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220 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
The greatest legal concerns for a personal trainer are: |
Pre-activity health screening of clients, interpreting the results, the development of |
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(T/F) A failure to screen or even perform screening which results in client injury may |
True |
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(T/F) Employers may not be responsible for the actions of their employees. |
False |
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(T/F) It is recommended to utilize applicable protective documents such as waivers, |
True |
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(T/F) It is not recommended to obtain liability insurance when working as an |
False |
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(T/F) Professionalism has nothing to do with punctuality, appearance, presentation, |
False |
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Name the four chambers of the heart. |
Left and Right Ventricles, Left and Right Atriums. |
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Name the three energy systems. |
ATP/Creatine-Phosphate, Glycolysis, Aerobic Oxidation. |
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What is the prime mover, antagonist and stabilizers for the bench press? |
Pectoralis Major (middle and upper fibers emphasized). Rhomboids, Trapezius, |
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What causes post exercise soreness and what do you do about it? |
Microtrauma to the muscle tissue. PRICE, light stretching or active rest and hydrate. |
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Describe what occurs during the systolic and diastolic phase of blood pressure. What |
Systolic is the pressure in the arterial walls during ventricular contraction. Diastolic |
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What is the difference between slow and fast twitch muscle? |
Slow twitch muscle fibers have slow shortening velocities, are red, endurance and |
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What might be the fat burning target heart range for a 45-year old individual with a |
Using the Karvonen formula and calculating the training heart rate based on Zone 1 |
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What is the all or none theory? |
When a myofiber is innervated by a nerve cell, it contracts totally or not at all. |
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Explain the difference between concentric and eccentric in resistance training. |
A concentric contraction is the shortening of the muscle fibers. An eccentric |
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Name two functions of blood. |
Transport oxygen and nutrients to the cell and removes wastes and carbon dioxide |
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What is the definition of OBLA? |
Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation. |
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How could you determine maximum heart rate and training heart rate when designing |
VO2 Max test, 220 - age x % = THR, 220 - age - RHR x % + RHR = THR (Karvonen), |
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Discuss the concept of periodicity. |
The gradual cycling of specificity, intensity, volume, duration, and frequency to |
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What is the Valsalva Maneuver? |
Exhaling forcibly with the glottis closed. |
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What does the abbreviation ATP mean? |
Adenosine Triphosphate. |
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With exercise lasting longer than ten seconds what system kicks in to provide ATP? |
Glycolytic System. |
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How long does Glycolysis last? |
From ten seconds to three minutes. |
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Define reciprocal inhibition. |
When an agonist or prime mover is called upon to perform a desired motion, the |
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What is a Co-contraction? |
When the agonist and antagonist contract simultaneously. |
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What is a spurt muscle? Give an example. |
Muscles that have their distal tendon close to the joint axis. Biceps Brachii. |
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What is a double-jointed muscle? |
A muscle in the body that crosses two joints and is able to produce motion at more |
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Define the term reversibility. |
A major decrease in strength and aerobic capacity are apparent after two weeks |
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What would afferent information be? |
Afferent information is nerve impulses from receptors or sense organs toward the |
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What is a motor unit? |
A single a-motor neuron and all of the corresponding muscle fibers it innervates. |
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Janda suggested there is a group of postural muscles involved in static tasks such as |
Tonic muscularature. |
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What body type is characterized by a muscular build? |
Mesomorph. |
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When a client has a decrease in appetite, inability to sleep and elevated rate heart, they |
Overtraining. |
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The fascia that surrounds bundles of muscle fibers is called? |
Fasiculi. |
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Which contraction is the strongest; concentric, eccentric or isometric? |
Eccentric. |
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Define Visceral or smooth muscles. |
Visceral or smooth muscles operate blood vessels and tubular organs such as the |
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Define the origin of a mucsle. |
Is the attachment nearest the midline of the body and/or the end attached to the least |
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List three reasons why eating 5 - 6 meals a day is more effective. |
Thermogenic effect of food, steady supply of nutrients, and smaller amounts do not |
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What is the ACSM recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins and fats for health? |
58% Carbohydrates, 30% or >30% fat, and 12% protein. |
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What are vitamins? |
Vitamins are organic food substances found only in living things, such as, plants and |
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How much water should a person drink a day? |
For men 125oz, for women 91oz |
