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190 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. Where does a hub send data?

A. Only to the receiving system
B. Only to the sending system
C. To all the systems connected to the hub
D. Only to the server
Chapter 2

C. To all the systems connected to the hub
2. What uniquely identifies every NIC?

A. IP address
B. Media access control address
C. ISO number
D. Packet ID number
Chapter 2

B. Media access control address
3. What Windows utility do you use to find the MAC address for a system?

A. IPCONFIG
B. IPCRG
C. PING
D. MAC
Chapter 2

A. IPCONFIG
4. A MAC address is known as a(n)_____________ address.

A. IP
B. Logical
C. Physical
D. OEM
Chapter 2

C. Physical
5. A NIC sends data in discrete chunks called_____________

A. Segments
B. Sections
C. Frames
D. Layers
Chapter 2

C. Frames
6. Which MAC address begins a frame?

A. Receiving system
B. Sending system
C. Network
D. Router
Chapter 2

A. Receiving system
7. A frame ends with a special bit called the frame check sequences (FCS). What does the FCS do?

A. Cycles data across the network
B. Verifies that the MAC addresses are correct
C. Verifies that the data arrived correctly
D. Verifies that the IP address is correct
Chapter 2

C. Verifies that the data arrived correctly
8. Which of the following is an example of a MAC address?

A. 0-255
B. 00-50-56-A3-04-0C
C. SBY3M7
D. 192.168.4.13
Chapter 2

B. 00-50-56-A3-04-0C
9. Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls the assembly and disassemble of data?

A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
Chapter 2

D. Transport layer
10. Which layer of the OSI seven-layer model keeps track of the system’s connections to send the right response to the right computer?

A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. Transport layer
Chapter 2

C. Session layer
1. Which of the following topologies requires termination?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Mesh
D. Ring
Chapter 3

B. Bus
2. Star-bus is an example of a(n)_______________topology.

A. Transitional
B. System
C. Hybrid
D. Rampant
Chapter 3

C. Hybrid
3. Of the topologies listed, which one is the most fault-tolerant?

A. Point-to-point
B. Bus
C. Star
D. Ring
Chapter 3

C. Star
4. What term is used to describe the interconnectivity of network components?

A. Segmentation
B. Map
C. Topology
D. Protocol
Chapter 3

C. Topology
5. Coaxial cables all have a (n)___________rating.

A. Resistance
B. Watt
C. Speed
D. Ohm
Chapter 3

D. Ohm
6. Which of the following is type of coaxial cable?

A. RJ-45
B. RG-59
C. BNC
D. Barrel
Chapter 3

B. RG-59
7. Which network topology connects nodes with a ring of cable?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh
Chapter 3

C. Ring
8. Which network topology is most commonly seen only in wireless networks?

A. Star
B. Bus
C. Ring
D. Mesh
Chapter 3

D. Mesh
9. Which of the following is a duplex fiber-optic connection?

A. LC
B. RJ-45
C. ST
D. SC
Chapter 3

A. LC
10. What is the most common category of UTP use in new cabling installations?

A. CAT 5
B. CAT 5e
C. CAT 6
D. CAT 6a
Chapter 3

B. CAT 5e
1. Ethernet hubs take an incoming packet and _____________it out to the other connected ports.

A. Amplify
B. Repeat
C. Filter
D. Distort
Chapter 4

B. Repeat
2. What begins an Ethernet frame?

A. MAC address
B. Length
C. Preamble
D. CRC
Chapter 4

C. Preamble
3. What type of bus does 10BaseT use?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star bus
D. Bus ring
Chapter 4

C. Star bus
4. What is the maximum distance that can separate a 10BaseT node from its hub?

A. 50 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 185 meters
D. 200 meters
Chapter 4

B. 100 meters
5. When used for Ethernet, unshielded twisted pair uses what type of connector?

A. RG-58
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. RS-232
Chapter 4

B. RJ-45
6. What is the maximum number of nodes that can be connected to a 10BaseT hub?

A. 1024
B. 500
C. 100
D. 185
Chapter 4

A. 1024
7. Which of the following is not true of crossover cables?

A. They are a type of twisted-pair cabling
B. They reverse the sending and receiving wire pairs
C. They are used to connect hubs.
D. Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard.
Chapter 4

D. Both ends of a crossover cable are wired according to the TIA/EIA 568B standard.
8. Which of the following connectors are used by 10BaseFL cable? (Select two.)

