Pharmacology Tests 12 11 10

Front 1

Common components of a medication profile include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 1

A. the weight of the drug.

Front 2

Stimulation of beta-2 receptors will cause:

Back 2

B. the airway diameter to dilate.

Front 3

Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors results in:

Back 3

C. vasoconstriction.

Front 4

First-pass metabolism of a medication occurs when:

Back 4

the bioavailability of a medication is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation.

Front 5

Decreased efficacy or potency of a medication when taken repeatedly by a patient is called:

Back 5

tolerance

Front 6

A paramedic gives a woman with chronic pain an injection of sterile saline and tells her that it is a narcotic analgesic. The paramedic's action:

Back 6

could result in criminal prosecution

Front 7

In which of the following situations would the paramedic MOST likely administer a drug via the rectal route?

Back 7

Seizure termination

Front 8

The term affinity, as it applies to pharmacology, is MOST accurately defined as the:

Back 8

ability of a medication to bind to a receptor.

Front 9

The rectal route is preferred over the oral route for certain emergency medications because:

Back 9

rectal medications are usually not subject to first-pass metabolism

Front 10

All of the following are Schedule II substances, EXCEPT:

Back 10

heroin.

Front 11

A medication undergoes first-pass metabolism in the:

Back 11

liver

Front 12

Medications commonly administered via a nebulizer include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 12

lidocane

Front 13

A drug is assigned a pregnancy category “A” if:

Back 13

B. controlled studies in women fail to demonstrate a risk to the fetus in the first trimester, there is no evidence of risk in later trimesters, and the possibility of fetal harm appears remote.

Front 14

A patient takes 500 mg of a medication that has a half-life of 2 hours. How much medication will be in the patient's body after 6 hours?

Back 14

62.5

Front 15

All of the following are common sites for emergency IO cannulation, EXCEPT the:

Back 15

iliac crest

Front 16

The peak of a medication's effect depends on _____________, whereas the duration of effect depends on ______________.

Back 16

absorption, metabolism

Front 17

The paramedic can avoid technical errors in medication administration by:

Back 17

having a partner confirm the volume in a syringe or a weight-based medication calculation.

Front 18

The physical, emotional, or behavioral need for a medication in order to maintain a certain level of “normal” function is called:

Back 18

dependence

Front 19

Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors:

Back 19

suppresses the release of norepinephrine

Front 20

A medication is used “off-label.” This means that it:

Back 20

is used for a purpose not approved by the FDA, at doses different from the recommended doses, or by a route of administration not approved by the FDA.

Front 21

Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when:

Back 21

repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.

Front 22

IO infusion rates are comparable to IV infusion rates:

Back 22

when a pressure bag or mechanical infusion device is used

Front 23

The therapeutic index of a medication is defined as the:

Back 23

difference between the median effective dose and the median toxic dose

Front 24

Medications administered by the ___________ route, by definition, have 100% bioavailability.

Back 24

intravenous

Front 25

When the paramedic administers a medication via the IV route:

Back 25

A. he or she has the ability to titrate the medication carefully in a rapidly evolving clinical situation.

Front 26

Transdermal medication patches:

Back 26

may alter a patient's clinical presentation or interfere with medications administered by the paramedic.

Front 27

Which of the following factors would be the LEAST likely to affect a patient's response to a medication?

Back 27

Past medical history

Front 28

Compared to Schedule III drugs, Schedule IV drugs:

Back 28

B. have a lower abuse potential and include medications such as diazepam (Valium) and lorazepam (Ativan).

Front 29

A medication that has a narrow therapeutic index:

Back 29

C. can be given, but not without close patient monitoring. Correct

Front 30

When administering naloxone to a patient who overdosed on an opioid, it is important for the paramedic to remember that:

Back 30

the duration of action of naloxone in the body is less than that of many opioid chemicals.

Front 31

Newer medications are designed to target only specific receptor sites on certain cells in an attempt to:

Back 31

C. minimize the adverse effects.

Front 32

Medications that are manufactured synthetically:

Back 32

do not use animal, mineral, or vegetable sources

Front 33

If studies in animals or human beings have demonstrated fetal abnormalities, or if there is evidence of fetal risk based on human experience, a pregnancy category ___ is assigned to a medication.

