Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
198 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
SAFETY FUNDAMENTALS
|
AIRCRAFT HANDLING FUNDAMENTALS
|
|
Discuss the concept of ORM and it's process
|
(IAMIS)
Identify Assess Make Risk Decisions Implement Supervise |
|
Respiratory Protection Program
Hearing Conservation Program Sight Conservation Program Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) Program |
Respiratory- identifies employee respirator requirement due to the nature of their work or job
Hearing- designed to prevent hearing loss and ensure auditory fitness Sight- determines where eye protection is needed and what type PPE- assesses all workplaces to determine if hazards are present that necessitate the use of PPE |
|
Identify the EA-18G danger areas.
|
canopy, seat, DFIRS, external stores locations, engine, radar, antenna, exhaust, movable sufaces, flammable liquids and compressed gases
|
|
Identify the minimum safe distances from aircraft intakes/exhaust at:
IDLE MIL MAX |
Intake Exhaust
IDLE: 9 115-155 MIL: 25 325-725 MAX: 25 850-925 |
|
Purpose and Location of the aircraft STEP, NO STEP Areas
|
To avoid damaging composite material.
LEFS, TEFS, horizontal stabs, ailerons, radome |
|
Safety precautions when applying and removing external power
|
Ensure Circuitbreakers and switches are properly positioned
inspect power cable ensure power is secured mobile power unit is chocked and facing away from aircraft |
|
Identify the danger areas during Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) operations.
|
The Exhaust velocity of the APU reaches 142 MPH
The Exhaust temperature reaches 328-350 degrees Fahrenheit |
|
Precautions/Restrictions that Apply to Ordnance Loaded Aircraft
|
Major maintenance on aircraft is prohibited.
Minor maintenance and routine servicing may be conducted ONLY after all weapons have been safetied to the max degree. Don't apply power when weapons are loaded or being loaded. An aircraft requiring extensive troubleshooting shall be downloaded. |
|
WEAPONS LOADED placard/control stick cover indicates maintenance/servicing with electrical power is limited to:
|
Refueling
Replacement and checkout of comm and nav equipment, and engine performance and flight instruments Engine turnup for checkout Flight control and hydraulic system checks |
|
Precautions when handling Graphite or Carbon/Epoxy Composite Materials.
|
Wear respirator and close weave cotton gloves
|
|
State the number of tie-down points on the EA-18G and identify their location.
|
12 tie-down rings:
1&2- NLG 3- fwd, door 16 4- outboard left MLG 5- outboard right MLG 6&8- inboard left MLG 7&9- inboard right MLG 10&11- under wings in 107L/R 12- aft, door 164 |
|
State the proper procedures for aircraft grounding
|
Connect grounding cable to approved ground receptacle
then connect it to grounding point on the aircraft |
|
State the purpose of aircraft plugs and covers.
|
Protect aircraft openings and protruding surfaces from FOD and physical and environmental damage
|
|
Move Director
|
Primarily responsible for move, delivers the move brief.
Assembles a qualified move team, secures towbar, checks clearance and determines when aircraft is ready to move Sets the pace to a slow walking speed. |
|
Brake Rider
|
Conducts a pre-movement inspection of aircraft Ensures aircraft pins are installed and aircraft is free from servicing equipment / external cords
Ensures aircraft has enough brake pressure (Minimum 2900 PSI) Does not leave the cockpit until aircraft is spotted |
|
Chock Walker
|
Stays alert to director's signals
Pulls and installs chocks Checks for clearance throught move. Stay in a relatively safe position from aircraft wheels |
|
Safety Observer (Wing-Walker/Tail-Walker)
|
Conduct's a pre-tow inspection of the aircraft
Ensures aircraft is free of chains, cable cords, & SE and watches for obstructions during move |
|
Tractor Driver
|
Pre-OP's tractor
Tows aircraft at a slow walking speed Follows instructions from the director Avoid any and all obstructions |
|
Discuss towing preparations
|
a. Minimum structural access doors must be installed
b. Radome must be closed and secured (if installed). c. Doors 68 L/R (engine bay doors) closed or removed d. Hydraulic break pressure of 2900-psi minimum. e. Ensure aircraft is clear of all obstacles and support equipment. |
|
State the purpose of the landing gear aircraft ground safety pins
|
Locks the nose and main landing gear in the down position, preventing gear retraction.
|
|
Describe the hazard associated with canopy static buildup
|
a high voltage static electrical charge of up to 100,000 volts may build up and be stored in the canopy during flight or when aircraft is exposed to prolonged high winds
|
|
Discuss the canopy static discharge process
|
Make sure a/c is properly grounded
Connect a preop'd static charge removal kit to the ground receptacle and lightly tap the windshield and canopy until static is discharged |
|
AIRFRAMES FUNDAMENTALS
|
x
|
|
State the purpose of Hydraulic Fluid Contamination Analysis
|
Analyzes fluid contaminant level to ensure purity
Class 5 aircraft Class 3 GSE |
|
State the purpose of a tactical paint scheme
|
Lessen the probability of visual or photographic detection
|
|
State the purpose of the following publications and their application:
-NAVAIR 01-1A-509 -IETM |
509- Provides information on material & procedures to prevent & repair of corrosion
IETM- Provides information to support the diagnostics, maintenance, and repair of aircraft systems |
|
3 modes of wheel brake operation
|
Normal
Emergency Parking |
|
Discuss the purpose of composite airframe materials
|
limit weight, increase strength, and decrease effects of corrosion
|
|
Describe the 3 types of repair
|
Temporary Repair- simple and practical, allows aircraft to be flown until permanent repair can be made.