A. SC
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. ST
Chapter 4

A. SC

D. ST
9. Which networking devices can use the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

A. Hubs
B. Media converters
C. UTP cables
D. Switches
Chapter 4

D. Switches
10. What device directs packets based on MAC addresses?

A. Router
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. Switch
Chapter 4

C. Bridge
1. With 100BaseT, what is the maximum distance between the hub (or switch) and the node?

A. 1000 meters
B. 400 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 150 meters
Chapter 5

C. 100 meters
2. What type of cable and connector does 100BaseFX use?

A. Multimode fiber with St or SC connectors
B. STP CAT 6 with RJ-45 connectors
C. Single-mode fiber with MT-RJ connectors
D. UTP CAT 5e with RJ-45 connectors
Chapter 5

A. Multimode fiber with St or SC connectors
3. How many pairs of wires do 10BaseT and 100BaseT use?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Chapter 5

D. 2
4. What standard does IEEE 802.3ab describe?

A. 1000BaseLX
B. 1000BaseT
C. 1000BaseCX
D. 1000BaseSX
Chapter 5

B. 1000BaseT
5. What is the big physical difference between 1000BaseSX and 100BaseFX?

A. 1000BaseSX uses the SC connector exclusively.
B. 1000BaseSX is single-mode, whereas 100BaseFX is multimode.
C. 1000BaseSX uses the ST connector exclusively.
D. There is no difference.
Chapter 5

A. 1000BaseSX uses the SC connector exclusively.
6. What is the maximum distance for 1000BaseLX without repeaters?

A. 1 mile
B. 2,500 meters
C. 20,000 feet
D. 5,000 meters
Chapter 5

D. 5,000 meters
7. What is a big advantage to using fiber-optic cable?

A. Fiber is common glass; therefore, it’s less expensive
B. Fiber is not affected by EM interferences.
C. Making custom cable lengths is easier with fiber.
D. All that orange fiber looks impressive in the network closet.
Chapter 5

B. Fiber is not affected by EM interferences.
8. How many wire pairs does 1000BaseT use?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Chapter 5

D. 4
9. What is the standard connector for the 10 GbE fiber standard?

A. ST
B. SC
C. MT-RJ
D. There is no standard.
Chapter 5

D. There is no standard.
10. What is the maximum cable length of 10GBaseT on CAT 6?

A. 55 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 20 meters
D. 70 meters
Chapter 5

A. 55 meters
1. Which of the following cables should never be used in the structured cabling installation?

A. UTP
B. STP
C. Fiber-optic
D. Coax
Chapter 6

D. Coax
2. Which of the following enables you to use multiple NICs in a computer to achieve a much faster network speed?

A. Bonding
B. Linking
C. SLI
D. Xing
Chapter 6

A. Bonding
3. How many pairs of wires are in a CAT 5e-rated cable?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. It doesn’t specify.
Chapter 6

B. 4
4. A(n)_______________organizes and protects the horizontal cabling in the telecommunications room.

A. Rack
B. Patch panel
C. Outlet
D. 110 jack
Chapter 6

B. Patch panel
5. Which of the following would never be seen in an equipment rack?

A. Patch panel
B. UPS
C. PC
D. All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack.
Chapter 6

D. All of the above may be seen in an equipment rack.
6. What are patch cables used for? (Select two)

A. To connect different telecommunications rooms.
B. To connect the patch panel to the hub.
C. They are used as crossover cables.
D. To connect PCs to outlet boxes.
Chapter 6


B. To connect the patch panel to the hub.

D. To connect PCs to outlet boxes.
7. Which of the following network technologies use UTP cabling in a star topology? (Select two.)

A. 19Base2
B. Fiber optics
C. 10BaseT
D. 100BaseT
Chapter 6

C. 10BaseT
D. 100BaseT
8. Jane needs to increase network throughput on a 10BaseT network that consists of 1 hub and 30 users. Which of the following hardware solutions would achieve this most inexpensively?

A. Add a fiber backbone
B. Upgrade the network to 100BaseT.
C. Replace the hub with a switch.
D. Add a router.
Chapter 6

C. Replace the hub with a switch.
9. What two devices together enable you to pick a single cable out of a stack of cables? (Select two.)

A. Tone aggregator
B. Tone binder
C. Tone generator
D. Tone probe
Chapter 6

C. Tone generator
D. Tone probe
10. Rack-mounted equipment has a height measured in what units?

A. Mbps
B. MBps
C. Inches
D. U
Chapter 6

D. U
1. How many bits does an IPv4 address consist of

A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Chapter 7

B. 32
2. Identify the network ID section of the following IP address and subnet mask:
10.14.12.43-255.255.255.0

A. 10.14
B. 43
C. 10.14.12
D. 14.12.43
Chapter 7

C. 10.14.12
3. Which of the following is a proper subnet mask?

A. 11111111111111111111111100000000
B. 00000000000000000000000011111111
C. 10101010101010101010101011111111
D. 01010101010101010101010100000000
Chapter 7

A. 11111111111111111111111100000000
4. What does ARP stand for?

A. Address Reconciliation Process
B. Automated Ranking Protocol
C. Address Resolution Protocol
D. Advanced Resolution Protocol
Chapter 7

C. Address Resolution Protocol
5. Identify the class of the following IP address: 146.203.143.101.

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Chapter 7

B. Class B
6. Which of the following are valid subnet masks? (Select two.)

A. 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000
B. 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
C. 11111111.00000000.11111111.00000000
D. 00000000.00000000.11111111.11111111
Chapter 7

A. 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000
B. 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
7. What is the maximum number of hosts in a /19 subnet?

