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45 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Cancer is caused by mutations, usually somatic mutations. Even so, a common strategy for combating cancer is to give a patient drugs (i.e., chemotherapy) that cause even more mutations. The basis for this strategy is that a. these chemicals are more likely to be taken up by actively dividing cells such as cancer cells. b. actively dividing cells will accumulate mutations and eventually be killed c. the DNA of cancer cells is more likely to incorporate these chemicals into their DNA compared to other actively dividing cells. d. All of the above |
b. actively dividing cells will accumulate mutations and eventually be killed |
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A mutation that changes a codon to stop codon is a a. frameshift mutation. b. missense mutation. c. silent mutation. d. nonsense mutation. |
d. nonsense mutation |
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A key difference between the Holliday model and the double strand break model for homologous recombination is the way that a. the resolution step occurs b. heteroduplexes are formed c. the DNA is initially broken d. the sister chromatids initially line up |
c. the DNA is initially broken |
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Gene conversion may occur via a. mismatch DNA repair b. gap repair synthesis c. nucleotide excision repair d. both a and b. |
d. both a and b |
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The function of transposes is a. to recognize inverted repeats b. to remove the TE from its original site c. to insert a TE into a new site d. all of the above |
d. all of the above |
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A first mutation, which is a missense mutation in the lacY gene of E. coli, abolishes lactose transport and then a second mutation somewhere else within the lacY gene restores function. This second mutation is an example of a. an intragenic supressor b. an intergenic suppressor a. a missense mutation d. both a and c |
d. both a and c. |
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a mutation in an embryonic muscle cell a. a mutation in an embryonic muscle cell b. a mutation in a sperm cell c. a mutation in an adult nerve cell d. both a and c |
d. both a and c |
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According to the Holliday model for homologous recombination, a heteroduplex is formed due to a. the formation of a D loop b. the migration of a Holliday junction c. the initial breakage of the DNA at a single location in two different DNA strands d. the resolution of the Holliday junction into two separate DNA molecules |
b. the migration of a Holliday junction |
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Which of the following statements regarding transposable elements is the most accurate? a. transposable elements are most abundant in prokaryotic genomes b. transposable elements are most abundant in the genomes of complex, multicellular eukaryotes c. transposable elements are most abundant in the genomes of simple eukaryotic genomes, such as yeast d. transposable elements are very rarely found in genomes because they are eliminated via natural selection |
b. transposable elements are most abundant in the genomes of complex, multicellular eukaryotes |
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Which of the following proteins is not needed during retrotransposition? a. transposes b. reverse transcriptase c. integrase d. all of the above are needed |
a. transposase |
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When a gene knockin is made, the gene of interest ___________. This is an example of ___________. a. is swapped with an endogenous gene, gene replacement b. is inserted into a noncritical site in the genome, gene replacement c. is swapped with an endogenous gene, gene addition d. is inserted into a noncritical site in the genome, gene addition |
d. is inserted into a noncritical site in the genome, gene addition |
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During dideoxy sequencing, dideoxy nucleotides a. cannot be incorporated into newly made DNA strands b. are incorporated into DNA strands more easily than deoxy nucleotides c. can only be incorporated into newly made DNA stands via Taq polymerase d. are incorporated into DNA strands but prevent further strand growth |
d. are incorporated into DNA strands but prevent further strand growth |
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The stem cells in your body could be a. pluripotent and multipoint. b. unipotent only. c. totipotent and pluripotent. d. multipotent and unipotent. |
d. multipotent and unipotent |
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One strategy to produce a protein in the milk of a cow is to place the coding sequence of the gene of interest next to a __________ and then inject the gene into a _________. a. β-lactoglobulin promoter, cow oocyte b. lac operon promoter, cow mammary cell c. lac operon promoter, cow oocyte d. β-lactoglobulin promoter, cow mammary cell |
a. β-lactoglobulin promoter, cow oocyte |
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In the biotechnological production of human insulin (Humulin), explain why the A and B chains are linked to β-galactosidase? a. To prevent the misfolding of the A and B chains b. To prevent the degradation of the A and B chains c. To prevent the A and B chains from inhibiting the growth of E. coli d. All of the above |
b. to prevent the degradation of the A and B chains |
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A primer used in dideoxy DNA sequencing is 20 nucleotides long and has the following sequence: 5’-GGATCCATGACTAGTCCGAC-3’. A segment of DNA is cloned into a vector and then the vector DNA is denatured and subjected to dideoxy DNA sequencing method. Below is the DNA sequence from a region of the vector. The primer annealing site is shown in bold and underlined. 3-CCCGATCGGCCTAGGTACTGATCAGGCTGAATGACT-5’Based on the sequence above, what would be the size(s) of the band(s) (i.e., the number of nucleotides in each band) in the lane in which dideoxyT had been added to the sequencing reaction? |
21 22 25 |
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During PCR, what is the order of events in a single cycle? a. Denaturation of the DNA, synthesis of complementary strands, annealing of the primers b. Annealing of the primers, synthesis of complementary strands, denaturation of the DNA c. Annealing of the primers, denaturation of the DNA, synthesis of complementary strands d. Denaturation of the DNA, annealing of the primers, synthesis of complementary strands |
d. denaturation of the DNA, annealing of the primers, synthesis of complementary strands |
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Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR as opposed to DNA polymerase from another source such as E. coli? a. Taq polymerase make DNA faster b. Taq polymerase is resistant to heat denaturation c. Taq polymerase is less likely to make errors d. all of the above would be reasons for using Taq polymerase |
b. Taq polymerase is resistant to heat denaturation |