One-time flight- allows an aircraft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs Permanent repair- equals or exceeds strength of original structure or component with no adverse affects |
|
Radome
|
Covers radar and provides an electrically transparent window for transmission and reception of radar signals.
|
|
Forward Fuselage
|
Includes the windshield, canopy, cockpit, leading edge extension, and nose landing gear.
|
|
Center Fuselage
|
Includes main landing gear, intake ducts, external stores stations, fuselage fuel tanks and airframe mounted accessory drive.
|
|
Aft Fuselage
|
Includes the engines, speed brake, vertical stabilizers, horizontal stabilators, and arresting hook
|
|
Wings
|
Provides lift for the aircraft, stores fuel, houses LEF's, TEF's and Ailerons, outboard section folds for carrier operation, allows for attachment of non jettison pylons for weapons and stores.
|
|
Leading Edge Extension (LEX)
|
Provides added lift at high angles of attack. Mounted on either side of the Forward Fuselage they are an extension of the wing leading edge.
|
|
Ailerons
|
Deflect Asymmetrically to produce roll, Symmetrically to change lift.
Located outboard trailing edge of each wing. |
|
Leading Edge Flaps
|
Deflect Symmetrically to change lift.
Asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll. Located forward edge of wings. |
|
Trailing Edge Flaps
|
Deflect Asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll.
Deflect Symmetrically to change lift. Located aft edge of wings |
|
Stabilators
|
Deflect Symmetrically to produce pitch.
Asymmetrically to produce roll. Also provide pitch compensation during selection of the lex spoilers. The stabilators are located on either side of the tail of the aircraft. |
|
Rudders
|
Toe-in- increases lift and improves stability at AOA les than 8 degrees
Toe-out- improves stability at AOA greater than 8 degrees In flight is commanded Symmetrically to produce yaw |
|
LEX Spoiler
|
Provides speed brake when commanded by pilot at speeds less than MACH 1.5, provides a high nose down pitch movement when transitioning from a high AOA.
L/R of door 22L/R door 610 L/R |
|
Hydraulic System 1 (HS1)
Hydraulic System 2 (HS2) |
HS1- Provides hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source.
System contains pump manifold, pump reservoir, filter unit, case drain filter, oil fuel heat exchange, and related indicator. HS2- Same as HS 1. Provides hydraulic fluid pressure to the primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source. *The system also supplies pressure to all other non-flight control systems. |
|
Auxiliary Power Unit Accumulator
|
Gas Charge cylinder provides required fluid pressure to the APU start motor and emergency hydraulic systems
|
|
Switching Valves
|
allow backup hydraulic pressure to replace the primary hydraulic pressure, should it fail. If primary hydraulic is restored, the switching valve shifts to normal operating position
|
|
Nose Landing Gear
|
Nose landing gear strut assembly provides landing, takeoff and taxi energy absorption, and tire/runway compliance.
Located on the underside of the Forward Fuselage. |
|
Main Landing Gear
|
Absorbs the energy during landing and taxi operations. Also provides a stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore-based operations.
Located on the underside of the Center Fuselage. |
|
Wheel Brakes
|
Provides modulated individual wheel-controlled braking combined with an anti-skid system to prevent wheel skid.
|
|
Launch Bar
|
Provides a means of steering the aircraft during carrier deck tracking and engages the catapult, applying catapult tow forces to the aircraft.
Located on the forward side of the nose landing gear shock strut. |
|
Arresting Hook
|
Engages the arrestment cable on the carrier to stop the aircraft, also provides a means of stopping the aircraft where normal runway landings are unavailable
Located on the underside of the aft fuselage. |
|
Discuss basic operation of the Electronic Flight Control System
|
The Electronic flight control system is made up of two flight control computers that combine inputs with air data and inertial inputs and provide electrical signals to servo actuators which move control surfaces. A built-in test provides failure warning and fault isolation.
|
|
Discuss Emergency Extension of the Landing Gear
|
Emergency extension is primarily free fall aided by stored energy in the MLG shock absorber and hydraulic system no. 2B pressure.
|
|
POWER PLANTS
|
xx
|
|
State the 3 modes of operation for the APU
|
Environmental Control Systems
Ground Maintenance Mode Main Engine Start |
|
State the purpose and location of the IFR probe
|
Right forward fuselage
Allows inflight refueling |
|
Purpose of Aircraft Fuel Storage System
|
Manage and store fuel for delivery to aircraft engines
4 internal fuselage tanks 2 internal wing tanks and up to 5 external tanks |
|
State the purpose of the foam-lined wing tanks.
|
To self-seal holes or damage, decreasing fire and explosion hazards
|
|
What are the secondary power systems?
|
APU
AMAD Secondary power compressed air |
|
Auxilary Power Unit (APU)
|
A centrifugal flow gas turbine engine that supplies air for ECS operation and MES and GMM through AMADs.
