expert judgment
A
579

Which analysis helps to determine the risks that have the most potential for impacting the project?

A. Expected monetary value analysis
B. Sensitivity analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expert judgment
B
580

Which of the following risk management processes uses brainstorming as a technique?

A. Identify Risks
B. Monitor and Control Risks

C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
A
581

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which of the following processes?

A. Monitor and Control Risks
B. Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Responses
A
582

What is risk tolerance?

A. Ability to manage risks
B. Willingness to accept varying degrees of risks
C. Ability to mitigate risks
D. Willingness to develop a risk management plan
B
583

Expected Monetary Value (EMV) analysis is commonly used in:

A. probability distribution.
B. decision tree diagram.
C. sensitivity analysis.
D. modeling and simulation.
B
584

Which of the following is a strategy for positive risks?

A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Mitigate
C
585

An Ishikawa or fishbone diagram is used for which of the following?

A. Identifying causes of risks
B. Identifying frequency of occurrence of risks
C. Developing a resource plan
D. Developing schedule
A
586

Which analysis uses beta and triangular distributions as a tool and technique?

A. Quantitative risk analysis
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Perform quality assurance
D. Perform quality control
A
587

What should a project manager do with low-priority risks?

A. Ignore low-priority risks
B. Monitor periodically with other low-priority risks
C. Create a mitigation plan for the low-priority risks
D. Increase the contingency reserve
B
588

Which of the following is a technique for Identify Risks?

A. Risk categorization
B. SWOT analysis
C. Risk register categorization
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
B
589

The project manager decides to conduct a meeting with the team and management after a new
risk has been identified. After the meeting, the decision is to allow the risk to occur.

This is an example of which type of risk response strategy?

A. Mitigate
B. Accept
C. Avoid
D. Transfer
B
590

The project team reviews identified risks and the risk response strategy. For one of the risks, the
team realizes that the implementation of the risk response would generate another risk.

This new risk is which of the following types of risk?

A. Secondary
B. Primary
C. Residual
D. Tertiary
A
591

What is the first step in preparing the risk register?

A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Risk response planning
D. Risk identification
D
592

What is Project Portfolio Management?

A. Management of a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. Management of a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills, such as planning,
organizing, staffing, executing and controlling.
C. Management of all projects undertaken by a company.

D. Management of a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective
management and meet strategic business objectives.
D
593

When is a project finished?

A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
C
594

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management
knowledge area?

A. Time management
B. Cost management
C. Scope management
D. Human resources management
A
595

What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness

D. Uniqueness
B
596

What are the components of the "triple constraint"?

A. Scope, time, requirements
B. Resources, time, cost
C. Scope, management, cost
D. Scope, time, cost
D

The Project Management Triangle (called also Triple Constraint) is a model of the constraints
of project management. It is often used to illustrate that project management success is
measured by the project team's ability to manage the project, so that the expected results are
produced while managing time and cost.
Like any human undertaking, projects need to be performed and delivered under certain
constraints. Traditionally, these constraints have been listed as "scope," "time," and "cost".
These are also referred to as the "Project Management Triangle," (also known as the "Iron
Triangle") where each side represents a constraint. One side of the triangle cannot be
changed without affecting the others. A further refinement of the constraints separates
product "quality" or "performance" from scope, and turns quality into a fourth constraint.
597

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
B
598

What do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional and project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
A
599

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A. Staffing level is highest at the start.
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
B
600

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same.
D. Has no bearing.
B
601

To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Contract administration
B. Direction and management of project execution
C. Create WBS
D. Qualitative risk analysis
A
602

Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?

A. Project calendar
B. Communication management plan
C. Requested changes
D. Communication requirement plan
C
603

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service or other
result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop project management plan
B. Develop project charter
C. Develop preliminary project scope statement
D. Scope planning
B
604

Which process group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring & Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
B
605

What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis
B
606

Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A. Develop preliminary project scope statement.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Develop project charter.
D. Create WBS.
B
607


Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project
work is known as what?

A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Variance analysis
B

Work Performance Information

Part of the executed project management plan includes the routine collection of work performance
information. The information gathered is important, and is useful as input data for quality control
measures and programs. It is also useful when audits, quality reviews, and process analyses are
conducted. This is especially true of work performance information collected which includes
technical performance measures, project deliverables status, required corrective actions, and
performance reports. Pertinent work performance Information is essential to the project
management plan and includes, but is not limited to:

\u2022 Status information on schedule progress.
\u2022 Whether deliverables have been completed, or not.
\u2022 Start and finish status of schedule activities.
\u2022 Quality standards expectation results.
\u2022 Authorized costs vs. costs incurred to date.
\u2022 Estimated completion time for scheduled activities in progress.
\u2022 Percentage of physical completion of in-progress schedule activities.
\u2022 Experience based knowledge acquired, documented, and posted to knowledge base.
\u2022 Details of resource utilization.
Gathering and analysis of work performance information is essential to the project management
plan and should be considered a priority. Work performance information contributes to the efficient
use of resources, identifies potential trouble spots and problems, and serves as an effective
project management tool. This term is defined in the 3rd and the 4th edition of the PMBOK.
608

Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management information system (PMIS)
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Scheduled network analysis
B
609

Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement
D
610

When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?

A. When the project is initiated.
B. As an output of the scope verification process.
C. When the project is closing.
D. In the contract closure process.
B
611

During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project
scope?

A. Quality control
B. Scope verification

C. Scope control
D. Close project
B
612

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
C
613

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk
category?

A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
B
614

Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?

A. Templates, forms and standards
B. Change requests
C. Stakeholder analysis

D. Project assumptions
C
615

What is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
C
616

Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?


A. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - D
B. Begin - A - B - C - D - E - End
C. Begin - A - B - D - E - End A - C - D
D. Begin - A - C - D - E - End - B - C
A
617

Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into
account?

A. Network reserve analysis
B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method
B
618

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without
changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.
B. The critical path will have positive total float.
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.
A
619

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for
estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
A
620

Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work-days.
What should be your concern?

A. There is a cost under run.
B. There is a cost overrun.
C. May not meet deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.
B
621

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team
members?

A. Work breakdown structure
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility matrix
D
622

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A. When the project uses capital expenditures.
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources.
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses.
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive
proposal.
D
623

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority
of identified risks?

A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis
B
624

In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Monitor and control project work
D. Risk response planning
B
625

A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?

A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
B