Explosives And Pyrotechnics

Front 1

What occurrence normally accompanies the
rapid release of energy produced by an ex-
plosive chemical reaction?
1. A fireball only
2. A fireball and a rapid rise in temperature
3. A rapid rise in pressure and a sonic blast
4. A rapid rise in temperature and pressure

Back 1

4. A rapid rise in temperature and pressure

Front 2

What factor causes the rapid release of energy
experienced during an explosive chemical
reaction?
1. The explosive material changing into a gas
2. The increase in temperature caused by the
expanding fireball
3. The restraining property of the explosive
container
4. The huge vacuum created by the explosion

Back 2

1. The explosive material changing into a gas

Front 3

An explosive compound that decomposes ex-
tremely fast is categorized as what type of
material?
1. As a propellant
2. As a low explosive
3. As a high explosive
4. As TNT

Back 3

3. As a high explosive

Front 4

What term describes the instantaneous decom-
position of an explosive material?
1. Defamation
2. Deflagration
3. Detonation
4. Disruption

Back 4

3. Detonation

Front 5

What feature of a low-explosive decomposi-
tion allows it to function as a propellant?
1. The heat produced
2. The gases produced
3. The force of detonation
4. The force of disruption

Back 5

4. The force of disruption

Front 6

What characteristic of an explosive reaction
represents its potential for doing work?
1. The heat produced
2. The velocity of the reaction
3. The pressure developed
4. The time of the reaction

Back 6

1. The heat produced

Front 7

What term defines a measurement of the shat-
tering ability of an explosive?
1. Brisance
2. Deflagration
3. Detonation
4. Explosiveness

Back 7

1. Brisance

Front 8

What term defines a measure of the energy
necessary to initiate an explosive?
1. Ignition temperature
2. Sensitivity
3. Stability
4. velocity

Back 8

2. Sensitivity

Front 9

What conditions determine the behavior of an
explosive material when it is heated?
1. The manner of confinement and its sensi-
tivity
2. Sensitivity and stability
3. Rate and manner of heating and manner of
confinement
4. Sensitivity and rate and manner of heating

Back 9

3. Rate and manner of heating and manner of
confinement

Front 10

What type of explosive material has its chem-
ical reaction time measured in feet per second?
1. High explosive
2. Low explosive
3. Primer
4. Propellant

Back 10

1. High explosive

Front 11

What is the most common method of initiating
low explosives?
1. Heat
2. Influence
3. Shock
4. Sympathetic

Back 11

1. Heat

Front 12

What method of initiation explodes a
small-explosive charge in contact with a larger,
less sensitive explosive to cause its initiation?
1. Heat
2. Influence
3. Shock
4. Sympathetic

Back 12

3. Shock

Front 13

What method of explosive initiation uses a
percussion initiator?
1. Heat
2. Influence
3. Shock
4. Sympathetic

Back 13

1. Heat

Front 14

What term describes the chain reaction that
leads to the detonation of the main buster
charge of a gun projectile?
1. Sympathetic explosion
2. Booster train
3. Explosive train
4. Progressive explosion

Back 14

3. Explosive train

Front 15

What device is used to increase the shock of
initiating explosives to the level necessary to
explode the main charge?
1. A focal cone
2. A lead styphnate igniter
3. An extension tube
4. A booster

Back 15

4. A booster

Front 16

What is the function of an intermediate charge?
1. To function between the booster and the
main charge
2. To detonate the booster
3. To amplify the effect of the booster
4. To cause a time delay in the chain reaction

Back 16

3. To amplify the effect of the booster

Front 17

What type of explosive is used in the igniter of
a gun-propelling charge?
1. Black powder
2. Intermediate
3. Nitrocellulose
4. Primer

Back 17

4. Primer

Front 18

What term defines the device used to initiate a
high-explosive bursting charge?
1. Booster
2. Detonator
3. Extension tube
4. Primer

Back 18

2. Detonator

Front 19

Primers are classified in what manner?
1. By the explosives they contain
2. By the time they take to function
3. By the method of initiation
4. By the length of the primer tube

Back 19

3. By the method of initiation

Front 20

What is the common ingredient in single-,
double-, and triple-based propellants?
1. Lead styphnate
2. Nitrocellulose
3. Nitroglycerine
4. Nitroguanidine

Back 20

2. Nitrocellulose

Front 21

The propellant grains in a 5/54 propelling
charge are in which of the following forms?
1. Cylindrical with one perforation
2. Cylindrical with seven perforations
3. Ball
4. Flake

Back 21

2. Cylindrical with seven perforations

Front 22

Cylindrical propellant grain sizes are normally
stated in which of the following terms?
1. Burning rate
2. Diameter
3. Length
4. Web thickness

Back 22

4. Web thickness

Front 23

What term defines a propellant grain with a
surface area that increases as the grain burns?
1. Ingressive
2. Neutral
3. Progressive
4. Regressive

Back 23

3. Progressive

Front 24

What term defines the loading process where
high explosives in liquid form are poured into
containers to solidify?
1. Cast-loading
2. Extrusion
3. Pour-casting
4. Press-loading

Back 24

1. Cast-loading

Front 25

What term defines explosives that easily
absorb moisture?
1. Hydro-absorbent
2. Hydro-sensitive
3. Hygroscopic
4. Water soluble

Back 25

3. Hygroscopic

Front 26

What is the oldest explosive known?
1. Black powder
2. Calloided cotton
3. Saltpeter
4. Sulfur

Back 26

1. Black powder

Front 27

What condition(s) speed(s) the deterioration of
smokeless powder?
1. Heat only
2. Moisture only
3. Heat and moisture
4. Heat and age

