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55 Cards in this Set

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1) Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a facultative anaerobe in the absence of O2?



A) a


B) b


C) c

Answer: B

2) In Figure 6.1,which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2?



A) a


B) b


C) c

Answer: C

3) In Figure 6.1, which line shows the growth of an obligate aerobe incubated anaerobically?



A) a


B) b


C) c


Answer: C

4) In Figure 6.1, which line best illustrates the growth of a facultative anaerobe incubated aerobically?



A) a


B) b


C) c

Answer: A

5) In Figure 6.1, which line best depicts a psychrotroph incubated at 0C?



A) a


B) b


C) c

Answer: B

6) If cells are grown in media containing amino acids labeled with radioactive nitrogen (15N), most of the radioactivity will be found in the cells



A) DNA.


B) proteins.


C) phospholipids.


D) DNA and proteins.


E) DNA and phospholipids.

Answer: DNA and proteins

7) Which of the following elements is NOT correctly matched with its cellular function?



A) nitrogen needed for amino acid synthesis


B) phosphorus incorporated into nucleic acids


C) sulfur used for synthesis of thiamin and biotin


D) magnesium and potassium required as cofactors for enzymes


E) phosphorus used for production of carbohydrates.


Answer: Phosphorus used for production of carbohydrates

8) Pathogenic bacteria isolated from the respiratory or intestinal tracts of humans are



A) strict aerobes that grow best in candle jars.


B) capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators.


C) facultative anaerobes that require reducing media for growth.


D) strict aerobes that grow best in reducing media.


E) capnophiles that prefer highly oxygenated growth conditions.

Answer: Capnophiles that grow best in carbon dioxide incubators

9) The biosafety level (BSL) for most introductory microbiology laboratories is



A) BSL-1.


B) BSL-2.


C) BSL-3.


D) BSL-4.

Answer: BSL-1

10) The biosafety level (BSL) for a clinical microbiology laboratory working with potentially airborne pathogens, such as tuberculosis bacteria, is



A) BSL-1.


B) BSL-2.


C) BSL-3.


D) BSL-4.

Answer: BSL-3

11) A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count assay. A one-milliliter sample of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained



A) 54 cells per milliliter.


B) 540 cells per milliliter.


C) 5,400 cells per milliliter.


D) 54,000 cells per milliliter.


E) 540,000 cells per milliliter.

Answer: 54,000 cells per milliliter

12) The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids?



A) buffers


B) sugars


C) pH


D) heat


E) carbon

Answer: Buffers

13) Salts and sugars work to preserve foods by creating a



A) depletion of nutrients.


B) hypotonic environment.


C) lower osmotic pressure.


D) hypertonic environment.


E) lower pH.


Answer: Hypertonic environment

14) The term aerotolerant anaerobe refers to an organism that



A) does not use oxygen but tolerates it.


B) is killed by oxygen.


C) tolerates normal atmospheric nitrogen gas levels.


D) requires less oxygen than is present in air.


E) requires more oxygen than is present in air.

Answer: Does not use oxygen but tolerates it

15) Which of the following is an advantage of the standard plate count?



A) can readily count cells that form aggregates


B) determines the number of viable cells


C) can be performed on very dilute samples, such as lake water


D) provides immediate results


E) can be used to count heat-sensitive bacteria


Answer: Determines the number of viable cells

16) Which of the following is an advantage of the direct microscopic count?



A) can readily count organisms that are motile


B) can easily distinguish live from dead cells


C) requires no incubation time


D) sample volume is unknown


E) requires a large number of cells

Answer: Requires no incubation time

17) Most bacteria reproduce by



A) aerial hyphae.


B) fragmentation.


C) mitosis.


D) binary fission.


E) budding.

Answer: Binary fission

18) Thirty-six colonies grew in nutrient agar from 1.0 ml of undiluted sample in a standard plate count. How many cells were in the original sample?



A) 4 per milliliter


B) 9 per milliliter


C) 18 per milliliter


D) 36 per milliliter


E) 72 per milliliter

Answer: 36 per milliliter

19) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section (or sections) shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing?



A) a


B) b


C) c


D) d


E) a and c

Answer: C

20) Figure 6.2 shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which sections of the graph illustrate a logarithmic change in cell numbers?



A) a and c


B) b and d


C) a and b


D) c and d


E) a and d

Answer: B and D

21) Most bacteria grow best at pH



A) 1.


B) 5.


C) 7.


D) 9.


E) 14.

Answer: 7.

22) Most fungi grow best at pH



A) 1.


B) 5.


C) 7.


D) 9.


E) 14.

Answer: 5.

23) Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n)



A) selective medium.


B) differential medium.


C) enrichment culture.


D) selective and differential medium.


E) differential and enrichment culture.

Answer: Selective and differential medium

24) A culture medium consisting of agar, peptone, and beef heart is a



A) chemically defined medium.


B) complex medium.


C) selective medium.


D) differential medium.


E) reducing medium.


Answer: complex medium

25) Which of the following pairs of microbe classification terms and optimal growth temperatures is mismatched?



A) psychrotroph growth at 0C


B) thermophile growth at 37C


C) mesophile growth at 25C


D) psychrophile growth at 15C


E) hyperthermophiles growth at 85C

Answer: Thermophile growth at 37C

26) During which growth phase will gram-positive bacteria be most susceptible to penicillin?