Located in door 52. |
|
Airframe Mounted Accessory Drive (AMAD)
|
Consists of two identical interchangeable gearboxes that are mechanically connected to the engine by a power transmission shaft (PTS). And is pneumatically connected to the APU through the air turbine starter (ATS). The AMAD transmits power to the engine for starts.
Power to drive the AMAD accessories is provided by the engine during normal operations or by the APU during ground maintenance operations. Located inside door 53L/R. |
|
Secondary Power Compressed Air
|
Provides pneumatic power for operating the air turbine starter or the environmental control system, provided by the APU or engine bleed air.
An air connection is located in the right well wheel and allows use of an external air source for system operation (huffer starts). |
|
State the model type and engine used in the EA-18G
|
F414-GE-400 is a low by-pass axial flow turbo fan engine of modular construction with afterburner
|
|
Ignition
|
An automatic, intermittent duty, AC powered, capacitor discharge system.
Remains on until N2 rpm is 54% or more or throttle is below idle. |
|
Lubrication
|
Provides lubrication and cooling to required bearings and gears.
|
|
Main fuel
|
Primarily supplies fuel for all main fuel combustion operations from IDLE to MIL power.
Also used for hydraulics and cooling. |
|
Afterburner fuel
|
Governs the correct afterburner fuel flow controlling afterburner operation from start through MAX
|
|
Variable Exhaust Nozzle (VEN)
|
throat area for exhaust gasses from the turbine and afterburner.
Provides thrust and fuel efficiencies while maintaining exhaust gas temperature. |
|
Variable Geometry
|
Consists of:
Fan Variable Geometry- which provides the best efficiency of the fan while preserving fan stall margin. Compressor Variable Geometry- which provides the best efficiency of the compressor while preserving compressor stall margin. |
|
Anti-icing
|
Manually activated system that provides anti-ice air flow to prevent ice buildup on air inlet hardware.
|
|
Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC)
|
Receives aircraft and engine sensor information and determines the appropriate engine scheduling to operate the engine.
|
|
Throttle
|
Provides pilot control of engines.
L&R throttles independently control L&R engines respectively. Movement is transmitted by an electrical interface that communicates with the FADEC. |
|
Fuel Systems
|
x
|
|
Fuel storage
|
Fuel is stored in:
4 internal fuselage tanks 2 internal wing tanks and up to 5 external tanks |
|
Refuel/Defuel System
|
A manifold with a single point ground and an outlet in each tank.
Refuel/Defuel Can be done with or without electrical power or with engines operating and is monitored and controlled from door 8. |
|
Internal Fuel Transfer
|
Keeps tanks 2 and 3 full and controls the sequence of tank-to-tank transfer.
1 & 2 transfer to 2 & 3 wing fuel tanks replenish 4 |
|
Center of Gravity (CG) Control
|
The SDC monitors the amount of fuel in tanks 1 and 4; so, if fuel in tank 4 becomes excessive the computer will close its valves to prevent an aft center of gravity problem
|
|
Hot Fuel Recirculation
|
Cools the fuel by circulating fuel up into the wings to be cooled by means of convection, which is used to dissipate heat from the AMAD and hydraulic system
|
|
Fuel Pressurization and Vent
|
Maintains positive pressure on the fuel in all tanks and vents fuel vapors overboard
|
|
Fuel Quantity Gauging
|
Fuel quantity is measured using capacitance gauging transmitters that send signals to the SDC
|
|
State the components driven by the AMAD.
|
fuel boost/motive flow pump
electrical generator 3000/5000 psi hydraulic pump |
|
How does the AMAD interface with the APU and engine?
|
The AMAD is pneumatically connected to APU through the air turbine starter (ATS). The AMAD transmits power from the ATS to the engine for starting and motoring. Power to drive the AMAD accessories is provided by the engine during normal operation and by the APU in the ground maintenance mode of operation.
|
|
What safety precautions must be observed during engine ground turn-up?
|
During engine ground turn-up, danger can stem from exhaust velocity and temperature, air intakes, and noise.
Wear proper PPE. |
|
What special safety precautions apply to:
- Fueling - Defueling |
Do NOT do within:
100ft of airborne radio or radar equipment 300ft of ground radar equipment. Wear goggles, monitor guages, and man a fire bottle. Same as fueling. |
|
AVIONICS/ELECTRICAL
|
xx
|
|
Barometric Altimeter
Radar Altimeter |
Barometric- uses pitot-static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level
Radar- uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level |
|
1) Azimuth
2) Bearing 3) Range |
1) Angular position in a horizontal plane usually measured clockwise from true north.
