Patient Management And Nutrition

Front 1

which of the following statement about rabies is most accurate?

Back 1

this disease is characterized by altered behavior, possible aggression, progressive paralysis, and, in most species, death

Hint 1

rabies

Front 2

infectious tracheobronchitis is a very contagious disease of dogs cause by

Back 2

bordetella bronchiseptica

Hint 2

kennel cough

Front 3

a dog exposed to is a patient that should be considered for OspA vaccine

Back 3

ticks

Hint 3

borrelia burgdorferi lipoprotein

Front 4

which of the following feline disease is considered similar to canine parvovirus because it can cause dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, and leukopenia

Back 4

feline panleukopenia

Hint 4

leukopenia

Front 5

for which of the following feline disease does vaccination usually reduce clinical signs of disease but does not always completely prevent the disease

Back 5

feline rhinotracheitis

Front 6

which of the following diseases of horses is extremely contagious, is caused by a bacteria, and causes abscesses in submaxillary, retropharyngeal, and submandibular lymph nodes

Back 6

strangles

Front 7

which of the following bovine vaccinations can cause zoonotic disease if accidentally injected

Back 7

brucellosis vaccine

Hint 7

another name bangs

Front 8

oral bovine rotavirus, coronavirus, and Escherichia coli infection vaccines are administered to pregnant cows on farms where there is a problem with calfhood

Back 8

diarrhea

Hint 8

bathroom

Front 9

at the time of castration, horn bud removal, dehorning, and/or tail docking, antioxidants should be administered to the offspring of ewes and does that were not vaccinated against clostridial disease during pregnancy

Back 9

tetanus

Front 10

pregnant ewes and does should be vaccinated against

Back 10

clostridum perfringens types C and D and clostridum tetani

Front 11

for which of the following feline disease does vaccination generally reduce clinical signs or shorten the course but does not prevent infection or shedding

Back 11

feline upper respiratory disease

Front 12

venereal diseases of cattle that cause various manifestations of abortion, and for which vaccination is a basic requirement for all breeding stock, include

Back 12

eampylobacteriosis, leptospirosis, and brucellosis

Front 13

core vaccines refer to those vaccines that

Back 13

are necessary to protect the animal from disease

Front 14

the principal cause of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is

Back 14

moraxella bovine infection

Hint 14

inflamed cornea and conjunctiva

Front 15

in the horse, the term floating teeth refers to

Back 15

rasping down sharp points on the teeth

Front 16

for which of the following diseases of cattle is vaccination reported to the United states department of agriculture and the right ear of the vaccinated animal tagged and tattooed

Back 16

brucellosis

Front 17

the most serious internal parasite of sheep and goats is the barber pole worm, known as

Back 17

haemonchus contortus

Front 18

biosecurity is practiced more strictly with which of the following species than any other agricultural species

Back 18

hogs

Front 19

a disease of pigs for which they should be vaccinated and that causes fever, skin lesions, sudden death, and chronic endocarditis or chronic arthritis is

Back 19

erysipelas

Front 20

in horse, a deciduous premier that fails to fall out is called a

Back 20

retained cap

Front 21

stallions can become permanent carriers of this disease; therefore, colts intended to be used as breeding stallions should be vaccinated for

Back 21

equine viral arteritis

Hint 21

EVA

Front 22

pregnant mares should be vaccinated for equine during the fifth,seventh, and ninth months of pregnancy to reduce the incidence of abortions from this disease

Back 22

rhinopneumonitits

Front 23

an immediate hypersensitivity response to a vaccine or other stimulus that may cause respiratory arrest, cardiovascular collapsed, and, potentially, death is callled

Back 23

anaphylaxis

Front 24

placement of an identity chip is recommended for a cat that has been vaccinated against feline because antibody testing cannot distinguish between antibodies produced during vaccination or as a response to natural infection

Back 24

immunodeficiency virus

Front 25

which of the following viral diseases of the dogs is resilient in the environment, is easily spread by dogs and owner's shoes, and is not easily killed by common disinfectants

Back 25

parvovirus

Front 26

what life threatening viral diseases, for which there is a core vaccine, can be spread by direct contact between dogs or by contact with wildlife, such as coyotes, wolfs, raccoons, or skunks

