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282 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is supercruise? |
Supersonic flight without afterburners. |
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How much external fuel is the F-22 capable of operationally carrying? |
1,200 Gallons |
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The starting point for the buttock line is BL 0.0. What does this represent |
The aircraft's vertical centerline. |
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What is the primary reference in determining panel and door numbers? |
Structural zones and areas. |
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How far can the F-22 main weapons bay doors be opened for weapons loading? |
125 degrees |
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How can the elctronic warfare/infrared countermeasures (EW/IRCM) doors be opened for ground maintenance? |
By the portable maintenance aid (PMA) or from the cockpit. |
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Structure panels must be opened with what type of tools? |
Nonmetallic. |
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When should worn door/panel fasteners be replaced? |
Immediately. |
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How many external weapons stations does the F-22 have? |
4. |
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What structures comprise the fuselage section? |
Forward fuselage, mid fuselage, and aft fuselage. |
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Which structure is not part of the empennage section? |
Wings. |
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The ailerons for the F-22 are located on the... |
Wing Assembly. |
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The F-22 cockpit is the first designed to be compatible with... |
Night Vision Goggles. |
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On the F-22, the auxiliary communication (AUX COMM) panel is located... |
On the Right Console. |
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The environmental control system (ECS) uses what to operate? |
Ram air, bleed air, and electrical power. |
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Which function (subsystem) of the fire protection system monitors the high pressure bleed air ducts that contain air over 500 degrees Fahrenheit? |
Thermal overheat. |
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What is the primary fuel grade used on the F-22? |
JP-8. |
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Both hydraulic systems on the F-22 use two variable delivery pumps that operate at... |
72 gallons per minute (gpm). |
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Emergency in-flight hydraulic power is provided by a variable delivery auxiliary pump at a rate of... |
27 gallons per minute (gpm). |
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What is the nominal icing envelope where F-22 engine anti-ice is enabled? |
Below 25,000 feet. |
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The F-22 main aircraft brake system receives hydraulic pressure from... |
Both system 1 and 2. |
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Each of the F-22 global inertial navigation system (GINS) units uses... |
3 RLGs, 3 accelerometers and 1 GPS receiver. |
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The F-22 integrated avionics core processing system consists of the... |
Common Integrated Processor and the Data Transfer/Mass Memory Video Recorder. |
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The F-22 flight control system is part of what larger aircraft system for data management and integration? |
Vehicle Management System (VMS). |
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When should you verify the aircraft safe for maintenance task be performed on the F-22 aircraft? |
Prior to performaing any maintenance. |
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If you find the F-22 ejection seat sequencer is red, how long should you wait before performing maintenance on the aircraft? |
2 hours. |
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You perform the F-22 safe for cockpit entry checks... |
Standing on the boarding ladder. |
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What is the extra F-22 seat item(s) you must ensure are visible upon entering the cockpit? |
Leg restraints. |
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What distance around the intake of an operating jet engine must be avoided? |
25 feet away from the intake. |
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What are the primary hazards associated with standing behind a running F-22 jet engine? |
Flying objects and high temperatures. |
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To avoid serious burns, the engine exhaust nozzles should be avoided for at least... |
15 minutes after engine shutdown. |
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What is the common hazard associated with exhaust ports? |
High temperature. |
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In the first few minutes after an aircraft with hot brakes comes to a stop, the danger of a tire blowing... |
Increases. |
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The "hot brake" danger area is... |
300 feet in a 45 degree arc around the axle on both sides of the wheels for at least 45 minutes after an aircraft has stopped. |
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On the F-22 aircraft, an allergic reaction of other serious health problems may occur with inhalation exposure to... |
Beryllium. |
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In aircraft maintenance a "No Step" area is an area... |
where walking is prohibited on the surface of an aircraft. |
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The liquid cooling system is not used to cool the... |
Fuel that is used as a Heat Sync. |
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Polyalphaolefin (PAO) is used to cool critical systems to what temperature? |
59 degrees. |
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The polyalphaolefin (PAO) cart is only to be operated in what mode? |
Rated. |
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After the polyalphaolefin (PAO) art begins supplying liquid to the aircraft, make sure the pressure gauge slowly rises how many pounds per square inch (psi)? |
130-155. |
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The integrated maintenance information system (IMIS) is capable, using hte portable maintenance aid (PMA), of communicating logistics data to the... |
Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). |
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Which main part of the integrated maintenance information system (IMIS) is capable of displaying Interactive Electronic Technical Manuals (IETM)? |
Portable Maintenance Aid (PMA). |