2) Angular position of an object from a reference point 3) Distance of an object from an observer |
|
1) Heading
2) True Heading 3) Magnetic direction 4) Relative direction |
1) Actual orientation of aircrafts longitudinal axis
2) Direction measured by true north 3) Uses direction of earth's magnetic field at that location as reference 4) Uses the current direction that an object is facing as the 0/360-azimuth alignment |
|
State the advantage of using Fiber Optic Cables in the EA-18G
|
The provide improved system performance
Immunity to electrical noise Signal security Improved safety, environmental protection Reduce size and weight |
|
State the purpose of the following communication systems
Very-High Frequency/Ultra-High Frequency (VHF/UHF |
provides air-to-air and air-to-ground communications in fixed frequency or anti-jam mode
|
|
State the purpose of the following communication systems
Intercommunication and Audio System (IAS) |
Provides amplification and routing of audio signals between cockpit, ground crew, and rear cockpit.
It also provides supplemental and backup Communication, radio navigation, and identification (CNI) controls, combined aircraft tones, and voice alerting. |
|
Name the Navigation Systems
|
TACAN
INS GPS ARI ILS |
|
Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN)
|
determine the relative bearing and distance to a TACAN ground station or TACAN equipped aircraft.
The TACAN is also used to update the aircraft present position being kept by another source (INS or ADC) |
|
Inertial Navigation System (INS)
|
Fully automatic dead reckoning navigation system.
On 164945 and up A/C the INS is closely coupled by the MC with the GPS to provide position and velocity data. The INS detects aircraft motion and provides position information to related systems. |
|
Global Positioning System (GPS)
|
A navigation system that receives reference information from a satellite source and provides the pilot and other aircraft systems with updated present position, velocity and time information.
|
|
Attitude Reference Indicator (ARI)
|
A self-contained attitude reference system that provides backup pitch and roll attitude for use by other systems. Provides 3 minutes of attitude information with loss of power.
Consists of an electrically driven gyro that maintains vertical orientation through use of electronic erection system. |
|
Instrument Landing System (ILS)
|
An all weather approach guidance system. The ILS decodes transmitted azimuth and elevation signals during an aircraft approach and provides steering information to be displayed on the head-up display (HUD)
|
|
Tactical Mission Systems
|
Data Link
RADAR MC |
|
Data Link
|
A two-way uhf communication link between the aircraft and other ship, air, or ground systems.
Has 4 modes: Automatic Carrier Landing (ACL) Vector (VEC) Waypoint Alignment (ALGN) |
|
Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)
|
Provides Air-to-air (A/A) and Air-to-ground (A/G) modes for target detection, designation, tracking and navigation
|
|
Mission Computer (MC)
|
MC System is made of 2 identical digital data computers that control the display sent to the multipurpose display group.
(Computes and produces missile launch and weapon release commands) |
|
Tactical Electronic Warfare Systems
|
xx
|
|
Communication Countermeasures Set (CCS)
ALQ-227 |
Produces waveforms for jamming low frequency communication - and provides growth provisions for a high power CCS transmitter
Compatible with ALQ-99 low band transmitter |
|
ALQ-99
|
Provides Very Low to High Band radar and communication jamming of hostile radar and communications, in order to enable a safer penetration of enemy airspace.
|
|
ALQ-165/214
|
onboard jamming system; uses multiple techniques to defeat tracking and acquisition radar
|
|
ALQ-218
|
Detects, classifies, locates, and reports radar emitters and associated signals received by antennas mounted around the aircraft on the forward and aft fuselage and on the wingtips.
System is made up of: 9 WRAs 20 antenna 6 power dividers |
|
What are the major components of the AN/ALQ-99 Tactical Jamming System
|
Turbo-generator housing (hardback)
Transmitters Universal Exciter Ram air turbo-generator Radome |
|
Identify the location of the major components of the AN/ALQ-99 Tactical Jamming
|
|
|
What are the multipurpose display group (MDG) components?
|
HUD
DDI (L/R) UFCD MPCD |
|
Heads-Up Display (HUD)
|
Provides flight, navigational steering, and weapon delivery information to the pilot's forward field of view.
The total forward field of view is 20 degrees, with optical center 4 degrees below aircraft waterline |
|
Digital Display Indicators (DDI)
|
LDDI-used primarily for stores management, caution, advisory, and BIT displays.