Back 26

distemper

Front 27

intranasally administered vaccine should not be administered

Back 27

subcutaneously or intramuscularly

Front 28

a toxoid is

Back 28

an inactivated or suppressed strain of a toxin used for vaccination purposes

Front 29

a new client brings in a 14 year old cat named Bob and a new kitten she has recently adopted, named skippy, which is the most significant difference in how each will be examined during their new patients wellness checks

Back 29

you recommend that Bob's teeth be checked every six months or so, while skippy is examined for congenital defects and receives a vaccination schedule

Front 30

which of the following is not an effective means of preventing parasitic infections in dogs and cats

Back 30

grooming

Front 31

fatty acids have no double bonds in the primary hydrocarbon chain

Back 31

saturated

Front 32

vitamins C and E are respectively

Back 32

water soluble and fat soluble

Front 33

ingredients on a pet food label must be listed in order

Back 33

weight

Front 34

puppies begin to eat gruel at approximately kcal

Back 34

3 to 4

Hint 34

except toy breeds and weak animals

Front 35

the daily metabolized energy requirement of a 10 pound cat is approximately kcal

Back 35

275

Front 36

which of the following substances are depleted in the body faster because of limited storage capability, making toxicity less likely

Back 36

water soluble vitamins

Front 37

a deficiency of which of the following vitamins can lead to spontaneous bleeding

Back 37

vitamin K

Front 38

excess of which of the following may possibly lead to skeletal abnormalities

Back 38

calcium

Front 39

cats fed home cooked diets rich in oily fish are at increased risk of developing yellow fat disease because of the deficiency of which of the following vitamins

Back 39

vitamin E

Front 40

which of the following animals are unable to synthesize vitamin C and therefore require daily supplementation

Back 40

Guinea pigs

Front 41

the owner of a new cat asks you how much water the cat should be given each day. you explain that the number of water per day should be roughly equivalent to kilocalories (kcal)

Back 41

milliliters

Front 42

proteins conjugated with fats are called

Back 42

lipoproteins

Front 43

among the essential fatty acids, cats need to get from the diet, but dogs can synthesize it from fatty acids in the diet

Back 43

arachidonic acid

Front 44

which of the following is not technically a nutrient

Back 44

fiber

Front 45

identify the substance that can perform all the following: act as structural components of organs and tissues; function as enzymes, hormones, carriers of other molecules, and can be a source of energy

Back 45

proteins

Front 46

are the standard units of measurement for energy

Back 46

kilocalories

Front 47

although not the most practical measure of energy available, energy is all of the potential energy available in a food or diet

Back 47

gross

Front 48

energy is the most common estimate of how much energy is supplied by pet food

Back 48

metabolizable

Front 49

the term refers to the kcal per unit of a food ingredient or pet food

Back 49

energy density

Front 50

modified Atwater factors can be useful to determine how much energy is provided by protein, fat, and carbohydrates on a basis

Back 50

metabolizable energy

Front 51

if a sick animal refuses to eat voluntarily, you should

Back 51

remove food after 15 to 30 minutes and try later, possibly with hand feeding

Front 52

cachexia is the term used to describe

Back 52

loss of lean body mass

Front 53

is the most demanding physiologic stage in cats

Back 53

lactation

Front 54

current recommendations are that adult spayed and neutered cats should be

Back 54

meal fed twice a day

Front 55

senior dogs who have become less active

Back 55

can be offered an extra meal per day

Front 56

the term holistic on a pet food label means

Back 56

nothing

Front 57

medicated pet food

Back 57

is not currently legal in the United States

Front 58

if a pet food's name contains the word with in relation to a specific food ingredient, that food ingredient must make up at least of the product weight

Back 58

3%

Front 59

you teach a puppy's owner to use a body condition score chart to

Back 59

monitor whether the puppy is getting the right amount of food to supply sufficient energy each day

Front 60

some common reasons pet owners give for wanting to feed home cooked diets to their pets include

Back 60

all of the above

Front 61

two examples of providing therapeutic enteral nutrition are, whereas therapeutic parenteral nutrition is

Back 61

hand feeding or feeding through nasogastric tubes; administered intravenously, typically through a central venous catheter

Front 62

which of the following would not be considered to be part of a safe and effective weight loss program for dogs or cats

Back 62

offering reduced calorie or light products until the weight loss goal has been reached, then resuming regular diet

Front 63

fescue toxicosis is a nutritional disease that can involve lameness, tail tip necrosis, abortion, and/or decreased milk production. this disease affects