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The portable maintenance aid (PMA) records maintenance actions and tracks the following data except... |
Personnel. |
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The Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC) system does not provide computer control for... |
Inertial Navigation. |
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The Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC) wired inputs and outputs measure which operating parameters? |
Speeds, temperatures, and pressures. |
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The Intergrated Vehicle Subsytem Controller (IVSC) Global Management (GM) software monitors various switches and sensors to determine... |
Subsystem configuration and power state. |
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Under what condition is the Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC) power supply modules designed to shut off? |
An overvoltage condition is sensed. |
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Which Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC) modules are powered by the battery back-up in the air only? |
A2 and A4. |
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The Maintenance Vehicle Interface (MVI) control panel located in the left main wheel well provides the capability to apply power to all of the following except the... |
Avionics Multi-plex (MUX) bus. |
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After successful completion of what operation will the Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC) enter the normal operating mode? |
Start-up built-in-test (SBIT). |
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Which Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC)module does not power up on the ground upon battery application but requires either external power, the auxiliary generator, or the main generator to be online? |
A4. |
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Which of the following is not a function of the Integrated Vehicle Subsystem Controller (IVSC) subassemblies? |
Provide a battery backup. |
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Which integrated vehicle subsytem controller (IVSC) module(s) is responsible for controlling the hydraulic system? |
A1 and B1. |
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Which integrated vehicle subsystem controller (IVSC) caution message tells the operator to cease operations and contact maintenance immediately? |
HWSW Compare. |
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What failure results when the integrated vehicle subsystem controller (IVSC) A2 advisory message is displayed while the communication/navigation and identification/Integrated Caution, Advisory and Warning (CNI/ICAW) format is selected on the left up-front display (UFD)? |
Loss of control function in the cockpit and brake redundancy. |
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How are the cockpit displays designed? |
To provide the pilot with subsystem status displays. |
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Why do the secondary multifunction displays (SMFD) have an external fiber optic link? |
To relay video to the date transfer/mass memory and video recorder (DMVR) for display recording. |
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The heads-up display (HUD) sends and receives data over the 1553 data busses from ... |
the CIP and stores management system (SMS). |
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If an avionics function is lost due to a line replaceable module (LRM) failure, what may result? |
Full or degraded operation depending on the number of spare LRMs. |
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The graphics processor interface (GPVI) module and the display processor interface (DPI) module both support an interace to the comon integrated processor (CIP) data network (DN) to... |
supply DPI external rasterized video consisting of moving map and weapons video. |
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Why are the common integrated processor (CIP) power supplies capable of current sharing? |
To be operated modularly in parallel to suit the CIP's load condition. |
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When the low latency signal processor (LLSP) module shuts down due to an error, how is the communication/navigation and identification (CNI) system affected? |
The system will reboot causing a loss of all functions except emergency/ground operations radio. |
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The gateway module (GWY) generates the time synchronization discrete (TSD) event which allows the common integrated processors (CIP) to. |
Maintain an accurate time-of-day synchronization if the CIP loses communication. |
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If a line replaceable module (LRM) junction temperature exceeds 85 degrees Celsius, what will result? |
Clock discrepancies resulting in LRM functional failure. |
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How do common integrated processor (CIP) line replaceable modules (LRM) operate in the normal operating mode? |
By information observed by the sensor suite and contained in CIP input data. |
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In the data processing element (DPE) alternate master state, why has the avionics systems manager (ASM) biased the outcome of the contest for test and maintenance (TM) bus master? |
So a designated line replaceable module (LRM) becomes the host for the primary ASM health and status. |
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The reduced power state of the common integrated processor (CIP) line replaceable modules (LRM) is used in several possible ways at the system level except... |
the fully specified capabilities of the LRMs are available to the application. |
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Why does the COMSEC hardware of the key output variable (KOV)-20 complete a second segment of special extended start up built-in test (SBIT)? |
To allow the hardware to perform encryption/decryption services. |
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What is the purpose of the data transfer equipment (DTE)? |
Reduce pilot workload. |
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How does the data transfer equipment (DTE) transfer data from the cartridge memory to various avionic systems? |
Via the multiplex (MUX) bus. |
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Which of the following data items does the data transfer equipment (DTE) not automatically configure on most aircraft? |
Mode 4 crypto variables. |
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During missions, why do aircraft subsystems automatically transmit malfunction information to the data transfer equipment (DTE)? |
For post flight analysis by operations/maintenance personnel. |
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How much memory does the F-22 data transfer unit with mass memory (DTU/MM) provide? |
