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284 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Chemicals used to diagnose, treat or prevent disease.
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Drug
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Study of drugs adn their reactions with the body.
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Pharmacology
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4 names of a drug:
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1. Chemical
2. Generic (manufacturer) 3. Official (FDA puts it in United States Pharmacopiea) 4. Brand (manufacturer) |
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4 sources of drugs:
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1. Plants
2. Animals 3. Minerals 4. Laboratory (synthetic) |
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6 soureces of drug info:
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1. United States Pharmacopeia (USP)
2. Physicians' Desk Reference 3. Drug Information 4. Monthly Prescribing Ref. 5. AMA Drug Evaluation 6. Internet |
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The official standard for info about pharmaceuticals in the US is:
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United States Pharmacopeia
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The complilation of drug inserts that includes 3 indicies and photos of drgs is:
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Physicians Desk Reference
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The American Hosptial Formulary Service publishes ___ , which contains a listing of mongraphs on many drugs used in the US.
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Drug Information
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Designed to help physicians prescribe and determine which meds are available is known as:
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Monthly Prescribing Reference
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11 parts of a drug profile include:
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1. Name
2. Classification 3. Mechanism of Action 4. Indications 5. Pharmaokinetics 6. Side Effects/Adverse Reactions 7. Routes 8. Contraindications 9. Dosage 10. How Supplied 11. Special Considerations |
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__ is the way a drug causes its effects.
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Mechanism of Action or Pharmadynamics
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Conditions that make administration of drug ok.
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Indications
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How the drug is absorbed, distributed and eliminated.
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Pharmacokinetics
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Conditions in which the drug should not be administered.
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Contraindications
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The federal initiative that named USP as country's official drug source:
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The Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
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___ limited the indiscrimiate use of addicting drugs by regulatin the importation, manufacture, sale and use of opium and cocaine.
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The Harrison Narcotic Act of 1914
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___ empowered the FDA to enforce and set premarket saftey standards on drugs.
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The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938
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___ created 5 schedules of controlled substances , each with its own level of control and record keeping.
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Controlled Substances Act of 1970
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Schedule I
Description Examples |
High abuse, no accepted med indications, research only
Heroin, LSD, mescaline |
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Schedule II
Description Examples |
High abuse, accepted med indication,
Opium, cocaine, morphine, codeine, oxycodone, methadone, secobarbitual |
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Schedule III
Description Examples |
Less abuse, mod-low dependence, accepted med indications
Vicodin, Tylenol w/codeine |
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Schedule IV
Description Examples |
Low abuse, limited dependence, accepted med indications
Diazepam, lorazepam, phenobarbital |
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Schedule V
Description Examples |
Low abuse, may lead to dependence, accepted med indications
Opioids for caugh or diarrhea |
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True or False: EMS do not have to have permission (standing orders) to give over the counter meds, such as aspirin?
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False
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Test that determines the amount and purity of a given chemical in a preparation in the lab.
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Assay
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Relative therapeutic effectiveness of chemically equivalent drugs.
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Bioequivalence
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Test to ascertain a drug's availability in a biological model.
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Bioassay
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6 Rights of Medication
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1. Right Person
2. Right Drug 3. Right Dose 4. Right Time 5. Right Route 6. Right Documentation |
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True or False: Is there ever a time that a drug's benefit to a pregnant mother must outweigh the risk of harm to the fetus?
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True (cardiac arrest of mother)
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2 problems with pharmacology of a pregnant PT:
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1. Anatomy change in mother
2. Possible harm to fetus |
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Medication that may deform or kill the fetus.
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Teratogenic Drug
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FDA Pregnancy Categories
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A - Studies in preg women w/no harm
B - Animal studies, but no women C - Animal studies w/adverse affect D - Fetal risk, but circumstance may out way risk X - Fetal risk and risk outweighs benefit for mother |
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Proportion of a drug available in the body to cause either desired or undesired effects.
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Free Drug Availabilty
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True or False: Newborns absorb oral medications less then adults?
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True
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True or False: Because children have thinner skin they absorb topical meds faster than adults?
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True
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True or False: Children have less plasma then adults so the meds that bond to proteins and are metabolized are not as plentiful leaving a higher Free Drug Availability?
