Tabi- Patho Exam 3

Front 1

Type 1 diabetes occurs as a result of

Back 1

the body's immune system attacking the insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas

Front 2

Type 2 diabetes mellitus consists of

Back 2

array of dysfunctions characterized by hyperglycemia and resulting from the combination of resistance to insulin action, inadequate insulin secretion, and excessive or inappropriate glucagon secretion

Front 3

Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell?

Back 3

Potassium

Front 4

A person with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Back 4

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

Front 5

Insulin is a protein hormone that is lipid soluble. True or False

Back 5

False. Insulin is water soluble

Front 6

What is panhypopituitarism

Back 6

All hormones in the anterior pituitary gland are deficient and the individual suffers from multiple complications including cortisol deficiency from lack of ACTH, thyroid deficiency from lack of TSH, and loss of secondary sex characteristics from lack of FSH and LH. Low levels of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1 affect growth in children and can cause physiologic and psychological symptoms in adults

Front 7

What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)?

Back 7

panhypopituitarism

Front 8

How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction?

Back 8

The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones.

Front 9

The term used to describe a person who experiences a lack of all hormones associated with the anterior pituitary is:

Back 9

Panhypopituitarism

Front 10

List the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism

Back 10

Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy

Front 11

myxedema is the result of

Back 11

the long-standing hyposecretion of TH

Front 12

Which thyroid condition results from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor?

Back 12

Hypothyroidism

Front 13

A deficiency of which chemical may result in hypothyroidism?

Back 13

Iodine

Front 14

Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with:

Back 14

fine-needle aspiration biopsy

Front 15

what is diabetes insipidus

Back 15

an insufficiency of ADH, leading to polyuria and polydipsia

Front 16

What is diabetes mellitus?

Back 16

group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action or both.

Front 17

What is SIADH?

Back 17

characterized by high levels of ADH in the absence of normal physiologic stimuli for its release

Front 18

Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone all exhibit which symptom?

Back 18

Thirst

Front 19

The effects of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion include solute:

Back 19

Dilution and water retention

Front 20

Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Back 20

Serum sodium (Na+) level of 120 mEq/L and serum hypoosmolality

Front 21

What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?

Back 21

Solute dilution and water retention

Front 22

The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH?

Back 22

Serum Na+ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality

Front 23

A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of:

Back 23

neurogenic diabetes insipidus.

Front 24

An organic lesion of the posterior pituitary can cause

Back 24

diabetes insipidus (DI)?

Front 25

If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI).

Back 25

nephrogenic

Front 26

Which urine laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?

Back 26

Urine specific gravity is low.

Front 27

The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is

Back 27

neurogenic

Front 28

Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction?

Back 28

When vasopressin is given pharmacologically

Front 29

What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

Back 29

The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia

Front 30

Retinopathy develops in patients with diabetes mellitus because:

Back 30

Retinal ischemia and red blood cell aggregation occur

Front 31

A chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is likely to result in microvascular complications in which of the following areas?

Back 31

Eyes, Renal System and Nerves

Front 32

Nephropathy is a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by ________.

Back 32

microvascular complications

Front 33

What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy?

Back 33

Protein in the urinalysis

Front 34

What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus?

Back 34

Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries.

Front 35

What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2?

Back 35

There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues.

Front 36

A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

Back 36

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

Front 37

Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in:

Back 37

the Somogyi effect.

Front 38

Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia?

Back 38

Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (LDL) and triglycerides (TG)

Front 39

Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes?

Back 39

Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation

Front 40

What is Neurogenic DI?

Back 40

most common, caused by insufficient amounts of ADH. Occurs when any organic lesion of the hypothalamus, pituitary stalk, or posterior pituitary interferes with ADH synthesis, transport or release

Front 41

What is Nephrogenic DI?

Back 41

associated with insensitivity of the renal collecting tubules to ADH. Can be genetic or acquired. It is idiopathic

Front 42

What is Dipsogenic DI?