Back 33

X

Front 34

Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors would produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT:

Back 34

decreased myocardial contractility.

Front 35

The paramedic should be MOST suspicious that a controlled substance has been tampered with if:

Back 35

D. an appropriate dose of the drug seems ineffective, especially when patient tolerance is unlikely.

Front 36

The IV route is the fastest route of medication administration because:

Back 36

A. it bypasses most barriers to drug absorption.

Front 37

IO cannulation is contraindicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT:

Back 37

penetrating thoracic trauma

Front 38

Common risks associated with cannulation of the external jugular vein include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 38

cannulation of the subclavian vein

Front 39

If you give a medication via the oral route in the prehospital setting, you should give it early because:

Back 39

B. absorption via this route is slow.

Front 40

The ________ route of medication administration refers to any route in which medication is absorbed through some portion of the gastrointestinal tract.

Back 40

enteral

Front 41

In the prehospital setting, saline locks are used primarily for patients who:

Back 41

do not need additional fluids but may need rapid medication delivery.

Front 42

How many mg/mL are contained in a prefilled syringe of 50% dextrose with a concentration of 25 g/50 mL?

Back 42

500

Front 43

Shortly after establishing an IV line of normal saline, your patient complains of a burning sensation along the course of the vein. You should:

Back 43

observe the patient for signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction.

Front 44

Which of the following steps is usually necessary when administering a drug via the IO route, but not necessary when administering a drug via the IV bolus route?

Back 44

Placing a pressure infuser device around the IV bag

Front 45

When drawing medication from an ampule, you should:

Back 45

gently tap the ampule if medication is stuck in the neck.

Front 46

When administering a medication via the intramuscular route, you should:

Back 46

stretch the skin over the injection site and insert the needle at a 90° angle

Front 47

A composition of dissolved elements and water is called a(n):

Back 47

solution

Front 48

A 60-year-old woman with acute chest discomfort requires 0.4 mg of sublingual nitroglycerin. Prior to administering the medication, you should:

Back 48

ask her if she wears a transdermal nitroglycerin patch.

Front 49

A 130-lb patient weighs ____ kg.

Back 49

59

Front 50

If you receive orders to administer more than one drug to the same patient, it is MOST important to:

Back 50

make sure the drugs are compatible

Front 51

When selecting a vein for cannulation, you should avoid areas of the vein that:

Back 51

pass over joints

Front 52

Signs and symptoms of circulatory overload include:

Back 52

hypertension

Front 53

While attempting to start an IV on a patient with large protruding veins, you note that the vein rolls from side to side during your cannulation attempt. The BEST way to remedy this situation is to:

Back 53

apply downward manual traction below the venipuncture site to stabilize the vein in position.

Front 54

When changing an IV bag, it is important to:

Back 54

ensure the fluid stays in the drip chamber

Front 55

In contrast to an antiseptic, a disinfectant is:

Back 55

toxic to living tissues and should never be used on a patient.

Front 56

Medication absorption through a nitroglycerin patch would be increased if the patient has:

Back 56

skin that is thin or nonintact

Front 57

A microdrip administration set:

Back 57

A. delivers 1 mL for every 60 drops.

Front 58

When using a vial of medication, you must FIRST determine:

Back 58

how much of the drug is needed and how many doses are in the vial.

Front 59

After inserting the needle during an intramuscular or subcutaneous injection, but before delivering the medication, you should:

Back 59

pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood.

Front 60

If the posterior aspect of the leg rapidly becomes edematous during IO infusion, you should:

Back 60

suspect extravasation of fluid

Front 61

A prefilled syringe of lidocaine contains 100 mg/5 mL of volume. How many milligrams per milliliter (mg/mL) are present in the syringe?

Back 61

20

Front 62

When injecting a medication via the rectal route, you should:

Back 62

instruct the patient not to bear down.

Front 63

Osmosis occurs when:

Back 63

water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentratio

Front 64

An 80-kg patient weighs ____ lb.