Back 63

sheep

Front 64

amino acids are made up of carbon, oxygen, and

Back 64

nitrogen and sulfur

Front 65

concerning protein in plants, which of the following statements is most accurate

Back 65

a feed can possess high protein content, yet that protein's biologic value is low

Front 66

feeding inadequate forages with little or no grain can create a deficiency of usable during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets and can lead to and in the mother

Back 66

carbohydrates; paralysis; coma

Front 67

forages of good quality and properly harvested normally contain adequate levels of vitamin E and precursor of vitamin A, which is

Back 67

carotene

Front 68

which of the following nutrients has more energy per gram than all other nutrients

Back 68

fats

Front 69

creep feed is

Back 69

feed given to foals after 2 months of age

Front 70

why can feeds containing low quality protein be fed over the long term to ruminants but not to horses

Back 70

the protein quality from moderate to poor feed will usually be improved by rumen metabloism

Front 71

contemporary swine nutrition does not concentrate on the toal protein content of feed, but on the

Back 71

amino acid levels

Front 72

concentrates include, whereas forages include

Back 72

grains and high starch compounds; grass hays and legumes

Front 73

what is the difference between digestible energy and metabolized energy

Back 73

digestible energy is the gross energy consumed minus the undigested energy lost in the feces, whereas metabolizable energy is the digestible energy minus the energy lost in the urine and as combustion gases

Front 74

apart from the need for fresh water continuously, what single factor most determines the productivity of lactating dairy cows

Back 74

feeding

Front 75

which of the following vitamins is water soluble

Back 75

B6

Front 76

vitamins and minerals need to be supplemented throughout the life of domestic

Back 76

swine

Front 77

which of the following livestock feeds is a significant source of calcium

Back 77

alfalfa hay

Front 78

concerning differences in the management of dairy and beef cattle, which of the following statements is most accurate

Back 78

dairy calves are generally removed from their dams almost immediately and hand raised, whereas beef calves are allowed to remain with and nurse from their dams for many months

Front 79

in general a profitable cow calf producer will produce a live calf for every cow per year

Back 79

one

Front 80

if a beef cattle receive inadequate pasture feeding, supplemental energy is usually provided in the form of

Back 80

silage (fermented green feed) or hay

Front 81

corn cobs, straw, and corn stalks are examples of

Back 81

low grade roughage suplying inadequate protein if fed over extended periods

Front 82

which of the following must always be supplemented to beef cattle feeding with pasture grasses

Back 82

minerals

Front 83

the ewes of a 50 head sheep operation are having lambing problems, low wool output, and depressed milk production. these problems are most likely due to poor care and inadequate nutrition

Back 83

during the thrid trimester of pregnancy

Front 84

concerning feeding lambs, which of the following statements is most accurate

Back 84

large, fast growing lambs being fed high grain rations are particularly susceptible to a bacterial overeating disease (enterotoxemia) that can cause death

Front 85

sows in production are generally allowed to nurse their litters for days

Back 85

21 to 35

Front 86

sows are limit fed (controlled calorie intake) and full fed ( to achieve as much enegry consumption as possible)

Back 86

during gestation; during lactation

Front 87

when visiting a swine operation, you see the farmer brushing the nursing sows' teats with a solution. which of the following substances is most likely in this solution

Back 87

iron

Front 88

the number of grams of body weight gain per unit of protein consumed is referred to as the

Back 88

protein efficiency ratio

Front 89

the stages of the canine reproductive cyle, in the correct order of occurrence, are

Back 89

anestrus, proestrus, estrus, diestrus

Front 90

ovulation is the

Back 90

release of the oocyte from the ovarian follicle

Front 91

owners who use artificial insemination and have limited access to a male dog or own females with erratic behavior will need to be told exactly when to breed. the exact day of ovulation is best predicted by

Back 91

vaginal cytology for progesterone levels by observing for white blood cells and noncornified epithelial cells

Front 92

in the canine female, vaginal cultures are best performed with a

Back 92

guarded, sterile culture swab

Front 93

pregnancy examination by palpation in the bitch can be performed as early as about days after breeding using an ultrasound

Back 93

21

Front 94

a client wishing to know the number of pups in utero (in the uterus) should be told to make an appointment for at least plus days after breeding

Back 94

radiography; 43

Front 95

in the queen, abdominal palpation can be used to diagnose pregnancy on day following breeding and by ultrasound on days plus following breeding