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True
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___ is a useful tool for calculating drug dosages for a pediatric PT.
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Broselow Tape
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Dosing for peds patients is based on their ___ and ___.
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Size and age
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When dealing with the size of a ped patient __ and __ are the two most common factors in calculating dosages?
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Body surface area and weight
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True or False: With geriatric patients, a decrease in plasma protein, decrease gastrointestinal motility and aging process of the renal system lead to a slow elimination of meds?
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True
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How a drug interacts with the body to case its effect.
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Pharmacodynamics
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The 4 processes of Pharmacokinetics:
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1. Absorption
2. Distribution 3. Biotransformation 4. Elimination |
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This type of transport requires the use of energy, such as ATP or ADP, to move a substance.
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Active Transport
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Process in which carrier proteins transport large molecules across the cell membrane.
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Carrier-mediation diffusion or
Facilitated diffusion |
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Diffusion involves the movement of a __ in the solution from a higher to lower concentration.
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Solute
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Osmosis involves the movement of a __ (usually water) from a area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration.
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Solvent
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Movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of higher pressure to an area of lower pressure.
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Filtration
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4 ways to transport a cell:
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1. Carrier-mediated
2. Diffusion 3. Osmosis 4. Filtration |
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3 types of Aborption:
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1. Orally
2. IM 3. Subcutaneous |
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True or False: The rate of absorption is not directly related to the surface area absorbing the drug.
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False
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T or F: The greater the blood flow to an area the faster the absorption rate.
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True
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The amount of the drug still available after the drug reaches the tissue.
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Bioavailability
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___ is one of the chief proteins in the blood that is available for binding with drugs.
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Albumin
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Name given to the metabolism of drugs.
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Biotransformation
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Biotransformation has 2 effects on drugs:
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1. Turn more or less metabolite
2. Make more water soluble for elimination (less lipid soluble.) |
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Medication not active when administered, but biotransformation converts it into active metabolites.
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Prodrug
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The liver's partial or complete inactivation of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation.
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First-pass effect
(one reason some drugs must be given IV instead of orally) |
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The loss of Hydrogen atoms or the addition of Oxygen atoms to increase the positive charge on a molecule. Used to metabolize drugs in the Liver.
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Oxidation
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The breakage of a chemical bond by adding water. Used to metabolize drugs in the Liver.
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Hydrolysis
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4 Ways to eliminate waste (Buffer.)
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1. Urine
2. Feces 3. Respiration 4. Bicarbonate |
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Delivery of a medication through the gastrointestinal tract.
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Enteral Routes
Oral Sublingual |
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Delivery of medication outside of the gastrointestinal tract.
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Parenteral Routes
IV IM Sub Cu |
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4 Pharmacodaymic ways a drug acts.
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1. Bind to a receptor (most common)
2. Change physical property of cell 3. Chemically combine with other chemicals 4. Alter normal metabolic pathway |
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Specialized protein that combines with a drug.
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Receptor
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Force of attraction of a drug and receptor.
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Affinity
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Drug's ability to cause the expected response.
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Efficacy
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T or F: The affinity of a drug is directly related to the efficacy of a drug?
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False
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Chemical that is formed from the reaction of a drug and receptor that then is used to complete the efficacy of a drug.
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Second Messenger
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Binding of drug to receptor that causes a drop in number of receptors, resulting in a decrease in responsiveness of target receptors.
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Down-regulation
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Drug cause the formation of receptors.
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Up-regulation
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Drug that binds to receptor and causes the initiated response expected.
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Agonist
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Drug binds to receptor, but does not cause expected response.
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Antagonist
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Drug that binds and stimulates some effects, but blocks others.
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Agonist-antagonist (partial agonist)
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Drug causes a expected effect while also blocking another drug from triggering same receptor.
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Competitive Antagonism
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Drug causes deformity of the binding site that prevents an agonist from fitting and binding.
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Noncompetitive Antagonism
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Competitive antagonist permanently binds with a receptor site and forces body to create new receptors.
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Irreversible Antagonism
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Unintended response to a drug.
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Side Effect
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Correlation of amount of drug to clinical response.