256 Mbytes. |
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Which of the following inputs does the data memory/mass memory video recorder (DMVR) not record on the video data cartridge (VDC)? |
Up-front displays (UFD). |
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How long can the micro data transfer cartridge maintain data in nonvolatile memory without the need to be inserted into the aircraft or the mission support system (MSS)? |
3 months. |
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How does the pilot record a "witness mark" to mark events on the video data cartridge (VDC) tape? |
Gun trigger to second detent |
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Where is the ALT ENABLE code entered to access secured functions of the F-22 data transfer equipment (DTE)? |
Other menu on the integrated control panel (ICP). |
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The video data cartridge (VDC) tape is long enough to provide color recording for up to.. |
2 hours. |
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What will be displayed in the menu key 1 legend (window) on the integrated control panel (ICP) if not video data cartridge (VDC) is installed? |
XXX. |
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How does the operator command the video data cartridge (VDC) tape to rewind? |
Menu key on the integrated control panel (ICP) |
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Which data transfer equipment (DTE) advisory message will be displayed if a partial failure of the data transfer/mass memory video recorder (DMVR) has occurred? |
DMVR DEGD. |
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How is data, which is stored in the crash survivable memory unit (CSMU), sent from the flight data recorder (FDR) processor, interface controller, and communications (PICC) module to the crash survivable memory unit (CSMU)? |
Over the integrated vehicle subsystem controller (IVSC) 1553B data bus. |
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How does the flight data recorder (FDR), processor, interface controller, and communications (PICC) module receive power? |
From the vehicle management system (VMS) 2 power supplies. |
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How does the flight data recorder (FDR), processor, interface controller, and communications (PICC) module provide aircraft data communication? |
Via the vehicle management system (VMS) 2, branch B, parallel interface bus. |
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If a maintainer corrects diagnostics and health management (DHM) faults in the crash survivable memory unit (CSMU), what happens to any remaining DHM fault items that are not resolved? |
They are transferred to the flight data recorder (FDR) and made available to the pilot. |
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All safety critical vehicle management system (VMS) functions are accomplished by hardware that is at least redundant (triplex) with the exception of the... |
air data sensor set (ADSS). |
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Vehicle Management System (VMS) wiring and electrical power system wiring that provides power to VMS is identified as.... |
critical wiring. |
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How are rate sesnsor assembly packages, computational channels, and hydraulic lines separated to the greatest extent practical? |
Physically. |
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How many processor interface controller and communications (PICC) module(s) does each flight control computer contain? |
3. |
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What provides all electrical interconnects between the Vehicle Management System (VMS) modules and the aircraft wiring connectors? |
Backplane Assemblies. |
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How many actuator interface module(s) are used in each Flight Control Computer to interface with the full complement of air vehicle actuators? |
5. |
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What pressure(s) does the alpha probe transducer convert to digital words for transmission to the processor interface controller and communications (PICC) number 1 module? |
Total pressure (Pt) and angle of attackd (AOA) pressures (Pa1 and Pa2). |
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What pressure(s) does the beta port transducer convert to a binary number for transmission to the processor interface controller and communications (PICC) number 1 module? |
Static Pressure (Ps). |
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What is the main man-machine interface between the pilot and the aircraft Flight Control System (FLCS)? |
Side strick controller assembly. |
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What line replaceable unit transmits speedbrake switch functions to the Flight Control System (FLCS) for surface deflection scheduling? |
Throttle quadrant assembly. |
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Pitch is controlled by symmetricla movement of the? |
horizontal stabilizers and engine nozzles. |
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How much pressure does the hydraulic system provide for actuation of the Flight Control System components? |
4100 psi. |
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What Flight Control System design characteristic protects the aircraft structure from symmetric over-g? |
Command limiters. |
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Where are Flight Control System caution, advisory, and warning messages displayed to inform the pilot of detected Flight Control System (FLCS) failures? |
Up-front display. |
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What switch on the flight control panel attempts to clear Flight Control System (FLCS) caution, advisory, and warning messages? |
FLCS RESET switch. |
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At angle of attacks (AOA) greater than 10 degrees and with the rudders commanded by the Flight Control System (FLCS) beyond full deflection, what control surface is used along with the rudders to control yaw? |
Horizontal stabilizers. |
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Above what degree of angle of attack does the differential deflection of the horizontal stabilizers become the primary yaw controller? |
40 degrees. |
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How many rotary actuators does each Leading Edge Flap (LEF) use to transmit torque between LEF components? |
4. |
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What are control laws within the Flight Control System based on? |
Flight mode. |
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What measures the position of the stick grip and rudder pedals and provides the flight control computer with the equivalent electrical commands? |
Linear variable differential transducers. |