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Glofish are zebrafish that contain a gene from either a coral or jellyfish. This is an example of a. gene replacement b. gene addition c. both a and b d. neither a nor b |
b. gene addition |
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Which of the following is a key feature of stem cells? a. they have the ability to divide b. they have the ability to differentiate c. they are always pluripotent d. both a and b |
d. both a and b |
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The BLAST program begins with a query sequence and ______________. a. searches a database to determine if a DNA sequence contains one or more genes b. uses a search by signal approach to determine if a DNA sequence contains one or more genes c. searches a database to identify genes that are homologous to the query sequence d. uses a search signal approach to identify genes that are homologous to the query sequence |
c. searches the database to identify genes that are homologous to the query sequence |
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The purpose of chromatin immunoprecipitation is to determine a. the sequence of a gene b. if a gene is expressed in a particular cell type c. if a protein binds to a particular region of DNA d. if an mRNA is alternatively spliced |
c. if a protein binds to a particular region of DNA |
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Haploinsufficiency follows a __________ pattern of inheritance. In this case, the protein encoded by the disease-causing allele is ___________. a. dominant, inactive b. recessive, inactive c. recessive, overactive d. dominant, overactive |
a. dominant, inactive |
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How would a mutation that prevents the Ras protein from hydrolyzing GTP affect the EGF signaling pathway and how would it affect cell growth? a. the signaling pathway would stay turned on and cell growth would be inhibited b. the signaling pathway would be turned off and cell growth would be stimulated c. the signaling pathway would stay turned on and cell growth would be stimulated d. the signaling pathway would be turned off and cell growth would be inhibited |
c. the signaling pathway would stay turned on and cell growth would be stimulated |
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Which of the following is not a common way to eliminate the function of a tumor suppressor gene? a. and increase in chromosome number (also aneuploidy) b. a mutation within the gene itself c. DNA methylation d. chromosome loss (aneuploidy) |
a. an increase in chromosome number |
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When two different genes are homologous, this means a. they have identical sequences b. they are derived from the same ancestral gene c. they are found in all living species d. they are found in multiple copies |
b. they are derived from the same ancestral gene |
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which of the following would not convert a protooncogene into an oncogene? a. a promoter deletion b. missense mutation c. translocation d. gene amplification |
a. a promoter deletion |
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To study gene expression patterns at the genomic level, what is applied to a microarray? a. radio labeled cDNA b. fluorescently labeled cDNA c. fluorescently labeled mRNA d. radio labeled mRNA |
b. fluorescently labeled cDNA |
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Which of the following would not be consistent with the idea that a human disease has a genetic component? a. it has a particular age of onset b. it is less likely to occur in relatives living apart than in relatives living together c. a correlation is found between the presence of a mutation in a particular gene and the occurrence of the disease d. all of the above are consistent |
b. is it less likely to occur in relatives living apart than in relatives living together |
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Point Mutation |
change of single base pair |
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Transversion mutation |
pyrimidine (T) changed to Purine (A) |
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Missense mutation |
base substitution causes amino acid change |
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germ-line mutation |
occurs in gamets or precursor cell that produces gametes |
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Nonsense mutation |
change from normal codon to stop codon (If TAA codon is in the coding strand) |
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Frameshift mutation |
addition/deletion of number of nucleotides not divisible by 3 could have caused a shift in the codon reading frame |
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Deleterious mutation |
decreases chances of survival and reproduction |
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a gene pool is a. the random mixing of genes during sexual reproduction b. all of the genes in a population of individuals c. all of the genes in the games from a single individual d. all of the genes in a single individual |
b. all of the genes in a population of individuals |
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In a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the percentage of individuals exhibiting a recessive disorder is 1%. What is the frequency of heterozygotes? a. 0.99 b. 0.32 c. 0.09 d. 0.18 |
d. 0.18 |
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Genetic drift is a. a change in allele frequencies due to random fluctuations b. likely to result in allele loss or fixation over the long run c. more pronounced in smaller populations d. all of the above |
d. all of the above |
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Which of the following is directly caused by inbreeding? a. change in allele frequencies b. greater proportion of heterozygotes c. greater proportion of homozygotes d. both a and c. |
c. a greater proportion of homozygotes |
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In natural populations, most genes are a. polymorphic b. monomorphic c. recessive d. both a and c |
a. polymorphic |
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Darwinian fitness is a measure of a. survival b. reproductive success c. heterozygosity of the gene pool d. both a and b |
b. reproductive success |
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Which of the following is a factor that does not promote widespread changes in allele or genotype frequencies a. natural selection b. new mutation c. nonrandom mating d. genetic drift e. migration |
b. new mutation |
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which of the following types of genetic drift involve the migration of a population from one location to another? a. the bottleneck effect b. the founder effect c. both a and b d. none of the above |
b. the founder effect |
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which of the following would not promote polymorphism? a. diversifying selection b. heterozygote advantage c. directional selection d. negative frequency-dependent selection |
c. directional selection |