A. 254
B. 8,192
C. 16,382
D. 8,190
Chapter 7

D. 8,190
8. What is the number 138 in binary?

A. 10001010
B. 10101010
C. 10000111
D. 11001010
Chapter 7

A. 10001010
9. DHCP Discover fails, what process will the client us to generate an address for itself?

A. ATAP! (Automatic Temporary Address Program Initiator)
B. APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
C. ATIPA (Automatic Temporary IP Address)
D. APFBA (Automatic Programmable Fall Back Address)
Chapter 7

B. APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)
Which of the following is a valid loop back address?

A. 128.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.0
C. 128.0.0.255
D. 127.24.0.1
Chapter 7

D. 127.24.0.1
1. What is a router?

A. A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address.
B. A device that separates your computers from the Internet
C. A piece of hardware that distributes a single Internet connection to multiple computers
D. A synonym for a firewall
Chapter 8

A. A piece of hardware that forwards packets based on IP address.
2. Routers must use the same type of connections for all routes, such as Ethernet to Ethernet or ATM to ATM.

A. True
B. False
Chapter 8

B. False
3. What technology allows you to share a single public IP address with many computers?

A. Static Address Translation
B. Natural Address Translation
C. Computed Public Address Translation
D. Port address Translation
Chapter 8

B. Natural Address Translation
4. Given the following routing table:
Destination LAN IP Subnet Mask Gateway Interface
10.11.12.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 LAN
64.165.5.0 255.255.255.0 0.0.0.0 WAN
0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 64.165.5.1 WAN
Where would a packet with the address 64.165.5.34 be sent?

A. To the default gateway on interface WAN.
B. To the 10.11.12.0/24 network on interface LAN.
C. To the 64.165.5.5./24 network on interface WAN>
D. Nowhere; the routing table does not have a route for that address.
Chapter 8

C. To the 64.165.5.5./24 network on interface WAN>
5. Distance vector routing protocols such as RIP rely on what metric to determine the best route?

A. Hop count
B. Link speed
C. Ping time
D. Routes are chosen at random
Chapter 8

A. Hop count
6. What are two big advantages to using OSPF over RIP or BGP? (Select two.)

A. OSPF is a modern protocol that does not have legacy problems
B. OSPF chooses routes based on link speed, not hop count.
C. OSPF runs on all routers, big and small.
D. OSPF sends only routing table changes, reducing network traffic.
Chapter 8

B. OSPF chooses routes based on link speed, not hop count.
D. OSPF sends only routing table changes, reducing network traffic.
7. What is Area 0 called in OSPF?

A. Local Area
B. Primary Zone
C. Trunk
D. Backbone
Chapter 8

D. Backbone
8. What is the name of the cable that you use to connect to the console port on Cisco routers?

A. Router console cable
B. Yost cable
C. That funny blue Cisco cable
D. Router console cable
E. Yost cable
F. That funny blue Cisco cable
Chapter 8

E. Yost cable
9. When you are first setting up a new router, you should never plug it into an existing network.

A. True
B. False
Chapter 8

A. True
10. The traceroute utility is useful for

A. Configuring routers remotely
B. Showing the physical location of the route between you and the destination
C. Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address
D. Fixing the computer’s local routing table
Chapter 8

C. Discovering information about the routers between you and the destination address
1. The protocol developed by Netscape for transmitting private documents over the Internet is known as

A. SSS
B. SSA
C. SSL
D. NSSL
Chapter 9

C. SSL
2. Which of the following are key benefits of Web-based mail? (Select two.)

A. You can use a third-party application, like Microsoft Outlook, to download your e-mail.
B. You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection/
C. It is completely spam-free.
D. It is great for creating throw-away accounts.
Chapter 9

B. You can access your e-mail from anywhere in the world using a Web browser and an Internet connection/

D. It is great for creating throw-away accounts.
3. An SSL URL connection starts with which prefix?

A. HTTP
B. WWW
C. FTP
D. HTTPS
Chapter 9

D. HTTPS
4. Which statements about SSH and Telnet are true? (Select two.)

A. Windows comes with preinstalled SSh and Telnet clients.
B. SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data.
C. Telnet is a command-line tool, whereas SSH is a GUI tool.
D. SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.
Chapter 9

B. SSH is more secure than Telnet because it encrypts data.

D. SSH uses port 22, and Telnet uses port 23.
5. Why might you use the netstat utility?

A. To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers
B. To see your IP address and configuration details
C. To see the endpoints of your sessions
D. To issue commands to a remote server
Chapter 9

C. To see the endpoints of your sessions
Why might you Telnet client?

A. To see the route an IP packet takes across multiple routers
B. To see your IP address and configuration details
C. To see the endpoints of your sessions
D. To issue commands to a remote server
Chapter 9

D. To issue commands to a remote server
7. Port 110 (POP) is what kind of port?

A. Well-known
B. Registered
C. Ephemeral
D. Reserved
Chapter 9

A. Well-known
8. What ports does FTP use? (Select two.)

A. 20
B. 21
C. 23
D. 25
Chapter 9

A. 20
B. 21
9. Which of the following protocols are used to receive e-mail from servers? (Select two.)

A. IMAP
B. ICMP
C. IGMP
D. POP
Chapter 9

A. IMAP

D. POP
10. Which statements about netstat switches (in Windows) are true? (Select three.)

A. –a shows all used ports
B. –n shows raw port numbers and IP addresses
C. –o shows the process ID
D. –s shows the application name
Chapter 9

A. –a shows all used ports
B. –n shows raw port numbers and IP addresses
C. –o shows the process ID
1. NetBIOS uses what type of name space?