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The flight control computer uses airspeed, altitude, and angle of attack (AOA) to calculate optimum Leading Edge Flap (LEF) position between what degrees of movement? |
0 degrees to 35 degrees down. |
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How many independent and redundant channels for measuring and reporting pressure data does each alpha and beta pressure transducer unit (PTU) provide? |
2. |
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What F-22 recovery mode is automatically initiated without pilot action upon certain conditions? |
Flight Control System (FLCS)-intiated automatic mode. |
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What houses the Communication, Navigation, and Identification (CNI) Function Control Software? |
Common integrated processors. |
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What serves as a gateway between the front end (FE) and common integrated processors (CIP)? |
Clock coupler module. |
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What Communication, Navigation, and Identification component converts digital audio from common integrated processors to analog and sends it to the pilot's headset? |
Audio control panel. |
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What Communication, Navigation, and Identification component connects and switches ultra high frequency (UHF), very high frequency (VHF), and L-Band antennas to front end integrated avionics rack power amps and receivers? |
Antenna interface unit. |
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What signal is used to synchronize systems with each other? |
Time synchronization pulse. |
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If a front end hardware asset is not available or becomes unavailable, Communication, Navigation, and Identification (CNI) will reconfigure the remaining assets to support as much functionality as possible based on the... |
priority list. |
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To synchronize the hopping, radios receives the start time known as the... |
time of day. |
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The UHF backup radio is known as the |
emergency/ground operations radio. |
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While UHF is in backup mode the system will begin a transmission on the frequency indicated on the |
Aux Comm panel. |
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The interphone software that provides audio annunciation messages to the audio conferencing software when directed by logical elements associated with other Communication, Navigation, and Identification (CNI) functions is known as... |
voice synthesis software. |
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The push to talk on the throttle control buttons are denoted as Comm1, Comm2, intra-flight datalink (IFDL), and... |
Simulcast. |
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What will be audible if the MASTER knob is turned OFF on the audio control panel? |
Voice warnings. |
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What information does tactical air navigation (TACAN) provide to an aircrew? |
Slant range, relative bearing, and station identity tone. |
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In tactical air navigation (TACAN) terms, what is relative bearing? |
The directional position of the aircraft in relation to a known TACAN station. |
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What is the time delay before a tactical air navigation (TACAN) station replies to an airborne system interrogation? |
50 microseconds. |
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How many letters are contained in the Morse code identification tone for station identity? |
Three. |
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How often does the tactical air navigation (TACAN) surface beacon station transmit a station identity tone? |
Every 37.5 seconds. |
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In what tactical air navigation (TACAN) mode are continuous bearing to a ground beacon, aural indication of the ground beacon's identity, digital bearing data, and distance measuring equipment (DME) interrogation signals provided? |
Transmit-receive. |
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What tactical air navigation (TACAN) component responds to interrogation requests from other TACAN systems in the A-A mode? |
Pulse pre-processor module. |
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In the event the tactical air navigation (TACAN) has failed or is unavailable, activation of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) menu key results in the display of what message in the scratchpad for 5 seconds? |
TCN UNAVAIL. |
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The tactical air navigation (TACAN) channel is changed by typing a new valid TACAN channel into the scratchpad and pressing menu key 2 or by the use of the... |
Multifunction control rocker switch. |
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The tactical air navigation (TACAN) fix is a two-part entry consisting of the TACAN radial and... |
distance measuring equipment in nautical miles. |
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The primary format for monitoring overall tactical and navigation information is presented in a range-vs-range (F-22-vs-threat) plan view known as the... |
situation display. |
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Glideslope transmits beams consisting of a radio frequency (RF) carrier amplitude modulated at... |
90 and 150 Hz, respectively. |
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The glideslope outer marker beacon is located between |
3.5 and 6-nmi from the runway. |
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Instrument landing system (ILS) operation is controlled via the... |
ILS/global positioning system (GPS) submenu. |
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What provides deviation dots and a course arrow in navigation (NAV) mode with a selected instrument landing system (ILS) localizer? |
Course deviation indicator. |
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What provides bank and pitch steering commands in navigation (NAV) mode with a selected instrument landing system (ILS) steering mode selected? |
Flight director cue. |
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Each global inertial navigation system (GINS) operates from a separate... |
28 volts direct current (VDC) power source. |
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The global positioning system (GPS) antenna field of view characteristics is above... |
+10 degrees elevation, covering all 360 degrees in azimuth. |
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The modified standard electronics module card installed in each global inertial navigation system (GINS) unit that receives, tracks, and processes the global positioning system (GPS) signals from the antenna is known as the... |
