Nutrition Chapters 1-8

Front 1

Which of the following is NOT among the consequences of making poor food choices?

-They can promote heart disease and cancer over the long term

-over the long term, they will reduce lifespan in some people

-When made over just a single day, they exert great harm to your health

-over the long term, they will not affect lifespan in some people

Back 1

When made over just a single day, they exert great harm to your health

Front 2

Which of the following is a class of nutrient which contains no kcal?

-lipids

-fiber

-protein

-water

Back 2

water

Front 3

All of the following are examples of functional foods EXCEPT

-tomatoes

-regular oatmeal

-regular white bread

-calcium-fortified juice

Back 3

regular white bread

Front 4

Which of the following is an example of a macronutrient?

-Protein

-Calcium

-Vitamin C

-Vitamin D

Back 4

Protein

Front 5

Which of the following is an example of a micronutrient?

-Fat

-Protein

-Vitamin C

-Carbohydrate

Back 5

Vitamin C

Front 6

Which of the following is an organic nutrient?

-Fat

-Water

-Oxygen

-Calcium

Back 6

Fat

Front 7

A nutrient needed by the body and that must be supplied by foods is termed a(n)

Back 7

Essential Nutrient

Front 8

Think metric volume -- One cup of liquid (milk) is approximately...

Back 8

240 ml

Front 9

Think metric weight -- a person who weighs 176 lbs. weighs...

Back 9

80 kg

Front 10

One gram of salt contains how many mg of sodium? Hint: atomic weight of sodium is 23 and the atomic weight of chloride is 35.5

Back 10

393 mg

Front 11

What is the AMDR (acceptable macronutrient distribution range) for protein?

Back 11

10-35%

Front 12

The recommended daily allowance meets the needs for what percentage of the population?

Back 12

98% of the population

Front 13

Which of the following is a purpose of both the Recommended Dietary Allowance and Adequate Intake?

-Setting nutrient goals for individuals

-Identifying toxic intakes of nutrients

-Restoring health of malnourished individuals

-Developing nutrition programs for schoolkids

Back 13

Setting nutrient goals for individuals

Front 14

How are the RDA for almost all vitamin and mineral intakes set?

Back 14

High, to cover virtually all healthy individuals

Front 15

If a person consumed the lover AMDR limit for protein as part of a diet providing 1840 kcal, approximately how many grams of protein would be ingested?

Back 15

46 grams

Front 16

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the vitamins?

-Essential

-Inorganic

-Destructible

-kcal free

Back 16

Inorganic

Front 17

Which of the following is a feature of the minerals as nutrients?

-they are organic

-they yield 4 kcal per gram

-some become dissolved in body fluids

-some may be destroyed during cooking

Back 17

some may become dissolved in body fluids

Front 18

What is the kcal value of a meal supplying 55 g of carbs, 25 g of protein, 15 g of fat, and 5 g of alcohol?

Back 18

490

Front 19

A diet provides a total of 1800 kcal, of which 30% of the energy is from fat and 20% from protein. How many grams of carbs are contained in the diet?

Back 19

225

Front 20

What is the meaning of a double-blind experiment?

Back 20

Neither subjects nor researchers know which subjects are in the control or experimental group

Front 21

An increase in exercise accompanied by a decrease in body weight is an example of a

Back 21

negative (or inverse) correlation

Front 22

Which of the following is NOT a typical part of a nutritional research article?

-References

-Speculation

-Introduction

-Review of the literature

Back 22

Speculation

Front 23

A clinical trial must involve

-tissue cells in culture

-rats or mice as subjects

-human beings as subjects

-computer modeling to design the study

Back 23

human beings as subjects

Front 24

What set of values is used to recommend the average kcal intake that maintains population groups in energy balance?

Back 24

Estimated Energy Requirement

Front 25

What is the AMDR for lipids?

Back 25

20-35%

Front 26

What is the AMDR for Carbohydrates?

Back 26

45-65%

Front 27

Which of the following is an anthropometric measure?

-Body weight

-Blood Pressure

-Blood iron level

-Food intake information

Back 27

Body weight

Front 28

Which of the following would most likely lead to a primary nutrient deficiency?

-inadequate nutrient intake

-reduced nutrient absorption

-increased nutrient excretion

-increased nutrient destruction

Back 28

inadequate nutrient intake

Front 29

Which of the following is an overt symptom of iron deficiency?