Back 42

occurs when excessive fluid intake lowers the plasma osmolarity to the point that it falls below the threshold for ADH secretion. May be associated with psych disorders

Front 43

Diabetes insipidus is a result of hyposecretion of

Back 43

Antidiuretic hormone

Front 44

The common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is:

Back 44

Ectopically produced ADH

Front 45

A patient who is diagnosed with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in his polyuria level has occurred. These symptoms support a diagnosis of:

Back 45

Neurogenic diabetes insipidus

Front 46

The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the:

Back 46

Posterior pituitary

Front 47

Which form of diabetic insipidus (DI) will result if the target cells for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal collecting tubules demonstrate insensitivity?

Back 47

Nephrogenic

Front 48

What is Addison's disease?

Back 48

adrenocortical insufficiency due to the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex.

Front 49

What is Hypoparathyroidism?

Back 49

condition of parathyroid hormone (PTH) deficiency

Front 50

What is Secondary hypoparathyroidism?

Back 50

a physiologic state in which PTH levels are low in response to a primary process that causes hypercalcemia

Front 51

What is Primary hypoparathyroidism?

Back 51

is a syndrome resulting from iatrogenic causes or one of many rare diseases

Front 52

The most probable cause of low serum calcium after a thyroidectomy is:

Back 52

Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury

Front 53

What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?

Back 53

Parathyroid gland damage

Front 54

An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings?

Back 54

Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone

Front 55

Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the:

Back 55

tubules of nephrons.

Front 56

Renal failure is the most common cause of ___hyperparathyroidism.

Back 56

Secondary

Front 57

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) results from

Back 57

dehydration during a state of relative insulin deficiency, associated with high blood levels of sugar level and organic acids called ketones

Front 58

What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome?

Back 58

Kussmaul respirations (DKA only)

Front 59

A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?

Back 59

Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.

Front 60

Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus?

Back 60

Ketones in the urine

Front 61

Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis?

Back 61

Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis

Front 62

What is acromegaly?

Back 62

a hormonal disorder that develops when your pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during adulthood

Front 63

Which disorder is considered a co-morbid condition of acromegaly?

Back 63

Diabetes

Front 64

Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents because their:

Back 64

Epiphyseal plates have not yet closed.

Front 65

Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by:

Back 65

a pituitary adenoma.

Front 66

Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults?

Back 66

Acromegaly

Front 67

Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone?

Back 67

Growth hormone

Front 68

Graves’ disease is caused by

Back 68

hyperthyroidism

Front 69

The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include:

Back 69

Hyperthermia and tachycardia

Front 70

Palpation of the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is:

Back 70

Diffusely enlarged

Front 71

Which of the following is an expected change in TSH in an older patient?

Back 71

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal

Front 72

How does Graves’ disease develop?

Back 72

A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones

Front 73

What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease?

Back 73

Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs

Front 74

What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease?

Back 74

High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins

Front 75

The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually:

Back 75

low

Front 76

Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism?

Back 76

Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

Front 77

Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of the:

Back 77

Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

Front 78

Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as a(an):

Back 78

Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues

Front 79

Chronic symptoms of diabetes are due to

Back 79

vascular damage from persistent hyperglycemia. Vascular damage leads to end-organ damage

Front 80

Hypoglycemia occurs when

Back 80

there is an excess of insulin in relation to the available glucose.

Front 81

A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:

Back 81

Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise

Front 82

Which serum glucose level would indicate hypoglycemia in a newborn?

Back 82

28 mg/dl

Front 83

Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake?

Back 83

Biguanide (metformin)

Front 84

What is the metabolic syndrome?

Back 84

is a cluster of conditions — increased blood pressure, a high blood sugar level, excess body fat around the waist and abnormal cholesterol levels — that occur together

Front 85

What are Diabetic neuropathies?

Back 85

a family of nerve disorders caused by diabetes

Front 86

Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by a:

Back 86

Prolactinoma

Front 87

A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?