Back 27

3. Heat and moisture

Front 28

What propellant designation is used to identify
an SPDF type propellant mixed with potassium
sulfate?
1. M-6
2. M-6+2
3. SPCF
4. SPDB

Back 28

M-6+2. plus 2% potassium sulfate

Front 29

What propellant designation identifies a non-
hygroscopic, diphenylamine-stabilized smoke-
less powder?
1. SPDN
2. SPDF
3. SPDX
4. SPWF

Back 29

1. SPDN

Hint 29

SP - Smokeless powder
B - Blended
C - Stabilized by ethyl centralite
D - Stabilized by diphenylamine
F - Flashless powder
G - Includes nitroglycerine and nitroguanidine
N - Nonhygroscopic
W - Reworked by grinding
X - Water-drying process

Front 30

What is the most common type of initiating
explosive in use today?
1. DDNP
2. Lead azide
3. Lead styphnate
4. Mercury fulminate

Back 30

2. Lead azide

Hint 30

duh

Front 31

Which of the following solvents should NOT
be used to remove exudate?
1. Clean, hot water
2. An alkaline preparation
3. Acetone solvents
4. Alcohol

Back 31

2. An alkaline preparation/ will cause explosion when heated to 160f

Front 32

What is the primary explosive ingredient in
compositions A-3, B, and C?
1. HMX
2. PBX
3. RDX
4. TNT

Back 32

RDX

Front 33

What initiator activates the igniter battery of a
Mk 58 marine location marker?
1. Seawater
2. A pull tape
3. A twist key
4. A transfer fuze

Back 33

1. Seawater

Front 34

A Mk 58 marine location marker should burn
for approximately what maximum number of
minutes?
1. 20 to 30 mm
2. 30 to 40 mm only
3. 40 to 60 mm only
4. 30 to 60 mm

Back 34

3. 40 to 60 mm only

Front 35

The pull ring of a Mk 6 marine location marker
activates what device or solution?
1. Quick match
2. 90-sec delay fuze
3. First candle starting mix
4. The ignition squib

Back 35

4. The ignition squib

Front 36

When conducting man-overboard drills, you
should use what marine location marker, if
available?
1. Mk 58 Mod 0
2. Mk 58 Mod 1
3. Mk 6
4. Mk 2

Back 36

3. Mk 6

Front 37

What color smoke is produced by the Mk 13
marine smoke and illumination signal?
1. Yellow
2. Red
3. Orange
4. Green

Back 37

3. Orange

Front 38

At night, what feature identifies the flame end
of a Mk 13 marine smoke and illumination
signal?
1. Three beads on the plastic cap
2. A smooth plastic cap
3. A single protrusion on the plastic cap
4. A ridge cast into the signal body

Back 38

1. Three beads on the plastic cap

Front 39

The flame end of a The flame end of a Mk 13 marine smoke and
illumination signal is ignited in what manner?
1. By rubbing a scratching surface across an
igniting compound
2. With a twist igniter
3. With a pull ring
4. With a saltwater battery

Back 39

3. With a pull ring

Front 40

What, if anything, should be done with a Mk 1
Navy light that gives off a vinegar smell?
1. It should be used as soon as possible
2. It should be turned in as soon as possible
3. It should be disposed of immediately
4. Nothing

Back 40

3. It should be disposed of immediately

Front 41

What total number of signals is contained in
the Mk 79 Mod 2 personnel distress kit?
1. 5
2. 7
3. 9
4. 10

Back 41

2. 7

Front 42

What color star signal is fired from the Mk 79
Mod 0 personnel distress kit?
1. Green
2. Orange
3. Red
4. White

Back 42

3. Red

Front 43

If fired, a dented Mk 80 hand-fired signal poses
what danger, if any?
1. It may not shoot straight
2. It may hangfire
3. It may react violently
4. None

Back 43

3. It may react violently

Front 44

Ordnance handlers should be constantly aware
of which of the following characteristics of
pyrotechnics?
1. Some may be activated by exposure to
fresh water
2. All are highly unstable
3. All are very stable and require little care in
handling
4. Some are intended to burn with intense
heat

Back 44

3. All are very stable and require little care in
handling

Front 45

Which of the following situations can cause the
accidental activation of a pyrotechnic device
during handling?
1. Exposure to fresh water
2. Dents or cracks in the outer body
3. Lack of proper grounding
4. Exposure to nonorganic substances

Back 45

2. Dents or cracks in the outer body

Front 46

Moisture can have which of the following ef-
fects on pyrotechnic devices?
1. It can make them more sensitive and dan-
gerous
2. It can make them less dependable
3. It can make them more difficult to ignite
4. Each of the above

Back 46

4. Each of the above

Front 47

Navy pyrotechnics are designed to withstand
which of the following minimum/maximum
temperature ranges?
1. -20°F to 100°F only
2. -65°F to 100°F only
3. -65°F to 160°F only
4. -20°F to 165°F

Back 47

3. -65°F to 160°F only

Front 48

The smoke and fumes of Navy pyrotechnics
are non-toxic and cause only mild irritation to
the eyes and nasal passages of personnel when
exposed in any concentration.
1. True
2. False

Back 48

1. True

Front 49

When handled properly, Navy ordnance is
relatively safe.
1. True
2. False

Back 49

1. True

Front 50

Ordnance safety regulations may be altered or
waived, but only by area commanders.
1. True
2. False

Back 50

2. False

Front 51

What factor causes the majority of ordnance
safety regulations to be written?
1. Safety inspection results
2. Actual disasters
3. The CNO’s concern for safety
4. Ordnance specialists brainstorming

Back 51

2. Actual disasters

Front 52

Personnel who routinely handle explosives
must guard against what personal char-
acteristic?
1. Familiarity
2. Laziness
3. Forgetfulness
4. Carelessness

Back 52

1. Familiarity