Back 95

18 to 32; 15

Front 96

which of the following methods is often used to induce estrous activity in the mare during the winter months

Back 96

increasing the day length with artificial light

Front 97

what preparatory actions are often taken before vaginal examination of the mare

Back 97

wrap the tail and wash the perineal area

Front 98

clients breeding their camelids for the first time should be counseled that

Back 98

the placenta should pass out of the vagina within 6 hours after birth or a veterinarian should be called to administer oxytocin

Front 99

in the cow, pregnancy is most frequently diagnosed using

Back 99

rectal palpation or ultrasound

Front 100

in ewes, (the period of no ovarian follicular activity) can be shortened by exposure to pheromones from a ram

Back 100

anestrus

Front 101

the average onset of puberty is months in the heifer

Back 101

9 to 11

Front 102

whelping is

Back 102

parturition in a canine

Front 103

ewes start to cycle as

Back 103

daylight length becomes shorter

Front 104

estrus detection in ewes is accomplished by

Back 104

observing the vulva and urination patterns

Front 105

which of the following species, when in estrus, exhibits frequent urination, a raised tail, decreased kicking, a forward ear postion, and leaning toward the male

Back 105

horse

Front 106

llamas cycle

Back 106

multiple times per year

Front 107

when evaluating semen in the laboratory, it is important to have all equipment

Back 107

at body temperature

Front 108

complete semen analysis involves examining what three characteristics

Back 108

sperm motility, concentration, and morphology

Front 109

semen collection from the bull, ram , and buck can be performed using an artificial vagina and condom, or by a

Back 109

electroejaculator

Front 110

when collecting semen from stallions using an artificial vagina, it is critical to precisely control the

Back 110

internal temperature and pressure of the artificial vagina

Front 111

when should a mare be inseminated with frozen semen

Back 111

within 12 hours of thawing

Front 112

the ampulla is

Back 112

part of the oviduct

Front 113

when performing an examination for breeding soundness in a female, which of the following is not pertinent to the patients' history

Back 113

eye color

Front 114

which of the following is not usually part of patient data gathering phase in the nursing process

Back 114

identifying and prioritizing to generate a techinician evalutation

Front 115

as you review the nursing care plan for sparky, a rabbit, the data you encounter will contain

Back 115

information about interventions specific to your own evaluation of sparky

Front 116

your new job is in an animal health research center that specializes in which is the study of the causation or origins of diseases

Back 116

etiology

Front 117

you and your colleagues attend a lecture on a disease to which animals in your patient's farming community have been exposed to recently, this particular lecture, then, gives you increased understanding of the mechanism for the development of this particular disease

Back 117

pathogenesis

Front 118

the overall process for disease may be summarized in which of the following ways

Back 118

etiology, pathogenesis, lesions, clinical signs

Front 119

your patient has green yellow nasal discharge, which you record, describing it as

Back 119

mucopurulent

Front 120

your patient, miss marple, a persian cat, has been sneezing excessively. you most likely suspect that she has

Back 120

an upper respiratory infection

Front 121

popeye, a small mixed breed dog, has nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing. you examine him closely for signs of any facial swelling, which might indicate popeye has

Back 121

any of the above

Front 122

a small dog is brought into the clinic by his owner because he is exhibiting, a symptom identified as stridor

Back 122

high pitched inspiratory wheezing

Front 123

a patient exhibits, which means the patient is coughing up blood a symptom seen with heartworm disease

Back 123

hemoptysis

Front 124

you discover that your patient is unable to breathe unless the patient is upright, a sign referred to as

Back 124

orthopnea

Front 125

nacho, a dog, is exhibiting dyspnea. the mucous membranes show signs of pallor. the veterinarian diagnoses this as, or deficient oxygenation of the tissues

Back 125

hypoxia

Hint 125

dyspnea (respiratory distress)

Front 126

pepper has an echocardiogram after surgery, and the veterinarian sees shadows that suggest the possibility of heart disease. pepper has no symptoms, however, and is sent home after recovering well from surgery. because pepper is asymptomatic, the veterinarian instructs the owner to monitor for rapid breathing, or , which can be the first sign that heart disease has progressed to heart failure

Back 126

tachypnea

Front 127

artie, a perkinese, has begun losing weight and experiences some anorexia. he is frequently suddenly exhaused. test indicate that artie has, or disease of the heart muscle