Back 87

Cushing disease

Front 88

A person may experience which complications as a result of a reduction in parathyroid hormone (PTH)?

Back 88

Muscle spasms

Tonic-clonic seizures

Laryngeal spasms

Asphyxiation

Front 89

What is Pheochromocytoma?

Back 89

a tumor that causes hypersecretion of adrenal medulla hormones.

Front 90

Addison disease is a result of

Back 90

hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones

Front 91

Trace the electrical activity of the heart

Back 91

SA node-Atria-AV node-Purkengie fibers-ventricles

Front 92

The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because:

Back 92

it depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart.

Front 93

Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart?

Back 93

Myocardium and coronary vessels

Front 94

What are Alpha receptors?

Back 94

Receptors which are stimulated by norepinephrine and blocked by agents such as phenoxybenzamine, are categorized into two classes, α1 and α2, which have different actions

Front 95

α1 adrenergic actions include:

Back 95

contraction of the iris, decreased motility in the intestine, and potassium and water secretions from the salivary glands

Front 96

α2 adrenergic receptors inhibit

Back 96

adenylate cyclase, rather than activating it

Front 97

What are Beta receptors?

Back 97

receptors which are stimulated by epinephrine and blocked by agents such as propranolol, are also categorized into two types

Front 98

β1 adrenergic receptors produce

Back 98

lipolysis and cardiostimulation

Front 99

β2 adrenergic receptors produce

Back 99

bronchodilatation and vasodilatation

Front 100

Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n):

Back 100

increased force of contraction.

Front 101

Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder?

Back 101

Pulmonary edema

Front 102

As stated by the Frank-Starling law, there is a direct relationship between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole.

Back 102

volume; strength

Front 103

Frank-Starling law

Back 103

Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle

Front 104

How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction?

Back 104

By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance

Front 105

What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension?

Back 105

Angiotensin II

Front 106

what is pulses paradoxus?

Back 106

the arterial blood pressure during expiration exceeds arterial pressure during inspiration by more than 10 mmHg

Front 107

The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is significant because it reflects the impairment of the

Back 107

diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

Front 108

What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion?

Back 108

It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers.

Front 109

What are the indicators for an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

Back 109

EKG, Troponin I (most specific), CPK-MB, and LDH. Additionally, leukocytosis, and elevated CRP-indicate inflammation. Elevated BG

Front 110

An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate:

Back 110

myocardial infarction.

Front 111

Ventricular remodeling is a result of:

Back 111

myocardial ischemia.

Front 112

When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI.

Back 112

10 to 14

Front 113

Acute coronary syndrome usually occurs

Back 113

when an acute thrombus forms in an atherosclerotic coronary artery

Front 114

What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?

Back 114

ST elevation (STEMI)

Front 115

Most individuals with acute pericarditis describe

Back 115

several days of fever, myalgias, and malaise followed by the sudden onset of severe chest pain that worsens with respiratory movements and with lying down, dysphagia, restlessness, irritability, anxiety, and weakness.

Front 116

A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations?

Back 116

Acute pericarditis

Front 117

Dilated cardiomyopathy causes

Back 117

decreased ejection fraction, increased end-diastolic and residual volumes, decreased ventricular stroke volume, and biventricular failure

Front 118

Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy.

Back 118

congestive

Front 119

Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure.

Back 119

Dilated

Front 120

The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum.

Back 120

hypertrophic

Front 121

What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?

Back 121

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 122

_____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease.

Back 122

Restrictive

Front 123

What type of cardiomyopathy is usually caused by infiltrative disease, such as amyloidosis?

Back 123

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

Front 124

What type of cardiomyopathy is usually

caused by ischemic or valvular heart disease?

Back 124

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 125

What type of cardiomyopathy is usually seen in alcoholics?

Back 125

Dilated cardiomyopathy

Front 126

What type of cardiomyopathy results in muscular subaortic stenosis?

Back 126

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Front 127

What type of cardiomyopathy may be an autosomal dominant disorder?