A. Hierarchical name space
B. People name space
C. DNS name space
D. Flat name space
Chapter 10

D. Flat name space
2. The DNS root directory is represented by what symbol?

A. .(dot)
B. /(forward slash)
C. (back slash)
D. $(dollar sign)
Chapter 10

A. .(dot)
3. What command do you use to the DNS cache on a Windows system?

A. ping /showdns
B. Ipconfig /showdns
C. Ipoconfig /displaydns
D. ping /displaydns
Chapter 10

C. Ipoconfig /displaydns
4. The users on your network haven’t been able to connect to the server for 30 minutes. You check and reboot the server, but you’re unable to ping either it’s own loopback address or any of your client systems. What should you do?

A. Restart the DHCP server.
B. Restart the DNS server.
C. Replace the NIC on the server because it has failed.
D. Have your users pin he server.
Chapter 10

C. Replace the NIC on the server because it has failed.
5. A user calls to say she can’t see the other systems on the network when she looks in My Network Places. You are not using NetBIOS. What are your first two troubleshooting steps? (Select two.)

A. Ping the address of a known Web site.
B. Ping the loopback address to test her NIC.
C. Ping several neighboring systems using both DNS names and IP addresses.
D. Ping the IP addresses of the router.
Chapter 10

B. Ping the loopback address to test her NIC.
C. Ping several neighboring systems using both DNS names and IP addresses.
6. What is checked first when trying to resolve an FQDN to an IP address?

A. HOSTS file
B. LMHOSTS file
C. DNS server
D. WINS server
Chapter 10

A. HOSTS file
7. Which type of DNS record is used by mail servers to determine where to send e-mail?

A. A record
B. CNAME record
C. MX record
D. SMTP record
Chapter 10

C. MX record
8. Which command enables you to eliminate DNS cache?

A. Ipconfig
B. Ipconfig /all
C. Ipconfig /dns
D. Ipconfig /flushdns
Chapter 10

D. Ipconfig /flushdns
9. Which tool enables you to query the functions of a DNS server?

A. ipconfig
B. nslookup
C. ping
D. xdns
Chapter 10

B. nslookup
10. Where does a DNS server store the IP addresses and FQDNs for the computers within a domain?

A. Forward lookup zone
B. Canonical zone
C. MX record
D. SMTP record
Chapter 10

A. Forward lookup zone
1. Any encryption that uses the same key for encryption and decryption is called

A. Encoded key
B. Symmetric key
C. Single key
D. Synthetic key
Chapter 11

B. Symmetric key
2. RC4 is a (n) ______________cipher

A. Block
B. Forwarding
C. Stream
D. Asymmetric
Chapter 11

C. Stream
3. In a PKI encryption method, which key encrypts the data?

A. Public
B. Private
C. Both
D. Depends on who sends the data
Chapter 11

A. Public
4. The process of verifying with a high degree of confidence that the sender is who the receiver thinks he or she should be is called

A. PKI
B. Authentication
C. Locking
D. Nonrepudiation
Chapter 11

D. Nonrepudiation
5. A hash function is by definition

A. A complex function
B. A PKI function
C. A one-way function
D. A systematic function
Chapter 11

C. A one-way function
6. Which of the following is a common hash function?

A. MD5
B. RC4
C. AES
D. BMX
Chapter 11

A. MD5
7. In order to have a PKI infrastructure you must have a(n)

A. Web server
B. Web of trust
C. Root authority
D. Unsigned certificate
Chapter 11

C. Root authority
8. Which type of access control requires a label to define its sensitivity?

A. MAC
B. DAC
C. RBAC
D. VAC
Chapter 11

A. MAC
9. If you saw some traffic running on UDP ports 1812 and 1813, what AAA standard would you know was running?

A. PPP
B. RADIUS
C. MS-CHAP
D. TACACS+
Chapter 11

B. RADIUS
10. Which authentication standard is highly time sensitive?

A. PAP
B. RADIUS
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
Chapter 11

D. Kerberos
1. Which of the following operating systems was designed for a pure client/server environment?

A. Microsoft Windows NT
B. NeXTSTEP
C. Novell NetWare
D. Linux
Chapter 12

C. Novell NetWare
2. BitTorrent is example of what kind of logical network topology?

A. Peer-to-peer
B. Client/server
C. Multinode
D. Server-to=server
Chapter 12

A. Peer-to-peer
3. Which of the following is a protocol popular with Cisco VPNs?
A. PPPTP
B. L2TP
C. IPsec
D. PPPoE
Chapter 12

B. L2TP
4. A static VLAN assigns VLANs to
A. IP addresses
B. MAC addresses
C. Ports
D. Trunks
Chapter 12

C. Ports
5. Which of the following is the most common trunking protocol used in today’s VLANs?
A. 802.iQ
B. 802.1X
C. 802.iT
D. 802.1z
Chapter 12

A. 802.iQ
6. A content switch always works at least at which layer of the OSI model?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
Chapter 12