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How many calories are in: One gram of fat: One gram of carbohydrates: One gram of |
9, 4, 4, 0. |
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The essential Amino Acids are: |
Phenylalanine, Valine, Threonine, Methionine, Tryptophan, Histidine, Isoleucine, |
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Define basal metabolic rate. |
BMR is the amount of energy expended to support the ongoing metabolic work of the body’s cells at rest. |
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What major role does potassium play in the body? |
Production of energy, muscle contraction, beating of the heart, synthesis of protein, |
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What is the Institute of Medicine's recommended intake of carbohydrates, proteins |
45-65% carbohydrates, 10-35% protein, 20-35% fat. |
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What hormone does the pancreas release in response to high concentration of blood |
Insulin. |
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What macronutrient provides the majority of the energy used by muscles in the first |
Carbohydrate. |
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Give an example of a saturated fat. |
Any fat that is solid at room temperature and/or palm and coconut oil. |
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According to the Food Guide Pyramid which category of foods offer high-quality protein? |
Meats. |
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Which type of vitamins may have a risk for toxicities? |
Fat-soluble vitamins. |
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According to the American Dietetic Association, a person should drink _____8 oz of water per day. |
8. |
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What is the acronym RDA stand for? |
Recommended Dietary Allowance. |
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Give examples of a disaccharide. |
Maltose, lactose or sucrose are a few examples. |
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Name the essential fats. |
Linolenic and linoleic acids. |
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List some of the benefits of vitamin C. |
Helps to maintain collagen, can reduce histamines and is an antioxidant. |
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What vitamin is most affected by the industrialization of our food supply? |
B vitamins. |
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How many calories are in a food that contains 20 grams of carbohydrates, 42 grams of |
356 calories. |
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The recommended intake for dietary fiber is: |
25-30 grams. |
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8 grams per kilogram is the RDA recommendation for healthy adults for which |
Protein. |
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Galactose and glucose make up the disaccharide: |
Lactose. |
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While the body is at rest, what percentage of fat is utilized for fuel? |
60%. |
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Glucose and fructose are examples of: |
Monosaccharides. |
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Which vitamin helps maintain collagen? |
Vitamin C. |
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What is collagen? |
The most abundant protein in the body. |
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Define the term Golgi Tendon Organ. |
A sensory organ situated at the musculotendinous junction. |
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What is a dynamic stretch? |
The body’s own movement causes the stretch. |
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What is ballistic stretching? |
Uncontrolled bouncing, jerking, bobbing or pulsing to achieve greater ROM. |
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What are the dangers of hyper flexibility? |
May cause joint instability and precautions during pregnancy would include |
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What sensory receptor activates the stretch reflex mechanism? |
Muscle spindle. |
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What can you do to increase the efficiency in the process of reciprocal innervation? |
A good warm up. |
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Flexibility around a joint is affected by: |
Bone structure, ligaments, elasticity of skin, muscles, tendons and fascia. |
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Tendons are resistant to what kind of force? |
Tensile forces. |
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Define the term elastic. |
The ability to return back to their original shape. |
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The “ability to return to its original shape” is the definition of: |
Elastic. |
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The sensory receptor involved in the stretch reflex mechanism is called: |
Muscle Spindle. |
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What percent of body fat for men and women is considered obese? |
Men 25% and Women 32%. |
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What is a form of treatment for Osteoarthritis? |
A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory or some form of analgesic. |
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What is Rheumatoid Arthritis? |
An autoimmune process resulting in inflammation of the synovial fluid contained in |
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What is Hypertension? |
High Blood Pressure. |
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Name two things a trainer should pay attention to if working with someone with |
The client should never do exercises with their head below the level of their heart and |
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What should a trainer pay attention to when working with a pregnant client in the |
Heart rate, core temperature, and making sure the client is not exercised to exhaustion. |
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How often should a pregnant woman consume water when exercising? How much |
At least every ten minutes. 16 to 32 ounces during a one hour session. |
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How many tender points must a person have to be diagnosed with Fibromyalgia? |
11 out of 18 tender points for three months or longer. |
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What is the primary symptom of Fibromyalgia? |
Muscle soreness. |
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What problems can Multiple Sclerosis cause? |
Muscle control, strength, vision, balance, sensation and mental functions. |