-Anemia

-Headaches

-Skin dryness

-Decreased red blood cell count

Back 29

Headaches

Front 30

Which of the following does NOT describe a national trend in eating habits of Americans?

-We eat larger portions

-We snack more frequently

-We eat more high-fiber foods

-We eat more meals away from home

Back 30

We eat more high-fiber foods

Front 31

The concept of nutrient density is most helpful in achieving what principle of diet planning?

Back 31

kcal control

Front 32

A food that provides 100mg of magnesium and 25 kcal in a serving has a magnesium density (mg per kcal) of...

Back 32

4

Front 33

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are applicable to all population groups except:

Back 33

children under 2 years of age

Front 34

Which of the following describes the nutritional value in this menu:
-daily amts recommended for a 2000 kcal diet are met
-the daily amts are exceeded
-a source of vitamin E and D is missing or marginal
-a source of vitamin C is marginal

Back 34

a source of vitamin E and D is missing or marginal

Front 35

Which of the following restaurant sides provides both Vitamin A and Vitamin C

-.5 cup of baked beans

-onion rings

-.5 cup of cottage cheese

-3/4 cup cantaloupe

Back 35

3/4 cup cantaloupe

Front 36

Which of the following restaurant sides provides the most fiber?

-.5 cup of baked beans

-onion rings

-.5 cup of cottage cheese

-3/4 cup cantaloupe

Back 36

.5 cup of baked beans

Front 37

Which of the following is a healthy choice for protein in the USDA Food Patters?

-Nuts

-Bacon

-Baked Potatoes

-Sweet Potatoes

Back 37

Nuts

Front 38

Which of the following foods' kcal would be considered as part of one's discretionary kcal allowance?

-Jam

-Watermelon

-Raw carrots

-Brussels Sprouts

Back 38

Jam

Front 39

Which of the following food groups is actually consumed in amounts greater than recommended by the USDA?

-Dairy

-Fruits

-Vegetables

-Protein Foods

Back 39

protein foods

Front 40

All of the following are features of the process of nutrient enrichment of fours EXCEPT:

-it includes products such as pastas

-fiber levels are similar to those in the whole grains

-it is required of all refined grain products that cross state lines

-thiamin and riboflavin are added in amts exceeding their levels in the whole grain

Back 40

Fiber levels are similar to those in the whole grains

Front 41

what mineral is added to refined flours in the enrichment process?

Back 41

Iron

Front 42

According to food labeling laws, which of the following is NOT an acceptable synonym for nonfat milk?

-skim

-no-fat

-zero-fat

-reduced-fat

Back 42

reduced-fat

Front 43

Approximately how many grams are in an ounce?

Back 43

30

Front 44

According to nutrition labeling laws, which of the following minerals does NOT need to be listed on a food label?

-iron

-sodium

-calcium

-potassium

Back 44

potassium

Front 45

which of the following is a feature of the Nutrition Facts panel on a food label?

-Trans-fat content is optional

-saturated fat must be listed

-naturally present sugars are excluded

-soluble and insoluble fiber must be listed separately

Back 45

saturated fat must be listed

Front 46

On a food label, the "% daily value" table compares key nutrients per serving for a person consuming how many kcal per day?

Back 46

2000

Front 47

which of the following ingredients on a food label is most likely a source of trans-fats?

-butter

-coconut oil

-high-fructose corn syrup

-Partially hydrogenated oils

Back 47

partial hydrogenated oils

Front 48

serving size of milk

Back 48

1 cup

Front 49

serving size of meat

Back 49

3 oz

Front 50

serving size of veggies

Back 50

1/2 cup

Front 51

serving size of fruit

Back 51

1 medium

Front 52

serving size of bread

Back 52

1 oz slice

Front 53

Which of the following foods is nutrient dense and also qualifies as a "good source" of calcium:

-cheese with 50 mg of Ca

-yogurt with 150 mg of Ca

-Ice cream with 90 mg of Ca

-Sherbet with 30 mg of Ca

Back 53

Yogurt with 150 mg of Ca

Front 54

For a person who needs 2000 kcal what is the RDA amts of veggies that should be consumed per day?

Back 54

2.5 cups

Front 55

Exchange groups were designed for diabetics. which of the following is NOT classified as ONE starch exchange?

-.5 cup corn

-.5 english muffin

-.5 cup mashed potatoes

-.5 cup veggie juice

Back 55

.5 cup veggie juice

Front 56

which of the following nutrients would be supplied in much greater amts from whole-grain bread vs. enriched bread

-zinc

-folate

-riboflavin

-thiamin

Back 56

zinc

Front 57

according to the USDA Food Patters, which of the following protein foods should be most limited?