RDDI-used primarily for sensor displays. Information can be brought up on either DDI and both are interchangeable. |
|
Up Front Control Display (UPCD)
|
Touch screen, provides for entry and display of aircraft data, used for selection and control of communication, navigation, and identification functions.
|
|
Multipurpose Color Display (MPCD)-
|
MPCD has mechanical pushbuttons for operator inputs and is used as a multifunction display; if two different map formats are selected on the front and rear MPCD:
one displays the map video as background and the other displays symbology. |
|
Describe the function of the Digital Map Set (DMS)
|
The DMS is made up of a Digital Map Computer (DMC) and a high speed interface cable. It's part of the Tactical Aircraft Moving Map Capability (TAMMAC) system which provides enhanced navigational/tactical situational awareness to aircrew, using a moving map and image database.
|
|
Describe the function of the Solid State Recorder
|
Records cockpit and sensor video, also stores off-board images and allows access to images loaded on the Removable Memory Module (RMM)
|
|
State the location, purpose, and color of the following exterior lights
|
xx
|
|
Position
|
Show position of A/C at night
left-red right-green tail-white |
|
Strobe
|
Two red (anti-collision) lights, one on each outboard vertical stab.
Day ID strobe light (white) is located on the NLG strut and is used to identify the aircraft |
|
Landing/taxi
|
White light on the nose gear strut. Used to illuminate the taxiway/runway
|
|
Approach
|
On NLG strut, activated when all landing gear are down and locked and weight off wheels. Displays the AOA to the LSO during carrier approach.
|
|
Formation Lights
|
8 green LED lights. Two on each wing tip, one outside of each vertical stab, and one on each side of the forward fuselage just forward of the lex. They indicate changes of attitude and relative position of aircraft flying in formation.
|
|
State the purpose of the Deployable Flight Incident Recorder Set (DFIRS)
|
The purpose of DFIRS is to store flight data and to deploy it before a crash. In door 300; a thin layer explosive, impact initiator, and detonation cord provide deployment operations. A beacon will transmit signals to be detected by search and rescue sattelite for 72 hours.
|
|
Flight Reference Equipment
|
Pitot Static System
Indicated Airspeed Indicator Standby Pressure Altimeter Vertical Speed Indicator |
|
Pitot Static System
|
Measures temperature, pitot and static pressures surrounding the aircraft.
|
|
Indicated Airspeed Indicator
|
Displays airspeed as a function of the pitot and static pressure. Airspeed is indicted in 10-knot increments from 50 to 200 and 50-knot increments from 200 to 850
|
|
Standby Pressure Altimeter
|
Displays altitude with 3 displays:
-A pointer display for alt to 1000ft in 50ft increments, -A drum display for alt to 99,000ft with 1000ft increments -A four digit display, indicating barometric pressure in inches of mercury |
|
Vertical Speed Indicator
|
Senses changes in air pressure and displays them in the form of climb or dive rate from 0 to 6000 feet per minute
Upper half indicates rate of climb Lower half indicates dive rate |
|
Air Data System Components
|
Air Data Pressure Transmitters
AOA indexer AOAT |
|
Air Data Pressure Transmitters
|
Converts pneumatic static and total pressure inputs from pitot probes into digital signals. Air data is sent to the roll-pitch-yaw computers where it is evaluated to produce true air data. Air and true air data are used by roll-pitch-yaw computer software for flight control law computations, pilot displays, and other avionics systems.
|
|
Angle of Attack (AOA) indexer
|
Operates with landing gear down and weight off wheels, shows pilot approach AOA with lighted symbols
|
|
Angle of Attack Transmitters (AOAT)
|
measures the difference between the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the airstream
|
|
Describe the function of the following electrical power components:
|
X
|
|
Power Supply
|
Consists of two generators, two transformer-rectifiers (TR), one battery with battery charger, and a power distribution (bus) system.
Each GEN provides a primary AC source and 3 isolated DC sources from a PMG. Normal operation- L GEN powers L buses while R GEN powers R buses, if one fails, the other will carry the load of the battery. |
|
Maintenance Battery
|
Supplies 28vdc to the essential and maintenance buses. It will supply power to the essential buses if both power supplies and generators are inoperative. It also supplies power for engine start when external power is not applied.
|
|
Generator
|
Each generator is a variable speed constant frequency power system supplying 115/200vdc, 400 Hz, three phase electrical power.
With the presence of underspeed, over/under voltage, over/under frequency, feeder fault, excessive waveform, or excessive DC voltage- the generator will de-energize and must be reset |
|
Describe the function of the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)
|
Provides autopilot and automatic throttle control (ATC)
|
|
State the purpose of the nose wheel well Digital Display Indicator (NDDI)
|
Receives and stores maintenance codes and displays them upon operator request.
Provides for manual activation of MSDRS to perform fluids level test of consumable fluids. |
|
Digital Memory Device (DMD)
|
Programmable solid state memory device. Records mission and maintenance data on two downloadable memory cards.