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What causes Multiple Sclerosis? |
Multiple Sclerosis is the process of demyelination and subsequent disruption of the |
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What should be avoided in an exercise program for someone with Multiple Sclerosis? |
Exercise programs should be designed to avoid over heating. |
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What response during exercise can you suspect from a client who is taking a Beta |
A client taking Beta Blockers can have a decreased exercise heart rate. |
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What response during submaximal testing can you suspect from a client who is |
A client taking a Calcium Channel Blocker can have a lower blood pressure when |
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What considerations should you take when training someone with cancer? |
Avoid high impact aerobic activity due to risk of bone fractures and avoid pressure or |
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What are some recommendation you might make to a client with osteoporosis? |
Avoid high impact aerobics, uncontrolled spinal flexion, decrease caffeine intake, |
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When training a client with AIDS/HIV, why is it important to wash your hands? |
To protect them from being exposed to other infections. |
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Are sit ups a recommended exercise for a pregnant woman in her second trimester? |
No. |
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What can cause Exercise Induced Asthma (EIA)? |
Cold air and specific intensities and durations. Going too hard too fast. |
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Define diastasis. |
Diastasis is the separation of the rectus abdominis muscle. |
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What are some of the considerations when training someone with cancer? |
General weakness, nausea, risk of bone fractures and bruising from pressure or friction |
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When training a client with osteoporosis, is it better to perform weight-bearing or non |
Weight-bearing exercise. |
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Considerations when training someone with AIDS/HIV include: |
Washing your hands to protect the client from exposure to other infections. |
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What is an anatomical position? |
In this position the body is in an erect stance, facing forward, arms at the side of the |
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Define the term supination. |
Movement in which the palms face forward in anatomical position. |
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Define the term external. |
Refers to a segment rotating around a vertical axis so that the anterior surface of the |
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What is circumduction? |
An imaginary “O”. Actually a combination of four movements: flexion, adduction, |
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What is circumduction? |
Pertaining towards the head. |
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What is Caudal? |
Pertaining to the tail end. |
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(T/F) The term bilateral refers to both sides. |
True. |
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(T/F) The terms posterior/dorsal both refer to the back of the body. |
True. |
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What means do the anatomical planes provide? |
They are means of communication or describing motion. |
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Define the term flexion. Give one example. |
Flexion occurs when the joint motion is moving away from neutral in the sagittal |
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Define the term extension. Give one example. |
Extension occurs when the joint motion is moving from a position of flexion back to, |
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Name the three planes of motion. |
Sagittal or Median; Frontal or Coronal; Horizontal or Transverse planes of motion. |
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Which muscles flex the elbow joint? |
Biceps Brachii, Brachialis, an Brachioradialis. |
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The Pes Anserinus consists of: |
Latin for “Gooses Foot.” The insertion of the Gracilis, Semitendinosus, and the |
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An example of a closed kinematic exercise chain exercise would be? |
The bench press. |
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Name the four muscles of the Rotator Cuff. |
S.I.T.S. - Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres Minor and Subscapularis. |
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What are the five main spinal regions? |
Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccyx. |
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Name the origin and insertion of the rectus abdominis muscle. What action does it |
Origin: Pubic Crest or Pubic Symphysis. Insertion: Xiphoid Process and the Costal |
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What muscle plantar flexes the foot? |
Gastrocnemius. |
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What muscles dorsiflexes the ankle? |
Tibialis Anterior. |
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What type of joint allows flexion and extension? |
A ball and socket or a hinge joint. |
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Give an example of a fusiform muscle. |
Biceps brachii, sartorious, brachialis, rectus femoris and rectus abdominis. |
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What makes up the shoulder girdle? |
The clavicle and the scapula. |
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What does the triceps surae consist of? |
The two heads of the gastrocnemius and the soleus. |
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Name the muscles of the quadraceps. |
Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus inermedius and rectus femoris. |
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What is the longest muscle in your body? |
Sartorius. |
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What is the longest bone in your body? |
Femur. |
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Define a sesamoid bone. |
A short bone embedded within a tendon or joint capsule. An example would be the |
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What are the three basic body types in Somatotyping? |
Ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph. |
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What types of muscles maintain a joint in a static position? |