-seafood

-high fat lunch meats

-peanut butter

-skinless chicken

Back 57

high fat lunch meats

Front 58

According to the principles of the USDA Food Patters, the foundation of a healthy diet should consist of

Back 58

nutrient-dense foods

Front 59

approximately how many more kcals does the average active adult need vs. the average sedentary adult?

Back 59

400-600

Front 60

in food exchange lists, to what group are avocado assigned?

Back 60

fat

Front 61

whole-grain flour contains all parts of the grain with the exception of the

Back 61

husk

Front 62

for the most part, all of the following are advantages of vegetarian diets EXCEPT

-fat intake is lower

-fiber intake is higher

-vitamin B12 intake is higher

-intakes of vitamins A and C are higher

Back 62

vitamin B12 intake is higher

Front 63

What is a descriptive of My Food Plate?

Back 63

A graphic image of a plate designed to encourage consumers to have at least half their plate filled with fruits and vegetables

Front 64

which of the following is not a recommendation listed on the new chooseMyPlate.gov site?

-make at least half your grains whole grains

-make half your plate fruits and veggies

-switch to whole milk

-drink more water than sugary drinks

Back 64

switch to whole milk

Front 65

What is mastication?

Back 65

the act of chewing

Front 66

which of the following is NOT considered one of the basic taste sensations?

-hot

-sour

-salty

-bitter

Back 66

hot

Front 67

which of the following is a characteristic of the appendix?

-it ferments fiber

-it contains lymph cells

-it slows down peristalsis

-it stores preformed stools

Back 67

it contains lymph cells

Front 68

what structure functions to prevent entrance of food into the trachea?

Back 68

Epiglottis

Front 69

what is one function of the pyloric sphincter?

Back 69

prevents the contents of the small intestine from backing up into the stomach

Front 70

what is meant by the term "motility" in reference to the GI tract?

Back 70

the ability of the GI tract muscles to contract and move

Front 71

into what region of the intestinal tract does the stomach empty?

Back 71

Duodenum

Front 72

what structure separates the colon from the small intestine

Back 72

ileocecal valve

Front 73

which part of the GI tract contains highly acidic digestive juices?

Back 73

Stomach

Front 74

what substance protects the stomach lining from damage due to digestive juices?

Back 74

mucus

Front 75

the purpose of bicarbonate in the digestive process is to

Back 75

raise the pH of chyme

Front 76

which of the following is NOT a function of HCl in digestion/absorption?

-it kills bacteria

-it activates pancreatic lipase

-it activates a proteolytic enzyme (pepsin)

-it promotes hydrolysis of dietary protein

Back 76

it activates pancreatic lipase

Front 77

what is the function of bile?

Back 77

Emulsifies fats

Front 78

which of the following is a function of the intestinal microvilli?

-secretion of bile salts

-secretion of digestive acid

-transport and absorption of nutrient molecules

-transport of pancreatic enzymes

Back 78

transport and absorption of nutrient molecules

Front 79

which of the following is a feature of the lymphatic system?

-it carries fats away from the intestines

-it contains a fluid with a composition similar to pancreatic fluid

-it circulates via a one-way pump at the junction to the subclavian vein

-it serves to transport both fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins to the vascular system

Back 79

it carries fats away from the intestines

Front 80

When consumed on a regular basis, which of the following foods promotes healthful changes in the microflora of the GI tract?

-fish

-yogurt

-poultry

-iron-rich foods

Back 80

yogurt

Front 81

what two systems coordinate all digestive/absorption processes?

Back 81

nervous and endocrine

Front 82

which of the following is NOT among the functions of cholecystokinin?

-triggering release of bile

-slowing GI tract motility

-triggering release of gastrin

-triggering release of pancreatic fluid

Back 82

triggering release of gastrin

Front 83

which of the following stimulates the pancreas to release bicarbonate-rich juice?

-Gastrin

-secretin

-glucagon

-gastric-inhibitory peptide

Back 83

secretin

Front 84

which of the following substances functions to control the release of HCl to prevent excessive acidity?

-Fiber

-Gastrin

-Secretin

-Bicarbonate

Back 84

Gastrin

Front 85

What substance controls the release of bile into the small intestine?

Back 85

Cholecystokinin

Front 86

Which of the following nutrients is most associated with increased production of intestinal gas?