Back 127

cardiomyopathy

Front 128

which of the following conditions can cause hypoxia

Back 128

all of the above

Front 129

tests show that your patient, peeps, a male cat, has decreased cardiac output. the veterinarian see signs, too, of tissue hypoxia, which is causing poor venous return leading to fluid overload, the most likely diagnosis for peeps is

Back 129

congestive heart failure

Front 130

an echogram of your patient, a cat, shows an increased thickness of the left ventricle wall and a small ventricular lumen, which confirms a diagnosis of

Back 130

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)

Front 131

your patient's fecal sample shows streaks of blood on the outside of otherwise normally formed stools, a symptom you quickly identify as

Back 131

hematochezia

Front 132

you are treating a dog who is suffering malabsorption, eating constantly yet losing weight. he has chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous. he is diagnosed with EPI, which is

Back 132

caused by insufficient production and secretion of pancreatic digestive enzymes

Front 133

hepatic encephalopath can be caused by

Back 133

exposure of the brain to gastrointestinal (GI) toxins as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts

Front 134

your patient is diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) when his tests reveal

Back 134

both a and b

Front 135

the veterinarian evaluates a complete blood count and full serum chemistry panel for gideon, a cocker spaniel. gideon's tests have come back revealing low serum T4 and free T4 levels and elevated thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels. his veterinarian can reasonably conclude that gideon has

Back 135

hypothryoidism

Front 136

addison's disease, or primarily affects dogs and is characterized by

Back 136

hypoadreanocorticism; inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily, cortisol and aldosterone

Front 137

treatment for galactostasis

Back 137

is begun during weaning and focuses on decreasing milk production and inflammation, using warm compresses

Front 138

cushing syndrome, or primarily affects dogs and is characterized by

Back 138

hyperadrenocoricism; elevated circulating levels of cortisol produced by the adrenal cortex

Front 139

casper, a sheepdog, has been diagnosed with primary immune mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA). this means that his immune system has

Back 139

targeted the red blood cells as foreign (antigens) and developed autoantibodies against red blood cell membrane components

Front 140

bob the dog has trouble walking at home and moves around as little as possible, which is not normal for him. on palpating the joints in bob's hind legs, the veterinary assistant detects the following symptoms: pain, swelling, crepitus, decreased range of motion, and joint lazity. these are consistent with a diagnosis of

Back 140

OA

Front 141

in the infection process, a reservoir refers to

Back 141

an animal, insect, or fomite in or on which a pathogen can survive

Front 142

every time you enter a ward that holds infectious patients, you wash your hands and don shoe covers, a gown, and examination gloves before entering. this is referred to as nursing

Back 142

barrier

Front 143

in the process known as malignant transformation, an initiated cell undergoes mutations caused by an agent or event that stimulate proliferation of the cell to grow into a neoplasm. this stage is called

Back 143

promotion

Front 144

sarcomas can arise from, whereas carcinomas can arise from

Back 144

cartilage; lymph nodes

Front 145

in a cold source freezes superficial cancers and the treated tissue dies and sloughs away

Back 145

cryosurgery

Front 146

chemotherapeutic drugs

Back 146

cannot differentiate between cancer cells and normal cells that have high proliferation rates, such as cells of bone marrow, GI tract, or hair follicles

Front 147

ionizing radiation

Back 147

causes cell death by disrupting the cell's DNA or by destroying important molecules required for normal cell function

Front 148

a dog begins exhibiting, or excessive thirst, which can be an indication of diabetes

Back 148

polydipsia

Front 149

which of the following is a syndrome characterized by weight loss and muscle wasting caused either by a tumor or the side effects of cancer treatments

Back 149

cancer cachexia

Front 150

which two of the five freedoms or animal welfare constitute what is often referred to as basic patient care in verterinary technology

Back 150

freedom from hunger and thirst and freedom from discomfort

Front 151

which of the following diseases is caused by streptococcus equi equi

Back 151

strangles

Front 152

the most common nurtritional disease of pot bellied pigs is

Back 152

obesity

Front 153

guttural pouch mycosis is caused by a

Back 153

fungus

Front 154

even if lambs survive an acute hemolytic crisis of copper toxicity, there is often significant irreversible damage to the due to