Back 127

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Front 128

Discuss the effect of HTN on the kidney

Back 128

Vasoconstriction and the resultant decreased renal perfusion cause tubular ischemia and preglomerular arteriopathy

Front 129

What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?

Back 129

Ischemia of the tubule

Front 130

Aortic stenosis impairs

Back 130

flow from the left ventricle

Front 131

Aortic regurgitation causes?

Back 131

Backflow into left ventricle

Front 132

Mitral stenosis impairs

Back 132

flow from left atrium to left ventricle

Front 133

Tricuspid regurgitation causes?

Back 133

Backflow into right atrium

Front 134

Mitral regurgitation causes?

Back 134

Backflow into left atrium

Front 135

What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers?

Back 135

They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation

Front 136

What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on 2-receptors of the heart?

Back 136

Dilate coronary arterioles

Front 137

The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the:

Back 137

atria

Front 138

Phase 0 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of

Back 138

depolarization and lasts 1to 2 milliseconds and represents rapid sodium entry into the cell

Front 139

Phase 1 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of

Back 139

early repolarization, in which calcium slowly enters the cell.

Front 140

Phase 3 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of

Back 140

Potassium is moved out of the cell

Front 141

Phase 4 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of

Back 141

returns to resting membrane potential

Front 142

Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a:

Back 142

rapid movement of sodium into the cell.

Front 143

What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization?

Back 143

Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells

Front 144

Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)?

Back 144

QRS complex

Front 145

Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole?

Back 145

Phase 4

Front 146

_____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node.

Back 146

Sympathetic

Front 147

If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize?

Back 147

40 to 60 per minute

Front 148

_____ secrete surfactant, a lipoprotein that coats the inner surface of the alveoli.

Back 148

Type II alveolar cells

Front 149

Changes in the alveoli that cause an increase in alveolar surface tension, alveolar collapse, and decreased lung expansion are a result of:

Back 149

decreased surfactant production

Front 150

Surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by:

Back 150

decreasing surface tension in alveoli.

Front 151

What is Pulmonary ventilation?

Back 151

the main process by which air flows in and out of the lungs

Front 152

The relationship between arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure at the base of the lungs is best described as :

Back 152

Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure

Front 153

Is pressure in the pleural space : above or below atmospheric pressure

Back 153

below

Front 154

What part of the brainstem is responsible for automatic rhythm of respiration?

Back 154

the DRG, a cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla that sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles.

Front 155

Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the:

Back 155

Dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata

Front 156

Which part of the brainstem provides basic automatic rhythm of respiration by sending efferent impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles?

Back 156

Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)

Front 157

If a healthcare professional needs to determine the adequacy of ventilation, _____ must be performed to measure PaCO2.

Back 157

an arterial blood gas analysis

Front 158

The movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs is called:

Back 158

Ventilation

Front 159

The relationship between arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure at the base of the lungs is best described as:

Back 159

arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure.

Front 160

The adequacy of a person’s alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring:

Back 160

arterial blood gas.

Front 161

Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the:

Back 161

dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata medulla oblongata

Front 162

Dyspnea refers to

Back 162

the sensation of difficult or uncomfortable breathing

Front 163

Dyspnea is NOT a result of

Back 163

decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata.

Front 164

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a result of:

Back 164

fluid in the lungs.

Front 165

Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the:

Back 165

dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata.

Front 166

Beta2-adrenergic receptors are expressed on the airway smooth muscle where activation causes

Back 166

bronchodilation

Front 167

the narrowing of the airways in the lungs (bronchi and bronchioles)

Back 167

Bronchoconstriction

Front 168

Air flow in air passages can get restricted due to

Back 168

- a spasmodic state of the smooth muscles in bronchi and bronchioles- an inflammation of the airways- excessive production of mucus due to an allergic reaction or irritation caused by mechanical friction of air (due to shear stress), overcooling or drying of airways.