-iron

-fats

-protein

-carbohydrates

Back 86

carbohydrates

Front 87

a person with chronic diarrhea is at risk for which of the following?

-dehydration

-constipation

-peptic ulcers

-Heimlich's disease

Back 87

dehydration

Front 88

what organ is affected by colitis?

Back 88

large intestine

Front 89

Jenny has just undergone a cholecystectomy. After recovery, Jenny will no longer...

Back 89

have an organ to store bile

Front 90

which of the following is NOT among the chief causes of ulcers

-H. pylori

-Excessive caffeine consumption

-Regular use of anti-inflammatory drugs

-Disorders that cause high gastric acid output

Back 90

Excessive caffeine consumption

Front 91

What is the first thing you should do if you suspect someone is choking on food?

Back 91

Ask the person to speak

Front 92

which of the following is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that digests complex carbs?

-gastrin

-CCK

-protease

-amylase

Back 92

amylase

Front 93

which of the following is the enzyme made in the pancreas which digests fats?

-lipase

-amylase

-pepsin

-trypsin

Back 93

lipase

Front 94

which of the following is the enzyme which is made in the stomach and digests protein?

-lipase

-amylase

-pepsin

-trypsin

Back 94

pepsin

Front 95

in which of the following are ample amounts of carbs almost always found?

-plant foods

-health foods

-animal products

-proteinrich foods

Back 95

plant foods

Front 96

which of the following is a complex plant polysaccharide?

-starch

-glycogen

-disaccharide

-monosaccharide

Back 96

starch

Front 97

which of the following is NOT a characteristic of glucose?

-it is soluble in water

-it is a monosaccharide

-it is part of the sucrose molecule

-it is a pentose

Back 97

it is a pentose

Front 98

which of the following is known as fruit sugar or levulose?

-maltose

-glucose

-fructose

-galactose

Back 98

fructose

Front 99

what is the composition of sucrose?

Back 99

one glucose and one fructose unit

Front 100

common table sugar (sucrose) is typically extracted from sugarcane and...

Back 100

sugar beets

Front 101

what is another name for lactose?

Back 101

milk sugar

Front 102

which of the following is NOT a feature of glycogen?

-it is found in muscle and liver tissues

-it is composed of glucose units

-it is a plant polysaccharide

-it plays a significant role in the body in maintaining blood sugar levels

Back 102

it is a plant polysaccharide

Front 103

which of the following is NOT a rich source of dietary starch?

-grains

-fruits

-tubers

-legumes

Back 103

fruits

Front 104

what are cellulose, pectin, hemicellulose, and lignin?

Back 104

fibers

Front 105

which of the following statements is NOT characteristic of fibers?

-most fibers consist of linked monosaccharides

-an example of a nonstarch polysaccharide fiber is pectin

-an example of a nonpolysaccharide fiber is cellulose

-most soluble fibers are easily digested by the bacteria in the colon

Back 105

an example of a nonpolysaccharide fiber is cellulose

Front 106

Which of the following is a feature of resistant starch?

-It is common in overripe bananas

-excessive intake promotes constipation

-it resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes

-it cannot be fermented by large intestinal bacteria

Back 106

it resists hydrolysis by digestive enzymes

Front 107

which of the following fibers is water insoluble?

-gums

-pectins

-cellulose

-mucilages

Back 107

cellulose

Front 108

Enzymatic digestion of starches takes place in the small intestine and also in the

Back 108

mouth

Front 109

what is a typical response of the body to changes in blood glucose?

Back 109

Blood glucose levels that fall too low signal the release of glucagon

Front 110

when you are under physical stress, what hormone is released quickly to stimulate an increase in blood glucose concentration

Back 110

epinephrine

Front 111

which of the following values falls within the normal range (mg/dL) of blood glucose?

-40

-55

-75

-140

Back 111

75

Front 112

what hormone causes a decrease in blood glucose?

Back 112

insulin

Front 113

a person with a fasting blood glucose concentration of 129 mg/dL would be classified as

Back 113

diabetic

Front 114

what are characteristics of the conditions diabetes and hypoglycemia?

Back 114

both benefit from the inclusion of fiber-rich foods and consumption of smaller, more frequent meals

Front 115

what is the predominant sweetner used in formulation beverages in the United States?

Back 115

high-fructose corn syrup

Front 116

food manufacturers prefer to use high-fructose corn syrup instead of sugar because sugar....