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Drug-response relationship
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Most of the info needed to describe drug response comes from ____, which describes onset length, duration, termination of action, effective concentration and toxic levels.
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Plasma-level profile
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What is the Autonomic Nervous System?
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The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary (automatic) actions.
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Time from administration until med reaches minimum effective concentration.
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Onset of action
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What is autonomic ganglia?
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Groups of autonomic nerve cells located outside the central nervous system.
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Amount of time the drug remains above the min. concentration level
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Duration of action
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Time drug drops below min. effective level until eliminated from body.
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Termination of action
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Ratio of drug's lethal dose for 50% of pop. to its effective dose for 50% fo the pop.
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Therapeutic Incdex
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Time the body takes to clear 1/2 of the drug.
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Biologic half-life
500 cc after 10 min is 250 10 more min 125 |
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8 factors affecting drug-response relationship:
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1. Age
2. Body Mass 3. Sex 4. Environment (behavioral drugs) 5. Time of admin (after eating etc) 6. Pathological state (disease affect) 7. Genetics 8. Psychology (placebo effect) |
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Drug that best demonstrates the class's common properties and illustrates its particular characteristics.
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Prototype
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Nerve Cell
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Neuron
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The nervous system is divided into 2 parts:
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Central and Peripheral
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The Peripheral NS is divided into 2 parts:
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Somatic and Autonomic
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Somatic NS controls ___ or motor functions.
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Voluntary
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Autonomic controls ___ or automatic functions.
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Involuntary
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The Autonomic NS is divided into 2:
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Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
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The two major groupings of meds affect the ___ and ___.
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CNS and Autonomic NS
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Meds that relieve pain sensation.
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Analgesic
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Absence of all sensation.
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Anesthesia
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Agent that enhances effects of other drugs.
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Adjunct Medication
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Opioid agonists simulate the production of ___ to decrease pain sensory.
Prototype |
Endorphins
Morphine |
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2 examples of Nonopioid analgesics:
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1. Aspirin
2. Ibuprofen |
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Prototype for Opioid antagonists to treat respiratory depression due to overdose.
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Naloxone (Narcan)
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4 common Adjunct Meds that are used in the field:
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1. Diazepam (Valium)
2. Lorazepam (Ativan) 3. Midazolam (Vesed) 4. Promethazine (Phenergan) |
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Med that induces a loss of sensation to touch or pain.
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Anesthetic
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Anesthesia combined with amnesia while PT remains conscious.
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Neuroleptanesthesia
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3 systems depressed by anesthetics:
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1. Respiratory
2. CNS 3. Cardiac |
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First anesthetic ever used:
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Ether
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What is an antiplatelet?
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Drug that decreases the formation of platelet plugs
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3 examples of anesthetics used in the field:
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1. Diazepam (Valium)
2. Midazolam (Versed) 3. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) |
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State of decreased anxiety and inhibitions.
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Sedation
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Instigation of sleep.
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Hypnosis
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___ are a state of hyperactivity of a section of the brain (partial) or all of the brain (generalized.)
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Seizures
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___ partial seizures are also called temporal lobe seizures are associated with altered mental status.
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Complex
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Generalized seizures involve both sides of the brain and are also known as ___.
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Tonic-clonic
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Tonic stage presents as:
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Muscle rigidity
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Clonic stage presents as:
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Spasmodic twitching
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___ is life threatening characterized by uninterrupted tonic-clonic seizures lasting more than __ mins or 2 or more T-C w/o lucid period.
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Status Epilepticus
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Imbalance in the neurotranmitter ___ seems to be responsible for most mental diseases.
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Dopamine
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3 mjor diseases treated with psychotherapeutic meds.
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1. Schizophrenia
2. Depression 3. Bipolar Disorder |
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3 Antiseizure meds in the field:
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1. Diazepam (Valium)
2. Lorazepam (Ativan) 3. Phenytoin (Dilantin) |
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TCA is short for ___ an antidepressant.
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Tricyclic
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Bipolar disorder is also know as:
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Manic Depression
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What are preganglonic nerves?
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Nerve fibers that extend from the central nervous system to the autonomic ganglia.
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What are postganglionic nerves?