Back 154

kidneys; hemoglobinuria

Front 155

your equine patient develops rhinopneumonitis, caused by, which produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease (ascending paralysis) in horses

Back 155

herpesvirus

Front 156

an allergic disease associated with airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and excessive mucous production is

Back 156

recurrent airway obstruction

Front 157

two horses belonging to the same owner have the same infectious disease, you are in charge of seeing that they are monitored every hours

Back 157

4 to 6

Front 158

one symptom indicating that the arabian horse you are examining is in serious pain is the fact that he has a heart rate higher than beats/minute

Back 158

60

Front 159

you are in charge of training personnel for the new isolation ward of your veterinary hospital. your coverage of disease will most likely include a thorough discussion of

Back 159

colitis, neurologic EHV-1, and strangles

Front 160

the position of a recumbent horse should be changed every hours to help prevent the formation of decubital ulcers

Back 160

6

Front 161

intravenous catheters should be monitored a day and flushed with heparinized saline every hours

Back 161

twice; 6

Front 162

if using an aminoglycoside antimicrobial agent to treat a patient, it is important to monitor the patient because these agents are known to cause

Back 162

kidney problems

Front 163

what is the primary route of infection of caprine arthritis- encephalitis

Back 163

through infected colostrum or milk of an infected dam

Front 164

which nutritional myodegenerative disease may be caused by a deficiency of gestational vitamin E and/or selenium

Back 164

white muscle disease

Front 165

you notice a family of neonatal piglets establishing teat order. naturally, the mammary glands are most sought after

Back 165

cranial

Front 166

when do pot bellied pigs usually reach their full size

Back 166

at 2 to 3 years of age

Front 167

which of the following bacteria is most likely associated with the gangrenous form of mastitis in sheep and goats

Back 167

staphylococcus aureus

Front 168

can result from the rupture of retropharyngeal lymph nodes occuring secondary to infectious strangles in horses

Back 168

guttural pouch empyema

Front 169

which of the following tests is essential for the evaluation of primary renal disease

Back 169

urinalysis

Front 170

the pH of normal horse urine is

Back 170

alkaline (pH 7 to 9)

Front 171

cerebrospinal (CSF) fluid from a horse is collected at the

Back 171

lumbosacral space

Front 172

increased serum is a normal physiologic repsonse in the fasted horse

Back 172

bilirubin

Front 173

the veterinarian suspects a horse has salmonella infection. to detect his, you collect a total of fecal samples for culture at least hours between samplings

Back 173

five; 12

Front 174

all horses in the united states should be vaccinated against

Back 174

eastern and western equine and west nile encephalomyelitis

Front 175

young horses and performace horses are at high risk of contracting and should be vaccinated every 3 to 4 months

Back 175

herpesvirus infection

Front 176

pregnant boodmares should be vaccinated for to prevent abortion caused by this disease

Back 176

equine herpesvirus infection

Front 177

gagging and excessive salivation are most often indications of

Back 177

choke

Front 178

in the neonatal camelid, chronic diarrhea may lead to failure of which of the following organs

Back 178

kidney

Front 179

both a goat and a sheep are scheduled for surgery. which of the following presurgical injections will each animal be given

Back 179

tetanus toxoid or antitoxin

Front 180

eastern, western, and venezuelan viral encephalitis (EVE, WVE, VVE) are trasmitted to horses by

Back 180

mosquitoes

Front 181

the most common breed of alpacas are

Back 181

suri

Front 182

in situations in which the veterinary staff is having difficulty stimulating a calf to breathe, can be injected under the animal's

Back 182

doxapram hydrochloride; tongue

Front 183

it is imperative to a calf's survival to receive colostrum within the first of life

Back 183

6 hours

Front 184

which of the following statements is false regarding calves with diarrhea

Back 184

milk and milk products should be warmed before being offered

Front 185

actinobacillosis is usually greated with antibiotics, and antiinflammatory drug, and intravenous administration of

Back 185

sodium iodide

Front 186

why is it extremely important to exercise caution when using balling guns, dose syringes, and stomach tubes in cattle

Back 186

to prevent the devlopment of pharyngeal cellulitis, abscess, or hematoma

Front 187

camelids have a compartment stomach

Back 187

three

Front 188

bovine respiratory disease sydrome (BRDS), commonly called, is caused by a combination of respiratory bacteria, viruses, and