Communicates with the MC system to provide maintenance code history, fatigue strain gage, engine and tactical data. |
|
State the purpose of Flight Incident Recorder and Monitoring System (FIRAMS)
|
Monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and caution/advisory conditions.
|
|
Discuss the Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS)
|
JHMCS improves situational awareness, increases aircraft survivability and increases the ability to acquire a visual target.
|
|
State the objective of the Explosive Handling Qualification and Certification Program
|
To certify and train all personnel in safely performing tasks involving explosive devices
|
|
State the purpose of suspension/accessory equipment
|
To suspend and release stores, bombs, and a variety of missiles
|
|
State the purpose of an impulse cartridge (Cartridge Actuated Devices (CADS))
|
To eject single stores and a variety of weapons from the aircraft
|
|
Define the following acronyms:
AIM AGM CATM HERO |
Air-Launched Intercept-Aerial Guided Missile. (Air Intercept Missile)
Air-Launched Surface-Attack Guided Missile. (Air to Ground Missile) Captive Air Training Missile Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance |
|
Describe the application of the following types of bombs:
Retarded Non-Retarded |
Retarded- Used during low-level bombing, fins open to slow down weapon, allowing jet time to clear the area
Non-Retarded- Used during high-level bombing, fins remain closed, allowing weapon to fall unimpeded to target |
|
Explain the significance of the following color-coding on weapons:
Yellow Brown Blue |
Yellow- High Explosive
Brown- Rocket Motor Blue- Training |
|
Define the following types of weapon-guided systems:
Active Semi-active Passive |
Active- target illumination is supplied by component inside the missile
Semi-Active- Illumination is received from an outside source, such as aircraft Passive- Illumination is received from target |
|
Describe the purpose of chaff and flares as countermeasure devices.
Chaff Flares |
Chaff- Finely shredded metal strips that disperse into the atmosphere and jam radar
Flares- Used as decoy for heat seeking missiles |
|
Describe the hazards associated with forward firing ordnance.
|
auto-ignition
toxic chemicals inadvertent separation from aircraft high heat protruding surfaces motor detonation |
|
Describe the type of bomb rack used on the EA-18G.
|
BRU-32
Used to suspend and eject single stores and weapons with a 14 or 30 inch suspension. |
|
Describe the location and purpose of the ICM switch.
|
On left forward fuselage.
Extended/safe position- all countermeasure dispensing is inhibited Flush/arm position- dispensing is enabled |
|
State the purpose of the following components of the Stores Management System or (SMS)
1) Armament control processor set (aka SMS) 2) Command Launch Computer (CLC) |
1) Provides electrical interface between weapon stations and aircraft. Consists of the Armament Computer and up to nine Signal Data Converter Controls.
2) Controls and monitors the high-speed anti-radiation missile (HARM) ((Door 13R)) |
|
State the purpose of the Countermeasures Dispensing system:
-AN/ALE-47 -AN/ALE-50 |
47- The system provides protection for the aircraft against enemy radars and missiles by ejecting chaff, flares, or other jammer payloads.
50- A towed active RF decoy system which provides an effective off-board countermeasures capability |
|
State the basic armament configuration of the EA-18G aircraft.
|
Fuselage LAU-116 missile launchers
Wingtip ALQ-218 pods SUU-78 centerline pylon SUU-79 in/mid board wing pylons SUU-80 outboard pylons BRU-32 bomb racks ADU-733 launcher adapters |
|
Stations:
1) LAU-127 2) LAU-116 3) SUU-78 4) SUU-79 5) SUU-80 6) BRU-32 |
1) LAU-127 - 2 or 10
2) LAU-116 - 5 & 7 3) SUU-78 - 6 4) SUU-79 - 3, 4, 8, 9 5) SUU-80 - 2, 10 6) BRU-32 - All pylons |
|
State the basic characteristics of the following air-to-air missiles:
AIM-7 series (Sparrow) guided missile |
Solid fuel rocket propelled air-to-air missile with a conventional warhead that uses SEMI-ACTIVE radar homing
|
|
AIM-9 series (Sidewinder) guided missile
AIM-9M AIM-9X |
9M- A supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with a PASSIVE infrared target detection, proportional-navigation guidance, and torque balance control system.
9X- A supersonic, air-to-air weapon with improved maneuverability. Incorporates a cryo-engine to eliminate the need for a cryo gas bottle. |
|
AIM-120 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM)
|
Is a supersonic, air-to-air weapon, with active radar target detection and on-board inertial navigation guidance.
|
|
State the basic characteristics of the following air to ground missiles:
AGM-65 (Maverick) series missile |
A solid fuel rocket propelled AGM missile with a conventional warhead, uses imaging infared guidance.
|
|
AGM-84 series missiles
-AGM-84D (Harpoon) -AGM-84E Stand-off Land Attack Missile (SLAM) -AGM-84H Stand-off Land Attack Missile Expanded Response (SLAM-ER) |
AGM-84 series: Liquid fuel jet engine propelled AGM missiles with conventional warhead, primarily used as anti-ship weapons.