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Nerve fibers that extend from the autonomic ganglia to the target tissues.
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Explain what a neurotransmitter is?
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A chemical messenger that conducts a nervous impulse across a synapse.
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Synapse that use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter are ------ synapses.
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Cholinergic
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What does adrenergic mean?
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Pertains to the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
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Parasympathomimetic
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Drug or other substance that causes effects like those of the parasympathetic nervous system (also called cholinergic)
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Parasympatholytic
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Drug or other substance that blocks or inhibits the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system (also called anticholinergic)
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What does SLUDGE stand for?
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Salivation
Lacrimation Urination Defecation Gastric Motility Emesis |
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What is the difference between reversible inhibitors and irreversible inhibitors?
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How long they remain bound to cholinesterase.
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Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors have only one clinical function, what does it treat?
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Glaucoma
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What is the prototype anticholinergic drug?
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Atropine
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Atropine is classified as what kind of drug?
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Belladonna alkaloids
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What do neuromuscular blocking agents.
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Neuromuscular blockade produces a state of paralysis without affecting consciousness.
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The sympathetic nervous system releases norepinephrine and epinephrine from where?
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Norepinephrine- postganglionic end terminals
Epinephrine- adrenal medulla |
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Beta-adrenergic antagonists are more commonly referred to as?
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Beta Blockers
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Drugs used to affect sympathetic nervous system.
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Drugs that stimulate sympathetic nervous system are sympathomimetics and ones that inhibit system are sympatholytics.
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In the list of cardiovascular drugs, What drugs fall under category of antidysrhythmics?
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Sodium Channel Blockers (Class I)
Beta Blockers (Class II) Potassium Channel Blockers (Class III) Calcium Channel Blockers (Class IV) |
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Cardiovascular Drugs, What drugs are Hemostatic Agents?
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Antiplatelets
Anticoagulants Fibrinolytics |
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What drug was first used clinically in 1879?
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Nitroglycerin
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What is hemostasis?
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The stoppage of bleeding.
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What is a fibrinolytic?
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Drug that acts directly on thrombi to break them down; also called thrombolytic.
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Main Indications for Gastrointestinal therapy
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*Peptic ulcers
*Constipation *Diarrhea and emesis *Digestion |
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Disease characterized by an imbalance in the gastrointestinal (GI) systems that increase acidity and protect against acidity
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Peptic ulcer disease (PUD)
|
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Most common cause of peptic ulcers, decreasing body's ability to produce protective GI mucous lining
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Heliobacter Pylori (bacteria)
|
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Treatments for the elimination of Heliobacter Pylori (cause of Peptic ulcer disease)
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*Bismuth (Pepto-Bismol)
Antibiotics: *Metronidazole (Flagyl) *Amoxicillin (Amoxil) *Tetracycline (Achromycin) |
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Four types of drugs that block/decrease gastric acid secretion
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*H2 receptor antagonist (H2RAs)
*Proton Pump inhibitors *Antacids *Anticholinergics |
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When stimulated with histamine,they increase gastric acid secretion
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H2 Receptors
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Action and indications of H2 Receptor Antagonist (H2RAs) medications
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Block gastric acid secretions. Treatment for ulcers, reflux, heartburn, preventing aspiration pneumonia during anesthesia
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Four types (medications) of H2 Receptor Antagonist
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*Cimetidine (Tagament)
*Ranitidine (Zantac) *Famotidine (Pepcid) *Nizatidine (Axid Pulvules) |
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Side Effects of H2 Receptors Antagonist medications specifically Cimetadine
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Cimetadine may lead to decreased libido, impotence, and CNS effects
|
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Class of medication that acts directly on K+H+ATPase (enzyme that secretes gastric acids) by blocking it
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Proton Pump Inhibitors
|
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Give 2 examples of Proton Pump inhibitors
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*Omeprazole (Prilosec)
*Lansoprazole (Prevacid) |
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Side Effects of Proton Pump inhibitors
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*Diarrhea
*Headache |
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Alkalotic compounds used to increase the gastric environment's PH
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Antacid
|
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Used to decrease gastric acid by blocking muscarinic agents ex. Pirenzepine (Gastrozepine)
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Anticholinergics
|
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Medication used to decrease stool's firmness and increase it's water content
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Laxative
|
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Name the four categories of Laxatives
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*Bulk-forming
*Stimulant *Osmotic *Surfactant |
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Name two examples of bulk-forming laxative medications
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*Psyllium (Metamucil)
*Methylcellulose (Citrusel) |
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How do bulk-forming laxatives work?