Back 116

is more expensive

Front 117

what sweetener contains a significant amount of iron and calcium?

Back 117

Blackstrap molasses

Front 118

what is the RDA for carbs?

Back 118

130g

Front 119

about how many grams of carbs are contained in one ounce of foods in the grain group

Back 119

15

Front 120

what is the DRI for fiber for a person consuming 2500 kcal

Back 120

35g

Front 121

gluconeogenesis is a term that describes the synthesis of

Back 121

glucose from a noncarb substance

Front 122

a person eating lots of white bread, white rice, and ready to eat cereals would have a diet with a glycemic index that is

Back 122

high

Front 123

which of the following are not calssified as artificial sweeteners?

-sugar alcohols

-saccharin

-stevia

-nutrasweet

Back 123

sugar alcohols

Front 124

approx how many grams of carbs are in the following breakfast?

1 banana

1 C cheerios

6oz skim milk

Back 124

60 grams

Front 125

what compound is composed of 3 fatty acids and glycerol

Back 125

triglyceride

Front 126

what is a property of dietary lipids

Back 126

omega 3 fatty acids are always unsaturated

Front 127

which of the following is not a lipid

-omega 3 and omega 6

-triglycerides

-cholesterol

-steroid

glycogen

Back 127

glycogen

Front 128

what is an example of a common dietary saturated fatty acid

Back 128

stearic acid

Front 129

lipids differ in their degree of saturation or unsaturation die to their number of

Back 129

double bonds

Front 130

what describes a fatty acid that has NO double bonds

Back 130

saturated

Front 131

what describes a fatty acid that has one double bond

Back 131

monounsaturated

Front 132

what type of fatty acid is found in high amounts in olive oil?

Back 132

monounsaturated

Front 133

an omega 3 fatty acid has its first double bond on the

Back 133

third carbon from the methyl end

Front 134

what is an example of a lipid that is an essential nutrient?

Back 134

linoleic acid

Front 135

the oils found in walnuts, soybeans, flaxseed, and wheat germ represent a good source of preformed

Back 135

linolenic acid

Front 136

what is the structural feature of fatty acids that determines their susceptibility to spoilage by oxygen?

Back 136

number of double bonds

Front 137

characteristics of hydrogenated oils include

Back 137

-they are stored in adipose tissue

-they lower HDL and raise LDL cholesterol

-some of their fatty acids change shape from cis to trans

Front 138

what is a characteristic of cholesterol

Back 138

it is a precursor for bile a vitamin D synthesis

Front 139

which of the following foods contains the highest amount of cholesterol

Back 139

one boiled egg

Front 140

approx how many milligrams of cholesterol are found in an egg

Back 140

200

Front 141

which of the following does not describe a function of fat

adds flavor to food

serves as a carrier of fat-soluble vitamins

is an essential constituent of body tissues

supplied up to 25% of body energy needs during rest

Back 141

supplies up to 25% of body energy needs during rest

Front 142

according to the DRI, what is the upper limit of fat that may be consumed by a healthy person requiring 3000 kcal per day

Back 142

117

Front 143

a meal providing 1200 kcal contains

10g saturated

14g monounsaturated

20g polyunsaturated

what is the percentage of energy supplied by the lipids

Back 143

33

Front 144

for most adults, what is the recommended min amount of fat that should be consumed, as a percentage of total energy intake

Back 144

20

Front 145

what tissue contains special receptors for removing low density lipoproteins from the circulation

Back 145

liver

Front 146

the results of blood tests reveal a persons total cholesterol and triglycerides are called a

Back 146

lipid profile

Front 147

bob had a lipid profile analysis. the dr recommended he make dietary changes because the cholesterol results put him at increased risk for cardio disease. what is the diagnosis?

Back 147

low HDL and high LDL

Front 148

Jeff wishes to switch from using corn oil to using one that is a good source of omega-3 fats. Which of the following should be recommended?

canola

corn

safflower

liquefied lard

Back 148

canola

Front 149

A person is consuming 1600 kcal/day about how many grams of fat should they consume per day?

Back 149

36-62 grams

Front 150

What describes a feature of cis-fatty acids and trans-fatty acids?

Back 150

in the body, trans fatty acids are metabolized more like saturated fats than like unsaturated

Front 151

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the artificial fat replacer olestra?