D. 7
7. When the network is very busy, VoIP calls start to sound badly clipped. What solution might improve the quality of the VoIP calls?
A. 802.iz
B. Traffic shaping
C. DNS
D. Content switching
Chapter 12

B. Traffic shaping
8. What is the main difference between and IDS and an IPS?

A. An IPS documents intrusion.
B. An IPS is always a stand-alone box.
C. An IPS reacts to an attack.
D. An IPS uses port mirroring.
Chapter 12

C. An IPS reacts to an attack.
9. What are the benefits of caching on a Web proxy? (Select two.)

A. Response time
B. Virus detection
C. Tracking
D. Authentication
Chapter 12

A. Response time
B. Virus detection
802.1X is a great example of

A. Encryption
B. Content switching
C. Port authentication
D. VLAN trunking
Chapter 12

C. Port authentication
1. Which of the following is a valid IPv6 address?

A. 2001:beacd:beef::1
B. 2001:30f5::3d62::04ffee
C. 192.168.1.4:ff45:129g:48fd:1
D. 2001.0470.b33e23f4.27de.d34a.aed2.1827
Chapter 13

A. 2001:beacd:beef::1
2. DHCP is required to receive an IPv6 address automatically.

A. True
B. False
Chapter 13

B. False
3. What kind of DNS records do IPv6 addresses use?

A. A
B. SIX
C. AAAA
D. NSSIX
Chapter 13

C. AAAA
4. Is NAT needed with IPv6?

A. No, because NAT has been replaced with a new version called NAT6.
B. No. the address space is so large that rationing routable addresses is unnecessary.
C. Yes, because it is the only way to protect against hackers.
D. Yes, because of the limited nature of IPv6 addressing.
Chapter 13

B. No. the address space is so large that rationing routable addresses is unnecessary.
5. How do IPv6 multicasts differ from broadcasts?

A. Broadcasts are sent to all network nodes; multicasts are sent only to specific network nodes.
B. Both broadcasts and multicasts are sent to all network nodes, but in a multicast, only the destination nodes process the incoming packets.
C. Broadcasts can cross over a router, whereas multicasts cannot.
D. Broadcasts are used on local networks; multicasts are used on the Internet.
Chapter 13

B. Both broadcasts and multicasts are sent to all network nodes, but in a multicast, only the destination nodes process the incoming packets.
6. What is the /16 prefix for all 6to4 address?

A. 2001
B. 2003
C. 2002
D. 2021
Chapter 13

C. 2002
7. Which of the following operating systems have Teredo built in? (Select two.)

A. Windows XP
B. Macintosh OS X
C. Windows Vista
D. Windows 2000
Chapter 13

A. Windows XP

C. Windows Vista
8. What service do tunnel brokers provide?

A. A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers.
B. They provide no useful service.
C. Access to IPv6 DNS records.
D. A second connection for multihoming.
Chapter 13

A. A way for users to jump the gap between their computers and the IPv6 Internet routers.
9. What is the /48 prefix of the address 2001:0480:b6f3:0001::0001?

A. 2001:480:b6f3:1
B. 2001:480:b6f3
C. 2001:480:b6f3:1:0000::1
D. 2001480:b6f3:1:0000:0000:0000:1
Chapter 13

B. 2001:480:b6f3
10. Which of the following is the valid reduced version of the address 2001:0489:000f:0000:0000:1f00:0000:000d?

A. 2001:489:f1f:0:d
B. 2001:489:f::1f00::d
C. 2001:0489:000f::1f00:0000:000d
D. 2001:489:f::1f00:0:d
Chapter 13

D. 2001:489:f::1f00:0:d
1. What is the signal rate for DS0?

A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 64 Kbps
C. 2.48 Mbps
D. 128 Kbps
Chapter 14

B. 64 Kbps
2. Which of the following provides the fastes throughtput?

A. PSTN
B. ISDNBRI
C. VDSL
D. POTS
Chapter 14

C. VDSL
3. What is the popular Microsoft remote access server program called?

A. RAS
B. Dial-UP Networking
C. Dial-Up Server
D. Microsoft Client for Networks
Chapter 14

A. RAS
4. What device do you use to connect to a T1 line?

A. Router
B. CSU/DSU
C. Modem
D. WIC-2T
Chapter 14

B. CSU/DSU
5. BRI ISDN uses

A. 1 B channel and 24 D channels
B. 24 B channels and 1 D channel
C. 1B channel and 2 D channels
D. 2 B channels an 1 D channel
Chapter 14

D. 2 B channels an 1 D channel
6. The V.90 standard defines a modem speed of

A. 56 Kbps
B. 33.6 K baud
C. 28.8 Kbps
D. 2400 baud
Chapter 14

A. 56 Kbps
7. You have just had DSL installed at your house and while the Internet connection is fast, your phones no longer work. What is the problem?