Front 169

Which endogenous substances cause bronchoconstriction?

Back 169

Histamine and prostaglandin

Front 170

a condition in which blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs (the pulmonary arteries) is abnormally high

Back 170

Pulmonary hypertension

Front 171

Which of the following is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction

Back 171

Low alveolar PO2

Front 172

What changes occur in the lung due to Asthma?

Back 172

Inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma including Histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes. These cause edema of the mucous lining of the airways, bronchoconstriction and stimulation of mucous production in response to a trigger

Front 173

What changes occur in the lung due to Emphysema?

Back 173

the loss of elastic recoil of the lung and destruction of the supporting structures of the alveolus

Front 174

What changes occur in the lung due to chronic bronchitis?

Back 174

change in the lining of the bronchus due to repeated infections and loss of ciliated epithelium and replacement with goblet cells and increased mucous production.

Front 175

Which immunoglobulin may contribute to the pathophysiology of asthma?

Back 175

IgE

Front 176

Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of:

Back 176

asthma.

Front 177

The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with:

Back 177

elimination of the causative agent

Front 178

The most common route of lower respiratory tract infection is:

Back 178

aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions

Front 179

_____ involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchanged system and the destruction of alveolar walls.

Back 179

Emphysema

Front 180

Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of:

Back 180

. Emphysema

Front 181

Smoking contributes to emphysema by:

Back 181

reducing endogenous antiproteases.

Front 182

n tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating:

Back 182

apoptotic infected macrophages that activate cytotoxic T cells

Front 183

Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air?

Back 183

obstructive

Front 184

The progression of chronic bronchitis is best halted by:

Back 184

smoking cessation

Front 185

Which bacteria become embedded in the airway secretions in chronic bronchitis?

Back 185

Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus

Front 186

Clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough are indicative of:

Back 186

chronic bronchitis

Front 187

What are the risk factors for pulmonary emboli?

Back 187

the end result of a deep vein thrombosis or blood clot elsewhere in the body

Front 188

What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?

Back 188

DVT

Front 189

List the changes in the aging lung

Back 189

Normal alterations include (1) loss of elastic recoil, (2) stiffening of the chest wall, (3) alterations in gas exchange, and (4) increases in flow resistance.

Front 190

Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include:

Back 190

stiffening of the chest wall

Front 191

what types of anemias are classified as a macrocytic-normochromic anemia?

Back 191

Percutaneous anemia and folate deficiency anemia

Front 192

Removing the stomach with its parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia?

Back 192

Pernicious anemia

Front 193

What causes the paresthesia that occurs in vitamin b12 deficiency anemia?

Back 193

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) plays an important role in DNA synthesis and neurologic function.

Front 194

_____ is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure.

Back 194

Erythropoietin

Front 195

Deficiencies in folate and vitamin b12 alter the synthesis of which cell component?

Back 195

nuclear maturation and DNA synthesis

Front 196

Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and maturation of erythrocytes?

Back 196

Cobalamin (vitamin B12) and folate

Front 197

What type of anemia has a defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin b12?

Back 197

Pernicious anemia

Front 198

Plasmin’s role in the clotting process is to:

Back 198

degrade the fibrin within blood clots

Front 199

Two important characteristics that allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers are:

Back 199

reversible deformability and biconcavity.

Front 200

Which blood cells are produced when stem cells are stimulated by granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)?

Back 200

Neutrophils

Front 201

The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by:

Back 201

inhibiting thrombin and AT-III.

Front 202

Which nutrients are necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?

Back 202

Iron and vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

Front 203

Recycling of iron from erythrocytes is made possible by:

Back 203

transferrin.

Front 204

Mature erythrocytes are removed from the bloodstream by the:

Back 204

Spleen

Front 205

What is the life span of an erythrocyte?

Back 205

100 to 120 days

Front 206

Erythrocytes change shape to squeeze through

Back 206

microcirculation

Front 207

_____ is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure.

Back 207

Erythropoietin