GPS receiver application module. |
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The global inertial navigation system (GINS) inertial state, steering, and status symbology is displayed on the... |
head-up display (HUD). |
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The default global inertial navigation system (GINS) alignment is known as the... |
gyrocompass alignment. |
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To ensure identification, friend or foe (IFF) ground station radar returns and IFF replies for approaching aircraft are close together, the... |
radar equipment and IFF equipment are synchronized. |
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Identification, friend or foe (IFF) returns and radar returns for aircraft within the same airspace are displayed on a ground station scope presentation showing aircraft direction... |
distance, altitude, and identity. |
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The identification, friend or foe (IFF) ground station transmits interrogations at... |
1030 megahertz (MHz). |
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The identification, friend or foe (IFF) transponder replies to interrogations at... |
1090 MHz. |
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Which identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode uses crypto security? |
Mode 4. |
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Encrypted interrogations are determined valid for identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 1 by the... |
Selective identification feature (SIF) decoder. |
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The identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 3/A is enabled on the... |
integrated control panel (ICP). |
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How many presets are available for edit on the identification, friend or foe (IFF) preset display? |
48. |
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The identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode C provides altitude information increments of how many feet? |
100. |
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Upon determination of a valid mode 4 interrogation, what signals doe sthe mode 4 decoder output? |
Video gate, delay code, and trigger signals. |
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The auxiliary (AUX) communications (Comm) panel ZEROIZE switch in the F-22 cockpit dumps... |
Mode 4 variables only. |
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Identify Friend or Foe Transponder (IFFT) Selective identification feature (SIF) values for modes 1-3 are set by either the user in the cockpit or by... |
mission data on the micro date transfer cartridge (DTC). |
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Mode 4 cryptographic challenges, only, are sent directly from the front end components to the... |
KOV-20. |
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When requested by the Model XII transponder, what initializes the crypo processor? |
KOV-20. |
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If the identification, friend or foe (IFF) functionality is not available when the pilot commands a mode to ON, what is displayed in the scratchpad? |
IFF UNAVAIL. |
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Automatic changeover only applies to which identification, friend or foe (IFF) modes? |
1 and 3/A only. |
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When identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 is turned off, "IFF MODE 4 OFF" will be displayed on the... |
up front display (UFD). |
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Air to Air Interrogator (AAI) targets are shwon on the multi-function display (MFD) and correlated with the.... |
radar targets. |
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Upon being identified, what color code is associated with a hostile target? |
Red. |
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What receives the configuration command for aft interrogations? |
Antenna electronics unit. |
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How many additional flight of the F-22 aircraft can be linked to the close flight via the F-22 intra-flight data link (IFDL)? |
3. |
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Who within the close net is designated the net time keeper? |
The wide net communicator (WNC). |
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How many total F-22 aircraft can be linked to form an intra-flight data link (IFDL) close net? |
4. |
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Which of the following cannot be transferred over the F-22 intra-flight data link (IFDL)? |
Preset radio frequencies. |
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How does the F-22 operator access the intra-flight data link (IFDL) submenu on the integrated control panel (ICP) ? |
Press the OTHER FAB and then IFDL menu key. |
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What happens if you repeatedly depress the auto-reacquisition (AUTO REACQ) menu key on the intra-flight data link (IFDL) submenu? |
Turns the function ON and OFF. |
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What flight size configuration is used if only three ships are in the intra-flight data link (IFDL) close net? |
4-ship. |
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When identifying intra-flight data link (IFDL) wide net numbers, what are available identification (ID) numbers that can be entered on the scratchpad? |
1 to 999. |
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How is the operator visually notified when the F-22 receives a voice transmission via the intra-flight data link (IFDL)? |
The IFDL data block of the UFD is shown in inverse video. |
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What display presents all information used for a single intra-flight data link (IFDL) preset plan and provides controls to change this information? |
IFDL edit display. |
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What is the air combat maneuvering instrumentation (ACMI) capable of providing? |
Flight dynamics, weapons status, and weapons firing data. |
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A typical air combat maneuvering instrumentation (ACMI) range has a diameter of approximately... |
30 nautical miles. |
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What are the unwanted radar echoes called? |
Clutter. |
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In a basic radar system, what is responsible for generating the radio frequency (RF) pulse? |
Transmitter. |
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What is the principle that allows radar systems to lock on and track a target? |
Doppler effect. |
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The weapons control radar subsystem consists of what four major components? |