It can be used in the frying of foods

It leads to constipation in some individuals

Its chemical structure is similar to a triglyceride

It lowers absorption of vitamins A and K from foods

Back 151

It leads to constipation in some individuals

Front 152

what is a characteristic of fish consumption

Back 152

Fatty fish contain the highest amounts of omega-3 fatty acids

Front 153

A lacto-ovo vegetarian wishing to ensure a liberal intake of linolenic acid should consume

Back 153

canola oil and walnuts.

Front 154

Which of the following is NOT a feature of dairy products consumption?

Yogurt is known to lower blood cholesterol

Fat-free milk is lower in kcalories but also lower in protein and calcium than whole milk

Fermented milk products raise the bacterial population in the colon

Fat-free milk contains no cholesterol

Back 154

Fat-free milk is lower in kcalories but also lower in protein and calcium than whole milk

Front 155

In comparison to the composition of carbohydrates and fats, which element found in proteins makes them unique?

Back 155

nitrogen

Front 156

what is the primary factor that differentiates one amino acid from another?

Back 156

the side group

Front 157

what amino acids contain sulfur?

Back 157

cysteine

Front 158

Which of the following is NOT an essential amino acid in human nutrition?

proline

threonine

methionine

tryptophan

Back 158

proline

Front 159

What is the composition of a tripeptide?

Back 159

Three amino acids bonded together

Front 160

What is the process by which heat or acidity disrupts the normal shape of a protein chain?

Back 160

Denaturation

Front 161

Protein-hydrolyzing enzymes are commonly known as

Back 161

proteases

Front 162

In what organ is pepsin active?

Back 162

Stomach

Front 163

What is the chief function of pepsin?

Back 163

Cleaves proteins into smaller polypeptides

Front 164

Which of the following describes the structure of pepsin?

lipid

protein

nucleic acid

carb

Back 164

protein

Front 165

what is a characteristic of protein synthesis?

Back 165

Messenger RNA is constructed from a DNA template to carry instructions

Front 166

What is a ribosome?

Back 166

A cellular structure upon which proteins are assembled

Front 167

What protein
is intimately involved in the formation of scar tissue in wound healing?

Back 167

Collagen

Front 168

what is a characteristic of protein hormones?

Back 168

Act as messenger molecules

Front 169

Which of the following do(es) NOT function as a transport protein?

collagen

transferrin

hemoglobin

lipoproteins

Back 169

collagen

Front 170

what processes is regulated primarily by the buffering action of proteins?

Back 170

pH balance

Front 171

The body’s usual response to detection of antigens is to synthesize these proteins?

Back 171

antibodies

Front 172

Given that protein is 16% nitrogen, how many grams of nitrogen are contained in a 2500-kcalorie diet that provides 15% of the energy as protein?

Back 172

15

Front 173

What is the nitrogen balance of a person who consumed a 3500-kcalorie diet containing 10% protein and excreted a total of 12 grams of nitrogen? (Protein is 16% nitrogen.)

Back 173

+2 g (positive balance)

Front 174

What is the RDA for adult females?

Back 174

46

Front 175

f a person consumes 65 grams of protein and a total of 2700 kcalories per day, approximately what percentage of energy would be derived from protein?

Back 175

10

Front 176

Your friend Jill has just joined her community college soccer team. How much protein should she consume each day?

Back 176

1.2-1.7 g/kg

Front 177

Which of the following is related to the quality of a food protein?

Quantity of nonessential amino acids that can be converted to glucose

Total amino acids per gram of food

Nonessential amino acid balance

Essential amino acid balance

Back 177

Essential amino acid balance

Front 178

Methionine, histidine, and tryptophan are examples of

Back 178

essential amino acids

Front 179

Which of the following animal-derived proteins is classified as a poor-quality protein?

gelatin

fish

turkey

cheese

Back 179

gelatin

Front 180

Approximately how many grams of protein are found in one quart of milk?

Back 180

32

Front 181

what are precursors of urea synthesis?

Back 181

All amino acids

Front 182

what describes an association between protein intake and kidney function?

Back 182

High protein intakes over the long term represent a risk factor for kidney disease

Front 183

what is characteristic of protein nutrition in vegetarians?

Back 183

Most vegetarians eating a variety of foods need not balance essential amino acid intake at each meal

Front 184

Dietary restriction of phenylalanine combined with adequate tyrosine is the usual treatment for people born with the disorder

Back 184

PKU

Front 185

What term refers to specific synthesis reactions in which simple compounds are combined into more complex molecules?