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*Increases fiber
*Increases stool water absorption *Provides food for colon bacteria *Forms softer stool |
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Laxative that decreases surface tension and increases water absorption into feces
|
Surfactant
Example: docusate sodium (Colace) |
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Laxative that increase motility
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Stimulant
Example: Phenolphthalein (Ex-Lax, Correctol), Bisacodyl (Bisacolax) |
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Laxatives that are poorly formed salts which increase fecal water content by drawing in water
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Osmotic Laxative
Example:Magnesium Hydroxide (Milk of Magnesia) |
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Usually a symptom of a bacterial infection presenting with liquid stool
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Diarrhea
|
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The drug of choice when stimulating emesis is indicated
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Ipecac
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Medications used to prevent vomiting
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Antiemetics
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Transmitters involved in the vomiting reflex
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*Serotonin
*Dopamine *Acetylcholine *Histamine |
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Blocks Serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), stomach, and small intestine
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Serotonin Antagonist
|
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Example of a Serotonin Antagonist medication
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*Ondansetron (Zofran)
Treatment for vomitting in chemotherapy Side effect:headache, diarrhea |
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What are the two categories of Dopamine Antagonist?
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*Phenothiazines includes (Compazine) & (Phenergan)
*Butyrophenones includes (Haldol) & (Inapsine) |
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What are the extrapyramidal effects (side effects) of Dopamine Antagonists?
|
*Sedation
*Dystonia (muscle contractions) *Ataxia |
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What medication blocks both serotonin and dopamine?
|
Metoclopramide (Reglan)
|
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Two medications used to aid digestion of carbs and fats and act similar to digestive enzymes
|
*Pancreatin (Entozyme)
*Pancrelipase (Viokase) Side Effects: Vomiting, nausea, cramping |
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Degenerative disease that affects the optic nerve
|
Galucoma
|
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Glaucoma is aimed at reducing what?
|
Intraocular pressure (IOP)
|
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Timolol and Betopic are example of what kind of medication used in the reduction of IOP in Glaucoma patients?
|
Beta Blockers
|
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Isoto Carpine is an example of a cholinergic drug that treats Galucoma by doing what?
|
*Causing miosis (pupil constriction)
*Ciliary muscle contraction Both lower IOP |
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Used in eye trauma or during surgical procedures to decrease pain and sensation?
|
*Tetracaine (Pontocaine)
Local anesthetic of the ether class |
|
Drugs used to treat conditions involving the ear are aimed to do what three actions?
|
*Eliminate bacteria
*Eliminate fungal infections *Break up impacted ear wax |
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Carbamide peroxyde and glycerin are used to treat what type of ear condition?
|
Ear wax
|
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Chloromycetin Otic and Garamycin are common ______ used to treat infections of the ear.
|
Antibiotics
|
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Define Ototoxic
|
Harmful to organs or nerves that produce hearing and balance. Common Ototoxic symptom is tinnitus (ringing in ears)
|
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Name the glands that make up the Endocrine system
|
*Pituitary (anterior and posterior)
*Pineal *Thyroid *Parathyroid *Thymus *Adrenal *Pancreas *Ovaries and Testes |
|
Anterior Pituitary like drugs are used to treat what kinds of conditions?
|
*Abnormal growth:
Dwarfism Acromegaly Gigantism |
|
Hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that promotes water retention
|
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
|
|
Give examples of Antidiuretic analog medications used to treat diabetes insipidus and nocturnal enuresis (bed wetting)
|
*Vasopressin (Pitressin)
*Desmopressin (Stimate) *Lypressin (Diapid) |
|
At high doses, antidiuretic hormone cause what two main symptoms?