Array/beam steering controller, radar processor, receiver exciter, and input power filter assembly. |
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What line replaceable unit produces the transmit drive signal? |
Receiver-exciter. |
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What provides the added data processing and signal processing functionality necessary to implement the synthetic aperture radar (SAR) and ground movable target indicator (GMTI) radar modes? |
Radar processor. |
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What radar module houses the main processing element for the array/beam steering controller? |
Antenna control. |
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What provides power to the radar system? |
Power distribution centers. |
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Radar master modes maybe selected by any time following? |
Common integrated processor initialization. |
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What is the basic operating mode of the radar as it continuously searches the sensor search volume while tracking targets throughout the radar field-of-regard? |
Interleaved search and track. |
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What are the three primary search volumes selectable via hands-on throttle and stick (HOTAS) controls? |
Long range search (LRS), MRS, and short range search (SRS). |
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Mission software commands what mode in order to have the radar obtain target information on a target detected by another sensor? |
Cued search (CS). |
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What is the primary manual control for the radar system? |
Hands-on controls on the throttles and stick. |
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What display function would allow the selection of viewing the search volume display of ownship and flight members' radar? |
S VOL OSB. |
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What provides radio frequency (RF) measurement and control of the electronic warfare (EW) RF subsystem? |
Digital radio frequency unit. |
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How many separate receiver channels does the remote array interface unit provides frequency conversion for? |
9. |
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What radar warning function can provide precision angel of arrival, correlation, emitter tracking, emitter mode, and identification? |
Wideband directional finding. |
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What radar warning function can provide emitter tracking, beyond visual range identification capability, high sensitivity, and correlation and emitter mode? |
Narrowbeam interleaved search and track. |
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What electronic warfare countermeasures mode does the avionics system selects the chaff or flare, determines the timing, and notifies the pilot when it is time to dispense?
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Semi-automatic mode. |
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What electronic warfare countermeasures mode allows ground personnel to perform maintenance, exercise self test, run built-in test (BIT), and safely install payloads? |
Maintenance/reload mode. |
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Where does the missile launch detection pass the information for processing with sufficient time to provide an effective defense countermeasure? |
Common integrated processor 2. |
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The constant speed drive (CSD) is a hydraulic mechanical transmission that makes it possible to obtain electrical power with a constant output frequency even though the source of.... |
rotary power is from an aircraft engine operating at various speeds. |
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If the under speed switch (USS) opens due to an under frequency condition, the under speed relay is... |
deenergized which disconnects the generator from the bus. |
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In an alternating current (ac) power supply system over voltage circuitry removes the faulted generator from the system if the phase-to-neutral voltage... |
rises above 130 volts alternating current (VAC). |
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In an alternating current (ac) power supply system if an unbalanced condition exceeds 100 amperes, what initiates a 2 to 4 second time delay to deenergize the bus tie contactor (BTC) ? |
Neutral current-sensing. |
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Anytime generator output in an alternating current (ac) power supply system is not 115 [+-2] volts alternating current (VAC), what generator control unit (GCU) adjusts current through generator's exciter field to control the amount of voltage induced into the main generator armatures? |
Voltage regulator. |
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During normal operation, the reverse current relays (RCR) in a direct current (dc) power supply system are energized by the .... |
transformer/rectifier (TR) units. |
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In the direct current (dc) power supply system, once all internal relays deenergize, the transformer rectifier (TR) units are disconnected from the buses with... |
the higher potential. |
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The F-22's 28 volts direct current (vdc) is provided by... |
four converters. |
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In the F-22, power from the two generator distribution centers is routed to the alternating current (ac) inverters and is then distributed to which power distribution centers (PDCs) for control and distribution? |
7 and 8. |
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In the event of a dual engine failure, the F-22 flight control system (FLCS) backup battery provides power for at least how long after the initial BATT LOW advisory? |
10 seconds. |
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Which condition will not cause the F-22 electrical control panel's auxiliary power unit (APU) RUN light to flash? |
APU is operating. |
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How long does the F-22 auxiliary power unit (APU) switch need to be held in START to initiate APU operation? |
3 to 4 seconds. |
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The F-22 ac inverters receive 270 volts direct current (vdc) power from...
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Generator distribution centers (GDC) 1 and 2. |
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The F-22's electrical inverter 2 transmits control signals to power distribution center (PDC)... |
6. |
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Which is the F-22's converter/regulator's alternate electrical power source when permanent magnet generator (PMG) power is lost? |
Auxiliary generator.