A. The installer failed to install the POTS filters on the phones.
B. Nothing; the phones can’t function at the same time as the Internet.
C. The house phone lines can’t handle the bandwidth of both the phone and DSL
D. The DSL modem is missing the filter and is causing line interference.
Chapter 14

A. The installer failed to install the POTS filters on the phones.
8. What protocol do cable modems use?

A. ACMSIS
B. CMAS
C. DOCSIS
D. CCSIP
Chapter 14

C. DOCSIS
9. What is SONET used for?

A. Short-distance, high-speed, fiber-optic transmission
B. Long-distance, high-speed, fiber-optic transmission
C. Long-distance, low-speed, copper cable transmission
D. Short-distance, low-speed, copper cable transmission
Chapter 14

B. Long-distance, high-speed, fiber-optic transmission
10. What does SIP stand for?

A. Standard Initiation Protocol
B. System Internetworking Protocol
C. Sesion Initiation Protocol
D. Sector Information Protocol
Chapter 14


C. Sesion Initiation Protocol
1. Which wireless networking technology used the 5.0-GHz frequency range?

A. 802.11
B. 802.11a
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11g
Chapter 15

B. 802.11a
2. The original 802.11 wireless specification enables a maximum throughput speed of __________________

A. 2 Mbps
B. 11 Mbps
C. 54 Mbps
D. 4 Mbps
Chapter 15

A. 2 Mbps
3. What function does CSMA/CD provide that CSMA/DCC does not?

A. Data packet collision detection
B. End-to-end data packet encryption
C. Data packet collision avoidance
D. Data packet error checking
Chapter 15

A. Data packet collision detection
4. Why should you configure a unique SSID for your wireless network?

A. A unique SSID enables backward-compatibility between 802.11g and 802.11b
B. A unique SSID boosts wireless network range.
C. A unique SSID boosts wireless network data throughput.
D. A unique SSID prevents access by any network device that dos not have the same SSID configured.
Chapter 15

D. A unique SSID prevents access by any network device that dos not have the same SSID configured.
5. Which of these consumer electronics may cause interference with 802.111b wireless networks? (Select two.)

A. Wireless telephones
B. Wireless baby monitors
C. Cellular telephones
D. Television remote controls
Chapter 15

A. Wireless telephones
B. Wireless baby monitors
6. Which of the following advantages does WPA have over WEP? (Select three.)

A. End-to-end data packet encryption
B. EAP user authentication
C. Encryption key integrity checking
D. 128-bit data encryption
Chapter 15

A. End-to-end data packet encryption
B. EAP user authentication
C. Encryption key integrity checking
7. What hardware enables wireless PCs to connect to resources on a wired network segment in infrastructure mode? (Select two.)

A. An access point
B. A router
C. A hub
D. A wireless ridge
Chapter 15

A. WAP server

D. NAS server
8. What do you call a wireless Ethernet network in infrastructure mode with more than one access point?

A. BSS
B. EBSS
C. WBSS
D. EXNet
Chapter 15

B. EBSS
9. What type of server supports EAP-encrypted passwords in accordance with the 802.1X standard?

A. WAP server
B. WEP server
C. RADIUS server
D. NAS server
Chapter 15

C. RADIUS server
10. Which of the following is the most secure method of wireless encryption?

A. WEP
B. WEP2
C. WPA
D. WPA2
Chapter 15

D. WPA2
1. What is the most common technique for protecting a network?

A. Port filtering
B. Hiding IP addresses
C. Packet filtering
D. Encryption
Chapter 16

B. Hiding IP addresses
2. Which of the following blocks IP packets using any port other than the ones prescribed by the system administrator?

A. Hiding IP addresses
B. Port filtering
C. Packet filtering
D. Encryption
Chapter 16

B. Port filtering
3. Which of the following blocks any incoming or outgoing packets from a particular IP address or range of IP addresses?

A. Hiding IP addresses
B. Port filtering
C. Packet filtering
D. Encryption
Chapter 16

C. Packet filtering
4. What are the names of the administrative accounts on Windows and Linux?

A. “Administrator” on both
B. “Administrator” on Windows, “admin” on Linux
C. “Admin” on Windows, “root” on Linux
D. “Administrator” on Windows, “root” on Linux
Chapter 16

D. “Administrator” on Windows, “root” on Linux
5. Which type of packet filtering is the most powerful?

A. IP filtering
B. Stateful filtering
C. Stateless filtering
D. Port filtering
Chapter 16

B. Stateful filtering
6. You receive a call at your desk from someone claiming to be the new supervisor for the sales department. The caller says he forgot his password and asks if you can kindly remind him of what it is. How can this call be categorized? (Select Three)

A. Internal threat
B. External threat
C. Social engineering
D. Denial of service
Chapter 16

A. Internal threat
B. External threat
C. Social engineering
7. RAID is an implementation of what concept?

A. Phishing prevention
B. Fault tolerance
C. Network encryption
D. User account control
Chapter 16

B. Fault tolerance
8. John is a member of the Sales group, which has Read permissions on a file. He is also a member of Tech group, which has Write permissions on the same file. What are John’s effective permissions on the file?