|
*Vasoconstriction
*Increased BP |
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Endocrine gland responsible for regulating calcium levels
|
Parathyroid
|
|
Disease characterized by low levels of calcium and vitamin D
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Hypoparathyroidism
(Hyperparathyroidism is high levels of calcium and VitaminD) |
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Endocrine Gland that plays a vital role in regulating growth, maturation, and metabolism
|
Thyroid gland
|
|
Hypothyroidism in children or cretinism manifests itself by which two symptoms?
|
*Dwarfism
*Mental retardation |
|
What are the symptoms for Hypothyroidism in adults?
|
*Decreased metabolic rate
*Weight gain *Fatigue *Bradycardia |
|
Treatment for hypothyroidism
|
Hormone replacement with levothyroxine (Synthroid)
|
|
Typically a result of tumors, this condition causes a larger than normal release of thyroid hormone
|
Hyperthyroidism
|
|
Enlargements of the thyroid gland
|
Goiters
|
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What are the three classes of hormones synthesized and secreted by the adrenal cortex?
|
*Glucocorticoids
*Mineralocorticoids *Androgens |
|
Cortisol is a _____that increases the production of glucose by enhancing carbohydrate metabolism,gluconeognesis, and reducing peripheral glucose use
|
Glucocorticoid
|
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Aldosterone is a _____that regulates salt and water balance
|
Mineralocorticoid
|
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Disease that is characterized by hypersecretion of adrenocoticotropic hormone leading to excessive glucocorticoid
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Cushing's disease
|
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Symptoms of Cushing's disease
|
*Hyperglycemia
*Obesity *Hypertension *Electrolyte imbalance |
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Disease characterized by hyposecretion of corticoid as a result of damage to the adrenal gland
|
Addison's disease
|
|
Symptoms of Addison's disease
|
*Hypoglycemia
*Emaciation *Hypotension *Hyperkalemia *Hyponatremia |
|
Treatments for Cushing's disease
|
*Surgical
*Antihypertensive (Aldactone & Capoten) *Antiadrenal (block synthesis of corticosteroids) |
|
Treatments for Addison's disease
|
*Cortisone replacement (Cortistan)
*Hydrocortisone (SoluCortef) *Mineralocorticoids (Florinef Acetate) |
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Disease characterized by inappropriate carbohydrate metabolism
|
Diabetes Mellitus
|
|
Diabetes that is insulin dependent resulting from inadequate insulin release from the beta cells in the pancreas
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Type I
|
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Diabetes that results from decreased responsiveness to insulin and a lack of synchronization between insulin and blood glucose levels
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Type II
|
|
Diabetes occurring in pregnancy
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Gestational Diabetes
|
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Substance that decreases blood glucose levels and increases cellular transport of glucose, potassium, and amino acids.
|
Insulin
|
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Substance that increases blood glucose levels by glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
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Glucagon
|
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Patients with Type I or Type II diabetes can experience both ____ and _____
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Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia |
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Diabetic Ketoacidosis is treated by a continuous ____ infusion and by frequent blood glucose checks
|
Insulin
|
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Name the three Insulin sources
|
*Beef
*Pork *Recombinant DNA/Human Insulin |
|
All insulin preparation are given through what route, except for regular insulin which is given intravenously
|
Subcutaneously
|
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What is the difference between natural and modified insulin?
|
*natural occurs in nature
*modified are created to increase their action and duration |
|
True or False
Beta Blockers increase the release of Glucagon |
False
They decrease Glucagon release |
|
True or False
Insulin increases potassium uptake by cells and is an effective treatment for hyperkalemia |
True
|
|
Used to stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas in patients with non-insulin dependent diabetes