Back 64

176

Front 65

Medical asepsis is MOST accurately defined as:

Back 65

the practice of ensuring no patient contamination

Front 66

If a 10-mL vial contains 1 mg of a drug, how many mg/mL are present?

Back 66

.1

Front 67

Large protruding arm veins in an otherwise healthy adult can be difficult to cannulate because they often:

Back 67

A. roll from side to side during the cannulation attempt. Correct

Front 68

As you are preparing to start an IV on a young man, he sees the needle, becomes acutely diaphoretic, and passes out. After placing him in the appropriate position, you should:

Back 68

administer high-flow oxygen

Front 69

If you discover that an IV is not flowing sufficiently, you should:

Back 69

check the height of the Iv bag

Front 70

Damage to nerves, tendons, or ligaments would MOST likely occur during venipuncture if:

Back 70

the selected IV site is next to a joint

Front 71

When a patient needs rapid fluid replacement, you should:

Back 71

select an administration set that contains a large opening between the piercing spike and drip chamber.

Front 72

The first step in discontinuing an IV line is to:

Back 72

shut off the flow of fluid with the roller clamp

Front 73

When initiating an IV line in the upper extremity of a stable patient, you should:

Back 73

start distally and work proximally.

Front 74

The ___________ route is the MOST commonly used medication route in the prehospital setting.

Back 74

IV

Front 75

Prior to administering a medication to any patient, the paramedic should:

Back 75

inquire about drug allergies

Front 76

Drug reconstitution involves:

Back 76

injecting diluent or sterile water from one vial into the vial that contains the powdered form of the medication.

Front 77

After observing a flash of blood in the IV catheter's flash chamber, you should:

Back 77

immediately drop the angle of the catheter to about 15° and advance the catheter a few more centimeters.

Front 78

When administering a medication, the paramedic:

Back 78

is just as responsible for the administration of the drug and its possible consequences as the physician giving the order.

Front 79

If you receive a medication order from on-line medical control that seems inappropriate to you, you should:

Back 79

ask the physician to repeat the order.

Front 80

Once the pigtail is removed from the sterile access port of an IV solution, the solution must be used:

Back 80

immediantly

Front 81

The MOST common cause of circulatory overload in the prehospital setting is:

Back 81

failure to readjust the drip rate after flushing the IV line immediately after insertion.

Front 82

Approximately ___% of an adult male's weight is constituted by water.

Back 82

60

Front 83

A healthy person loses approximately ___ to ___ liters of fluid daily through urine output, through exhalation, and through the skin.

Back 83

2,2.5

Front 84

1 cc is equal to _____ mL.

Back 84

1

Front 85

All of the following are peripheral veins, EXCEPT the:

Back 85

subclavin vein

Front 86

The standard adult dose for levalbuterol (Xopenex) is:

Back 86

1.25 to 2.5 mg in 3 mL of normal saline every 20 minutes, up to 3 times.

Front 87

Verapamil hydrochloride (Isoptin, Calan) is indicated for patients with:

Back 87

re-entry supraventricular tachycardia

Front 88

The onset of action of rocuronium bromide (Zemuron) is:

Back 88

1 to 2 minutes

Front 89

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is a(n):

Back 89

antiplatelet aggregant

Front 90

Adenosine is contraindicated for patients with:

Back 90

drug-induced tachycardia.

Front 91

Indications for magnesium sulfate include:

Back 91

digitalis-induced dysrhythmias

Front 92

The amount of medication, expressed in milligrams, grams, or grains, that is present in an ampule or vial is called the:

Back 92

concentration

Front 93

Pralidoxime (2-PAM) reverses the effects of organophosphate poisoning by:

Back 93

reactivating cholinesterase

Front 94

Which of the following medications is indicated for patients with delirium tremens?

Back 94

Thiamine

Front 95

The prefix value for micro (µ) is:

Back 95

0.00001.

Front 96

An appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a patient who weighs 160 pounds is:

Back 96

145g

Front 97

Glucagon would be ineffective in patients with:

Back 97

depleted glycogen stores

Front 98

In addition to rapidly increasing serum glucose levels, dextrose:

Back 98

provides a short-term diuretic effect.

Front 99

Indications for epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 99

hypothermic cardiac arrest.