A. Read only
B. Write only
C. Read and Write
D. No access
Chapter 16

C. Read and Write
9. Which are examples of malware? (Select all apply.)

A. Virus
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Rootkit
Chapter 16

A. Virus
B. Worm
C. Trojan
D. Rootkit
10. What is the difference between a DoS and a DDoS?

A. A DoS uses a single zombie whereas a DDoS uses a botnet to attack a single system.
B. A DoS uses a botnet whereas a DDoS uses a Zombie to attack a single system.
C. A DoS attacks a single system whereas a DDoS attacks multiple systems.
D. A DoS attacks systems on the Internet whereas a DDos attacks systems in a DMZ.
Chapter 16

A. A DoS uses a single zombie whereas a DDoS uses a botnet to attack a single system.
1. Upgrading which component of a host machine would most likely enable you to run more virtual machines simultaneously?

A. CPU
B. Hard drive
C. RAM
D. Windows
Chapter 17

C. RAM
2. What enables two VMs hosted on the same physical machine to communicate without leaving the machine itself?

A. Naas
B. Virtual LAN
C. Virtual PBX
D. Virtual switch
Chapter 17

D. Virtual switch
3. What is the difference between a virtual machine (VM) and an emulator?

A. A VM converts commands to from a host machine to an entirely different platform, whereas an emulator creates an environment based on the host machine and does no converting.
B. An emulator converts commands to and from a host machine to an entirely different platform, whereas a VM creates an environment based on the host machine and does no converting.
C. An emulator requires a host OS, whereas a VM runs on bare-metal servers without an OS.
D. A VM requires a host OS whereas an emulator runs on bare-metal servers without an OS.
Chapter 17



B. An emulator converts commands to and from a host machine to an entirely different platform, whereas a VM creates an environment based on the host machine and does no converting.
4. Which program handles telephone switching in 4. software rather than hardware?

A. Virtual LAN
B. Virtual PBX
C. Virtual switch
D. Virtual 64 block
Chapter 17

B. Virtual PBX
5. What do you make when you save a copy of a VM?

A. Replacement
B. Save
C. Snapshot
D. Zip
Chapter 17

C. Snapshot
6. What do you need to install a legal copy of Windows 7 Professional into a virtual machine using VMware Workstation?

A. A valid VM key
B. A valid Windows 7 Professional installation media
C. A valid ESX key
D. A second NIC
Chapter 17

B. A valid Windows 7 Professional installation media
7. What is a key benefit of Network as A Service?

A. The network hardware is managed locally.
B. The network service is managed by someone else.
C. The network service is managed locally.
D. The monthly subscription fee reduces cost.
Chapter 17

B. The network service is managed by someone else.
8. What is the benefit of ESX over VMware Workstation?

A. ESX costs less.
B. ESX is easier to set up.
C. ESX uses less electricity.
D. You can move a running VM from one machine to another with ESX.
Chapter 17

D. You can move a running VM from one machine to another with ESX
9. Which of the following is not a good reason for virtualization?

A. Power saving
B. Hardware consolidation
C. System recovery
D. Reduced hardware costs
Chapter 17

D. Reduced hardware costs
VMware Workstation replaces CTL-ALT-DELETE with

A. A mouse click
B. CTRL-ALT-INSERT
C. CTRL-ALT-TAB
D. CTRL-ALT-SHIFT
Chapter 17

D. CTRL-ALT-SHIFT
1. Which of the following describes standards for physical wiring in a network?

A. Baseline
B. Demarc
C. Network diagram
D. Wiring scheme
Chapter 18

D. Wiring scheme
2. Which of the following defines the type of connection or technology used in a network and maps how each machine connects?

A. Baseline
B. Demarc
C. Network diagram
D. Wiring scheme
Chapter 18

C. Network diagram
3. John wants to analyze the procedure of adding a new file server on his network. What should he do?

A. Ask his supervisor.
B. Check the change management documentation.
C. Redraw the network diagram
D. Redraw the wiring diagram.
Chapter 18

B. Check the change management documentation.
4. What defines the performance of the network when everything is working properly?

A. Baseline
B. Dermarc
C. Network diagram
D. Wiring diagram
Chapter 18

A. Baseline
5. What tool enables you to view the behavior of hardware and other resources on a computer?

A. Baseline
B. Network Monitor
C. Performance Monitor
D. System Monitor
Chapter 18

C. Performance Monitor
6. What is the record of data about your system?

A. Counter
B. Log
C. Node
D. Object
Chapter 18

B. Log
7. How can you ensure that your servers will continue to run during a blackout?

A. Implement load balancing.
B. Implement network monitoring.
C. Install a backup generator.
D. Install a traffic shaper.
Chapter 18

C. Install a backup generator.
8. Grandfather, father, son is an example of what?

A. Backup rotation
B. Log file entries.
C. RAID array
D. Bandwidth shaping
Chapter 18

A. Backup rotation
9. What is minimum number of drives required for a RAID 5 array?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Chapter 18

C. Three
What tool in Windows enables you to look at log files?

A. Baseline Viewer
B. Event Viewer
C. Network Monitor
D. Performance Monitor
Chapter 18

B. Event Viewer
1. What’s the first step needed when building a SOHO network?

A. Define the network needs.
B. Design the network.
C. Select network infrastructure.
D. Pull cable.
Chapter 19

A. Define the network needs.
2. When you have a cable pulled, what should the installer provide you in terms of documentation?