D- Uses active radar seeker E- Uses INS, GPS, and IR for guidance H- Improved control, range, and target penetration |
|
AGM-88 High-speed Anti-Radiation Missile (HARM)
|
A solid fuel rocket propelled AGM with conventional warhead, uses proportional guidance to home in on threat radar emissions.
|
|
AVIATION LIFE SUPPORT/EGRESS
|
X
|
|
Identify the minimum requirements for aircrew Personnel Protective Equipment
|
1) Flight suit
2) Aircrew fliers boots 3) Anti-g garment 4) Helmet 5) Survival radio/beacon 6) Gloves 7) Anti-exposure suit 8) ID tags 9) Knife 10) Personal survival kit 11) Signal device 12) Flashlight 13) Life preserver 14) Laser eye protection |
|
State the purpose of the Environmental Control System (ECS)
|
Provides Avionics Cooling and Aircrew Comfort
|
|
Environmental Control System (ECS) 12 subsystems:
|
1) Bleed air control
2) Bleed air leak detection 3) Air cycle conditioning 4) Cabin cooling and defog 5) Avionics cooling 6) Cabin pressurization 7) Anti-g 8) On-board oxygen generating system (OBOGS) 9) Windshield anti-ice and rain removal 10) Radar Liquid cooling 11) Canopy seal 12) Wave guide pressurization |
|
State the purpose of the following personal flight equipment:
Oxygen Mask |
Provides breathing gas upon demand at a pressure schedule dependent on the altitude. Also provides facial protection from projectiles and fire as well as being qualified for depths of 16ft under water.
|
|
The CRU-103/P Oxygen regulator
|
A chest mounted, positive pressure, g-modulated regulator that provides on demand oxygen flow to the aircrew
|
|
The LPU-36/P Life Preserver
|
A Low Profile Floatation Collar equipped with the FLU-8B/P automatic/manual inflation assembly authorized for use only with aircraft equipped with ejection seats.
|
|
Anti-G Suit
|
Consist of a bladder system encased in fire-resistant cloth, As G-forces increase the bladders inflate automatically to apply pressure on the body to restrict downward bloodflow and lessen the effects of blackout.
|
|
State the objective of the Egress Systems Checkout Certification Program.
|
To familiarize and monitor personnel working in or around the cockpit with the ejection systems.
-Must qualify before working on or around aircraft -Every 6 months -After 90 days TAD |
|
State the purpose of the ejection seats.
|
Provides a place for the aircrew to sit and for emergency egress during flight
|
|
Define the following conditions:
Hypoxia Anoxia |
Hypoxia- Decrease in the amount of oxygen per unit volume of air which results in an insufficient amount of oxygen in the bloodstream causing the eyes, body and muscles to fail. (Blackout) ((Insufficient oxygen-causes blackout))
Anoxia- Death caused by complete lack of oxygen. |
|
Identify the two types of Aviator's Breathing Oxygen (ABO
|
Type I: Gaseous oxygen - MIL-0-272710D
Type II: Liquid oxygen |
|
State the purpose of the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System (DBFSS)
|
The Dry Bay Fire Suppression System suppresses fire events associated with ballistic damage to the aircraft before a significant fire occurs. Performs without pilot action and consists of 14 optical fire detectors, 6 dry bay extinguishers and a fire suppression control alarm.
|
|
State the purpose of the Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit (PHSRU)
|
A sea water activated release system that provides a backup automatic mode of separating the parachute from the aircrew.
|
|
Describe the A/A24A-56 Helmet Unit, Intergrated, Joint Helmet Mounted Cueing System (JHMCS)
|
A display system used to cue, verify, and employ weapons and sensors in high off bore sight angles.
Provides the mounting platform for the HDU and protects the operator from high impact and wind during ejection. |
|
State the purpose of the Helmet Mounted Display Unit (HDU)
|
HDU displays symbology onto the visor and is superimposed on the operators view.
Also records real-world view by routing the video to the cockpit video recording system (CVRS) |
|
Discuss the location and type of ejection seat used in the EA-18G.
|
The ejection seat is a SJU-17B (V) 2/A (front) 9/B (back)
The seat is automatic, cartridge operated, and rocket assisted. Ejection is initiated by pulling the ejection control handle on the front of the seat bucket. |
|
Discuss the location and procedures for the operation of the canopy system.
Normal Operation Emergency Operation |
Normal Operation- Electrically with internal or external switch. Manually as backup when electrical power fails.
Emergency Operation- Canopy Jettison |
|
Discuss the location and operation of the Aircraft Fire Detection and Fire Extinguishing Systems.
|
The fire detection system monitors the AMAD, APU, and engine bays for fire or overheat conditions. Provides audible and visual warnings of these conditions.
The fire extinguishing system uses a single fire extinguisher tank with 3 distribution lines, one for APU, and one for each engine bay. A one shot, one bay system. |
|
Environmental Control Systems:
Bleed Air System |
Consists of various clamped, insulated metal ducts that connect system control valves and sensors.