Front 100

Verapamil hydrochloride (Isoptin, Calan) is classified as a(n):

Back 100

calcium channel blocker.

Front 101

The peak effect of pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) is:

Back 101

3 to 5 minutes

Front 102

A drug that is contraindicated for pregnant women is assigned an FDA pregnancy category:

Back 102

X

Front 103

Which of the following medications antagonizes the action of benzodiazepines on the central nervous system?

Back 103

Flumazenil

Front 104

In general, the paramedic can administer up to ___ mg of naloxone (Narcan) before contacting medical control.

Back 104

10

Front 105

Ketorolac tromethamine (Toradol) should NOT be given to patients:

Back 105

with a bleeding disorder

Front 106

When given during cardiac arrest due to torsade de pointes, the dose for magnesium sulfate is:

Back 106

1 to 2 g of a 10% solution over 5 to 20 minutes.

Front 107

Diltiazem is commonly used for patients with:

Back 107

rapid atrial fibulation

Front 108

Which of the following medications converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin, which chemically binds with cyanide and prevents its toxic effect?

Back 108

Amyl nitrate

Front 109

Fentanyl citrate (Sublimaze) is a(n):

Back 109

opioid analgesic

Front 110

Indications for lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) include all of the following, EXCEPT:

Back 110

AV heart block in the absence of an artificial pacemakee

Front 111

Which of the following represents the correct dose for pancuronium bromide (Pavulon) for a 140-pound adult?

Back 111

6.4mg

Front 112

The typical adult dose for midazolam (Versed) is:

Back 112

2 to 2.5

Front 113

Which of the following statements regarding hetastarch (Hespan) is correct?

Back 113

Hetastarch can expand circulating volume for up to 36 hours.

Front 114

What is the initial dose of sodium bicarbonate for a 240-pound man?

Back 114

110mEq

Front 115

What is the mechanism of action of nitroglycerin?

Back 115

Smooth muscle relaxation; decreased preload and afterload

Front 116

Diazepam may be indicated for patients with:

Back 116

acute alcohol withdraw

Front 117

Rocuronium bromide (Zemuron) is classified as a:

Back 117

nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

Front 118

Which of the following statements regarding clopidogrel (Plavix) is correct?

Back 118

It should not be given to patients taking a proton pump inhibitor

Front 119

Which of the following statements regarding Phenergan is correct?

Back 119

Phenergan possesses sedative and anticholinergic activity.

Front 120

Side effects of albuterol may include:

Back 120

tremors, lightheadedness, and irritability

Front 121

Epinephrine is deactivated by:

Back 121

alkaline solutions

Front 122

Which of the following statements regarding morphine sulfate is correct?

Back 122

Morphine is indicated for patients with unstable angina if nitroglycerin does not relieve their pain

Front 123

The onset of action of naloxone (Narcan) is:

Back 123

less than 2 minutes.

Front 124

Which of the following classifications of medication may potentiate atenolol?

Back 124

calcium channel blocker

Front 125

The standard adult dose for ondansetron (Zofran) is:

Back 125

4mg

Front 126

Furosemide (Lasix) increases urinary output by:

Back 126

blocking sodium absorption at the distal and proximal tubules and the loop of Henle.

Front 127

Methylprednisoline (Solu-Medrol) is classified as a:

Back 127

corticosteroid

Front 128

Aspirin is relatively contraindicated in patients with:

Back 128

asthma

Front 129

Dextrose is classified as a(n):

Back 129

carbohydrate

Front 130

Atropine should NOT be given to patients with:

Back 130

hypothermic bradycardia

Front 131

To prepare an epinephrine infusion, the paramedic should add ___ mg of a _________ solution to 250 mL of normal saline.

Back 131

1, 1:1,000

Front 132

Plasma protein fraction (Plasmanate) is especially useful for patients with:

Back 132

burn shock

Front 133

0.45% sodium chloride (½ normal saline) should NOT be used when:

Back 133

rapid fluid rehydration is required.

Front 134

Glucagon may be indicated for all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

Back 134

hyperglycemia

Front 135

The correct second dose of adenosine for a 50-pound child is:

Back 135

4.6mg