|
Oral Hypoglycemic Agents
|
|
The four classes of oral hypoglycemic agents
|
*Sulfonylureas
*Biguanides *Alpha-glucosidase Inhibitors *Thiazolidinedione |
|
______work by increasing insulin secretion and tissue response to insulin.
|
Sulfonylureas
Example:Orinase, Glucotrol, Micronase |
|
_____work by decreasing glucose synthesis and increases glucose uptake
|
Biguanide
Example:Glucophage Side effects: Nausea, vomiting, decreased appetite |
|
_____work by decreasing carbohydrate metabolism, which moderates the increase of blood glucose after meals
|
Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors
Example:Precise and Glyset Side Effects: Flatulence, cramps, diarrhea, & distention |
|
____ works by promoting tissue response to insulin making the available insulin more effective
|
Thiazolinediones
Examples: Rezulin Side Effects: None major |
|
Two hyperglycemic agents that act to increase blood glucose levels
|
Glucagon and Diazoxide (Proglycen)
|
|
Solution given intravenously for acute hypoglycemia
|
D50W
Side Effect: Local tissue necrosis if infiltration occurs |
|
The five main groups of drugs affecting the female reproductive system
|
*Estrogens
*Progestins *Oral Contraceptives *Drugs affecting uterine contractions *Infertility Drugs |
|
Estrogen replacement therapy is aimed at the treatment of what condition?
|
Menopause
|
|
Drugs that increase uterine contractions are considered to be what?
|
Oxytocics
Examples: Pitocin & syntocinon |
|
Used to treat Amenorrhea, endometriosis, dysfunctional uterine bleeding
|
Progestin
|
|
Oral contraceptive's main mechanism of action is to prevent what?
|
Ovulation
|
|
Drugs that relax the uterus by stimulating beta 2 receptors are considered to be what?
|
Tocolytics
Examples:Brethine & Yutopar |
|
Oral contraceptive side effects include
|
*Unintended pregnancy
*Thromboembolism *Hypertension *Abnormal uterine bleeding |
|
Infertility drugs are aimed at promoting what?
|
Maturation of an egg
Example:Clomid & Metrodin Side Effects:Ovarian cyst, pain, menstrual irregularities |
|
Testosterone deficiency is caused by what three reasons?
|
*Failure of testes to descend (Cryptorchidism)
*Testicular inflammation (Orchitis) *Testicular removal (Orchidectomy) |
|
Benign prostatic hyperplasia
is what? |
Enlarged prostate
Symptoms:Urinary hesitancy and retention |
|
Treatment for enlarged prostate
|
*Surgery
*Finasteride (Proscar), which interferes with prostate growth |
|
Examples of Drugs that reduce libido (sex drive) and erection/ ejaculation
|
*hypertensive (beta-blockers,alpha antagonists, diuretics)
*Antianxiety/antipsychotic meds (benzodiazepines,MAOIs, tricyclic antidepressants) |
|
Medications that increase libido and erectile ability in men
|
*Levodopa (L-dopa)
*Sildenafil (Viagra) *Vardenafil (Levitra) *Tadalafil (Cialis) |
|
Define Antineoplastic
|
Drug used to treat cancer
|
|
Define Antibiotic
|
Agent that kills or decreases the growth of bacteria
|
|
True or False
Cancer modifies a cell's DNA leading to cellular death |
False
Cancer modifies a cell's DNA leading to abnormal tissue growth |
|
True or False
During chemotherapy only cancer cells are destroyed |
False
Healthy cells are also destroyed but that action is minimized |
|
Agents aimed to kill cancer cells do so by what three actions?
|
*Prevent cells from reproducing (Adrucil)
*Interfering with cell DNA splitting (Mustargen) *Interfering with cell division (Velban &Oncovin) |
|
Drugs in the penicillin and cephalosporin classes, as well as vancomycin do what?
|
They are bactericidal and act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, rupturing the cell, and killing the bacteria
|
|
The macrolide, aminogycoside, and tetracycline antibiotics do what?
|
Stop protein synthesis, preventing the bacteria from replicating
|
|
The azole antifungals like Nizoral inhibit what?
|
Fungal growth
|
|
Name three antiviral agents
|
*Acyclovir (Zorivax)
*Zidovudine (Retrovir) *Indinavir (Crixivan) treatment of HIV |
|
Malaria treatments are aimed at what two actions?