Back 188

shipping fever; stress

Front 189

acute laminitis may be due to sudden excess ingestion of, or secondary to other diseases, which occur during the period

Back 189

grain; postparturient

Front 190

what is the most single most common disease syndrome in adult dairy cows

Back 190

mastitis

Front 191

a horse with anaplasmosis usually exhibits signs that include fever, edema and stiffness, icterus lethargy, and. it can be treated with

Back 191

anemia; oxytetracycline

Front 192

which of the following statements is not true regarding anthrax

Back 192

if an animals is suspected of having anthrax, necropsy should be performed and the brain sent to the state veterinarian

Front 193

the placenta in a bovine patient is considered retained if not expelled by hours

Back 193

12

Front 194

ketosis in dairy cows may result from a primary defiency of intake or may be secondary to other diseases that cause

Back 194

energy; anorexia

Front 195

which of the following does not predispose small ruminants to enterotoxemia

Back 195

feeding carrots

Front 196

is a CNS disease that results form an underlying defect in thiamine metabolism

Back 196

polioencephalomalacia

Front 197

a good holistic diet for herbivores is based on

Back 197

pasture on a soil with balanced minerals supplemented with hay and grains

Front 198

yogurt supplements a diet with to help balance the gastrointestinal (GI) system

Back 198

probiotics

Front 199

a cow with borderline low thyroid function is fed a product containing bovine thyroid gland. this is an example

Back 199

glandulars

Front 200

herbs used to support the general health of the patient are known as

Back 200

tonification

Front 201

which seeks wellness by keeping elements of nature in balance and means the science of life

Back 201

ayurveda

Front 202

which of the following medicinal system is based on the principle that like cures like

Back 202

homeopathy

Front 203

in homeopathy, extremely diluted herbs are called

Back 203

remedies

Front 204

according to hahnemann, the results of medication dilution is benefits side effects

Back 204

stronger; but less harmful

Front 205

in homeopathy, exacerbation of symptoms is called

Back 205

aggravation

Front 206

in homeopathy, miasmic treatment

Back 206

addresses genetic weakness to prevent disease

Front 207

in flower essence therapy, nach believed there are pathologic emotional states that will lead to physical disease

Back 207

12

Front 208

orthopedic cases such as may benefit from physical therapy

Back 208

hip displasia

Front 209

in acupuncture, there are two unpaired channels; they are channels

Back 209

conception vessel (CV) and governing vessel (GV)

Front 210

temporary tender areas that can move on and off of acupuncture meridians are known as

Back 210

trigger

Front 211

which of the following theories was postulated after observing that animals under acupuncture analgesia can transfer the analgesia through their blood or cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to other animals

Back 211

humoral theory

Front 212

which of the following theories describes acupuncture as a way to amaplify or boost electrical signals along nerve pathways

Back 212

bioelectric theory

Front 213

what is the modality that provides both therapy and diagnostic imagery using high frequency sound waves

Back 213

ultrasound

Front 214

the goal of postevent sport massage is to

Back 214

flush out metabolic waste

Front 215

ultrasound with a frequency of 1 MHz can penetrate tissues from a depth of cm

Back 215

4 to 5 cm

Front 216

the length of one massage stroke is called the

Back 216

excursion

Front 217

signs of discomfort in horses receiving massage include

Back 217

swishing the tail

Front 218

endangerment sites for massage include the

Back 218

area over the kidneys

Front 219

cryotherapy is used to

Back 219

decrease enzyme activity

Front 220

class IIIb laser therapy is considered dangerous to the

Back 220

eyes

Front 221

the effects of using north pole of a magnet include

Back 221

stimulation of bone healing

Front 222

electromagnetic pulsed signal therapy (PST) has been shown to improve

Back 222

osteoarthritis

Front 223

the application of electrical current to elicit a muscle contraction, or, is used for muscle strengthening and reducing muscle atrophy

Back 223

NMES

Front 224

the massage stroke that is a gliding movement that follows the contour of the body is called

Back 224

effleurage

Front 225

which of the following is a synonym of trigger point massage

Back 225

myotherapy

Front 226

before performing a chiropractic manipulaiton, which of the following is not true

Back 226

the veterinarian must always ensure that a thorough western medical work up has been done before chiropractic treatment

Front 227

which of the following statements regarding the podiatry of a dog is true

Back 227

it is not painful to the dog to grind back the toenail until the nub of the quick is uncovered