Stabilizers. |
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Name the thee heads of the triceps brachii. |
Long, lateral and medial. |
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How many vertebrae are found in the cervical region of the spine? |
Seven. |
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What is the origin and insertion for the pectoralis major? |
Origin: Medial half of the clavicle, the sternum, the costal cartilages of the upper six |
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The deltoids and the gluteus maximus are examples of: |
Penniform muscles. |
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Give an example of a Class II lever system. |
A wheel barrow, can opener or the MTP joint in plantar flexion. |
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Which muscle dorsiflexes the ankle? |
Tibialis anterior. |
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What motions are performed by the iliopsoas? |
Hip flexion and external rotation concentrically, hip extension and internal rotation |
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What are the names of the three heads of the triceps brachii? |
Long, lateral and medial. |
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What are the six questions you should address to determine the effectiveness of any |
Determine the motion. Determine the direction of resistance. Determine the starting |
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What do the trunk muscles consist of? |
Back extensors that bend the trunk backward, lateral flexors that bend it sideways and anterior abdominals that bend it forward. |
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Movement from the extremities originate and emanate from? |
The Core. |
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How should a client position themselves for the supine pelvic hold level 1? |
Lying with back arched naturally. Feet portioned as close to buttocks as possible. |
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What percentage of the adult population will experience low back pain? |
80%. |
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What is the starting position for the back extension machine? |
Seated in ideal alignment with arms crossed, line up hip joint with axis of machine. |
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What are the mechanical points for the reverse crunch? |
Do not throw the legs, placing arms above head will help with balance, do not move |
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What is considered to be normal ROM in horizontal abduction? |
30 - 45 degrees. |
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What is the motion in a seated cable row? Direction of resistance? |
Shoulder extension concentrically. Outward. |
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How can you make the dumbbell pullover a safer exercise? |
Decline bench makes a better shoulder position, alter speed, bend elbows, or, apply |
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What is the risk/benefit of the butt blaster machine? |
Risk: body weight plus resistance is resting on one knee, really tough to stabilize |
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What is a Q angle? |
Is formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and the line of pull of the patellar |
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An individual’s mechanical ability to perform multiple joint movements |
The length of the levers or segments connecting these joints. |
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When performing a prone leg curl the pivot point of the machine should be lined up |
Axis of rotation of the knee. |
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List two machines that train the latissimus dorsi? |
Pull up bar, lat-pulldown machine or a row machine. |
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What is a Carrying Angle? |
The angle formed between the humerus and the forearm. |
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What are the prime movers in a squat? |
Quadraceps at the knee and the Gluteus maximus at the hip. |
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What muscles are antagonists at the hip in hip extension? |
Hip Flexors. |
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What are the agonists in a preacher curl? |
Biceps brachii, brachioradialis and brachialis. |
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How much does the intradiscal pressure increase when we are in a seated flexed position? |
30-40%. |
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What is the normal range of motion in shoulder flexion? |
160-180 degrees. |
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In a seated position, intradiscal pressure increases: |
30-40%. |
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What are some of the risks when performing an upright row? |
Excessive internal rotation during abduction. |
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When a multi-joint, compound exercise is executed immediately after a single joint |
Pre-exhaustion. |
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What muscles must be stretched when a client has a protracted shoulder girdle? |
Pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, subscapularis and anterior deltoid. |
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A squat, bench press, barbell curl and a leg press are examples of: |
A closed kinetic chain exercise. |
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What are the prime movers in a leg press? |
Vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius and rectus femoris. |
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What is the difference between muscular strength and muscular endurance? |
Muscular Strength is the ability of a muscle to exert a force. Muscular Endurance is |
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If you train the bench press and the triceps push-down which would usually be trained |
The bench press. |
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Define the term volume. |
Volume can be measured by the total amount of work performed in a training |
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Define the term intensity. |
Intensity is a measure of one’s applied strength relative to their current level of |
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When do type 2A muscle fibers fatigue? |
Begin at six seconds and fully fatigue at 30-120 seconds. |
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How much time under tension is needed to receive an Aerobic/Muscular Endurance |
Greater than 70 seconds. |
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What is absolute strength? |