A) lag phase


B) log phase


C) death phase


D) stationary phase


E) The culture is equally susceptible during all phases.

Answer: Log phase

27) Which of the following is the best definition of generation time?



A) the length of time needed for lag phase


B) the length of time needed for a cell to divide


C) the minimum rate of doubling


D) the duration of log phase


E) the time needed for nuclear division

Answer: The length of the time needed for a cell to divide

28) Which of the following is NOT a direct method to measure microbial growth?



A) direct microscopic count


B) standard plate count


C) filtration on a support membrane followed by incubation on medium


D) metabolic activity


E) most probable number (MPN)


Answer: Metabolic activity

29) Which group of microorganisms is most likely to spoil a freshwater trout preserved with salt?



A) psychrophiles


B) facultative halophiles


C) anaerobes


D) thermophiles


E) hyperthermophiles

Answer: Facultative halophiles

30) Which of the following is an organic growth factor?



A) glucose


B) vitamin B1


C) peptone


D) Mg+2


E) H2O

Answer: Vitamin B1

31) Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth?



A) standard plate count


B) glucose consumption


C) direct microscopic count


D) turbidity


E) most probable number (MPN)

Answer: Glucose consumption

32) An experiment began with 4 cells and ended with 128 cells. How many generations did the cells go through?



A) 64


B) 32


C) 6


D) 5


E) 4

Answer: 5

33) Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours?



A) 900


B) 180


C) 96


D) 32


E) 15


Answer: 96

34) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a microaerophile?



A) a


B) b


C) c


D) d


E) e

Answer: E

35) In Figure 6.3, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe?



A) a


B) b


C) c


D) d


E) e

Answer: B

36) In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. After each use, endoscopes were washed with an automatic reprocessor that flushed detergent and glutaraldehyde through the endoscopes, followed by a tap water rinse. P. aeruginosa serotype 10 was not isolated from the detergent, glutaraldehyde, or tap water. What was the source of the infections?



A) bacterial cell walls in the water


B) a biofilm in the reprocessor


C) contaminated disinfectant


D) fecal contamination of the bile ducts


E) None of the answers is correct.

Answer: A biofilm in the reprocessor

37) For the three types of media in Table 6.1, which medium (or media) is/are chemically defined?



A) A


B) B


C) C


D) A and B


E) A and C

Answer: A

38) In Table, 6.1, in which medium (or media) would an autotroph grow?



A) A


B) B


C) C


D) A and B


E) A and C

Answer: A

48) Pure cultures can easily be obtained on streak plates, even if the desired bacteria are present in very low concentrations in the initial culture broth.


True or False

Answer: False

49) Agar is used as a solidifying agent in microbiological media since few bacteria can degrade it.


True or False

Answer: True

50) Laboratory cultivation of obligate anaerobes requires reducing media or special growth chambers filled with inert gases.


True or False

Answer: True

51) Most pathogenic bacteria are thermophiles.


True or False

Answer: False

52) In performing a ten-fold dilutions series from a sample containing 10,000 bacteria per milliliter, the fourth tube in the dilution series will have 10 cells per milliliter.


True or False

Answer: False

53) Turbidity is an indirect measurement of bacterial growth that can be measured using a spectrophotometer.


True or False

Answer: True

54) Filtration methods, followed by growth of the bacteria trapped on the filters in growth media, are used to count bacteria present in very low concentrations, such as in lakes and streams.


True or False

Answer: True

55) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, can use atmospheric nitrogen (N2) for their nitrogen source.


True or False

Answer: True

39) Assume you inoculated 100 cells, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. You then inoculated 100 cells of the same species into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 4 hours, you can reasonably expect to have



A) more cells in the 100 ml.


B) more cells in the 200 ml.


C) the same number of cells in both.


D) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

Answer: The same number of cells in both

40) The source of nutrients in nutrient agar is



A) agar.


B) gelatin.


C) peptone and beef extract.


D) peptone and NaCl.


E) agar and NaCl.

Answer: Peptone and beef extract

41) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: O2 + O2 + 2H+ H2O2 + O2?



A) catalase


B) oxidase


C) peroxidase


D) superoxide dismutase

Answer: Superoxide dismutase

42) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: 2H2O2 2H2O + O2?



A) catalase


B) oxidase


C) peroxidase


D) superoxide dismutase

Answer: Catalase

43) Which enzyme catalyzes the reaction: H2O2 + 2H+ 2H2O?



A) catalase


B) oxidase


C) peroxidase


D) superoxide dismutase

Answer: Peroxidase

44) Table 6.2


The following data show growth of two bacteria on different media.


The data in Table 6.2 indicate that S. aureus is a(n)



A) mesophile.


B) facultative anaerobe.


C) facultative halophile.


D) aerobe.


E) halophile.

Answer: Facultative halophile.

45) Patients with indwelling catheters (long-term tubes inserted into body orifices for drainage, such as through the urethra and into the urinary bladder) are susceptible to infections because



A) injected solutions are contaminated.


B) their immune systems are weakened.


C) infections can be transmitted from other people.


D) biofilms develop on catheters.


E) bacteria cause infections.

Answer: Biofilms develop on catheters

46) An isolated colony on a streak plate contains millions (or even billions) of identical cells all arising from one initial cell.


True or False

Answer: True

47) Bacterial growth refers to an increase in the numbers of cells in a bacterial culture.


True or False

Answer: True