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The F-22 permanent magnet generators (PMG) fourth section is used to power the... |
main generator control unit (GCU). |
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What software operates as the primary software control interface between the aircraft software; tactical sensor manager software and avionics system manager software, and the internal Communication, Navigation, and Identification (CNI) software; CNI applications software, integrated on board diagnostics and CNI resource manager? |
Mission interface manager software. |
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What provides built-in fault detection and isolation capabilities, in both off-line and operational states, for increased maintainability and two-level maintenance support? |
Integrated on board diagnostics. |
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A nine digit number designed to help identify the Communication, Navigation, and Identification (CNI) subsystem involved, the mode of BIT when detected, and type of problem is known as a |
fault reporting code. |
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What do the KOV-20 software modules retrieve from mass memory when they receive a Communication, Navigation, and Identification (CNI) application startup request? |
Crytographic keys. |
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How many primary radios does the F-22 have? |
2. |
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What is the ultra high frequency (UHF) range? |
225.00-399.975 megahertz (MHz). |
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The F-22 has an Emergency/Ground Operations (E/GO) radio mode, which is also called the... |
auxiliary radio. |
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The control on the AUDIO VOL panel that may be used to simultaneously adjust the volume of all audio to include COM1 and COM2 is known as... |
MASTER volume. |
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The switch is used to erase all encryption keys stored within the aircraft known as the.... |
zeroize switch. |
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The process of commanding radio frequency transmission to switch between two antennas is known as? |
Lobing. |
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During normal operation, UHF/VHF system operation is controlled through the.... |
integrated control panel (ICP). |
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With squelch enabled, the system dynamically adjusts the squelch threshold based upon the... |
value of the noise floor detected. |
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Each Comm is capable of operating in one of three modes to include... |
plain text, cipher text, or cipher text only. |
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Rapidly switching the frequencies on the radio transmitting/receiving at a pre-designated time is known as... |
have quick. |
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A pre-determined set of frequencies and their hopping pattern is known as... |
word-of-day |
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The F-22's converter/regulators produce an output voltage of.. |
rectified 31.5 vdc. |
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When the F-22's EXTERNAL POWER ON/OFF switch, located in the left side weapons bay, is positioned to ON, what light indicates that external electrical power is available to the aircraft? |
PWR AVAIL. |
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The F-22's dc contactor K703 provides 270 volts direct current (VDC) from the external power receptacle to generator distribution center (GDC)... |
1. |
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After the F-22's external power switch is positioned to ON, the PWR AVAIL lamp should illuminate and the MVI BATT DSCHG lamp should extinguish within... |
30 seconds. |
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Which is not an F-22 auxiliary generator power source? |
Left main generator. |
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When both of the F-22's main generators are down during flight, what is the electrical power provided by the emergency power generation system's auxiliary generator? |
270 volts direct current (VDC) at 22 kilowatts (kW). |
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Which of the following will not cause the F-22 electrical power system to engage bus ties to connect the affected electrical bus to preserve mission completion? |
Main battery fail. |
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Which F-22 bus tie function is enabled when one of the inverters fails? |
115 volts alternating current (VAC) bus tie. |
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What F-22 electrical power system state and mode is active with both main generators on-line and without weight on wheels (WOW)? |
Dual generator state; full power mode. |
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Which is not part of the data processed by the F-22 electrical power system health monitoring and reporting function? |
Voltage available: alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC). |
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How many F-22 electrical power system advisory messages can be displayed in the cockpit? |
13. |
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Where are the F-22's instrument panel floodlights located? |
Left and right edges of the glareshield. |
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What type of light is used for the F-22's console panel edge lighting? |
Electro-luminescent. |
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When are the F-22's formation lights enabled? |
whenever the auxiliary power unit (APU) or equivalent power source is available. |
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You cna command the portable maintenance aid (PMA) to turn on the F-22's weapon bay lighting when... |
PMA is put into maintenance mode. |
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The F-22's primary heat exchanger ejector shutoff valve opens and enables the ejectors when deenergized and inlet pressure is... |
greater than 25 psig. |
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IN event of a left and/or right primary bleed air regulator shutoff valve failure on the F-22, what provides redundant engine bleed air pressure and shutoff control to the warm air manifold (WAM)? |
Thermal management system (TMS) regulator shutoff valve. |
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A Wheatstone bridge circuit is an electrical circuit for the precise... |
comparison of resistances. |
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To help determine the integrity of certain F-22 bleed air ducts during the warm air manifold (WAM) leak detection function, the WAM air leak detection differential pressure sensor measures the... |
differential pressure across the WAM leak detection orifice. |
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Which of the F-22 air cycle refrigeration package (ACRP) heat exchanger (HE) assembly's four heat exchangers is an air-to-polyalphaolefin (PAO) unit that removes compressor outlet heat? |
Secondary HE. |
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The F-22's high pressure water extractor has a tube bend of... |
180 degrees. |
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The F-22's air cycle machine spins at a rate of... |
80,000 rpm. |
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The F-22 load heat exchanger differential pressure sensor measures pressure in the range of... |
0 to 20 pounds per square inch differential (psid). |
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Which leg of the F-22's forced air cooled avionics supplies cooling air to the cockpit? |
C leg. |
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What is the source of the cold conditioned air used by the F-22's cockpit distribution and defog system? |
Forced air cooled avionics system. |
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In the event of a polyalphaolefin (PAO) overpressure condition, the F-22 PAO reservoir's high pressure relief valve opens and vents the PAO into the... |
F2 fuel cell. |
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What is the maximum possible pressure rise from the F-22's polyalphaolefin (PAO) pumps? |
175 psid. |
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What refrigerant is used in the F-22 vapor cycle pack? |
R134a. |
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What pressurization range is the F-22 operating in when flying between 8,000 and 23,000 feet? |
Isobaric range. |
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In the differential range with a setting of 4.50 pounds per square inch (PSI), what would the F-22's cockpit pressure be if the outside pressure is 3.47 psi? |
7.97 psi. |
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When the F-22 canopy is down and locked, the canopy seal pressure regulator controls inflation of the canopy seal at...