|
*Preventing infestation
*Treating infection |
|
True or False
Schizonticides are drugs used to treat malaria |
True
Examples:Aralan, Mefloquine (Lariam), and Quinine |
|
True or False
Once you are exposed to Tuberculosis you automatically have an active disease |
False
It stays dormant until immune system is compromised |
|
Disease caused by parasitic worms
|
Helminthiasis
Treatment:Mebendazole (Vermoz) &niclosamide (Nicloside) |
|
Disease also known as Hansen's disease, characterized by lesions
|
Leprosy
Treatment:Dapsone (DDS) & clofazimine (Lamprene) |
|
This group of meds interferes with the inflammatory response, reducing pain,fever, and inflammation
|
Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs or NSAIDs
|
|
Name some examples of NSAIDS
|
*Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
*Ibuprofen (Motrin) *Naproxen (Naprosyn) *Ketorolac (Toradol) *Piroxicam (Feldene) |
|
Disease characterized by high uric acid, pain/swelling in joints
|
Gout
Severe cases cause kidney stones, nephritis, and atherosclerosis |
|
Define Pathogen
|
Disease causing organism
|
|
Define immunity
|
Body's ability to respond to a pathogen
|
|
A solution containing whole antibodies for a specific pathogen
|
Serum
|
|
A solution containing a modified pathogen that does not actually cause disease but still stimulates the development of antibodies to it
|
Vaccine
|
|
The immune system consists of. . .
|
*Spleen
*Lymph nodes *Thymus *Leukocytes * Antibodies in Plasma |
|
True or False
Immunity may be acquired actively or passively |
True
Passively: Introduced by injection,placenta,breast milk Actively:Response to the pathogen itself |
|
Immune response that directly attacks the pathogen cell
|
Cell-mediated immunity by T lymphocytes
|
|
The immune process where B cells create antibodies is referred to as?
|
Humoral Immunity
|
|
True or False
Azathoprine (Imuran) acts by decreasing cell mediated immune reaction and suppressing antibodies in transplant patients |
True
|
|
Zidovudine (Retrovir), Ritonavir (Norvir), and Sauinavir (Invirase) are examples of immunomodulating agents used to treat what?
|
HIV
|
|
Name the four fat soluble vitamins
|
A,D,E, and K
|
|
Name the two water soluble Vitamins
|
*Vitamin B Group (B1,B2,B3,etc)
*Vitamin C |
|
Vitamin produced with exposure to sunlight
|
Vitamin D
|
|
Drug overdose and poisoning treatments aim to do what four things?
|
*Eliminate substance by emptying gastric contents
*Increasing gastric motility *Alkalinizing the urine with sodium bicarbonate *Filtering substance with dialysis |
|
What is chelation?
|
Chelation is the binding of a substance with a compound like iron to make that substance inactive
|
|
The Acronym SLUDGE stands for what?
|
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation, gastric motility, and emesis
|
|
What are the two basic types of indirect-acting cholinergic drugs?
|
Reversible inhibitors and irreversible inhibitors
|
|
What is Neostigmine (prostigmin)?
|
It is the prototype reversible cholinesterase inhibitor.
|
|
Muscarinic Cholinergic Antagonists are?
|
Cholinergic antagonists that block the effect of acetylcholine exclusively at the muscarinic receptors.
|
|
Absence of pain.
|
Analgesia
|
|
Neuromuscular blockers affect?
|
Nicotinic m receptors
|
|
List four types of parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors.
|
Muscarinic
Nicotinic Nicotinic n (neuron) Nicotinic m (muscle) |
|
Nicotinic Cholinergic Antagonists block what and where?
|
They block acetylcholine only at nicotinic sites.
|
|
Drugs used to affect parasympathetic nervous system.
|
Cholinergics (parasympathomimetics)
Anticholinergics (parasympatholytics) Ganglionic Blocking Agents Neuromuscular Blocking Agent Ganglionic Stimulating Agents |
|
List classes of cardiovascular drugs
|
Antidysrhythmics
Antihypertensives Hemostatic Agents Antihyperlipidemic Agents |
|
Cardiovascular Drugs, What drugs fall under antihypertensives?
|
Diuretics
Angiotensin II Receptor Antagonists Calcium Channel Blocking Agents Direct Vasodilators |
|
What is a hyperlipidemic?
|
Drug used to treat high blood cholesterol.
|
|
What are the 3 calcium channel blockers most frequently used?
|
Verapamil (Calan, Isoptin),
Diltiazen (Cardizem), Nifedipine (Procardia) |
|
What is an anticoagulant?
|
Drug that interrupts the clotting cascade.
|