Back 185

anabolic

Front 186

A feature of anabolic reactions is that they

Back 186

involve consumption of energy

Front 187

Which of the following is an example of a catabolic reaction?
Palmitic acid formation from acetate Pyruvate formation from glucose
Glucose formation from glycerol
Albumin formation from amino acids
pyruvate formation from glucose

Back 187

Pyruvate formation from glucose

Front 188

The hydrolysis of ATP that often occurs simultaneously with the synthesis of many compounds is an example of

Back 188

coupled reactions

Front 189

what CANNOT be formed from pyruvate in human beings?

Back 189

Linoleic acid

Front 190

what is a feature of aerobic metabolism?

Back 190

electron transport phase produces the most ATPs

Front 191

Fatty acid oxidation results in the direct production of

Back 191

acetyl CoA

Front 192

cycles converts lactate to glucose and occurs in liver cells

Back 192

Cori cycle

Front 193

Where do the TCA cycle reactions take place?

Back 193

Matrix (Inner compartment) of the mitochondria

Front 194

When protein consumption is in excess of body needs and energy needs are met, the excess amino acids are metabolized and the energy in the molecules is

Back 194

stored as glycogen and fat

Front 195

If a normal person expends 1200 kcalories while at rest, approximately how many are used by the brain?

Back 195

300

Front 196

What organ is the major site for gluconeogenesis??

Back 196

liver

Front 197

what is a feature of low-carbohydrate diets?

Back 197

Overall body fat losses are about the same as with other diets

Front 198

How many acetyl CoA molecules may be obtained from oxidation of an 18-carbon fatty acid?

Back 198

9

Front 199

what classified as a ketone body?

Back 199

Acetoacetate

Front 200

what is a nitrogenous waste product due to the oxidation of amino acids in the diet?

Back 200

urea

Front 201

what dietary components CANNOT be used to synthesize and store glycogen?

Back 201

animal fats

Front 202

what accounts for the higher energy density of a fatty acid compared with the other energy-yielding nutrients?

Back 202

Fatty acids have a greater percentage of hydrogen-carbon bonds

Front 203

All of the following are features of the metabolism of surplus dietary carbohydrate in human beings EXCEPT

excess glucose is first used to fill glycogen reserves.

conversion of excess glucose to fat occurs only to a very limited extent

excess glucose is oxidized only very slowly.

excess glucose suppresses fat oxidation.

Back 203

excess glucose is oxidized only very slowly.

Front 204

what is NOT a product from the electron transport chain pathway?

Back 204

urea

Front 205

What type of diet is associated with the development of ketosis?

Back 205

Low carbohydrate

Front 206

what is NOT among the functions of the liver?

Back 206

Production of red blood cells

Front 207

In the adult body, food energy not stored as fat or glycogen is lost as

Back 207

heat

Front 208

The metabolism of alcohol begins in the

Back 208

stomach

Front 209

what is the most likely explanation for the body’s higher metabolic efficiency of converting a molecule of corn oil into stored fat compared with a molecule of sucrose?

Back 209

There are fewer metabolic reactions for disassembling the corn oil and re-assembling the parts into a triglyceride for uptake by the fat cells

Front 210

What is the name of the enzyme which breaks down ethanol to acetaldehyde?

Back 210

alcohol dehydrogenase

Front 211

What is the sequence of stages that brings about advanced liver disease caused by chronic alcohol toxicity?

Back 211

Fat accumulation, fibrosis, cirrhosis

Front 212

With alcoholic beverages, the ratio of proof to alcohol percentage is

Back 212

2:1

Front 213

Approximately how many kcal are contained in 3 ounces of 80-proof rum? Hint 1.5oz, (1 shot) of 80-proof contains 14g of alcohol

Back 213

200

Front 214

Approximately
how many ATP molecules are synthesized from the complete oxidation of a molecule of palmitic acid (16 C)? Hint: How many Acetyl coA are formed, the Acetyl CoA feed into the TCA(citric acid) cycle

Back 214

129

Front 215

What would be the approximate weight loss of a person who consumes 500 kcalories less daily for one week?

Back 215

1 lbs

Front 216

All of the following are characteristics of neuropeptide Y EXCEPT
it stimulates appetite
it is synthesized in the brain
it increases carbohydrate cravings
it reduces fat storage

Back 216

it reduces fat storage

Front 217

Which of the following hormones is most responsible for signaling satiety as well as reducing food intake during a meal?
Pepsin
Neuropeptide Y
Cholecystokinin
Gastrin

Back 217

cholecystokinin

Front 218

Which of the following is not a GI hormone that regulates food intake?CCK
insulin
Enterostatin
Ghrelin
Amylin

Back 218

insulin

Front 219

About how long does it take for a meal to be completely eliminated from the stomach?