|
20.00 psi. |
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In the vacuum relief mode, the F-22 cockpit pressure regulator valve opens to allow air from the ambient to flow into the cockpit when the... |
aircraft ambient pressure exceeds cockpit pressure. |
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Which F-22 cockpit pressure safety relief valve mode limits cockpit pressure to a nominal 5.5 pounds per square inch differential (PSID)? |
Pressure relief mode. |
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Oxygen in its natural state is... |
colorless, tasteless, and odorless. |
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Oxygen bottles, liquid oxygen (LOX), and LOX carts should be kept what distance from smoking areas? |
50 feet. |
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At altitudes between 10,000 and 15,000 feet, the greatest danger from hypoxia is... |
errors in judgment. |
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In a molecular sieve oxygen generating system, water droplets from the air are removed by... |
an OBOGS concentrator inlet filter. |
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When 1 liter of liquid oxygen (LOX) expands to a gas at atmospheric pressure, it will occupy a volume of.... |
860 liters. |
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Which of these is not a common size for a liquid oxygen (LOX) converter? |
20 liters. |
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In a liquid oxygen (LOX) system, what component has the ability to draw gaseous oxygen from the top of the converter for breathing purposes? |
Pressure opening valve. |
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What does the gaseous oxygen servicing trailer's purifier assembly remove from gaseous oxygen? |
Moisture. |
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What is the maximum pressure of compressed air used for cleaning gaseous oxygen (GOX) cart components? |
30 psi. |
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The F-22 on-board oxygen generation system (OBOGS) provides maximum oxygen concentration when the aircraft is above... |
11,000 feet. |
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Which F-22 oxygen pressure regulator switch tuns the on-board oxygen generation system (OBOGS) on and off? |
OBOGS switch. |
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What part of the F-22's automatic back up oxygen controller send static pressure to the internal aneroid for automatic activation? |
Static port. |
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The F-22's on-board inert gas generation system (OBIGGS) filter removes condensed liquid and particulates, consisting of aerosols greater than...
|
10 microns in diameter. |
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On the F-22 the landing gear limit switches are not actuated by movement of the.... |
sidestick |
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On the F-22 what standardized color indicates to the pilot that a condition in the landing gear could become critical? |
Amber. |
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What is the F-22 landing gear warning "horn"? |
An aural tone generator usually located in the cockpit. |
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What is the normal extension time for the F-22 landing gear? |
7 seconds. |
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During high gain operation, what is the F-22 nose wheel steering (NWS), the pilot uses the YAW trim switch on the flight control when the aircraft is taxiing.... |
between 25 and 35 knots. |
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What controls the hydraulic pressure in the F-22 brake actuators so that the force applied to the load is in proportion to the elctrical input signal generated by the integrated vehicle subsystem controller (IVSC) in response to the brake pedal position transducer? |
Electrohydraulic servovalves. |
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The F-22 brake control system software control logic determines the commanded brake pressure based on all of the following except.. |
airspeed. |
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When commanded to do so, what F-22 fire protection system component provides the signal to activate the electro-explosive device (EED) on the auxiliary power unit (APU) inlet doors?
|
Fire protection module 2. |
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How many thermal detector units are strategically located on the F-22 aircraft? |
12. |
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When an overheat condition is detected by the F-22's thermal overheat detection sub-subsystem or visual fire is detected by the engine/auxiliary power unit (ENG/APU) optical fire detection sub-subsystem, an indication is sent to the fire protection modules (FPMs) which causes... |
illumination of an appropriate cockpit warning light. |
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When the F-22's READY/DISCH switch/light is illuminated and then depressed by the pilot the... |
electro-explosive device is fired releasing extinguisher agent. |