A. The documentation should show the length of all runs labeling, CAT ratings, and a floor plan.
B. The installer only needs to label the cables.
C. The installer only needs to pull the cables.
D. The documentation should show the width of the cables and the cost of the runs.
Chapter 19

A. The documentation should show the length of all runs labeling, CAT ratings, and a floor plan.
3. What issues should you consider when setting up a server closet?

A. Make certain the server closet has adequate cooling.
B. Make certain the server closet has a solid electrical circuit.
C. Make certain the server closet has a dedicated electrical circuit.
D. Make certain the server closet has adequate cooling and a dedicated electrical circuit.
Chapter 19

D. Make certain the server closet has adequate cooling and a dedicated electrical circuit.
4. What program enables you to access a server when the server is turned off?

A. GBIC
B. LOM
C. PBX
D. Virtual PBX
Chapter 19

B. LOM
5. Which of the following block of IP addresses would be best for a private network that has an Internet connection through a gateway router?

A. 10.200.65.0 /8
B. 135.10.0.0 /16
C. 192.168.1.0 /24
D. 225.1.1.9 /16
Chapter 19

A. 10.200.65.0 /8
6. Which of the following devices would enable you to add, not replace, a port on a typical Cisco switch?

A. GBIC
B. HWIC
C. PBX
D. SFP
Chapter 19

B. HWIC
John installed a new router that’s running more slowly than it should. He suspects some type of mismatch between the Ethernet frame and the frame needed by the DSL. When he tries to ping the router, though, he gets no response. He can access the router through its Web interface just fine. What could the problem be?

A. The connection between his system and the router is down.
B. The router is an MTU black hole.
C. The MTU mismatch has blocked ping.
D. The router is running PMTU.
Chapter 19

B. The router is an MTU black hole.
8. Melissa replaced a faulty SFP with another one from the server room. The new one doesn’t enable a connection. What’s an option to fix the problem?

A. Replace the router.
B. Replace the server.
C. Replace the SFP.
D. Reinstall Windows Server.
Chapter 19

C. Replace the SFP.
9. Which of the following is a dedicated computer that’s preconfigured to offer file storage for many types of client computers.?

A. Active Directory
B. NAS
C. PAN
D. SPAN
Chapter 19

B. NAS
What type of electrical setup is ideal for a network closet?

A. Circuits shared with no more than two other locations
B. Dedicated circuit
C. High-voltage circuit
D. Any circuit will do.
Chapter 19

B. Dedicated circuit
1. When should you use a cable tester to troubleshoot a network cable?

A. When you have a host experiencing a very slow connection
B. When you have an intermittent connection problem
C. When you have a dead connection and you suspect a broken cable
D. When you are typing to find the correct cable up in the plenum
Chapter 20

C. When you have a dead connection and you suspect a broken cable
2. What are tone probes and tone generators used for?

A. Locating a particular cable
B. Testing the dial tone on a PBX system
C. A long=duration ping test
D. As safety equipment when working in crawl spaces
Chapter 20

A. Locating a particular cable
3. What does nslookup do?

A. Retrieves the name space for the network
B. Queries DNS for the IP address of the supplied host name
C. Performs a reverse IP lookup
D. Lists the current running network services on localhost
Chapter 20

B. Queries DNS for the IP address of the supplied host name
4. What is Wireshark?

A. Protocol analyzer
B. Packet sniffer
C. Packet analyzer
D. All of the above
Chapter 20

D. All of the above
5. What will the command ‘route print’ return on a Windows system?

A. The results of the last tracert
B. The gateway’s router table
C. The routes taken by a concurrent connection
D. The current system’s route table
Chapter 20

D. The current system’s route table
6. When trying to establish symptoms over the phone, what kind of questions should you ask of a novice or confused user?

A. You should ask open-ended questions and let the user explain the problem in his or her own words.
B. You should ask detailed, closed-ended questions to try and narrow down the possible causes.
C. Leading questions are your best choice for pointing the user in the right direction.
D. None: ask the user to bring the machine in because it is useless to troubleshoot over the phone.
Chapter 20

A. You should ask open-ended questions and let the user explain the problem in his or her own words.
7. While you are asking the user problem-isolating questions, what else should you be doing?

A. Asking yourself if there is anything on your side of the network that could be causing the problem.
B. Nothing: just keep asking the user questions.
C. Using an accusatory tone with the user.
D. Playing solitaire.
Chapter 20

A. Asking yourself if there is anything on your side of the network that could be causing the problem.
8. Once you have implemented your solution, you should always ___________.

A. Close the ticket.
B. Verify full system functionality.
C. Return the machine.
D. Reboot
Chapter 20

B. Verify full system functionality.
9. What is the last step in the troubleshooting process?

A. Implementing the solution
B. Testing the solution
C. Documenting the solution
D. Closing the help ticket
Chapter 20

C. Documenting the solution
One of your users calls you with a complaint that he can’t reach the site www.google.com. You try and access the site and discover you can’t connect either, but you can ping the site with its IP address. What is the most probable culprit?

A. The workgroup switch is down.
B. Google is down.
C. The gateway is down.
D. The DNS server is down.
Chapter 20

D. The DNS server is down.