Back 219

4 hours

Front 220

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of satiety or satiation?
Satiation signals the cessation of eating
Satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress
Satiation develops as food enters the GI tract
Satiety suppresses hunger

Back 220

satiety but not hunger may be overridden by stress

Front 221

What is the approximate daily basal metabolism of a 110-pound woman? Hint: use using quick formula?

Back 221

1100 kcal

Front 222

Which of the following factors has the most influence on the body’s metabolic rate?
Amount of lean body tissue
Gender
Age
Amount of fat tissue

Back 222

amount of lean body tissue

Front 223

Which of the following are all used to compute a woman’s BMR?
Body weight, height, and age
Physical activity level, body weight, and height
Energy intake, physical activity level, and body weight
Body fat, height, and age

Back 223

body weight, height, and age

Front 224

Which of the following is a feature of the basal metabolic rate (BMR)?
Females have a higher BMR than males on a body weight basis
Fasting increases the BMR
Fever decreases the BMR
Pregnancy increases the BMR

Back 224

pregnancy increases the BMR

Front 225

What is the main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females of the same body weight?

Back 225

Males have a higher percentage of lean body mass

Front 226

What is the approximate body mass index of a woman who is 5’7” and 165 lbs.?

Back 226

26

Front 227

The thermic effect of food is proportional to the food energy taken in and is usually estimated at _______ of energy intake.

Back 227

10%

Front 228

_____ is second only to _____ in causing premature deaths

Back 228

obesity; tobacco

Front 229

Which of the following is a consequence of losing excess body weight?
It increases insulin resistance
It raises the number of immune cells in adipose tissue
It reverses atherosclerosis
It lowers HDL-cholesterol

Back 229

it reverses atherosclerosis

Front 230

All of the following are typical characteristics of amenorrhea EXCEPT
low blood estrogen
bone mineral loss
infertility
muscle dysmorphia

Back 230

muscle dysmorphia

Front 231

The major cause of insulin resistance is related to

Back 231

excess body weight

Front 232

Each of the following is an association between type 2 diabetes and body fat except
a woman who has gained 12 pounds since age 18 has doubled her risk of developing the disease
an obese person is 3 times more likely to develop the disease than is a non-obese individual
overweight people with the disease who lose weight show no improvement in glucose tolerance and insulin resistance
people with the disease often have central obesity rather than lower-body obesity

Back 232

overweight people with the disease who lose weight show no improvement in glucose tolerance and insulin resistance

Front 233

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of metabolic syndrome?
Low blood glucose
High blood triglycerides
Elevated blood pressure
Low HDL cholesterol
low blood pressure

Back 233

low blood pressure

Front 234

Jim is a 45 year old who eats fast food at least 3 times a week and smokes a pack of cigarettes each day. He just had a physical examination and was told that his body mass index is 24. In what category would Jim’s BMI be classified?

Back 234

healthy weight

Front 235

A person who weighs 178lbs. and is 5’7” is considered

Back 235

overweight

Front 236

A high risk of weight-related health problems is seen in women whose waist circumference begins to exceed

Back 236

35

Front 237

For every decade beyond the age of 30, what is the percentage decrease in the need for total kcalories?

Back 237

5

Front 238

If a normal 30-year-old woman has a daily energy expenditure of 2000 kcalories, what would be her expected output when she reaches 60 years of age?

Back 238

1714

Front 239

A person who exhibits a physiological need to eat is most likely experiencing the sensation of

Back 239

hunger

Front 240

What fraction of the day’s energy expenditure of the average person is represented by the basal metabolism?

Back 240

About 2/3

Front 241

If a 25 year old female has a basal metabolic rate 1380 what is her approximate energy expenditure (EER)

Back 241

2070

Front 242

What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight women?

Back 242

23-34%

Front 243

What is the primary factor that differentiates bulimia nervosa from binge eating?

Back 243

Purging is rarely practiced in binge-eating disorder

Front 244

Which of the following is NOT among the characteristics of anorexia nervosa?
It has one of the highest mortality rates among psychiatric disorders
Only one-half of women who are treated can maintain body weight at a near healthy level
In those who recover, energy intakes return to normal
Treatment with prescription drugs plays only a limited role

Back 244

in those who recover, energy intakes return to normal