The system supplies hot, high pressure engine bleed air for the ECS, OBOGS, and external fuel tank pressurization. |
|
Air Cycle Air Conditioning System
|
Cools and conditions engine bleed air for use in ECS and other systems.
|
|
Anti-Gravity System
|
Made of tubing and a valve that automatically regulates air pressure to the pilot's anti-g suit to increase pilot tolerance to high acceleration levels.
|
|
On-board Oxygen Generation System (OBOGS)
|
Series of lines valves and a concentrator that regulate pressure, control flow and distribute oxygen to the crew station.
Contaminants are removed from engine bleed air leaving an oxygen rich breathing gas mixture. Gas is ducted to the cockpit to be monitored for the correct oxygen content before being supplied to the pilot. Waste gases are vented overboard. |
|
Ejection Seat System
|
Operated by ballistic gas pressure. Each seat initiator contains 2 cartridges. Gases from the right cartridge start canopy jettison, activate the seat electronic sequencer and restraints, and fires the seat catapult after a delay inserted by the escape system. Gases from the left cartridge redundantly activate the seat electronic sequencer and also provides a backup source to fire the seat catapult.
|
|
Canopy System
|
Provides the capability to explosively jettison the canopy from the aircraft in case of emergency.
Jettison is automatic when seat ejection is initiated. A CANOPY JETT lever in the cockpit initiates canopy jettison without initiating seat ejection. |
|
Emergency Oxygen System
|
Located in the seat pan and is manually operated by a green handle located on the left side of the seat platform.
Emergency oxygen is automatically activated during ejection by a lanyard connected to the cockpit floor. An oxygen hose provides connections between the pilot and the aircraft survival kit system. |
|
Describe the safety precautions that apply to:
Ejection Seats Canopy Jettison System Canopy Operation |
Ejection Seats- Pins are installed and handle safe
Canopy Jettison System- Ensure canopy jettison pin is installed Canopy Operation- Do not leave canopy in an intermediate position or open/close when in motion. Don't use battery power to open below 0 degrees. Insure clearance before operation. Canopy ground safety pin installed. |
|
OPERATIONAL FUNDAMENTALS
|
X
|
|
Define the following acronyms:
AIRNAV ACM BFM CAP CAS CSAR FAC |
AIRNAV- Airborne Navigation
ACM- Air Combat Maneuvering BFM- Basic Fighter Maneuvering CAP- Combat Air Patrol Station CAS- Close Air Support CSAR- Combat Search and Rescue FAC- Forward Air Combat |
|
Define the following acronyms:
FCLP SEAD WAS EWSEX HARMEX |
FCLP- Field Carrier Landing Practice
SEAD- Suppression Enemy Air Defences WAS- War at Sea EWSEX- Electronic Warfare System Exercise HARMEX- Harm Missile Exercise |
|
Aviator Flight Rules:
VMC IMC |
(Visual Meteorological Conditions)
Expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling equal to or better than specified minimums of 1000 ft. ceiling and 3 mile visibility (1000/3). (Instrument Meteorological Conditions) Expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds and ceiling less than the minimum specified (If the weather is less than 1000/3 then IMC exists.) |
|
Aviator Flight Rules:
VFR IFR |
(Visual Flight Rules)
Rules that govern the procedures for conducting flights under visual conditions. (Instrument Flight Rules) Rules that govern the procedures for conducting instrument flight. |
|
Discuss the purpose of the Carrier Air Traffic Control Center (CATCC)
|
Primary control of airborne aircraft operating from the carrier, responsible for the status and upkeep of all carrier air operations.
|
|
Describe the following Landing Systems:
Describe the following: Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (FLOLS) Manually Operated Visual Landing System (MOVLAS) |
The FLOLS or “meatball” is an optical system on board the carrier that aids pilots in landing aboard the ship.
MOVLAS is an emergency system that is supposed to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inoperative. (due to excessive pitching) |
|
Command's Mission Statement
|
To indoctrinate, train, and qualify USN, USMC, and USAF aircrew in the EA-18G aircraft to fight and win in electronic combat. We enhance fleet combat readiness with direct support.
|
|
Warfare Mission Areas:
Anti-Air Warfare (AAW) Anti-Surface Ship Warfare (ASU) Anti-Submarine Warefare (ASW) |
AAW- The detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy air platforms and weapons, whether launched by the enemy from air, surface, subsurface, or land platforms.
ASU- detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy ships ASW- detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy submarines |
|
Warfare Mission Areas:
Command and Control Warfare (C2W) Fleet Support Operations (FSO) Intelligence (INT) |
C2W- The integrated use of psychological operations (PSYOP), military deception, operations security (OPSEC), electronic warfare (EW), and physical destruction; mutually supported by intelligence, to deny information to, influence, degrade, or destroy adversary.
FSO- consists of non-logistics replenishment to fleet units INT- collection, processing, and evaluation of valuable information through reconnaissance and surveillance |
|
Warfare Mission Areas:
Mine Warfare (MIW) Mobility (MOB) Strike Warfare (STW) |
MIW- use of mines in sea control and mine countermeasure over, under, or on surface.
MOB- ability of naval forces to maneuver or maintain themselves over, under or upon surface. STW- destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons. |