The maximum amount of force an individual can produce, irrespective of body |
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When working with loads under 60% of maximum how long should the rest periods |
Approximately 45 seconds to two minutes. |
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What is the double double training technique? |
In this technique the user performs two different double jointed exercises for the same |
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What are the four components of a fitness routine? |
Flexibility, stabilization/balance, strength/hypertrophy, cardiovascular. |
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Define unilateral training. |
Flexibility, stabilization/balance, strength/hypertrophy, cardiovascular. |
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For a hypertrophic effect to occur the repetition range should be: |
Six to twelve repetitions per set. |
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Using the Karvonen formula, calculate the training heart rate (THR) of 70% for a |
For the 40-year old with a resting HR or 30 bpm, a THR of 70% = 135bpm. For the |
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Normal resting heart rates are: |
60-100 beats per minute (bpm). |
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A normal blood pressure reading is: |
120/80 mm/Hg. |
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Dividing the body weight in kilograms by the height in meters squared (kg/m2) |
Body Max Index (BMI). |
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Force times distance divided by time equals? (F x D÷T=)? |
Power. |
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The stretch shortening cycle is the sequence of: |
Eccentric action followed by a concentric action. |
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For how long should you take someone’s pulse after the step test? |
One Minute. |
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What are two purposes of fitness testing? |
To provide information that is helpful in prescribing an exercise program. Educating |
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What are two reasons an accurate resting heart rate measurement is important? |
It is used for the calculation of exercise target heart rate, exercise test, and exercise |
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What is considered to be an optimal blood pressure reading? |
120 systolic and 80 diastolic. |
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How long does the push-up test last? |
Until the client can no longer complete another repetition or correct alignment can no |
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What are the standard sites for women from the 3-site skinfold formula? |
Triceps brachii, suprailiac and thigh. |
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What does the acronym BMI stand for? |
Body Mass Index. |
|
A BMI measurement of 32 may be considered: |
Class 1 obesity. |
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What is the metronome setting for the 3-minute step test? |
96 bpm. |
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What fitness assessment measures the endurance capabilities of the rectus adominis, |
The sit-up test. |
|
What is Upper Cross Syndrome? |
Forward head posture. Muscles short and facilitated: neck extensors, upper trapezius, |
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Normal range of motion for hip extension is: |
15 – 30 degrees. |
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Upper Cross Syndrome is characterized by: |
Short cervical extensors and pectoralis major. Long rhomboids, mid trapezius and cervical |
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Which method of assessing body fat has a lower estimated accuracy range; hydrostatic |
Hydrostatic weighing is plus or minus 2.5% and BIA is plus or minus 4%. |
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How many beats per minute should you set the metronome at for the YMCA 3-minute |
96 beats per minute (bpm). |
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Normal range of motion for shoulder flexion is: |
160 – 180 degrees. |
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Subcutaneous fat levels in individuals are affected by: |
Gender, body type, age and activity levels. |
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In the treatment for common injuries, what does the acronym P.R.I.C.E. mean? |
Protect, Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation. |
|
List two reasons why you should call 911. |
If the victim is unconscious, is bleeding severely. Any from the list on page 11-2. |
|
How do you treat heat cramps? |
Rest, gentle stretches, ice, re-hydrate. |
|
What are the symptoms of a sprain? |
Swelling, limitations of ROM, discoloration, soreness. |
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How do you treat a contusion? |
Apply Ice. |
|
What are the symptoms of cardiac arrest? |
Heart stops beating, no pulse, no breathing, ischemia (lack of oxygen to the heart). |
|
How do you treat a blister? |
If punctured, cleanse blister, protect with pad and dressing. |
|
What are the symptoms of fainting? |
Light headedness, dizziness, paleness, light sweating. |
|
What is the treatment for heatstroke? |
Call 911 and try to cool the person down. |
|
What is the treatment for an epileptic seizure? |
Remove objects that might injure them. Protect their head. Do not place your finger, |
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What are signs of heat exhaustion? |
Pale, clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, weakness, headache or nausea. |
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True or False? When someone suffers from an epileptic seizure you should place a hard |
False. |
|
What are some signs of hypoglycemia? |
Excessive hunger, dizziness or weakness. |
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Explain the difference between using free weights and selectorized equipment. |
Free weights are functional, real life, easy to transport and require technique. Machines require less technique and less stabilization from the user. Because of the |
|
What are the concerns to be aware of when using free weights? |
Awkwardness, potential danger to the body from lack of control, skill needed, |
|
How much does a Cybex hack squat carriage weigh? |
65 pounds. |
|
What is the weight of a 7-foot Olympic bar? |
45 pounds. |
|
What is the weight of an E-Z curl bar? |
25 pounds. |
|
T/F) Lack of physical activity is a risk factor for heart disease. |
True |
|
How many deaths in the U. S. per year are attributed to lack of physical fitness? |
250,000 |
|
Of people age 55 and older, what percentage report essentially sedentary lifestyles? |
38 percent. |